GERD

A patient reports frequent heartburn twice a week for the past 4 months. What other symptoms reported by the patient may indicate the patient has GERD? SELECT-ALL-THAT-APPLY: A. Bitter taste in mouth B. Dry cough C. Melena D. Difficulty swallowing E. Smooth, red tongue F. Murphy's Sign

ABD

During a home health visit, you are helping a patient develop a list of foods they should avoid due to GERD. Which items in the patient's pantry should be avoided? SELECT-ALL-THAT-APPLY: A. Hot and Spicy Pork Rinds B. Peppermint Patties C. Green Beans D. Tomato Soup E. Chocolate Fondue F. Almonds G. Oranges

ABDEG

Which of the following drugs is a histamine blocker and reduces levels of gastric acid? A. Omeprazole (Prilosec) B. Metoclopramide (Reglan) C. Cimetidine (Tagamet) D. Magnesium Hydroxide (Maalox)

Answer C, Cimetidine bind to H2 in the tissue and decreases the production of gastric acid

A client receives a local anesthetic to suppress the gag reflex for a diagnostic procedure of the upper GI tract. Which of the following nursing interventions is advised for this patient? a The client should be monitored for any breathing related disorder or discomforts b) The client should not be given any food and fluids until the gag reflex returns, c. The client should be monitored for cramping or abdominal distention, d) The client's fluid output should be measured for at least 24 hours after the procedure

ANSWER: B For a client receiving a local anesthetic that suppresses the gag reflex, the nurse is advised to withhold food and fluids until the reflex returns

The client with hiatal hernia chronically experiences heartburn following meals. The nurse plans to teach the client to avoid which action because it is contraindicated with a hiatal hernia? 1. Lying recumbent following meals. 2. Taking in small, frequent bland meals. 3. Raising the head of the bed on 6-inch block. 4. Taking H2-receptor antagonist medication

Answer 1,Hiatal hernia is caused by a protrusion of a portion of the stomach above the diaphragm where the esophagus is normally positioned. he client usually experiences pain from reflux caused by ingestion of irritating foods, lying flat following meals or at night, and eating large or fatty meals. Option 2-4, and actually elevating the thorax after a meal, provide relief

The nurse is reviewing the medication record of a female client with acute gastritis. Which medication, if noted on the client's record, would the nurse question? a. Digoxin (Lanoxin) b. Furosemide (Lasix) c. Indomethacin (Indocin) d. Propranolol hydrochloride (Inderal)

Answer is C, Indomethacin (Indocin) is a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug and can cause ulceration of the esophagus, stomach, or small intestine. Indomethacin is contraindicated in a client with gastrointestinal disorders. Furosemide (Lasix) is a loop diuretic. Digoxin is a cardiac medication. Propranolol (Inderal) is a β-adrenergic blocker. Furosemide, digoxin, and propranolol are not contraindicated in clients with gastric disorders

After dinner time, during hourly rounding, a patient awakes to report they feel like "food is coming up" in the back of their throat and that there is a bitter taste in their mouth. What nursing intervention will you perform next? A. Perform deep suctioning B. Assist the patient into the Semi-Fowler's position C. Keep the patient NPO D. Instruct the patient to avoid milk products

B

The nurse determines that a patient has experienced the beneficial effects of medication therapy with famotidine (Pepcid) when which of the following symptoms is relieved? 1. Ice tea 2. Dry toast 3. warm broth 4. plain hamburger

B) Dry toast (Dry toast or crackers may alleviate the feeling of nausea and prevent further vomiting. Extremely hot or cold liquids and fatty foods are generally not well tolerated

A patient is taking Bethanechol "Urecholine" for treatment of GERD. This is known as what type of drug? A. Proton-pump inhibitor B. Histamine receptor blocker C. Prokinetic D. Mucosal Healing Agent

C

Your patient, who is presenting with signs and symptoms of GERD, is scheduled to have a test that assesses the function of the esophagus' ability to squeeze food down into the stomach and the closer of the lower esophageal sphincter. The patient asks you, "What is the name of the test I'm having later today?" You tell the patient the name of the test is: A. Lower Esophageal Gastrointestinal Series B. Transesophageal echocardiogram C. Esophageal manometry D. Esophageal pH monitoring

