General

As hyperventilation progresses, a pilot can experience

symptoms of suffocation and drowsiness.

Aeronautical Decision Making (ADM) is a

systematic approach to the mental process used by pilots to consistently determine the best course of action for a given set of circumstances.

An early part of the Aeronautical Decision Making (ADM) process involves

taking a self-assessment hazardous attitude inventory test.

(Refer to figure 52, point 9) The alert area depicted within the magenta lines is an area in which

there is a high volume of pilot training activities or an unusual type of aerial activity, neither of which is hazardous to aircraft.

To scan properly for traffic, a pilot should

use a series of short, regularly spaced eye movements that bring successive areas of the sky into the central visual field.

What transponder equipment is required for airplane operations within Class B airspace? A transponder

with 4096 code for Mode S, and Mode C capability.

During a night operation, the pilot of aircraft #1 sees only the green light of aircraft #2. If the aircraft are converging, which pilot has the right-of-way? The pilot of aircraft

#1; aircraft #1 is to the right of aircraft #2.

(Refer to figure 51) Which symbol does not directly address runway incurison with other aircraft?

'D'

(Refer to figure 51) When taxiing up at an active runway, you are likely to be clear of the ILS critical area when short of which sign?

'H'

(Refer to figure 51) While clearing an active runway, you are most likely clear of the ILS critical area when you pass which sign?

'H'

In the contiguous U.S., excluding the airspace at and below 2500 feet AGL, an operable coded transponder equipped with Mode C capability is required in all airspace above

10,000 feet MSL

The minimum flight visibility for VFR flight increases to 5 statute miles beginning at an altitude of

10,000 feet MSL if above 1,200 feet AGL.

For VFR operations, the vertical limits of victor airways extend from

1200 feet AGL up to the bottom of the overlying or adjacent controlled airspace.

What is the minimum altitude and flight visibility required for acrobatic flight?

1500 feet AGL and 3 miles.

Except when necessary for takeoff or landing or unless otherwise authorized by the Administrator, the minimum altitude for IFR flight is

2,000 feet above the highest obstacle over designated mountainous terrain; 1,000 feet above the highest obstacle over terrain elsewhere.

(Refer to figure 52, point 8) The floor of the Class E airspace over the Auburn airport (AUN) is

2,239 feet MSL.

(Refer to figure 54, point 1) What minimum altitude is required to avoid the Livermore Airport (LVK) Class D airspace?

2,901 feet MSL.

One leg of your trip will be within 4 NM and 2500 feet AGL of a Class D airport. What should your speed be?

200 knots.

What is the maximum indicated airspeed authorized in the airspace underlying Class B airspace?

200 knots.

What altimeter setting is required when operating an aircraft at 18,000 feet MSL?

29.92" Hg.

What is the minimum flight visibility and proximity to cloud requirements for VFR flight, at 6,500 feet MSL, in Class C, D, and E airspace?

3 miles visibility; 1,000 feet above and 500 feet below.

(Refer to figure 52, point 1) The floor of the Class E airspace above Georgetown Airport (Q61) is at

3,823 feet MSL.

When weather information indicates that abnormally high barometric pressure exists, or will be above ____ inches of mercury, flight operations will not be authorized contrary to the requirements published in NOTAMs

31.00

When operating an aircraft in the vicinity of an airport with an operating control tower, in Class E airspace, a pilot must establish communications prior to

4 NM, and up to and including 2,500 feet AGL

When approaching to land at an airport with an ATC facility, in Class D airspace, the pilot must establish communications prior to

4 NM, up to and including 2,00 feet AGL.

(Refer to figure 52, point 4) The highest obstruction within 10 NM of Lincoln Regional Airport (LHM) is how high above the ground?

662 feet.

(Refer to figure 52, point 5) The floor of the Class E airspace over University Airport (EDU) is

700 feet AGL.

(Refer to figure 52, point 4) The terrain at the obstruction approximately 8 NM east southeast of the Lincoln Airport is approximately how much higher than the airport elevation?

827 feet.

Which type of approach and landing is recommended during gusty wind conditions?

A power-on approach and power-on landing.

When taxiing during strong quartering tailwinds, which aileron positions should be used?

Aileron down on the side from which the wind is blowing.

Which is true regarding flight operations in Class A airspace?

Aircraft must be equipped with an ATC transponder and altitude reporting equipment.

Which is true concerning the blue and magenta colors used to depict airports on Sectional Aeronautical Charts?

Airports with control towers underlying Class B, C, D, and E airspace are shown in blue.

What are some of the hazardous attitudes dealt with in Aeronautical Decision Making (ADM)?

Antiauthority (dont tell me), impulsivity (do something quickly without thinking), macho (I can do it).

A coded transponder equipped with altitude reporting equipment is required for

Class A, Class B, and Class C airspace areas.

