Gleim HW 10-12 (Quiz 3)
A privately owned airport restricted to use
(Refer to Area 1.) Dubey Airport is...
The Airport/Facility Directory section of the Chart Supplement
(Refer to Area 1.) For information about the parachute jumping at Caddo Mills Airport, refer to...
3 miles and 1,000 feet above, 500 feet below, and 2,000 feet horizontally from each cloud
(Refer to Area 1.) The visibility and cloud clearance requirements to operate VFR during daylight hours over Sandpoint Airport at 1,200 feet AGL are...
1,273 feet MSL
(Refer to Area 1.) What minimum altitude is necessary to vertically clear the obstacle on the northeast side of Airpark East Airport by 500 feet?
2,901 feet MSL
(Refer to Area 1.) What minimum altitude is required to avoid the Livermore Airport (LVK) Class D airspace?
Mode C transponder and two-way radio
(Refer to Area 1.) What minimum radio equipment is required to land and take off at Norfolk International?
122.8 MHz
(Refer to Area 2 in Figure 22.) At Coeur D'Alene, which frequency should be used as a Common Traffic Advisory Frequency (CTAF) to monitor airport traffic?
122.8 MHz
(Refer to Area 2 in Figure 22.) What is the correct UNICOM frequency to be used at Coeur D'Alene to request fuel?
122.8 MHz
(Refer to Area 2 in figure 22.) At Coeur D'Alene, which frequency should be used as a Common Traffic Advisory Frequency (CTAF) to self-announce position and intentions?
Class G airspace — surface up to but not including 1,200 feet AGL; Class E airspace — 1,200 feet AGL up to but not including 18,000 feet MSL
(Refer to Area 2.) Identify the airspace over Bryn Airport
122.9 MHz
(Refer to Area 2.) The CTA/MULTICOM frequency for Garrison Airport is...
126.0 MHz
(Refer to Area 2.) The control tower frequency for Addison Airport is...
19 feet
(Refer to Area 2.) The elevation of the Chesapeake Regional Airport is...
Visual checkpoint used to identify position for initial callup to Norfolk Approach Control
(Refer to Area 2.) The flag symbol at Lake Drummond represents a...
3 miles and 1,000 feet above, 500 feet below, and 2,000 feet horizontally from clouds
(Refer to Area 2.) The visibility and cloud clearance requirements to operate VFR during daylight hours over the town of Cooperstown between 1,200 feet AGL and 10,000 feet MSL are...
Military training activities that necessitate acrobatic or abrupt flight maneuvers
(Refer to Area 2.) What hazards to aircraft may exist in areas such as Devils Lake East MOA?
47 25'N - 98 06'W
(Refer to Area 2.) What is the approximate latitude and longitude of Cooperstown Airport?
Broadcast intentions when 10 miles out on the CTAF/MULTICOM frequency, 122.9 MHz
(Refer to Area 2.) What is the recommended communication procedure when inbound to land at Cooperstown Airport?
A public airport with a runway that is not a hard surface
(Refer to Area 2.) What kind of airport is Deshler (6D7)?
1,403 feet MSL
(Refer to Area 2.) What minimum altitude is necessary to vertically clear the obstacle on the southeast side of Winnsboro Airport by 500 feet?
Makeeff
(Refer to Area 2.) Which airport is located at approximately 47 34'30''N latitude and 100 43'00''W longitude?
Fischer
(Refer to Area 2.) Which airport is located at approximately 47 41 minutes 00 seconds N latitude and 101 36 minutes 00 seconds W longitude?
36 24'N - 76 01'W
(Refer to Area 3.) Determine the approximate latitude and longitude of Currituck County Airport...
47 33'N - 116 11'W
(Refer to Area 3.) Determine the approximate latitude and longitude of Shoshone County Airport...
The Chart Supplement
(Refer to Area 3.) For information about glider operations at Ridgeland Airport, refer to...