C

The results of a patient's recent endoscopy indicate the presence of peptic ulcer disease (PUD). Which of the following teaching points should the nurse provide to the patient in light of his new diagnosis? A. You'll need to drink at least two to three glasses of milk daily. B."It would likely be beneficial for you to eliminate drinking alcohol." C. Many people find that a minced or pureed diet eases their symptoms of PUD. D. Your medications should allow you to maintain your present diet while minimizing symptoms

CORRECT ANSWER: B Although there is no specific recommended dietary modification for PUD, most patients find it necessary to make some sort of dietary modifications to minimize symptoms. Milk may exacerbate PUD and alcohol is best avoided because it can delay healing

The male client tells the nurse he has been experiencing "heartburn" at night that awakens him. Which assessment question should the nurse ask? A. How much weight have you gained recently? B. What have you done to alleviate the heartburn? C. Do you consume many milk and dairy products? D Have you been around anyone with a stomach virus

Correct answer is B,Most clients with GERD have been self medicating with over-the counter medications prior to seeking advice from a healthcare provider. It is important to know what the client has been using to treat the problem

The teaching plan for the patient being discharged following an acute episode of upper GI bleeding will concern information concerning the importance of (select all that apply) a. only taking aspirin with milk or bread products b. avoiding taking aspirin and drugs containing aspirin c. taking only drugs prescribed by the health care provider d. taking all drugs 1 hour before mealtime to prevent further bleeding e. reading all OTC drug labels to avoid those containing stearic acid and calcium

Correct answers: b, c Rationale: Before discharge, the patient with upper gastrointestinal (GI) bleeding and the caregiver should be taught how to avoid future bleeding episodes. Ulcer disease, drug or alcohol abuse, and liver and respiratory diseases can cause upper GI bleeding. Help make the patient and caregiver aware of the consequences of noncompliance with drug therapy. Emphasize that no drugs (especially aspirin and nonsteroidal antiinflammatory drugs [NSAIDs]) other than those prescribed by the health care provider should be taken. Smoking and alcohol should be eliminated because they are sources of irritation and interfere with tissue repair.

After providing education to a patient with GERD. You ask the patient to list 4 things they can do to prevent or alleviate signs and symptoms of GERD. Which statement is INCORRECT? A. "It is best to try to consume small meals throughout the day than eat 3 large ones." B. "I'm disappointed that I will have to limit my intake of peppermint and spearmint because I love eating those types of hard candies." C. "It is important I avoid eating right before bedtime." D. "I will try to lie down after eating a meal to help decrease pressure on the lower esophageal sphincter."

D

Which of the following does NOT play a role in the development of GERD? A. Pregnancy B. Hiatal hernia C. Usage of antihistamines or calcium channel blockers D. All the above play a role in GERD

D

"The nurse is caring for a 68 year old patient admitted with abdominal pain, nausea, and vomiting. The patient has an abdominal mass and a bowel obstruction is suspected. The nurse auscultating the abdomen listens for which of the following types of bowel sounds that is consistent with the patient's clinical picture? A. low pitched and rumbling above the area of obstruction B. High pitched and hypoactive below the area of obstruction C. low pitched and hyperactive below the area of obstruction D. high pitched and hyperactive above the area of obstruction

D. Early in intestinal obstruction, the patient's bowel sounds are hyperactive adn high pitched. This occurs because peristaltic action increases to "push past" the area of obstruction. As the obstruction becomes complete, bowel sounds decrease and finally become absent

The nurse explains to the patient with gastroesophageal reflux disease that this disorder: A. results in acid erosion and ulceration of the esophagus caused by frequent vomiting, B. will require surgical wrapping or repair of the pyloric sphincter to control the symptoms, C. is the protrusion of a portion of the stomach into to esophagus through an opening in the diaphragm, D. often involves relaxation of the lower esophageal sphincter, allowing stomach contents to back up into the espophagus

D. The acidic contents of the stomach touching the inside of the esophagus are responsible for the physical sensation known as "heart-burn" that is a cardinal symptom of GERD

The nurse teaches the client about an anti-ulcer diet. Which of the following statements by the client indicates to the nurse that dietary teaching was successful? 1. "I must eat bland foods to help my stomach heal." 2. "I can eat most foods, as long as they don't bother my stomach." 3. "I cannot eat fruits and vegetables because they cause too much gas." 4. "I should eat a low-fiber diet to delay gastric emptying -

The answer is 2.

