Genetics Final

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In 1971, cancer was thought to be caused by

Radiation, viruses, and chemical mutation

TRUE

Research has shown that a "cocktail" of several drugs, each acting on a different cellular pathway, is the best approach to treat many cancers.

Restriction enzymes are useful in creating recombinant DNA molecules because they A. generate "sticky ends" by cutting at the same sequence on both strands. B. are found only in human cells, where they naturally mend broken DNA strands. C. are only attracted to and act on DNA sequences from different species. D. are used to encapsulate and transport foreign DNA into cells of the target organism. E. stimulate DNA amplification so that the desired cells or their products can be scaled up.

Sanjay and Indira have thalassemia minor. Their young daughters are dizygotic (fraternal) twins. Malonie has thalassemia minor like her parents, but Jewel has the more severe thalassemia major. The more serious case most likely arose because A. Jewel inherited two wild type alleles from her carrier parents. B. Jewel inherited a dominant form of the condition. C. Jewel inherited two recessive mutant alleles in the beta globin gene that cause thalassemia. D. Jewel also has sickle cell disease. E. Malonie underwent a deletion in the beta globin gene.

Cancer does not typically follow a Mendelian pattern of inheritance because it is usually caused by ...?

Specific Combinations of Alleles/ environmental factors

Spontaneous mutation occurs when A. a DNA base is in a rare tautomeric form as the replication fork arrives, and a mismatched base is inserted. B. a person smokes cigarettes or is exposed to a teratogen for many years. C. the sugars and phosphates in the DNA double helix exchange places. D. thymine temporarily becomes uracil. E. a replication fork stalls.

Sporadic cancers result from A. recessive or dominant mutation in a somatic cell. B. recessive or dominant germline mutation. C. mutation in a sperm or oocyte. D. exposure to a cancer-causing virus. E. lack of a cell cycle in affected cells.

The term "patent thicket" refers to A. genetic modification of trees. B. the fact that many people are requesting genetic tests from their doctors as well as taking direct-to-consumer tests on the Web. C. the backlog at the patent office. D. the requirement for companies that offer genetic test panels to license every piece of DNA or gene that they put into kits. E. the fact that the DNA sequence, exon pattern, SNP pattern, or gene expression pattern of a gene can be patented separately.

The term used to describe the fact that cancer cells have lost the specializations of the cells from which they descend is A. heritable. B. angiogenic. C. oncogenic. D. dedifferentiated. E. apoptotic.

The type of DNA repair that corrects errors due to oxidative damage by replacing one to five nucleotides is A. mismatch repair. B. base excision repair. C. roto-rooter repair. D. photoreactivation. E. repair of the sugar-phosphate backbone.

The type of RNA that carries out RNA intereference is A. tRNA. B. mRNA. C. rRNA. D. siRNA. E. fRNA.

The use of short, synthetic, double-stranded RNAs to intentionally destroy specific mRNAs is called ________ technology. A. knockup B. knockdown C. PCR D. bioremediation E. nonsense

Tiny fat bubbles used to deliver genes are A. electropores. B. phospholipids. C. cholesterols. D. liposomes. E. plasmids.

To create a transgenic organism, the researcher A. introduces foreign DNA into a gamete or fertilized ovum. B. injects a gene of interest into a somatic cell. C. injects a gene of interest into several somatic cells. D. introduces foreign DNA into somatic cells in culture and transplants them. E. uses site directed mutagenesis on the adult.

Traditional cancer treatments include A. prayer and rationalization. B. surgery, chemotherapy, and radiation. C. nutritional therapy and physical therapy. D. monoclonal antibodies and cytokines. E. gene therapy.

cells are actively differentiating, and many structures are forming in a fetus.

Transcription factors account for a greater proportion of the proteome in a fetus compared to a 20-year-old because

Transgenic organisms carry the transgene in A. every cell. B. gametes only. C. somatic cells only. D. the cell in which it was originally introduced. E. viral cultures.

Transgenic pharming uses _______ to produce recombinant proteins in _______. A. cows; milk B. bacteriophage; bacteria C. bacteria; culture media D. fungi; culture media E. viruses; cell culture

Both gene silencing and genome editing techniques are limited by "off-target effects"—doing something other than what we want them to do. T or F

True

In 2010, a federal judge in the U.S. ruled seven patents on the BRCA1 and BRCA2 genes had been improperly granted. T Or F

True

Mitosis in a cancer cell can be compared to a runaway train that is racing along without signals and control points. True False

True

Mitosis in a cancer cell can be compared to a runaway train that is racing along without signals and control points. True or False

True

Tanisha was just diagnosed with an aggressive form of breast cancer called Her-2/neu. The cancer started because A. she has a deletion in the BRCA1 gene that is found in African-American and Ashkenazi Jewish women. B. her affected breast cells have many extra receptors for epidermal growth factor, and so they receive too many signals to divide. C. her affected cells have extra genes for epidermal growth factor, sending signals for the cells to divide too frequently. D. a translocation occurred between chromosomes 7 and 8, generating and activating a breast-specific oncogene. E. fusion proteins dot the surfaces of her affected breast cells, which attract carcinogens.

The cause of p53-related cancers is A. fetal cells that remain in a child or adult, dividing too frequently. B. continual expression of the telomerase gene, which keeps cells dividing. C. deletion of cell cycle checkpoint genes. D. failure to repair damaged DNA, allowing the cell to continue dividing. E. a translocation between chromosomes 12 and 15.

The chance that the average gene undergoes a spontaneous mutation as a result of an error in DNA replication is about 1 in A. 100. B. 1,000. C. 10,000. D. 1,000,000. E. 100,000,000.

The connection between stem cells and cancer is that A. all stem cells are also cancer cells. B. cells may become cancerous by expressing "stemness" genes. C. stem cells rescue cells that have become cancerous. D. stem cells become cancerous if a person smokes. E. both stem cells and cancer cells have inactivated telomerase.

The diets of 250 patients with pancreatic cancer are compared to the diets of 250 healthy individuals, over a four month period. The patients and controls are matched one for one for age, sex, and body mass index. The cancer patients tended to eat more barbecued meat, and none of them were vegetarians. The healthy group included 30 vegetarians and only four of the 250 regularly ate barbecued meat. The researchers conclude that it would be worthwhile to further test the hypothesis that compounds in charred meat cause pancreatic cancer. What type of study is this? A. retrospective B. nutritionally controlled C. population D. multigenerational E. case-control

Natural selection can be used in bioremediation by acting on pre-existing variations among organisms to select those that can detoxify pollutants. Tor F ?

True

A cancer stem cell can divide to give rise to ____?

Tumor cells, abnormal daughter cells, normal cells, stem cells

Genes that normally prevent cell division are ......?

Tumor suppressor genes

The fact that myotonic dystrophy worsens with each generation is due to A. a second somatic point mutation. B. an increasing number of repeated short DNA sequences. C. a transposing tandem triplet repeat. D. family members perceiving their symptoms as worse. E. genetic anticipation.

The field of biotechnology began A. in 2001, when the human genome was sequenced. B. in 1961, when the genetic code was deciphered. C. in 1953, when the structure of DNA was discovered. D. in the early 1900s, when Mendel's laws were rediscovered. E. with the advent of agriculture, about 10,000 years ago.

The first drug produced using recombinant DNA technology was A. insulin. B. streptokinase. C. tPA. D. EPO. E. Viagra.

The first mutation typically detected in FAP colon cancer is A. APC. B. TGF. C. P53. D. PRL-3. E. RB.

The first patent on a living organism was granted in A. 1790, when the U.S. passed patent law. B. 1873, for Louis Pasteur's use of yeast. C. 1900, when Mendel's laws were rediscovered. D. 1953, when Watson and Crick discovered the structure of DNA. E. 1978, when modern biotechnology began with recombinant insulin.

The first single-gene disorder for which the mechanism of mutation was understood was A. cystic fibrosis. B. Duchenne muscular dystrophy. C. hemophilia. D. sickle cell disease. E. diabetes mellitus.

Types of genetic information in a cancer "atlas" include A. the types of foods a person eats and how he or she exercises. B. lists of where people have lived and what environmental toxins they have been exposed to. C. the numbers of each type of nitrogenous base in the genome. D. mutations, gene expression, SNPs, microRNAs, and copy number variants. E. the number of macroRNAs that are activated in a particular tumor type.