Class G airspace — surface up to but not including 1,200 feet AGL; Class E airspace - 1,200 feet AGL up to but not including 18,000 feet MSL
(Refer to Area 3.) Identify the airspace over Sprague Airport
127.25 MHz
(Refer to Area 3.) If Dallas Executive Tower is not in operation, which frequency should be used as a Common Traffic Advisory Frequency (CTAF) to monitor airport traffic?
3,000 feet MSL
(Refer to Area 3.) The floor of Class B airspace at Dallas Executive Airport is...
454 feet MSL
(Refer to Area 3.) The top of the group obstruction approximately 11 nautical miles from the Savannah VORTAC on the 010 degree radial is...
1,200 feet AGL to 17,999 feet MSL
(Refer to Area 3.) The vertical limits of that portion of Class E airspace designated as a Federal Airway over Magee Airport are...
E
(Refer to Area 3.) What is the airspace classification around Findlay (FDY) airport?
1,300 feet MSL
(Refer to Area 3.) What is the floor of the Savannah Class C airspace at the shelf area (outer circle)?
1,548 feet MSL
(Refer to Area 3.) What is the height of the lighted obstacle approximately 6 nautical miles southwest of Savannah International?
Transmit intentions on 122.9 MHz when 10 miles out and give position reports in the traffic pattern
(Refer to Area 3.) What is the recommended communications procedure for a landing at Currituck County Airport?
Broadcast intentions prior to taxi and announcing runway of departure
(Refer to Area 3.) What is the recommended communications procedure for departure at Currituck County Airport?
IFR training flights above 1,500 feet AGL at speeds in excess of 250 knots
(Refer to Area 3.) What type military flight operations should a pilot expect along IR 644?
2,000 feet AGL
(Refer to Area 3.) When flying over Arrowwood National Wildlife Refuge, a pilot should fly no lower than...
Washburn
(Refer to Area 3.) Which airport is located at approximately 47 21'N latitude and 101 01'W longitude?
123.0 MHz
(Refer to Area 4.) The CTAF/UNICOM frequency at Jamestown Airport is...
Class D airspace to 3,200 feet MSL
(Refer to Area 4.) The airspace directly overlying Fort Worth Meacham is...
4,000 feet MSL
(Refer to Area 4.) The floor of Class B airspace overlying Hicks Airport (T67) north-northwest of Fort Worth Meacham Field is...
unusual, often invisible, hazards such as aerial gunnery or guided missiles.
(Refer to Area 4.) What hazards to aircraft may exist in restricted areas such as R-5302A?
Unmarked balloon on cable to 3,008 feet MSL
(Refer to Area 5.) The CAUTION box denotes what hazard to aircraft?
VOR/DME
(Refer to Area 5.) The navigation facility at Dallas-Ft. Worth International (DFW) is a...
122.8 MHz
(Refer to Area 5.) What is the CTAF/UNICOM frequency at Barnes County Airport?
A non public use airport
(Refer to Area 6.) Sky Way airport is...
Both 2,100 feet and 3,000 feet MSL
(Refer to Area 6.) The Class C airspace at Metropolitan Oakland International (OAK) which extends from the surface upward has a ceiling of...
Class E
(Refer to Area 6.) The NALF Fentrees (NFE) Airport is in what type of airspace?
2,900 feet MSL
(Refer to Area 7.) The airspace overlying Mc Kinney (TKI) is controlled from the surface to...
3,549 feet MSL
(Refer to Area 8.) What minimum altitude is required to fly over the Cedar Hill TV towers in the congested area southwest of Dallas Executive?
Confirms the aircraft's location to be on taxiway "B"
(Refer to E.) This sign is a visual clue that...
Runway 22
(Refer to F.) This sign confirms your position on...
On a runway, about to clear
(Refer to G.) From the flight deck, this marking confirms the aircraft to be...
Class G airspace from the surface to 700 feet AGL
(Refer to east of Area 5.) The airspace overlying and within 5 miles of Barnes County Airport is...