Which of the following dietary measures would be useful in preventing Esophageal reflux? 1. Eating small, frequent meals 2. increasing fluid intake 3. avoiding air swallowing with meals 4. Adding a bedtime snack to the dietary plan

1. Esophageal reflux worsens when the stomach is over-distended with food. Therefore, an important measure is to eat small,frequent meals.

The client attends two sessions with the dietitian to learn about diet modifications to minimize GERD. The teaching would be considered successful if the client decreases the intake of which of the following foods? 1. fats 2. high-sodium foods 3. Carbohydrates 4. high calcium foods

1. Fats are associated with decreased esophageal sphincter tone.

The client with GERD has a chronic cough. This symptom may be indicative of which of the following? 1. Development of laryngeal cancer 2. Irritation of the esophagus 3. Esophageal scar tissue formation 4. Aspiration of gastric contents

4. Clients with GERD can develop pulmonary symptoms such as coughing, wheezing, and dyspnea, that are caused by the aspiration of gastric contents.

The nurse is obtaining a health history from a client who has a sliding hiatal hernia associated with reflux. The nurse should ask the client about the presence of which of the following symptoms? 1. Heartburn 2. Jaundice 3. Anorexia 4. Stomatitis

1. Heartburn, the most common symptom of a sliding hiatal hernia , results from reflux of gastric secretions into the esophagus. Regurgitation of gastric contents and dysphagia are other common symptoms.

Which assessment data support the client's diagnosis of gastric ulcer? 1. Presence of blood in the client's stool for the past month. 2.Complaints of a burning sensation that moves like a wave. 3.Sharp pain in the upper abdomen after eating a heavy meal. 4.Comparison of complaints of pain with ingestion of food and sleep

"1. The presence of blood does not specifically indicate diagnosis of an ulcer. The client could have hemorrhoids or cancer that would result in the presence of blood. 2. A wavelike burning sensation is a symptom of gastroesophageal reflus. 3. Sharp pain in the upper abdomen after eating a heavy meal is a symptom of gallbladder disease. 4. (CORRECT) In a client diagosed with a gastric ulcer, pain usually occurs 30-60 minutes after eating, but not at night. In contrast, a client with duodenal ulcer has pain durin ghte night that is often relieved by eating food. Pain occurs 1-3 hours after meals

The client is scheduled to have an upper GI tract series of x-rays. Following the x-rays, the nurse should instruct the client to: 1. Take a laxative 2. follow a clear liquid diet 3. Administer an enema 4. Take an antiemetic

1. The client should take a laxative after an upper GI series to stimulate a bowel movement. This examination involves the administration of barium, which must be promptly eliminated from the body because it may harden and cause an obstruction.

The physician prescribes metoclopramide hyrochloide (Reglan) for the client with a hiatal hernia. This drug is used in hiatal hernia therapy to accomplish which of the following objectives? 1. Increase tone of the esophageal sphincter 2. Neutralize gastric secretions 3. delay gastric emptying 4. reduce secretion of digestive juices

1. This medicaiton increases esophageal sphincter tone and facilitates gastric emptying; both actions reduce the incidence of reflux.

The results of a patient's recent endoscopy indicate the presence of peptic ulcer disease (PUD). Which of the following teaching points should the nurse provide to the patient in light of his new diagnosis? A) "You'll need to drink at least two to three glasses of milk daily." B) "It would likely be beneficial for you to eliminate drinking alcohol." C) "Many people find that a minced or pureed diet eases their symptoms of PUD." D) "Your medications should allow you to maintain your present diet while minimizing symptoms

2 Alcohol increases the amount of stomach acid produced so it should be avoided. Milk may exacerbate PUD, so two to three glasses would not be recommended. There is no reason to puree or mince food, and a current diet is likely to be altered to minimize symptoms.

"Which of the following types of gastritis is associated with Helicobacter pylori and duodenal ulcers? 1. Erosive (hemorrhagic) gastritis 2. Fundic gland gastritis (type A) 3. Antral gland gastritis (type B) 4.Aspiring-induced gastric ulcer

3 - Erosive (hemorrhagic) gastritis can be caused by ingestion of substances that irritate the gastric mucosa. Fundic gland gastritis (type A) is associated with diffuse severe mucosal atrophy and the presence of pernicious anemia. Antral gland gastritis (type B) is the most common form of gastritis, and is associated with Helicobacter pylori and duodenal ulcers

The nurse is planning the care of a client diagnosed with lower esophageal sphincter dysfunction. Which dietary modifications should be included in the plan of care? 1. Allow any of the client's favorite foods as long as the amount is limited. 2. Have the client perform eructation exercises several times a day. 3. Eat four (4) to six (6) small meals a day and limit fluids during mealtimes. 4. Encourage the client to consume a glass of red wine with one (1) meal a day

3. Clients should eat small, frequent meals and limit fluids with the meals to prevent reflux into the esophagus from a distended stomach.