Ultraviolet light damages DNA by causing A. purine rings. B. strand breaks. C. pyrimidine dimers. D. radioactivity. E. night blindness.

diabetes mellitus

Understanding the signals that activate pancreatic stem cells to differentiate as beta cells could be used to treat

30. The DNA sequence GATCTGATCTGATCTGATCT is a(n)

VNTR

The mutation that causes sickle cell disease A. occurs in the same gene that, when mutant in a different way, causes beta thalassemia. B. deletes two contiguous DNA bases. C. results in a single DNA base change that does not alter the encoded amino acid. D. changes a valine to a glutamic acid in the beta globin gene. E. changes a glutamic acid to a valine in the alpha globin gene.

The oncogene that causes Burkitt's lymphoma results from A. A translocation that moves a proto-oncogene next to an antibody gene. B. an inversion that places a proto-oncogene next to a transcription factor gene. C. a point mutation in a proto-oncogene. D. a virus that inserts next to a proto-oncogene. E. a deletion of an anti-oncogene.

The parents-to-be were shocked when an ultrasound scan done in the second trimester of the pregnancy showed a fetus with obviously broken leg bones and ribs. The doctor diagnosed osteogenesis imperfecta. This is caused by a mutation in a gene that encodes A. beta globin. B. alpha globin. C. a clotting factor. D. myosin. E. collagen.

The phenotype of a person with alpha thalassemia depends on A. the number of beta globin genes. B. the presence or absence of a sickle cell mutation. C. the number of alpha globin chains. D. the rate of replication of the alpha globin genes. E. whether the person smokes or not.

The polymerase chain reaction is used to A. create millions of copies of an interesting piece of DNA. B. speed the rate of DNA replication in cells. C. make more copies of DNA polymerase. D. copy protein into RNA. E. make RNA in the cell nucleus.

start point of transcription

The promoter of a gene is the part of a gene where RNA polymerase and transcription factors bind, marking the _____.

The requirements for patenting of an invention involving DNA in the U.S. are that it A. be new, useful, and not obvious to an expert in the field. B. be obvious, but no one had previously been able to accomplish it. C. be helpful and affordable. D. be new, useful, and predicted by experts in the field. E. combine DNA from different species in the same cell.

One of the first applications of pharmacogenetics in prescribing drugs is for

Warfarin, a blood thinner.

What innovation has improved on the thermal cycler in speeding PCR? A. layered silicon B. layered DNA C. a new algorithm D. using DNA polymerase from a cheetah E. alternating DNA and RNA polymerase

A proto-oncogene can become an oncogene when ____?

When trans-located to a highly expressed gene

When tumor cell DNA is examined from people at different stages of the same cancer type, mutations that are common to all of them A. act early in the disease. B. act late in the disease. C. acted on an initial cell and then reverted to wild type. D. entered the cells on the same type of virus. E. are there by coincidence and do not mean anything about the disease.

Which addition to a DNA sequence would not cause a frameshift mutation? A. T B. GC C. GCT D. GGCT E. AAAAA

Which approach could be used to investigate distinctions between a muscle cell and a bone cell? A. gene expression profiling B. DNA variation screening C. microarray comparative genomic hybridization D. transcription-mediated amplification E. PCR

An on/off switch and a dimmer switch

Which metaphors correctly compare chromatin remodeling and microRNA function?

Which of the following are required for PCR? A. knowing a protein's amino acid sequence B. primers complementary to the entire target DNA sequence C. the four nucleotides in the proportions of the target DNA sequence D. Taq2 RNA polymerase E. knowing part of the target DNA sequence that you want to amplify

Which of the following disorders does not involve faulty DNA repair? A. xeroderma pigmentosum B. trichothiodystrophy C. ataxia telangiectasis D. Becker muscular dystrophy E. hereditary nonpolyposis colon cancer

Which of the following includes a tandem duplication within the sequence GTCCTTATTCA? A. GTCCCA B. GTCCTGATTATTCA C. GTCCACTTATT D. GTCCTTATATTCA E. GTCCTTATTCAACTTATTCCTG

Which of the following is a transition mutation? A. ACC to CCC B. A to G C. GG to AA D. A to T E. a deoxyribonucleotide to a ribonucleotide

Which of the following is a transversion? A. A to T B. G to A C. C to T D. T to C E. A to U

Which of these are thought to have anti-cancer benefits? A. heterocyclic aromatic amines (HAs) B. cruciferous vegetables such as broccoli C. red meats D. baked potatoes E. fried foods

Which of these would not be used to introduce DNA in animal cells? A. liposomes B. electroporation C. microinjection D. particle bombardment E. a Ti plasmid

Which technique amplifies viral RNA in a patient's blood specimen? A. antisense engineering B. a knockout gene C. a knockin gene D. transcription-mediated amplification E. traditional PCR

Which technique uses tiny needles to deliver DNA into animal cells? A. electrophoresis B. microinjection C. particle bombardment D. electroporation E. bacteriophage bombardment

Which type of mutation substitutes one amino acid for another? A. nonsense B. missense C. sense D. presence E. antisense

Which type of study would compare the incidence of colon cancer among Japanese and Americans of Japanese descent? A. clinical B. population C. prospective D. case-control E. gene expression profile

17. An autosomal recessive disorder strikes 1 in 1,800 newborns in a population. The frequency of carriers of this disorder is approximately

C. 0.045.

6. Which of the choices best describes macroevolution?

C. A new species emerges.

Which of these are thought to have anti-cancer benefits?

C. Cruciferous vegetables

3. Which choice describes a biological population?

C. People living in an apartment building

29. Who invented DNA profiling?

C. Sir Alec Jeffreys

34. Combined DNA Index System (CODIS) is

C. a system for crime laboratories to share DNA profiles.

25. Principles of population genetics must be applied to determine identity based on DNA profiling because

C. nonrandom mating does not occur in all populations.

5. Which of the following would not alter a gene's frequency in a population?

C. random mating

10. In a population in Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium, the frequency of recessive alleles will _____ over time.

C. remain the same

37. In order to identify (or rule out identity) from a DNA sample that is a mixture, the investigator should know

C. the population groups to which the person of interest belongs or belonged.

Cancer cells A. divide uncontrollably and then die. B. are particularly sensitive to extracellular signals. C. divide uncontrollably and are immortal. D. are impossible to grow in culture. E. have an extra set of chromosomes, which keeps them dividing.

Cancer cells are not A. contact inhibited. B. transplantable. C. invasive. D. de-differentiated. E. immortal.

Cancer does not typically follow a Mendelian pattern of inheritance because it is usually caused by A. two gene variants, one dominant and one recessive, and no environmental input. B. specific combinations of alleles and an environmental factor. C. specific combinations of an environmental factor and one dominant gene variant. D. environmental insults and no genes at all. E. genes that cause death before birth.

In _____, people with a serious genetic disorder are not permitted to have children.

China

In ______, people with a serious genetic disorder are not permitted to have children.

China

transcription; translation

Chromatin remodeling can act as an on/off switch for ______, while microRNA binding can block _____.

Chronic myeloid leukemia is caused by a translocation that creates A. a proto-oncogene. B. a fusion protein that acts like a transcription factor, activating cell cycle control genes. C. a protein that increases growth factor production. D. a fusion protein that deregulates the cell cycle of myeloid white blood cells. E. a deletion of a whole chromosome.

Copy number variants A. are extremely are, occurring in only about a dozen sites in the genome. B. are found only in even-numbered chromosomes. C. account for about 25 percent of the genome and number in the hundreds to thousands. D. account for less than 1 percent of the genome and are five or fewer bases long. E. are very common in the genomes of fetuses and infants but are lost as we age.