When a dashed blue circle surrounds an airport on a sectional aeronautical chart, it will depict the boundary of

Class D airspace.

You are landing at a Class D airport with the tower not in operation. Which of the following airspace rules apply?

Class E surface rules apply, or a combination of Class E to 700 feet AGL and Class G to the surface rules apply.

When departing from a runway that is covered with snow or slush, what could a pilot do to prevent damage to the landing gear due to the conditions?

Do not retract the landing gear immediately to allow the landing gear to air-dry.

Which is a common symptom of hyperventilation?

Drowsiness.

When a pilot recognizes a hazardous thought, he or she then should correct it by applying the corresponding antidote for ANTIAUTHORITY/DONT TELL ME hazardous attitude?

Follow the rules. They are usually right.

What does good cockpit stress management begin with?

Good life stress management.

While on an IFR flight, a pilot emerges from a could to find himself within 300 feet of a helicopter. Which of the following alternatives best illustrates the MACHO reaction?

He flies a little closer, just to show him.

What is the general direction of movement of the other aircraft if during a night flight you observe a steady white light and rotating red light ahead and at your altitude? The other aircraft is

Headed away from you

An airplane is overtaking a helicopter. Which aircraft has the right-of-way?

Helicopter; the pilot should expect to be passed on the right.

When turbulence is encountered during the approach to a landing, which action is recommended and for what primary reason?

Increase the airspeed slightly above normal approach speed to attain more positive control.

Hypoxia is the result of which of these conditions?

Insufficient oxygen reaching the brain.

Which is true regarding the presence of alcohol within the human body?

Judgment and decision-making abilities can be adversely affected by even small amounts of alcohol.

What should a pilot do when recognizing a thought as hazardous?

Label that thought as hazardous, then correct that thought by stating the corresponding learned antidote.

Which procedure should you follow to avoid wake turbulence if a large jet crosses your course from left to right approximately 1 mile ahead and at your altitude?

Make sure you are slightly above the path of the jet.

Which is true regarding flight operations in Class A airspace?

Must conduct operations under instrument flight rules.

(Refer to figure 53, point 3) You are approaching Madera (MAE) airport from the northwest at 1,000 feet MSL, and flight visibility is 1 SM. Should you remain in Class E airspace until entering the traffic pattern?

No, you would have to descend and remain clear of Class E airspace.

To avoid possible wake turbulence from a large jet aircraft that has just landed prior to your takeoff, at which point on the runway should you plan to become airborne?

Past the point where the jet touched down.

Most pilots have fallen prey to dangerous tendencies or behavior problems at some time. Some of these dangerous tendencies or behavior patterns which must be identified and eliminated include:

Peer pressure, get there itis, loss of positional or situational awareness, and operating without adequate fuel reserves.

What is the first step in neutralizing a hazardous attitude in the ADM process?

Recognition of hazardous thoughts.

When operating an airplane for purpose of takeoff or landing within Class D airspace under special VFR, what minimum distance from clouds and what visibility are required?

Remain clear of clouds, and the ground visibility must be at least 1 SM.

Risk management, as part of the Aeronautical Decision Making (ADM) process, relies on which features to reduce the risks associated with each flight?

Situational awareness, problem recognition, and good judgment.

When landing behind a large aircraft, which procedure should be followed for vortex avoidance?

Stay above its final approach flightpath all the way to touchdown.

When a pilot recognizes a hazardous thought, he or she then should correct it by stating the corresponding antidote. Which of the following is the antidote for MACHO?

Taking chances is foolish.

Which is true regarding flight operations in Class B airspace?

The aircraft must be equipped with an ATC transponder and altitude reporting equipment.

An airplane is overtaking another airplane. Which airplane has the right-of-way?

The airplane being overtaken has the right-of-way and should expect to be passed on the right.

Which is true regarding preheating an aircraft during cold weather operations?

The cabin area as well as the engine should be preheated.

While in flight a helicopter and an airplane are converging at a 90° angle, and the helicopter is located to the right of the airplane. Which aircraft has the right-of-way, and why?

The helicopter, because it is to the right of the airplane.

Which is true regarding pilot certification requirements for operations in Class B airspace?

The pilot in command must hold at least a private pilot certificate.

To operate an airplane under SPECIAL VFR (SVFR) within Class D airspace at night, which is required?

The pilot must hold an instrument rating, and the airplane must be equipped for instrument flight.

Which is true regarding flight operations in Class B airspace?

The pilot must receive an ATC clearance before operating an aircraft in that area.

A pilot flying a single-engine airplane observes a multiengine airplane approaching from the left. Which pilot should give way?

The pilot of the multiengine airplane should give way; the single-engine airplane is to its right.

Choose the correct statement regarding wake turbulence.

The primary hazard is loss of control because of induced roll.

Which is true with respect to vortex circulation?

The vortex strength is greatest when the generating aircraft is heavy, clean, and slow.