The client has been taking magnesium hydroxide (milk of magnesia) to control hiatal hernia symptoms. The nurse should assess the client for which of the following conditions most commonly associated with the ongoing use of magnesium based antacids? 1. anorexia 2. weight gain 3. diarrhea 4. constipation

3. The magnesium salts in magnesium hydroxide are related to those found in laxatives and may cause diarrhea.

A client who has been diagnosed with GERD has heartburn. To decrease the heartburn, the nurse should instruct the client to eliminate which of the following items from the diet? 1. Lean beef 2. Air-popped popcorn 3. Hot chocolate 4. Raw vegetables

3. With GERD, eating substances that decrease lower esophageal sphincter pressure causes heartburn. A decrease in the lower esophageal sphincter pressure allows gastric contents to reflux into the lower end of the esophagus. Foods that can cause a decrease in esophageal sphincter pressure include fatty foods, chocolate, caffeinated beverages, peppermint, and alcohol.

When assessing the client with the diagnosis of peptic ulcer disease, which physical examination should the nurse implement first? 1. Auscultate the client's bowel sounds in all four quadrants. 2.Palpate the abdominal area for tenderness. 3.Percuss the abdominal borders to identify organs. 4.Assess the tender area progressing to nontender

Correct answer: #1. Auscultation should be used prior to palpa-tion or percussion when assessing the abdomen. If the nurse manipulates the abdomen, the bowel sounds can be altered and give false information

The client with a hiatal hernia chronically experiences heartburn following meals. The nurse plans to teach the client to avoid which action because it is contraindicated with hiatal hernia? 1. Lying recumbent following meals 2. Taking in small, frequent, bland meals 3. Raising the head of the bed on 6-inch blocks 4. Taking H2-receptor antagonist medication

Correct answer: 1 Laying recumbant following meals or at night will cause reflux and pain. Relief is usually achieved with the intake of small, bland meals, use of H2 receptor antagonists and antacids, and elevation of the thorax after meals and during sleep

Which of the following types of gastritis ic associated with Helicobacter pylori and duodenal ulcers? 1. Erosive (hemorrhagic) gastritis 2. Fundic gland gastritis (type A) 3. Antral gland gastritis (type B) 4. Aspiring-induced gastric ulcer

Correct answer: 3. Antral gland gastritis ( type B). Rationale: Antral gland gastritis is the most common form of gastritis and is associated with Helicobacter pylori and duodenal ulcers

The nurse is teaching the patient a client with a peptic ulcer discharge instructions. The client asks the nurse which type of analgesic he may take. Which of the following responses by the nurse would be most accurate? 1. Aspirin 2. Acetaminophen 3. Naproxen 4. Ibuprofen

2.Acetaminophen is recommended for pain relief because it does no promote irritation of the mucosa. Aspirin, and nonsteroidal anti- inflammatory drugs suchs as naproxen and ibuprofen, may cause irritation of the mucosa and subsequent bleeding

You're collecting a patient's medication history that has GERD. Which medication below is NOT typically used to treat GERD? A. Colesevelam "Welchol" B. Omeprazole "Prilosec" C. Metoclopramide "Reglan" D. Ranitidine HCL "Zantac"

A

A client is taking cemetidine (Tagament) to treat a hiatal herna. The nurse should evaluate the client to determine that the drug has been effective in preventing which of the following? 1. esophageal reflux 2. dysphagia 3. esophagitis 4. ulcer formation

A histamine receptor blocker that decreases the quantity of gastric secretions. It may be used in hiatal hernia therapy to prevent or treat the esophagitis and heartburn associated with reflux.