Which of these would not be used to introduce DNA in animal cells? A. Chemicals B. Electricity jolts C. Particle bombardment D. A Ti plasmid

19. Tay-Sachs disease affects in 1 in 3,600 Ashkenazim births. The value of q2 is

D. 0.0003.

11. If one person in 50 is a carrier of an autosomal recessive disorder in a population, the chance that an unrelated man and woman are both carriers is

D. 1/2500.

32. A suspect's guilt seems highly likely when a very rare combination of markers is

D. found in the population the suspect comes from, in the suspect's DNA, and at the crime scene.

4. The difference between microevolution and macroevolution is that

D. microevolutionary changes are small, and macroevolutionary changes are large.

1. Gene flow is the

D. movement of alleles between populations.

21. Frequency of an X-linked recessive allele in males equals

D. q.

Dana Reeve, the wife of actor Christopher Reeve, died at a young age from lung cancer, although she had never smoked. Her cancer was likely caused by A. a germline mutation. B. two somatic mutations in the same lung cell. C. exposure to carcinogens. D. second hand smoke. E. stress from caring for her husband, who had a spinal cord injury.

a transcription factor stimulates progenitor cells to give rise to exocrine or endocrine cells.

Development of the pancreas in an embryo into a dual gland that has both exocrine and endocrine functions begins when

TRUE

Different disease phenotypes caused by mutations in the same gene are termed allelic disorders.

Direct repeats can cause mutation when A. a person encounters a mutagen. B. homologs misalign during meiosis such that the first copy of the gene on one chromosome lies opposite the second copy on the homolog. C. introns are not removed promptly and their sequences are included in the gene product. D. they bond within the same DNA strand, forming loops that disrupt replication enzymes. E. they jump out of the chromosome and spontaneously invert.

A drug produced using recombinant DNA technology that is used illegally by athletes is?

EPO

control gene expression through chemical interactions that expose parts of the DNA to transcription factors, while shielding other parts.

Histone proteins

Homozygotes for hemoglobin C have A. sickle cell disease. B. a normal phenotype. C. a bluish complexion. D. a black mouth. E. black ear tips.

Some cases of male infertility are due to immature sperm or sperm that cannot readily penetrate an oocyte. For these individuals, fertilization can still be accomplished using

ICSI

A procedure that places an oocyte and sperm in a culture dish, allows a few cell divisions, and then places the resulting very early embryo in the oocyte donor's uterus is

IVF

In 1971, cancer was thought to be caused by A. too little exercise. B. too much chocolate and other sweets. C. radiation, viruses, and chemical exposures. D. oncogenes and tumor suppressor gene mutations. E. a bacterial infection.

In 1975, scientists convened in Asilomar, California and A. determined that restriction enzymes could cut DNA. B. created the first transgenic animals. C. reviewed the use of drugs produced by recombinant DNA technology. D. drew up guidelines to regulate recombinant DNA technology. E. developed PCR for amplifying DNA.

TRUE

In 2010, a federal judge in the U.S. ruled seven patents on the BRCA1 and BRCA2 genes had been improperly granted.

In Ehlers-Danlos syndrome type 1, collagen molecules are A. too short. B. missing. C. too long. D. too scarce. E. too abundant.

In Wilms' tumor, A. heart cells divide as frequently as do cells in the skin. B. being exposed to cigarette smoke in the uterus causes lung cancer in the infant. C. cells in a child's kidney divide as frequently as if they were still in a fetus. D. deletion of the retinoblastoma gene causes an eye tumor. E. cancer develops in the breast when cells have too many growth factor receptors.

In a form of early-onset Alzheimer disease caused by a mutation on chromosome 14, A is changed to T at the first position of codon 146, which substitutes leucine for methionine. This mutation is a _______ and is __________. A. transversion; nonsense B. transversion; missense C. transition; missense D. transition; nonsense E. transcondition; antisense

TRUE

In addition to activated oncogenes and inactivated tumor suppressor genes, epigenetic changes in gene expression are seen in cancer.

In normal differentiated somatic cells, telomerase A. adds material to the ends of chromosomes with each cell division. B. is not expressed and telomere tips erode with each division. C. removes telomere tips with each division. D. is overexpressed and cells undergo apoptosis. E. repairs double strand breaks in DNA.

Individuals with _______ develop numerous skin cancers when exposed to sunlight. A. ataxia telangiectasis B. Cockayne syndrome C. Werner syndrome D. xeroderma pigmentosum E. hereditary nonpolyposis colon cancer

A more recently developed cancer treatment is

Inhibiting angiogenisis

The first drug produced using recombinant DNA technology was ..?

Insulin

Several genes that cause inherited forms of breast cancer have _____ in common.

Interference with repair of a double-strand DNA breaks

_______ places sperm into a woman's reproductive tract to fertilize an oocyte.

Intrauterine insemination

TRUE

Invasive malignant tumors typically contain mutations that affect the cytoskeleton and allow the cell to move from where it is anchored.

Ionizing radiation alters DNA by A. deleting bases. B. removing the nitrogen from the bases. C. kinking the double helix. D. breaking the sugar-phosphate backbone. E. reversing replication forks.

...different versions of proteins that reflect different exon combinations.

Isoforms are

Knockout technology uses a natural process. It is A. DNA repair. B. DNA amplification. C. DNA replication. D. homologous recombination. E. transcription.

Which of these best represents natural selection?

Lactose tolerant alleles are very prevalent in herding populations that drink milk as a staple.

Loss of tumor suppression in a cell usually results from A. cytokine activation of a tumor suppressor gene. B. a translocation of a tumor suppressor gene. C. an inversion involving a tumor suppressor gene. D. a deletion of a tumor suppressor gene. E. activation of a proto-oncogene by a virus.

_______ was the first "test tube baby."

Louise Joy Brown

Recombinant DNA technology is used to create ?

Many copies of specific DNA

Matthew has the inherited form of the eye cancer retinoblastoma. His disease is caused by A. a germinal mutation in one RB allele, and no mutation in the other allele. B. a somatic mutation in each copy of the RB gene in the same cell. C. a germinal mutation in one RB allele, then a somatic mutation in the other allele. D. a somatic mutation in the one of the RB genes in the same area of the retina of one eye. E. activation of the X-linked oncogene RB.

Missense mutations cause large deletions when they A. alter a protein's shape and affect its function. B. alter an intron splicing site so that an entire exon is deleted. C. change a triplet codon that does not affect the reading frame. D. invert a segment of a chromosome. E. create a stop signal.

TRUE

Mitosis in a cancer cell can be compared to a runaway train that is racing along without signals and control points.

... specific classes of proteins and RNA molecules.

Modifiers of gene expression include

Morpholinos are A. short DNA sequences found only in populations that trace their roots to Italy. B. short synthetic molecules similar to DNA that are complementary to splice site mutations. C. used in DNA amplification. D. types of DNA microarrays used to study gene expression. E. a type of recombinant bacteria.

alternate splicing.

Multiple proteins can be produced from a single gene by

_____ maintains deleterious alleles in a population.

Mutation

_______ maintains deleterious alleles in a population.

Mutation

Mutational hot spots occur most often where the DNA is A. unwound and stretched. B. repetitive or symmetrical. C. highly coiled. D. bound by RNA polymerase. E. replaced with RNA in the genome.

Mutations and polymorphisms are both changes in a DNA sequence, but polymorphisms are more common because A. they less severely affect the phenotype, so that individuals can reproduce and transmit them. B. more people have them. C. mutations are always lethal. D. they more severely affect the phenotype, so that individuals cannot reproduce and transmit them. E. mutations refer to a real situation, whereas a polymorphism is an idealized state that biologists hypothesized to explain genetic change.

Mutations are more likely to occur in or near repeated DNA sequences because A. these bases are unstable. B. bases in the strand can form base pairs, generating loops that interfere with replication and repair enzymes. C. the repeats hold onto the replication enzymes, causing base mismatches. D. the repeats attract and bind to mutagens, increasing the mutation rate. E. repeated sequences do not have a sugar-phosphate backbone.

Mutations in microRNAs can explain families who have different cancers but do not have mutation for known family cancer syndrome genes because A. microRNAs are specific to families. B. a single type of microRNA can have many targets. C. microRNAs also serve as oncogenes. D. exposure to different environmental toxins triggers transcription of particular microRNAs. E. they caused reversion of the family cancer syndrome mutations.

Mutations in the lamin A gene are responsible for very diverse disorders because A. different tissues have different variants of the gene. B. lamin A proteins affect how chromatin touches the nuclear membrane. C. many different results occur. D. every tissue type has lamin A. E. they are only active under certain conditions.

Introducing a gene in a liposome through holes bored into the skull is a(n) _______ gene therapy.

NOT: in situ

The liver is a good candidate for gene therapy because

NOT: it has only one function. NOT: it is both an organ and a gland

A difficulty in developing gene therapy for diseases of the nervous system is that

NOT: neurons are located throughout the body.