3402.5 hours
A 100 hour inspection was due at 3302.5 hours. The 100 hour inspection was actually done at 3309.5 hours. When is the next 100 hour inspection due?
Pulsating red light
A below glide slope indication from a pulsating approach slope indicator is a...
Class D
A blue segmented circle on a Sectional Chart depicts which class airspace?
Return to the starting point on the airport
A flashing white light signal from the control tower to a taxiing aircraft is an indication to...
Green, yellow, and white rotating beacon
A lighted heliport may be identified by a...
Two quick, white flashes between green flashes
A military air station can be identified by a rotating beacon that emits...
180 days
A parachute composed of nylon, rayon, or other synthetic fibers must have been packed by a certified and appropriately rated parachute rigger within the proceeding...
8 hours
A person may not act as a crew member of a civil aircraft if alcoholic beverages have been consumed by that person within the proceeding...
The seaplane
A seaplane and a motorboat are on crossing courses. If the motor boat is to the left of the sea plane, which has the right of way?
Three white lights and one red light
A slightly high glide slope indication from a precision approach path indicator is...
Is cleared to land
A steady green light signal directed from the control tower to an aircraft in flight is a signal that the pilot...
Ground track
ATC advises, "traffic 12 o'clock," this advisory is relative to your...
The ceiling is at least 5,000 feet and visibility is 5 miles or more
Absence of the sky condition and visibility on an ATIS broadcast indicates that...
An altitude allowing for an emergency landing without undue hazard, if a power unit fails
According to 14 CFR part 91, at what minimum altitude may an airplane be operated unless necessary for takeoff and landing?
5,500 feet
According to 14 CFR part 91, what is the appropriate VFR cruising altitude, when above 3000 feet AGL, for a flight on a magnetic course of 90 degrees?
Collocated VOR and TACAN navigational facilities
According to the Chart Supplement, what are the operational requirements of a VORTAC?
0800 -0000 hr. Local time
According to the Chart Supplement, what times can a pilot obtain fuel and services in September at Toledo Express (TOL) Airport?
Takeoffs may be started at position A on Runway 12, and the landing portion of this runway begins at position B
According to the airport diagram, which statement is true?
When advised by the tower to do so
After landing at a tower-controlled airport, when should the pilot contact ground control?
blue omnidirectional lights.
Airport taxiway edge lights are identified at night by...
Between directly ahead and 90 to the right
An ATC radar facility issues the following advisory to a pilot during a local flight: "TRAFFIC 2 O'CLOCK, 5 MILES, NORTHBOUND..." Where should the pilot look for this traffic?
West
An ATC radar facility issues the following advisory to a pilot flying North in a calm wind: "TRAFFIC 9 O'CLOCK, 2 MILES, SOUTHBOUND..." where should the pilot look for this traffic?
South
An ATC radar facility issues the following advisory to a pilot flying on a heading of 090 "TRAFFIC 3 O'CLOCK, 2 MILES, WESTBOUND..." where should the pilot look for this traffic?
Northwest
An ATC radar facility issues the following advisory to a pilot flying on a heading of 360 "TRAFFIC 10 O'CLOCK, 2 MILES, SOUTHBOUND..." where should the pilot look for this traffic?
1359.6 hours
An aircraft had a 100 hour inspection when the tachometer read 1259.6. When is the next 100 hour inspection due?
3,200 feet MSL
An aircraft takes off from Gnoss Airport (Area 4) and flies southeast 25.4 NM to Buchanan Airport. What maximum elevation figure would assure obstruction clearance during the flight?
July 31, next year
An aircraft's annual condition inspection was performed on July 12, this year. The next annual inspection will be due no later than...
The airship
An airplane and an airship are converging. If the airship is left of the airplanes position, which aircraft has the right away?
The weather at the airport located in Class D airspace is below basic VFR weather minimums
An airport's rotating beacon operated during daylight hours indicates...
Exercise extreme caution
An alternating red and green light signal directed from the control tower to an aircraft in flight is a signal to...