Which assessment data support to the the nurse the client's diagnosis of gastric ulcer? A. Presence of blood in the client's stool for the past month? B. Reports of a burning sensation moving like a wave. C. Sharp pain in the upper abdomen after eating a heavy meal. D. Complaints of epigastric pain 30-60 minutes after ingesting food

- Answer: D In a client diagnosed with a gastric ulcer, pain usually occurs 30-60 minutes after eating, but not at night. In contrast, a client with a duodenal ulcer has pain during the night often relieved by eating foods. Other answers: the presence of blood does not specifically indicate diagnose of an ulcer. The client could have hemorrhoids or cancer. A waveline burning sensation is a symptom of GERD. Sharp pain in the upper abdomen after eating a heavy meal is a symptom of gallbladder disease

The nurse instructs the client on health maintenance activities to help control symptoms from a hiatal hernia. Which of the following statements would indicate that the client has understood the instructions? 1. "I'll avoid lying down after a meal." 2. "I can still enjoy my potato chips and cola at bedtime." 3. "I wish I didn't have to give up swimming." 4. "If I wear a girdle, I'll have more support for my stomach."

1. A client with a hiatal hernia should avoid the recumbent position immediately after meals to minimize gastric reflux. Bedtime snacks, as well as high fat foods and carbonated beverages should be avoided.

Which of the following factors would most likely contribute to the development of a client's hiatal hernia? 1. having a sedentary desk job 2. being 5 feet, 3 inches tall and weighing 190 lbs 3. using laxatives frequently 4. being 40 years old

2. Any factor that increases intra-abdominal pressure, such as obesity, can contribute to the development of hiatal hernia. Other factors include abdominal straining, frequent heavy lifting, and pregnancy. Hiatal hernia is also associated with older age and occurs in women more frequently than in men.

In developing a teaching plan for the client with a hiatal hernia, the nurses assessment of which work-related factors would be most useful? 1. number and length of breaks 2. body mechanics used in lifting 3. temperature in the work area 4. Cleansing solvents used

2. Bending, especially after eating, can cause GERD. Lifting heavy objects increases intra-abdominal pressure. Assessing the client's lifting techniques enables the nurse to evaluate the client's knowledge of factors contributing to hiatal hernia and how to prevent complications.

The client asks the nurse if surgery is needed to correct a hiatal hernia. Which reply by the nurse would be the MOST accurate? 1. "Surgery is usually required, although medical treatment is attempted first." 2. "Hiatal hernia symptoms can usually be successfully managed with diet modification, medications, and lifestyle changes." 3. "Surgery is not performed for this type of hernia." 4. "A minor surgical procedure to reduce the size of the diaphragmatic opening will probably be planned."

2. Most clients can be treated successfully with a combination of diet restrictions, medications, weight control, and lifestyle modifications. Surgery is performed only when these attempts fail.

Which of the following lifestyle modifications should the nurse encourage the client with hiatal hernia to include in ADLs? 1. Daily aerobic exercise 2. eliminating smoking and alcohol use 3. balancing activity and rest 4. avoiding high-stress situation

2. Smoking and alcohol use both reduce esophageal sphincter tone and can result in reflux. They therefore should be avoided by clients with hiatal hernia.

Which of the following instructions should the nurse include in the teaching plan for a client who is experiencing gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD)? 1. Limit caffeine intake to two cups of coffee per day 2. Do not lie down for 2 hours after eating 3. Follow a low-protein diet 4. Take medications with milk to decrease irritation

2. The nurse should instruct the client to not lie down for about 2 hours after eating to prevent reflux.

Bethanechol (Urecholine) has been prescribed for a client with GERD. The nurse should assess the client for which of the following adverse effects? 1. Constipation 2. Urinary urgency 3. Hypertension 4. Dry oral mucosa

2. This is a cholinergic drug that may be used in GERD to increase lower esophageal sphincter pressure and facilitate gastric emptying. Cholinergic adverse effects may include urinary urgency, diarrhea, abdominal cramping, hypotension, and increased salivation.

Which of the following nursing interventions would most likely promote self-care behaviors in the client with a hiatal hernia? 1. Introduce the client to other people who are successfully managing their care. 2. Include the client's daughter in the teaching so that she can help implement the plan 3. Ask the client to identify other situation in which the client changed health care habits 4. Provide reassurance that the client will be able to implement all aspects of the plan successfully.

3. self-responsibility is the key to individual health maintenance. Using examples of situation in which the client has demonstrated self-responsibility can be reinforcing and supporting. The client has ultimate responsibility for personal health habits.