_____ in the human population reduced the incidence and virulence of tuberculosis in the early twentieth century.

Natural selection

_____ in the mycobacterium tuberculosis population reduced the incidence and virulence of tuberculosis in the early twentieth century.

Natural selection

_______ in the human population reduced the incidence and virulence of tuberculosis in the early twentieth century.

Natural selection

_______ in the mycobacterium tuberculosis population reduced the incidence and virulence of tuberculosis in the early twentieth century.

Natural selection

TRUE

Natural selection can be used in bioremediation by acting on pre-existing variations among organisms to select those that can detoxify pollutants.

Patent law as it pertains to biotechnology has had to change in recent years in response to A. the changeable nature of the genetic code. B. the number of people asking for genetic tests. C. the increasing number of human genes. D. the greatly accelerated speed of DNA sequencing. E. the fact that not as many lawyers are going into patent law.

TRUE

Patented DNA sequences are used in ancestry testing.

People were trying to treat cancer as long ago as A. a million years ago. B. 5,000 years ago. C. 1600 B.C. D. 1900 A.D. E. since the discovery of the genetic code in the 1960s.

Structures used in recombinant DNA technology to carry the DNA from the cells of one species to the cells of another species are ?

cloning vectors

Dana Reeve, the wife of actor Christopher Reeve, died at a young age from lung cancer, although she had never smoked. Her cancer was likely caused by ____ mutation

germ line mutation

A _____ mutation is one that is present in every cell of an individual, including gametes.

germline

A woman has a child using intrauterine insemination. The woman is the child's

gestational and genetic mother.

A woman who has a baby via embryo adoption is her child's

gestational mother only.

_____________ is the protein that signals hunger from stomach to brain in short term

ghrelin

Zach undergoes a sperm analysis and is upset to learn that he has oligospermia. This means that

he makes too few sperm, lowering the probability of one sperm successfully reaching and fertilizing an oocyte.

Many children born with ornithine transcarbamylase deficiency (OTC) die within seventy-two hours of birth. Jesse Gelsinger was not diagnosed with OTC until he was two because _______ and therefore his symptoms were milder.

he was a mosaic

A continuously varying trait is

height in humans

Infertility and spontaneous abortion increase with age primarily due to

higher production of oocytes with abnormal chromosome numbers.

A gene discovery technique that looks at regions of the genome where individuals have the same alleles much more often than expected by chance, because were blood relatives, is

homozygosity mapping

Freezing oocytes has not been very successful because

ice crystals can form in the abundant, watery cytoplasm.

The field of genetic counseling began when the term was coined

in 1947, to help physicians explain inherited diseases to their patients.

For a healthy woman under age 30 with regular menstrual periods and having sex regularly but not using birth control, pregnancy typically occurs

in three or four months.

Introducing a gene in a liposome to carry DNA across the plasma membrane is a(n) _______ gene therapy.

in vivo

A nasal spray for cystic fibrosis patients, which contains adenovirus particles carrying a normal human CFTR gene, is an example of

in vivo gene therapy.

Empiric risk is based on _______ which is the _______________.

incidence, rate at which a certain event occurs

Empiric risk is based on ______, which is the ___________.

incidence; rate at which a certain event occurs

The empiric risk to a family member of an affected individual developing a disorder caused by a multifactorial trait

increases with increasing relatedness to affected individuals

The empiric risk to a family member of an affected individual developing a disorder caused by a multifactorial trait

increases with increasing relatedness to an affected individual

In human populations, Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium is seen

infrequently and in large communities with random mating.

Which of the following would provide the longest lasting treatment for Leber's congenital amaurosis II?

injecting adeno-associated virus carrying a wild type version of the RPE65 gene into affected cells of the retina

Gene therapy for Leber's congenital amaurosis II consists of

injecting wild type alleles of the RPE64 gene into affected cells of the retina.

Bacteriophages can be used as vectors in recombinant DNA experiments because they ?

insert genetic information into Bacteria

Mutation differs from other sources of genetic variation because it

introduces a change, rather than mixing up existing DNA sequences.

CNV

is a repeated DNA sequence that serves as a genetic marker

Heritability

is the genetic contribution to the variability of a phenotype in a population at a particular time

Skin color is not a good way to distinguish "races" of people because

it is but one of many traits that vary within and between human populations

skin color is not a good way to distinguish "races" of people because

it is but one of the many traits that vary within and between human populations

A DNA sequence can be patented if.....?

it is useful

Natural selection can alter gene frequencies in a population because

it maintains alleles that improve survival to sexual maturity.

A social characteristic that can create clines is

language.

The protein that stimulates cells in the hypothalamus to decrease appetite and metabolize nutrients is

leptin

Genes that help to control body weight encode the proteins

leptin, ghrelin, and the melanocortin-4 receptor

Genes that help to control body weight encode proteins are

leptin, ghrelin, and the melanocrotin-4 receptor

Tiny fat bubbles used to deliver genes are....?

liposomes

The "Thrift gene hypothesis" suggests that

long ago, hunter-gatherers who survived a famine had genes that enabled them to store fat

A person who is a heterozygote for G6PD deficiency is protected against

malaria

In an endogamous community,

many people marry people from within the community.

Using transgenic animal models has its limitations because ...?

may not mimic the human condition exactly because of differences in development or symptoms

A cancer's spread is called ___________

metastasis

To date, the most informative studies on how and to what degree heredity and the environment influence human traits have relied on data from

monozygotic twins separated at birth

The number of genes that affect, skin, hair, and eye color is

more than 100

Traits that have both inherited and environmental causes are termed

multifactorial

Which of these affects allele frequencies the least?

mutation

Mutations and SNPs are different in that

mutations are rare and typically have a large effect on a phenotype, whereas SNPs are common and each may contribute a small degree to a phenotype

Deleterious alleles are eliminated from populations by

natural selection.

The population of HIV variants in a person's body changes during the course of infection due to

natural selection.

The requirements for patenting of an invention involving DNA in the U.S. are that it should be .....?

new, useful, not obvious to an expert in the field

The fact that nearly everyone on the island of Sardinia has the same X chromosome sequence indicates that the population has experienced

nonrandom mating

The fact that nearly everyone on the island of Sardinia has the same X chromosome sequence indicates that the population has experienced

nonrandom mating.

The prevalence of a Y chromosome with the same sequences as Genghis Khan illustrates

nonrandom mating.

Average height of college students increased throughout the 20th century because

nutrition improved greatly in that time

Nondirective genetic counseling

offers options but not opinions.

Which of the following contributes to subfertility?

oligospermia

A(n) _______ is a type of cancer-causing gene that promotes cancer by activating cell division at an inappropriate time or place.

oncogene

The fertility drug clomiphene causes a woman to

ovulate more than one oocyte a month.

GWA studies

pepper entire genome with markers, so that every gene would not be expected to contribute to a phenotype

Concordance refers to

percentage of twin pairs in which both express a trait among pairs in which at least one twin has the trait

Rita has been diagnosed with Her2 breast cancer, and is prescribed Herceptin. The approach of basing a drug prescribing decision on the results of a single-gene test is called

pharmacogenetics

Maxwell needs to take an anti-depressant drug. He enrolls in a clinical trial to detect genetic variants and gene expression profiles associated with response to various drugs. This approach to selecting a therapeutic drug is called

pharmacogenomics

A naturally occurring, small, circle of DNA used as a vector to transmit DNA is a ....?

plasmid

The distinction between multifactorial and polygenic traits is that

polygenic traits are caused by more than one gene, and multifactorial traits are caused by one or more genes as well as environmental influences

The distinction between multifactorial and polygenic traits is that...

polygenic traits are caused by more than one gene, and multifactorial traits are caused by one or more genes as well as environmental influences

Studies that implicate the environment in influencing body weight consider

populations that split, with some people remaining in the homeland and others moving to areas where their diet changes dramatically, and they gain a great deal of weight

Macy has BRCA1 breast cancer. Her sister Philene is healthy, but wants to know if she has inherited the BRCA1 mutation that could make her develop cancer. She is a candidate for a

predisposition test.

Antibodies from the male that coat the sperm may impair fertility by

preventing sperm binding to oocytes.