Class B airspace and within 30 miles of the class B primary airport
An operable 4096-code transponder and Mode C encoding altimeter are required in...
Class A, Class B (and within 30 miles of the Class B primary airport), and class C
An operable 4096-code transponder with an encoding altimeter is required in which airspace?
60 days
And approved parachute constructed of natural fibers may be carried in an aircraft for emergency use if it has been packed by an appropriately rated parachute rigger within the proceeding...
Closed runway
Area C on the airport depicted is classified as a...
In response to a traffic alert and collision avoidance system resolution advisory
As pilot in command of an aircraft, under which situation can you deviate from an ATC clearance?
There is an in-flight emergency requiring immediate action
As pilot in command of an aircraft, you may deviate from an ATC clearance when...
10 miles
As standard operating practice, all inbound traffic to and Airport without a control tower should continuously monitor the appropriate facility from a distance of...
118.7 MHz
At Sioux Gateway/Col Day (N42 24.16' W96 23.06'), which frequency should be used as a common Traffic Advisory Frequency (CTAF) to self-announce position and intentions when the control tower is closed?
Mode A/3, Code 1200
At an altitude below 18,000 feet MSL, which transponder code should be selected?
18,000 feet MSL
At what altitude should the altimeter be set to 29.92 when climbing to cruising flight level?
Dallas-Fort Worth International and Dallas Love Field
At which airport is fixed-wing Special VFR not authorized?
Noncontrol information in selected high-activity terminal areas
Automatic Terminal Information Service (ATIS) is the continuous broadcast of recorded information concerning...
Safety alerts, traffic advisories, and limited vectoring to VFR aircraft
Basic radar service in the terminal radar program is best described as...
Private pilot certificate
Before passengers can be carried in an aircraft that has been altered in a manner that may have appreciably changed it's flight characteristics, it must be Flight tested by an appropriately rated pilot who holds at least a...
An appropriate notation in the aircraft maintenance records
Completion of an annual condition inspection and the return of the aircraft to service should always be indicated by...
Magnetic course of 0 degrees through 179 degrees
Each person operating an aircraft at a VFR cruising altitude shall maintain an odd thousand plus 500 foot altitude while on a...
Maintain an altitude at or above the glide slope
Each pilot of an aircraft approaching to land on a runway served by a visual approach slope indicator (VASI) shall...
Sunset to sunrise
Except in Alaska, during what time should lighted position lights be displayed on an aircraft?
500 feet
Except when necessary for takeoff or landing, an aircraft may not be operated closer than what distance from any person, vessel, vehicle, or structure?
An altitude allowing, if a power unit fails, an emergency landing without undue hazard to persons or property on the surface
Except when necessary for takeoff or landing, what is the minimum safe altitude for a pilot to operate an aircraft anywhere?
An altitude of 1,000 feet above the highest obstacle within a horizontal radius of 2,000 feet of the aircraft
Except when necessary for takeoff or landing, what is the minimum safe altitude required for a pilot to operate an aircraft over congested areas?
An altitude of 500 feet AGL, except over open water or a sparsely populated area, which requires 500 feet from any person, vessel, vehicle, or structure
Except when necessary for takeoff or landing, what is the minimum safe altitude required for a pilot to operate an aircraft over other than a congested area?
Downloading them from the FAA website
FAA advisory circulars are available to all pilots and are obtained by...
90
FAA advisory circulars containing subject matter specifically related to Air Traffic and General Operating Rules are issued under which subject number?
60
FAA advisory circulars containing subject matter specifically related to Airmen are issued under which subject number?
70
FAA advisory circulars containing subject matter specifically related to Airspace are issued under which subject number?
Takeoffs and landings
Flight crew members are required to keep their safety belts and shoulder harnesses fastened during...
Received prior authorization from the controlling agency
Flight through a restricted area should not be accomplished unless the pilot has...
Determine runway lengths at airports of intended use
For a VFR flight not in the vicinity of an airport, the PIC must...