The nurse should instruct the client to avoid which of the following drugs while taking metoclopramide hydrochloride (Reglan)? 1. Antacids 2. Antihypertensives 3. Anticoagulants 4. Alcohol

4. This drug can cause sedation. Alcohol and other CNS depressants add to this sedation. A client taking this drug should be cautioned to avoid driving or performing other hazardous activities for a few hours after taking the drug.

The client with hiatal hernia chronically experiences heartburn following meals. The nurses plans to teach the client to avoid which action because it is contraindicated with a hiatal hernia? 1. Lying recumbent following meals 2. Taking in small, frequent, bland meals 3. Raising the head of bed on 6-inch blocks 4. Taking H2-receptor antagonist medication

Answer 1, Hiatal hernia is caused by a protrusion of a portion of the stomach above the diaphragm where the esophagus usually is positioned. The client usually experiences pain from reflux caused by ingestion of irritating foods, lying flat following meals or at night, and eating large or fatty meals. Relief is obtained with the intake of small, frequent meals, use of H2-receptor antagonists and antacids, and elevation of the thorax following meals and during sleep

A patient has a vagotomy with antrectomy to treat a duodenal ulcer. Postoperatively, the patient develops dumping syndrome. Which of the following statements, if made by the patient, should indicate to the nurse that further dietary teaching is needed? 1. I should eat bread with each meal 2. I should eat smaller meals more frequently. 3. I should lie down after eating. 4. I should avoid drinking fluids with my meals

Answer 1, Patient should decrease intake of carbohydrates

What response should a nurse offer to a client who asks why he's having a vagotomy to treat his ulcer? 1. To repair a hole in the stomach 2. to reduce the ability of the stomach to produce acid 3. to prevent the stomach from sliding into the chest 4. to remove a potentially malignant lesion in the stomach

Answer 2: A vagotomy is perfomred to elimniate the acid-secreting stimulus to gastric cells. a perforation would be repaired with a gastric resection. Repair of hiatal hernia (fundoplication) prevents the stomach from sliding through the diaphragm. Removal of a potentially malignant tumor wouldn't reduce the entire acid-producing mechanism

Gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD) weakens the lower esophageal sphincter, predisposing older persons to risk for impaired swallowing. In managing the symptoms associated with GERD, the nurse should assign the highest priority to which of the following interventions? 1. Decrease daily intake of vegetables and water, and ambulate frequently 2. Drink coffee diluted with milk at each meal, and remain in an upright position for 30 minutes. 3. Eat small, frequent meals, and remain in an upright position for at least 30 minutes after eating 4. Avoid over-the-counter drugs that have antacids in them

Answer 3, Eating small and frequent meals requires less release of hydrochloric acid. Remaining in an upright position for 30 minutes after meals prevents reflux into the esophagus which is often exacerbated when lying down, expecially after a large meal which makes the patient tired

which is the most common upper GI problem? 1. peptic ulcer disease 2. Crohns 3. Gerd 4. ulcerative colitis

Answer 3, Gerd is the only upper GI problem

The nurse is monitoring a client with a diagnosis of peptic ulcer. Which assessment finding would most likely indicate perforation of the ulcer? 1. Bradycardia 2. Numbness in the legs 3. Nausea and vomiting 4. A rigid, board-like abdomen

Answer 4, Perforation of an ulcer is a surgical emergency and is characterized by sudden, sharp, intolerable severe pain beginning in the midepigastric area and spreading over the abdomen, which become rigid and board-like. Nausea and vomiting may occur. Tachycardia may occur as hypovolemic shock develops. Numbness in the legs is not an associated finding

"A patient with a history of peptic ulcer disease has presented to the ED with complaints of severe abdominal pain and a rigid, boardlike abdomen, prompting the health care team to suspect a perforated ulcer. Which of the following actions should the nurse anticiptate? "A: Providing IV fluids and inserting a nasogastric tube B:Administering oral bicarbonate and testing patient's gastric pH level C:Performing a fecal occult blood test and administering IV calcium gluconate D: Starting parenteral nutrition and placing the patient in high-fowler's position

Answer A, "A: providing IV fluids and inserting a nasogastric tube rationale: A perforated peptic ulcer requires IV replacement of fluid losses and continued gastric aspiration by NG tube. Nothing is given by mouth and gastric pH testing is not a priority. Calcium gluconate is not a medication directly relevent to the patient's suspected diagnosis and parenteral nutrition is not a priority in the short term