DNA sequences that contribute to polygenic traits are called

quantitative trait loci

The procedure in which fertilization takes place in a laboratory dish and the resulting zygote is placed in the woman's uterine tube is called

ZIFT

________ can usually repair DNA damage caused by ultraviolet light. A. DNA ligase B. Photoreactivation C. Ionizing radiation D. DNA replication E. Chromatin remodeling

For a multifactorial, polygenic trait, the characteristic shape of the mathematical plot of frequency for each phenotype class is

a bell curve

The species naturally affected by Leber's congenital amaurosis II that led to development of gene therapy is

a breed of dog.

In Wilms' tumor the cells in ......?

a child's kidney divide as rapidly as it did when they were a fetus

The gradual change in specific human mitochondrial DNA sequences along a river illustrates

a cline.

The pattern of genetic transmission typical of a multifactorial trait is

a continuous variation of phenotypic expression

Which of the following is an assisted reproductive technology?

a couple conceive using sperm from a sperm bank

An ectopic pregnancy results when

a fertilized ovum begins to develop in the uterine tube.

Fingerprint pattern is inherited, but also affected by the environment. An example of how the environment naturally can alter fingerprint pattern is

a fetus touching the developing toe and finger pads to the wall of the amniotic sac

A small group of islanders leave "island A" and travel to "island B." After several generations on island B, a researcher finds that a large percentage of the population is left-handed. Left-handedness is a relatively rare trait on island A. A genetic event that explains this is

a founder effect.

In the science fiction film When Worlds Collide, 100 individuals are selected to leave a doomed Earth in a spaceship to re-establish humanity elsewhere. This scenario illustrates

a founder effect.

In the science fiction film, When Worlds Collide, 100 individuals are selected to leave a doomed Earth in a spaceship to re-establish humanity elsewhere. This scenario illustrates

a founder effect.

Members of two populations in different parts of the world have the same form of inherited breast cancer. The affected individuals in each population have only one specific mutation, but it is different between the two populations. An explanation for this mutation difference among these populations is

a founder effect.

Chronic myeloid leukemia is caused by a translocation that creates _____ that deregulates the cell cycle of myeloid white blood cells.

a fusion protein

A genetic signature for positive selection is

a gene sequence present in humans and other primates, but with at least one amino acid difference in the encoded protein in humans.

A sharp cline may indicate

a geographical obstacle, such as a mountain.

A cohort study looks at

a large group of people over time, keeping track of specific health conditions or measures

Total ridge count" is

a multifactorial trait that considers the number of ridges in whorls, loops, or arches of the finger pad skin

A typhoon devastates a population on "island A" and only a few individuals survive. Several generations later, the replenished population suffers from several inherited disorders that are very rare in other groups. A genetic event that explains this is

a population bottleneck.

Many alleles cause phenylketonuria (PKU). A unique mutation found only in Yemenite Jews is probably

a result of genetic drift.

Which is an example of a germline gene therapy?

a transgenic plant or animal

Irregular ovulation may result from a hormonal imbalance that is caused by

a tumor in the ovary or pituitary.

In gamete intrafallopian transfer (GIFT), fertilization occurs in

a uterine tube.

People with very light skin have

about the same number of melanocytes as people with very dark skin

People with very light skin have _________

about the same number of melanocytes as people with very dark skin

Which of the following is a vector used to deliver genes in human gene therapy?

adeno-associated virus

Using gene therapy to correct ornithine transcarbamylase deficiency (OTC) would prevent buildup of _________ in the blood.

ammonia

Germline gene therapy would correct a genetic defect in

an affected individual and all of his or her descendants.

Newborn screening using tandem mass spectrometry identifies certain single-gene disorders by detecting

an unusual metabolite or metabolic imbalance.

Growth of new blood vessels in and around tumors is called ___?

angiogenisis

A gatekeeper gene regulates.....?

apoptosis and mitosis

Mendel's laws

apply to multifactorial traits but may be difficult to follow because different genes contribute in different degrees to a phenotype

Melanocytes

are cells that contain melanin

To determine the evolutionary history of a gene, geneticists assume that the most prevalent alleles in a population

are the oldest

To determine the evolutionary history of a gene, geneticists assume that the most prevalent alleles in a population

are the oldest.

Darwin bred pigeons to have particular traits. Today people breed dogs, cats, horses, and other animals for the same reason. These activities illustrate

artificial selection.

Darwin bred pigeons to have particular traits. Today people breed dogs, cats, horses, and other animals for the same reason. These activities illustrate

artificial selection.

DNA of dizygotic twins is

as alike as the DNA of any two full siblings

The DNA of dizygotic twins is

as alike as the DNA of any two full siblings

Rasheed suffers from terrible migraine headaches. This is likely caused by

at least 3 genes and perhaps environmental triggers, such as food

Rasheed suffers terrible migraine headaches. They are likely caused by

at least three genes and perhaps an environmental trigger, such as a food

In 1910, Charles Davenport opened the Eugenics Record Office at Cold Spring Harbor. He believed "feeblemindedness" was

autosomal recessive.

In 1910, Charles Davenport opened the Eugenics Record Office at Cold Spring Harbor. He believed "feeblemindedness" was

autosomal recessive.

A genetic counselor might discuss assisted reproductive technologies with a couple who wish to

avoid one parent's passing on a disease-causing allele to a child.

Which of the following would provide the longest lasting treatment for adenosine deaminase (ADA) deficiency?

receiving white blood cells genetically modified to carry functional ADA genes

Sporadic cancers result from

recessive or dominant mutations

A molecule that consists of a piece of DNA from one organism combined with the DNA from a member of another species is called ....?

recombinant DNA

SNP

refers to a site in the genome that is has a different DNA base in at least 1% of a population

Pharmacological chaperone therapy

restores proper folding to a misfolded protein.

Proteins isolated from bacteria and used in recombinant DNA technology to cut DNA at specific sequences are ?

restriction enzymes

The frequency of the allele that causes sickle cell disease is higher in some populations than in others because

the incidence of malaria differs in different parts of the world.

The fact that the live birth rate from older mothers using oocytes in IVF from much younger women is much higher than from older mothers using their own oocytes indicates that the age effects on reproductive success reflect

the oocyte source.

Enzyme replacement therapy treats

the phenotype.

The coefficient of relatedness indicates

the proportion of genes that types of relatives share

A serious limitation of using a retrovirus as a vector for gene therapy is that

the retrovirus may insert into a proto-oncogene, causing cancer.

The defect in Canavan disease that causes the symptoms is

the stripping of the lipid layer from brain neurons.

A test offered on the Web by a direct-to-consumer genetic testing company genotypes a gene for ability to taste bitter substances. This test is not regulated by the Clinical Laboratory Improvement Amendments (CLIA) because

the test provides information, not a diagnosis.

Genetic disorders such as Tay-Sachs disease, Bloom syndrome, Gaucher disease and Canavan disease are more common in Ashkenazi Jewish populations because

their history includes several population bottlenecks.

Genetic disorders such as Tay-Sachs disease, Bloom syndrome, Gaucher disease, and Canavan disease are more common in Ashkenazi Jewish populations because

their history includes several population bottlenecks.

Mutations and SNPs are similar in that

they can both be changes in a DNA sequence

_____, a recombinant clotbusting drug, is used to limit damage to heart muscle by restoring blood flow.

tissue plasminogin activators

The oncogene that causes Burkitt's lymphoma results from ....?

trans-location that moves a proto-oncogene

A multicellular organism that carries DNA from other species is termed......?

transgenic

"Patients-in-waiting" are false positives whose newborn screening reveals disease markers, but never develop the predicted symptoms.

true

A lesbian couple may use intrauterine insemination (IUI) to have a child.

true

Aminoglycosides may be useful in treating genetic disease by nonsense suppression.

true

Assisted Reproductive Technologies are typically not covered by health insurance.

true

Leber congenital amaurosis type 2 has been successfully treated using gene therapy.

true

Savior siblings born using ARTs have provided needed transplants for ailing siblings.

true

The Genetic Testing Registry of the U.S. National Institutes of Health acts as a clearinghouse to provide information on genetic tests.

true

Unlike cholesterol checks and chest x-rays, the results of genetic tests may have repercussions to family members who share genotypes that can affect health.

true

Lisa and Jack Nash obtained compatible stem cells that cured their young daughter Molly's Fanconi anemia by

using umbilical cord stem cells from a younger sibling, who was conceived and selected for this purpose.