Ground control, on initial contact
From whom should a departing VFR aircraft request radar traffic information during ground operations?
Dual peaked (two quick) white flashes between green flashes
How can a military airport be identified at night?
1200
If Air Traffic Control advises that radar service is terminated when the pilot is departing Class C airspace, the transponder should be set to code...
Ask the controller
If a given landing clearance on runway 16 and told to hold short runway 6, how can a pilot determine the available landing distance?
With passengers on board
If an alteration or repair substantially affects the aircraft's operation in flight, that aircraft must be test flown by an appropriately rated pilot and approved for return to service prior to being operated...
The elevation of the departure area
If an altimeter setting is not available before flight, to which altitude should the pilot adjust the altimeter?
Deviate from any role of 14 CFR part 91 to the extent required to meet that emergency
If an in-flight emergency requires immediate action, the pilot in command may...
To the next intersecting runway where further clearance is required
If instructed by ground control to taxi to Runway 9, the pilot may proceed...
1,000 feet to 12,000 feet and 25 NM
If the SSV Class of VORTAC is listed as a Terminal Class, the altitudes and distance to adequately receive the signal of the VORTAC is...
Observe the traffic flow, enter the pattern, and look for a light signal from the tower
If the aircraft's radio fails, what is the recommended procedure when landing at a controlled airport?
Steady red
If the control tower uses a light signal to direct a pilot to give way to other aircraft and continue circling, the light will be...
Runway 18 and expect a crosswind from the right
If the wind is as shown by the landing direction indicator, the pilot should land on...
On the glide slope
Illustration A indicates that the aircraft is...
Operating limitations and registration certificate
In addition to a valid airworthiness certificate, what documents or records must be aboard an aircraft during flight?
Determine runway lengths at airports of intended use and the aircraft's takeoff and landing distance data
In addition to other preflight actions for a VFR flight away from the vicinity of the departure airport, regulations specifically require the pilot in command to...
Chart Supplement
Information concerning parachute jumping sites may be found in the...
September 30, 2016
Maintenance records show the last transponder inspection was performed on September 1, 2014. The next inspection will be due no later than...
.04 percent by weight or more alcohol in the blood
No person may attempt to act as a crew member of a civil aircraft with...
Except by prior arrangement with the pilot in command of each aircraft
No person may operate an aircraft in formation flight...
24 calendar months
No person may use an ATC transponder unless it has been tested and inspected within at least the proceeding...
117.1 MHz
On what frequency can a pilot receive Hazardous Inflight Weather Advisory Service (HIWAS) in the vicinity of Area 1?
2,000 feet AGL
Pilots flying over a national wildlife refuge are requested to fly no lower than...
The pilot
Pre-takeoff briefing of passengers about the use of seatbelts is the responsibility of...
The pilot in command
Pre-takeoff briefing of passengers about the use of seatbelts is the responsibility of...
The pilot
Pre-takeoff briefing of passengers for a flight is the responsibility of...
An alternate course of action if the flight cannot be completed as planned
Preflight action, as required for all flights away from the vicinity of an airport, shall include...
The current local altimeter setting, if available, or the departure airport elevation
Prior to takeoff, the altimeter should be set to which altitude or altimeter setting?
Yes, 100LL fuel is available for emergency use only
Refer to Crawford Airport (N38 42.25' W107 38.62'). Is fuel ever available at Crawford Airport?
Right hand traffic pattern
Refer to Crawford Airport (N38 42.25' W107 38.62). What is the traffic pattern for Runway 25?
112.5 MHz
Refer to the area of Pierre Regional Airport (N44 22.96' W100 17.16'') What frequency can be monitored for Hazardous Inflight Weather Advisory Service in this area?
Passengers, during taxi, take offs, and landings only
Safety belts are required to be properly secured about which persons in the aircraft and when?
Right-hand traffic and Runway 18
Select the proper traffic pattern and runway for landing...