How can you determine if another aircraft is on a collision course with your aircraft?

There will be no apparent relative motion between your aircraft and the other aircraft.

The pilot and passengers are anxious to get to their destination for a business presentation. Level IV thunderstorms.... IMPULSIVITY

They want to hurry and get going, before things get worse.

The passengers for a charter flight have arrived almost an hour late for a flight that requires a reservation. Which of the following alternatives best illustrates the ANTIAUTHORITY reaction?

Those reservation rules do not apply to this flight.

With respect to vortex circulation, which is true?

Vortex circulation generated by helicopters in forward flight trail behind in a manner similar to wingtip vortices generated by airplanes.

A pilot and friends are going to fly to an out-of-town football game. When the passengers arrive, the pilot determines that they will be over the maximum gross weight for takeoff with the existing fuel load. Which of the following alternatives best illustrates the RESIGNATION reaction?

Well, nobody told him about the extra weight.

While conducting an operational check of the cabin pressurization system, the pilot discovers that the rate control feature is inoperative. He knows.... INVULNERABILITY

What is the worst that could happen.

Which is true regarding flight operations to or from a satellite airport, without an operating control tower, within the Class C airspace area?

You must establish and maintain two-way radio communication with the ATC facility having jurisdiction over the Class C airspace as soon as practical after takeoff.

You are operating out of non-towered satellite airport within Class C airspace.

Your aircraft must be equipped with an ATC transponder and altitude reporting equipment.

(Refer to figure 53, point 1) This thin black shaded line is most likely

a military training route.

(Refer to figure 52, point 6) Van Vleck Airport is

a nonpublic use airport.

Hypoxia susceptibility due to inhalation of carbon monoxide increases as

altitude increases.

(Refer to figure 54, point 4) The thinner outer magenta circle depicted around San Francisco International Airport is

an area within which an appropriate transponder must be used from outside of the Class B airspace from the surface to 10,000 feet MSL.

(Refer to figure 51) The red sign 'D' would most likely be found

at an intersection where a roadway may be mistaken as a taxiway.

Two aircraft of the same category are approaching an airport for the purpose of landing. The right-of-way belongs to the aircraft

at the lower altitude.

At some airports located in Class D airspace where ground visibility is not reported, takeoffs and landings under special VFR are

authorized by ATC if the flight visibility is at least 1 SM.

During a takeoff made behind a departing large jet airplane, the pilot can minimize the hazard of wingtip vortices by

being airborne prior to reaching the jet's flight path until able to turn clear of its wake.

(Refer to figure 52, point 7) The floor of Class E airspace over the town of Woodland is

both 700 feet and 1,200 feet AGL.

(Refer to figure 54, point 6) The Class C airspace at Metropolitan Oakland International (OAK) which extends from the surface upward has a ceiling of

bother 2,100 feet and 3,000 feet MSL.

Rapid breathing associated with hyperventilation would most likely result in

carbon dioxide leaving the body.

Examples of classic behavioral traps that experienced pilots may fall into are: trying to

compete a flight as planned, please passengers, meet schedules, and demonstrate the "right stuff".

To help manage cockpit stress, pilots must

condition themselves to relax and think rationally when stress appears.

A proper crosswind landing on a runway requires that, at the moment of touchdown, the

direction of motion of the airplane and its longitudinal axis be parallel to the runway.

The basic drive for a pilot to demonstrate the "right stuff" can have an adverse effect on safety, by

generating tendencies that lead to practice that are dangerous, often illegal, and may lead to a mishap.

The Aeronautical Decision Making (ADM) process identifies the steps involved in good decision making. One of these steps includes a pilot

identifying personal attitudes hazardous to safe flight.

(Refer to figure 51) When exiting a runways, you are clear of the active runway when you pass

is past the solid-line side of sign 'G'.

A pilot's most immediate and vital concern in the event of complete engine failure after becoming airborne on takeoff is

maintaining a safe airspeed.

When approaching to land at an airport, without an operating control tower, in Class G airspace, the pilot should

make all turns to the left, unless otherwise indicated.

VFR cruising altitudes are required to be maintained when flying

more than 3,000 feet AGL, based on magnetic course.

While taxiing a light, high-wing airplane during strong quartering tailwinds, the aileron control should be positioned

opposite the direction from which the wind is blowing.

Hazardous attitudes which contribute to poor pilot judgment can be effectively counteracted by

redirecting that hazardous attitude so that appropriate action can be taken.

To best overcome the effects of spatial disorientation, a pilot should

rely on aircraft instrument indications.

With regard to the technique required for a crosswind correction on takeoff, a pilot should use

rudder as required to maintain directional control, aileron pressure into the wind, and higher than normal lift-off airspeed in both convectional- and nose-wheel type airplanes.

To overcome the symptoms of hyperventilation, a pilot should

slow the breathing rate.