A surrogate mother can help couples have a child when the woman does not have a functional

uterus

One of the earliest uses of biotechnology was........?

yeast to ferment fruit into alcohol

Consanguineous marriages are between men and women who are

"blood" relatives.

The probability of cancer development in the general population is one is _____ people.

1 in 3

Currently in the United States, approximately _______ couples have difficulty in conceiving or giving birth to children

1 in 6

A breast cancer test for HER2 considers A. genotype. B. phenotype. C. gene expression. D. mutation rate. E. receptor diversity.

A cDNA library represents A. all the DNA that comprises a genome. B. all the possible DNA codons used to specify amino acids. C. all the books in a science library that mention DNA. D. all the protein-encoding genes in a genome. E. all the non protein-encoding DNA sequences of a genome.

A cancer cell is injected into a healthy mouse. The mouse develops tumors. This experiment indicates that cancer is A. contact inhibited. B. transplantable. C. benign. D. invasive. E. malignant.

A cancer stem cell can divide to give rise to A. tumor cells, abnormal daughter cells, normal cells, and more cancer stem cells. B. more cancer stem cells only. C. healthy stem cells and normally differentiated cells. D. nothing. It cannot divide further. E. invasive cells and metastatic malignant cells.

A cancer's spread is called A. metastasis. B. malignancy. C. carcinogenesis. D. microstasis. E. oncogenesis.

A chemical or physical agent that causes mutations is called a A. mutator. B. tautomer. C. teratomer. D. mutagen. E. collagen.

A drug produced using recombinant DNA technology that is used illegally by athletes is A. insulin. B. streptokinase. C. tPA. D. EPO. E. telomerase.

A gatekeeper gene A. regulates mitosis and meiosis. B. regulates its own mutation rate. C. can destabilize the genome when mutant. D. releases microRNAs that trigger parts of the cell membrane to open. E. regulates apoptosis and mitosis.

A gene expression microarray has A. an entire genome of DNA, cut into hundreds of pieces, attached to a small plastic or glass square. B. short pieces of DNA of known sequence attached to a small plastic or glass square. C. several human genes sent into bacterial cells, and the cells allowed to divide. D. short pieces of RNA of known sequence attached to a small plastic or glass square. E. amino acids attached to a small plastic or glass square.

A genomic library consists of A. a list of human genes whose functions have been identified and that have been mapped to a chromosomal locus. B. a list of human genes, including SNPs and mutations. C. recombinant bacteria that collectively include several copies of a genome. D. a facility that stores books about genetics. E. a set of DNA probes corresponding to a genome.

A germline mutation passes from generation to generation because it occurs during the DNA replication before A. mitosis. B. meiosis. C. fertilization. D. puberty. E. RNA replication.

A limitation of transgenesis is that A. it only works on very short genes. B. it only works on vertebrates. C. the transgene can insert anywhere in the genome. D. the transgene could disappear before it inserts in the genome. E. it only works within species.

A man and woman of normal height have a son with achondroplasia. They want to have another child, and wonder what the risk is that he or she will also have this form of dwarfism. The risk is A. 0 percent. B. the same as for any other child in the population. C. 25 percent. D. 50 percent. E. 50 percent for a boy and 25 percent for a girl.

A missense mutation causes sickle cell disease by A. altering the protein's shape and affecting its function. B. changing a triplet codon that does not affect the reading frame. C. altering an intron splicing site so that an entire exon is deleted. D. substituting beta globin chains with alpha globin chains. E. deleting the gene for a key clotting factor.

A molecule that consists of a piece of DNA from one organism combined with the DNA from a member of another species is called A. restricted DNA. B. recombinant DNA. C. transgenic DNA. D. bioengineered DNA. E. mutant DNA.

A more recently developed cancer treatment is A. releasing control over apoptosis. B. stimulating telomerase activity. C. stimulating cells to return to a stem-like state of specialization. D. inhibiting angiogenesis. E. replacing the nuclei in cancer cells.

A multicellular organism that carries a specific genetic change in each cell because of an intervention at the fertilized egg stage is A. transverted. B. translocated. C. transgenic. D. transformed. E. transliterate.

A mutation expressed only under certain conditions is A. germinal. B. somatic C. de novo. D. conditional. E. deleterious

A mutation in a collagen gene is likely to affect the phenotype because A. it is extremely rare. B. during meiosis, the chromosome that bears the mutation is more likely to enter a gamete than the chromosome that carries the wild type allele. C. collagen has a very precise three-dimensional structure, so nearly any disruption alters the overall conformation. D. people who use cosmetics with collagen silence collagen genes. E. there are many collagen genes.

A mutation is A. a change in a DNA sequence that affects at least 10 percent of individuals in a population. B. a change in a DNA sequence present in less than 1 percent of individuals in a population. C. a change in a DNA sequence that harms health. D. a type of radiation that can alter the genetic code. E. a substitution of amino acids for nucleotides in the genome.

A mutation is more likely to affect a differentiated cell than a stem cell due to A. skewed distribution of parental versus newly replicated DNA. B. a conscious effort on the part of the individual. C. lack of DNA replication in stem cells. D. skewed distribution of stem and progenitor cells. E. repair enzymes in stem cells that are not in differentiated cells.

A mutation that changes the codon GAA to UAA is a _______ mutation. A. missense B. nonsense C. frameshift D. truncation E. viral

A mutation that changes the third position in a CUU codon to a C would A. profoundly change the protein's conformation. B. result in a frameshift mutation. C. shorten the protein. D. have no effect on the protein. E. also change the first two positions.

A naturally-occurring, small, circle of DNA used as a vector to transmit DNA is a A. plasmid. B. prion. C. liposome. D. lipofectin. E. ring chromosome.

A nonfunctional gene near a similar but functional gene is called a(n) A. pseudogene. B. expanded gene. C. phenocopy. D. transposon. E. psychogene.

A point mutation alters A. a single base. B. 3 bases. C. a chromosome tip. D. a centromere. E. only a purine.

A proto-oncogene can become an oncogene when A. it is shut off. B. it is translocated next to a highly expressed gene. C. it is translocated next to a gene that is not being expressed. D. checkpoints are added to the cell cycle. E. the cell cycle temporarily runs backwards.

A researcher might use site-directed mutagenesis because A. spontaneous mutations occur too frequently to study. B. using a mutagen yields results that are specific to a gene and not applicable everywhere in the genome. C. mutation can happen at a specific site in the genome, compared to a mutagen that might cause mutations in several genes. D. it works in humans but not in experimental organisms or cell culture. E. it can treat genetic disease.

A sign that mutation occurred in a person exposed to radiation in the aftermath of the Chernobyl disaster of 1986 was A. acute radiation sickness in the exposed person. B. short DNA repeats in a child's genome that didn't match the size in either exposed parent. C. increased rates of asthma and allergies in the exposed people and their children. D. a child that failed an Ames test. E. loss of teeth in exposed individuals.

A somatic mutation A. occurs only in microbes. B. affects a particular subset of cells. C. affects all cells of an individual. D. is expressed only in embryos. E. affects sleep cycles.

A source of gamma radiation is A. plutonium and cesium isotopes. B. alpha and beta globin. C. uranium and radium. D. carbon-14 and strontium-70. E. kryptonite and dilithium crystals.

A way that a microRNA can cause cancer is to A. insert into an oncogene. B. insert into a tumor suppressor gene. C. cause a translocation. D. block translation of tumor suppressor gene transcripts. E. duplicate the genome.

A(n) _______ is a type of cancer-causing gene that promotes cancer by activating cell division at an inappropriate time or place. A. DNA repair gene B. tumor suppressor gene C. oncogene D. proto-oncogene E. teratoma

35. To compensate for the barriers to implementing DNA profiling in mass disasters, Sir Alec Jeffreys advises assessing _____ STRs.

A. 15 to 20

8. The allele T is in 85 percent of a population (p=0.85). According to the Hardy-Weinberg equation, what percentage of the population will have the recessive allele t (q=?)?