"A patient with a history of peptic ulcer disease has presented to the emergency department with complaints of severe abdominal pain and a rigid, boardlike abdomen, prompting the health care team to suspect a perforated ulcer. Which of the following actions should the nurse anticipate? A. Providing IV fluids and inserting a nasogastric tube B. Administering oral bicarbonate and testing the patient's gastric pH level C. Performing a fecal occult blood test and administering IV calcium gluconate D. Starting parenteral nutrition and placing the patient in a high-Fowler's position

Answer A, A perforated peptic ulcer requires IV replacement of fluid losses and continued gastric aspiration by NG tube. Nothing is given by mouth and gastric pH testing is not a priority. Calcium gluconate is not a medication directly relevant to the patient's suspected diagnosis and parenteral nutrition is not a priority in the short term

A patient with a history of peptic ulcer disease has presented to the emergency department with complaints of severe abdominal pain and a rigid, boardlike abdomen, prompting the health care team to suspect a perforated ulcer. Which of the following actions should the nurse anticipate? A. Providing IV fluids and inserting a nasogastric tube B. Administering oral bicarbonate and testing the patient's gastric pH level. C. Performing a fecal occult blood test and administering IV calcium gluconate. D. Starting parenteral nutrition and placing the patient in high-Fowler's position

Answer A, A perforated peptic ulcer requires IV replacement of fluid losses and continued gastric aspiration by NG tube. Nothing is given by mouth and gastric pH testing is not a priority. Calcium gluconate is not a medication directly relevant to the patient's suspected diagnosis and parenteral nutrition is not a priority in the short term

Which of the following nursing interventions should the nurse perform for a female client receiving enteral feedings through a gastrostomy tube? a. Change the tube feeding solutions and tubing at least every 24 hours b. Maintain the head of the bed at a 15-degree elevation continuously. c. Check the gastrostomy tube for position every 2 days. d. Maintain the client on bed rest during the feedings

Answer A, Answer A. Tube feeding solutions and tubing should be changed every 24 hours, or more frequently if the feeding requires it. Doing so prevents contamination and bacterial growth. The head of the bed should be elevated 30 to 45 degrees continuously to prevent aspiration. Checking for gastrostomy tube placement is performed before initiating the feedings and every 4 hours during continuous feedings. Clients may ambulate during feedings

"The nurse has instructed the client who is experiencing diarrhea associated with irritable bowel syndrome on dietary changes to prevent diarrhea. The nurse knows the client understands the dietary changes if the client selects which of the following menu choices? a) Yogurt, crackers and sweet tea b) Salad with chicken, whole wheat crackers c) Bacon, tomato, lettuce with mayonnaise and a soft drink d) Tuna on white bread and coconut cake

Answer B Rationale: Bacon tomato lettuce with mayonnaise and soft drink is high in fat and the soft drink is hyperosmolar both contributing to diarrhea. Salad, whole wheat crackers may decrease diarrhea due to increased fiber. Dairy increases diarrhea. Food high in carbohydrates increase diarrhea. Coconut may increase diarrhea

The nurse determines that a patient has experienced the beneficial effects of medication therapy with famotidine (Pepcid) when which of the following symptoms is relieved? A) Nausea B) Belching C) Epigastric pain D) Difficulty swallowing

Answer C, "Famotidine is an H2-receptor antagonist that inhibits parietal cell output of HCl acid and minimizes damage to gastric mucosa related to hyperacidity, thus relieving epigastric pain

The nurse is caring for a female client with active upper GI bleeding. What is the appropriate diet for this client during the first 24 hours after admission? a. regular diet b. skim milk c. nothing by mouth d. clear liquids

Answer C, Answer C. Shock and bleeding must be controlled before oral intake, so the client should receive nothing by mouth. A regular diet is incorrect. When the bleeding is controlled, the diet is gradually increased, starting with ice chips and then clear liquids. Skim milk shouldn't be given because it increases gastric acid production, which could prolong bleeding. A liquid diet is the first diet offered after bleeding and shock are controlled

Which of these agents is a major contributing factor in the promotion of peptic ulcer disorder? A) Candida albicans. B) staphyloccus infection. C) streptococcus infection D) Helibacter pylori infection

Answer: D. Helobacter pylori infection. Rationale: Recurrence of peptic ulcers is related to Helicobacter pylori, use of NSAIDs, smoking, and continued acid hypersecretion