A. 15%

A. Act early in the disease

12. Which group is used to calculate the frequency of an allele in a population?

A. Homozygous recessives

26. DNA analysis to determine genetic identity applies

A. Mendel's law of independent assortment and the product rule.

27. Which of the following have the longest DNA sequences?

A. VNTRs

22. The parts of the genome that are used in markers of identity in DNA profiling

A. are in Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium and therefore not affected by natural selection acting on a phenotype.

A. broken single DNA strands B. increased likelihood of a translocation C. interference with repair of a double-strand DNA breaks D. attracting radiation from the environment to the DNA, where it causes breaks E. undergoing mutations that form ring chromosomes

33. Mitochondrial DNA (mtDNA) is helpful in obtaining a DNA profile for very degraded genetic material because

A. cells have many mitochondria, and therefore several copies of mtDNA sequences.

13. In a population in Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium, frequency of a dominant allele is

A. p.

24. Researchers began using short tandem repeats (STRs) because

A. shorter DNA molecules were more likely to persist in a violent situation.

14. Hardy-Weinberg calculations are based on

A. the binomial expansion.

7. In the Hardy-Weinberg equation, 2pq refers to

A. the proportion of heterozygotes in a population.

The first mutation typically detected in FAP colon cancer is ____?

APC mutation

1.5

About _____ percent of the human genome actually encodes proteins.

Acridine dyes are mutagens that A. disrupt the reading frame of the gene. B. replace an AT base pair with a GC base pair. C. reverse the polarity of the double helix. D. kill cells. E. change a deoxyribose to a ribose.

Factors that lower the likelihood of success when using IVF include:

Advanced maternal age.

After mutations begin a cancer, other factors that influence whether the disease proceeds include A. how old the person is and whether he or she smokes. B. whether the person has had cancer before, and where in the body it was. C. location of the cancerous cell in the tissue, and how specialized the cell is. D. whether or not relatives have cancer. E. the type of exercise that the person does and whether the diet includes enough fruits and vegetables.

All cancers reflect, at the most general level, a defect in A. DNA replication. B. the formation of mitochondria. C. cell membrane structure. D. the cell's ability to extract energy from nutrients. E. the cell cycle.

TRUE

Allelic disorders may result from mutations in different parts of the same gene.

Genetic modification _______, ________ OR ________ DNA to a cell.

Alters, deletes or adds

An example of a beneficial mutation is A. a mutation in collagen that causes the skin to be extra stretchy. B. the mutation that causes sickle cell disease. C. a mutation in the CCR5 gene. D. a mutation in a cytokine gene that causes an allergy. E. a mutation that causes a person to be neither right nor left-handed.

The process that uses short, synthetic, double-stranded RNAs to intentionally bind mRNAs thereby diminishing gene expression is called _____?

Antisense Technology

Automated PCR machines use a heat stable A. DNA ligase. B. helicase. C. primase. D. DNA polymerase. E. amino acid synthetase.

16. If the incidence of an autosomal recessive condition is 1/3600 live births, what is the carrier frequency?

B. 0.029

20. If the incidence of Tay-Sachs is 1/3,600 Ashkenazim births, what is the heterozygote (carrier) frequency? _

B. 0.033

31. A series of markers have the following frequencies. Which would be the most useful for DNA profiling?

B. 1/5200

9. In a population in Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium, 75 percent of the individuals have a dominant allele for a particular gene (p=0.75) and 25 percent have a recessive allele (q=0.25). The proportion of homozygous recessive individuals in the F1 generation will be

B. 6.25%.

23. VNTRs and STRs differ in that

B. a VNTR repeat is longer than an STR repeat.

28. A common source of DNA for forensic testing is

B. cells scraped from inside the cheek.

18. For a very rare inherited disease, the frequency of heterozygotes in a population is

B. double that of the recessive allele.

2. All of the genes in a population comprise its

B. gene pool.

15. Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium is possible only if the population is

B. large, with random mating and no migration, mutation, genetic drift, or natural selection.

36. DNA profiling was less useful in identifying remains from the 2004 tsunami than in criminal cases because

B. the tsunami left few bodies with collectible DNA.

BRCA1 and BRCA2 mutations A. are X-linked. B. are incompletely penetrant. C. are translocations. D. cause several types of leukemia. E. are in oncogenes.

Bacteriophages can be used as vectors in recombinant DNA experiments because they A. are small and made of double-stranded DNA. B. are circular and easily imported into bacteria or yeast. C. insert their genetic material into bacteria. D. are resistant to protective restriction systems. E. infect human and other animal cells.

The process in which bacteria with the ability to detoxify certain pollutants are released in a particular area is known as?

Bioremediation

Bt toxin-producing plants are resistant to A. fungal pathogens. B. bacterial pathogens. C. herbicides. D. insect pests. E. bacteriophage.

Clines are created when

emigrants remove alleles and immigrants introduce alleles.

Traditional ways of evaluating multifactorial traits are

empiric risk and heritability

Traditional ways of evaluating multifactorial traits include

empiric risk and heritability

Natural selection has fueled the rise in MRSA (methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus) infection by

enabling certain bacterial variants to survive in the presence of many antibiotic drugs.

Natural selection has fueled the rise in MRSA (methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus) infection by

enabling certain bacterial variants to survive in the presence of many antibiotic drugs.

Excess tissue growing in the uterine lining is called

endometriosis

Tyrone has Gaucher disease. He receives recombinant glucocerebrosidase every other week in an infusion to prevent the symptoms. This treatment is an example of

enzyme replacement therapy.

pass from one cell generation to the next but do not alter the DNA sequence.

epigenetic changes

outside the gene

epigenetic means

Control of human reproduction to achieve a societal goal is called

eugenics

Control of human reproduction to achieve a societal goal is called

eugenics.

Performing gene therapy on somatic cells removed from the body and then returned to the body is called _______ gene therapy.

ex vivo

Sheree is referred to a genetic counselor because a cystic fibrosis (CF) test done as a routine part of her prenatal care indicated that she is a carrier of the most common mutant allele. Sheree is stunned, because no one in her family has the disease. She is 26 years old. The genetic counselor would most likely

explain autosomal recessive inheritance and suggest that Sheree's husband be tested for CF.

Which of the following might a genetic counselor do as part of her job?

explain the inheritance of a specific disorder in a family, evaluate risks for relatives, and advise on genetic testing

The cause of p53-related cancers is ....?

failure to repair damaged DNA

"Preconception comprehensive carrier screening" is a battery of tests that detect disorders that arise later in life.

false

In human populations, inbreeding results in

fewer heterozygotes and more homozygotes.

To create a transgenic organism, a researcher introduces ?

foreign DNA

When all individuals in a population with a certain illness have the same mutation, which present-day patients inherited from shared ancestors, it is an evidence of

founder effect.

Geneticists designate heritability as "narrow" or "broad" to account for the fact that

genes contribute to different degrees. Typically, dominant alleles are rare and can have a large impact and recessive alleles tend to be common with minor but additive effects

In a polygenic trait

genes contribute to varying degrees, and alleles have differing degrees of impact

The collection of deleterious alleles in a population is called the

genetic load.

Heritability refers to

the genetic contribution to a phenotype in a population at a particular time

An assumption of twin studies is that

both twins of a pair have had similar experiences

Being obese can raise the risk of developing everything except

brain tumors

Bacteria can influence weight

by affecting the number of calories that we extract from food

A way that a microRNA can cause cancer is to ____?

by blocking trans-location of tumor suppressor gene

Diagnosis of hereditary hemochromatosis cannot be based on the results of a genetic test alone because

the disease is non penetrant.

Heritability of a trait can change because

the environment can change

The frequency of the allele that causes sickle cell disease is higher in some populations than in others because

the incidence of malaria differs in different parts of the world.

TRUE

Pancreatic cancer typically begins 10 to 15 years before it causes abdominal pain and by the time diagnosis usually occurs, it has usually to the point where it is lethal within two years.

_____ is a gene silencing technique that is based on the fact that RNA molecules can fold into short, double-stranded regions where the base sequence is complementary.

RNAi

The number of genes that affect skin, hair, and eye color is about

100

Average TRC for a male is __________ and a female is ________.

145; 126

The first patent on a living organism was granted in......?

1873

Frozen human sperm were first used to conceive a child in

1953

A normal sperm count is ____ sperm per ejaculate.

20 to 200 million

Infertility affects around one in ____ males.

The proportion of shared genes between a grandparent and grandchild is ___ percent

An ejaculate containing up to __ percent abnormal spermatocytes is considered normal.

The empiric risk that the monozygotic twin of a person with cleft lip also has cleft lift is ___ times the risk to a member of the general population who has no relatives with cleft lip

400

A brother and sister share ___ percent of their genes

Genome-wide association studies have identified approximately __ regions that appear to harbor genes that control body weight

Two brothers share ___ percent of their genes

A brother and sister share _________% of their genes

50%

Fertilization is most likely with

60 million sperm cells per milliliter of ejaculate.

Estimates of spontaneous mutation rates are made using dominant disorders because A. it takes several generations for the phenotype to change. B. they do not affect offspring. C. the mutant phenotype is obvious. D. they can be identified by DNA sequencing. E. they are much more common than recessive disorders.

Transgenic organisms carry the transgene in ...?

Every cell

20 to 30

Fetal hemoglobin carries _____ percent more oxygen than adult hemoglobin.

Four children of a man and woman who are second cousins have too few teeth, an autosomal recessive condition called oligodontia caused by mutation in a gene called LTPB3 on chromosome 11. The affected individuals are also short with increased bone density in the spine and skull. The protein that causes the symptoms by affecting certain bone cells is too short. The mutation in this family is most likely A. a missense mutation. B. a nonsense mutation. C. a deletion of 9 bases. D. a duplication of the gene. E. a replacement of all purines with pyrimidines.

Fragile X syndrome is caused by a(n) A. deletion. B. translocation. C. expanding triplet repeat. D. point mutation. E. brittle nucleotides.

A founder effect within a founder effect occurred among the

French Canadians of Quebec.

Which of the following is incorrectly paired?

GIFT; fertilization occurs in a laboratory dish

Palindrome sequences are often found at mutation hotspots. Which of the following is a palindrome? A. AAAATTTT B. ATATGCGC C. GATCCTAG D. GATCGATC E. UCGUGGCCUU

Genes that normally prevent cell division are A. tumor suppressors. B. transcription factors. C. proto-oncogenes. D. growth factors. E. oncogenes.

Genetic modification A. alters the genetic codes so that one species' code is like another's. B. alters, deletes or adds sugars and phosphates in a nucleus. C. alters, deletes, or adds DNA to a cell. D. removes RNA from a cell. E. substitutes entire nuclei to genetically engineer a cell.

Growth of new blood vessels in and around tumors is called A. invasiveness. B. angiogenesis. C. metastasis. D. dedifferentiation. E. apoptosis.

_______ uses a blastomere biopsy to obtain a cell to test for genetic and chromosomal abnormalities.

Preimplantation genetic diagnosis

Protection against inherited prion disorders seems to depend upon A. whether people are heterozygotes at particular part of the prion protein gene. B. whether people have extra copies of the prion protein gene. C. whether people eat food contaminated with toxin from E. coli. D. whether people eat tainted beef. E. whether people inherit a sickle cell allele.

Proteins isolated from bacteria and used in recombinant DNA technology to cut DNA at specific sequences are A. restriction enzymes. B. bacteriophage enzymes. C. plasmids. D. methylating enzymes. E. telomerases.

may be transcribed but not translated.

Pseudogenes

TRUE

RNA interference was discovered in 1998.

Traditional cancer treatments include

Surgery, chemotherapy, and raditation

Synonymous codons protect against mutation because A. the encoded amino acid changes to a smaller one. B. the encoded amino acid changes to a larger one. C. the encoded amino acid does not change. D. they are not nonsynonymous. E. they cause dangerous mutations to be excised and repaired.

38. Capillary electrophoresis is a technique used to separate DNA pieces.

TRUE

39. Familial DNA search was used in the case of California's "Grim Sleeper."

TRUE

40. In a familial DNA search, DNA from a crime scene is compared to DNA in databases from convicted felons, and if nearly half the CODIS sites match, a first-degree relative of the convict becomes a suspect.

TRUE

41. DNA on a glove left at the crime scene is an example of primary DNA transfer.

TRUE

42. Familial DNA searches are controversial since innocent people may be accused based on sharing CODIS markers with convicted felons.

TRUE

All cancers reflect, at the most general level, a defect in ...?

cell cycle

Resistance of sickle cell disease carriers to malaria illustrates

balanced polymorphism.

A retrovirus is given a functional version of a gene that a patient lacks and used to infect the patient's skin cells growing in culture. Skin is grown from the altered cells and grafted onto the patient. If all works well, the graft will

be accepted and secrete the inserted gene's protein product.

Courts allow patenting complementary DNA (cDNA). Why ?

because the exact sequence is not in the genome of an organism

Restriction enzymes are useful in creating recombinant DNA molecules. Why ?

because they generate sticky ends

For a multifactorial, polygenic trait, the characteristic shape of the mathematical plot of frequency phenotype class is a

bell curve

Multifactorial traits include

both single gene and polygenic traits

Dermatoglyphics

compares the # of ridges that comprise fingerprint pattern

If a trait has a large inherited component, then concordance among monozygotic twins will be

considerably higher than that of dizygotic twins

Cancer cells are not

contact inhibited

The pattern of genetic transmission typical of a multifactorial trait is

continuous variation of phenotypic expression

Which of the following techniques is most likely to lead to heteroplasmy?

cytoplasmic donation

One of the most important types of information that a patient can bring to an initial appointment with a genetic counselor is

the family health history, extending to second degree relatives.

The term used to describe the fact that cancer cells have lost the specializations of the cells from which they descend is _____?

dedifferentiated

Loss of tumor suppression in a cell usually results from _____ of a tumor suppressor gene.

deletion/mutation

Polygenic traits are

determined by more than one gene

Balanced polymorphism explains why carriers of cystic fibrosis are relatively resistant to

diarrheal illness

Balanced polymorphism explains why carriers of cystic fibrosis are relatively resistant to

diarrheal illness.

Newborn screening reveals that newborn Jessica has inherited PKU. Her parents are distraught at the diagnosis, but a nutritionist explains that Jessica can be treated, right away. The treatment for PKU is

dietary.

The type of RNA that carries out RNA interference is...?

double stranded RNA

In a case-control study

each individual in 1 group is matched to an individual in another group who shares as many characteristics as possible

Preimplantation genetic diagnosis (PGD) screens _______ for genetic disorders.

early embryos

A woman who is infertile because she lacks ovaries would benefit most from

embryo adoption.

Darwin thought that all natural selection was negative. However, we have since learned that positive selection is a powerful force, and it

retains gene variants or combinations that promote successful reproduction.

In Darwin's time, natural selection was thought to be primarily negative. However, we have since learned that positive selection is a powerful force, and it

retains gene variants or combinations that promote successful reproduction.

Sperm may be "washed" prior to intrauterine insemination to remove

seminal fluid to prevent irritation of the woman's tissues.

Adenosine deaminase (ADA) deficiency results in

severe combined immune deficiency.

A founder effect occurs when

small groups of individuals leave a population to start their own.

A gene expression microarray has?

small pieces of DNA (oligonucleotides)

Nonheritable gene therapy is performed on _______ cells.

somatic

A patient received bone marrow modified by an adeno-associated virus (AAV) carrying the human gene that encodes an enzyme her body could not make. This is an example of

somatic gene therapy.

Reginald receives a stem cell transplant to treat a blood cancer, multiple myeloma. His treatment is an example of

somatic gene therapy.

A founder effect occurs when

some individuals leave a larger group.

In humans, heritability of a club foot is 0.8. This means that expression of this condition is

strongly dependent on inheritance of the clubfoot gene(s) but also influenced by environmental factors

In humans, heritability of clubfoot is 0.8. This means that expression of this condition is

strongly dependent on inheritance of the clubfoot gene(s) but also influenced by environmental factors

Morpholinos are ?

synthetic molecules that consist of 25 DNA bases attached to organic groups.

Genetic counseling to help patients with Huntington disease in their families decide if they wish to be tested generally

takes several months.

Darnell and Tinaka are each carriers of an autosomal recessive disorder that is lethal in early childhood. They want to have a child who is free of the disease, so they have preimplantation genetic diagnosis. Unfortunately, their child has the disease. A scientific explanation is that

the blastomere that was tested had undergone a somatic mutation, making it not representative of the rest of the embryo.

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