Sequencing and separation for participating VFR aircraft
TRSA Service in the terminal radar program provides...
Taxing and takeoff
That portion of the runway identified by the letter A may be used for...
Runway with a displaced threshold that precedes the runway
The 'yellow demarcation bar' marking indicates
Military operations area
The Devils Lake East MOA (Area 1) is a...
D
The airspace surrounding the Gila Bend AF AUX Airport (GXF) (Area 6) is classified as Class...
Review of the maintenance records
The airworthiness of an aircraft can be determined by a preflight inspection and a...
Cannot be used for landing, but may be used for taxiing and takeoff
The arrows that appear on the end of the North/South runway indicate that the area...
700 feet AGL
The controlled airspace located at the Corpus Christi VORTAC (Area 5) begins at...
"ONE ZERO THOUSAND, FIVE HUNDRED"
The correct method of stating 10,500 feet MSL to ATC is...
"FOUR THOUSAND FIVE HUNDRED"
The correct method of stating 4,500 feet MSL to ATC is...
Pilot in command
The final authority as to the operation of an aircraft is the...
Visual checkpoints to identify position for initial callup prior to entering Savannah Class C airspace
The flag symbols at Statesboro Bulloch County Airport, Claxton-Evans Airport, and Ridgeland Airport are...
080 and 260 magnetic
The numbers 8 and 26 on the approach ends of the runway indicate that the runway is oriented approximately...
090 and 270 magnetic
The numbers 9 and 27 on a runway indicate that the runway is oriented approximately...
Pilot in command
The party directly responsible for the pre-takeoff briefing of passengers is the...
To enter 45 at the midpoint of the downwind leg at traffic pattern altitude
The recommended entry position to an airport traffic pattern is...
Owner or operator
The responsibility for ensuring that an aircraft has maintained in an airworthy condition is primarily that of the...
Owner or operator
The responsibility for ensuring that maintenance personnel make the appropriate entries in the aircraft maintenance records indicating the aircraft has been approved for return to service lies with the...
Right-quartering headwind
The segmented circle indicates that a landing on Runway 26 will be a...
Left-hand for Runway 36 and right-hand for Runway 18
The segmented circle indicates that the airport traffic is...
2,000 feet to 2,500 feet MSL
The terrain elevation of the light tan (light colored) area between Minot (Area 1) and Audubon Lake (Area 2) varies from...
Southeast of the airport
The traffic patterns indicated in the segmented circle have been arranged to avoid flights over an area to the...
Consult airport diagrams and Chart Supplements
To avoid landing at the wrong airport or runway, pilots should...
Aircraft maintenance records
To determine the expiration date of the last annual aircraft inspection, a person should refer to the...
Five times within 5 seconds
To set the high intensity runway lights on medium intensity, the pilot should click the microphone seven times, and then click it
To the left on Runway 14 and Runway 32; to the right on Runway 18 and Runway 35
Traffic pattern in effect at Lincoln Municipal are...
When the aircraft's engine has been rebuilt by the manufacturer
Under what condition could an aircraft engine logbook show no previous operating history?
In an emergency or if the person is a medical patient under proper care
Under what condition, if any, may a pilot allow a person who is obviously under the influence of drugs to be carried aboard and aircraft?
With the controlling agency's authorization
Under what condition, if any, may pilots fly through a restricted area?
If precautions are taken to avoid injury or damage to persons or property on the surface
Under what conditions may object be dropped from an aircraft?
15,000 feet MSL
Unless each occupant is provided with supplemental oxygen, no person may operate a civil aircraft of US registry above a maximum cabin pressure altitude of...
1200
Unless otherwise authorized, if flying a transponder equipped aircraft, a pilot should squawk which VFR code?
200 knots
Unless otherwise authorized, the maximum indicated airspeed at which aircraft may be flown when at or below 2,500 feet AGL and within 4 nautical miles of the primary airport a Class C airspace is...
250 Knots
Unless otherwise authorized, what is the maximum indicated airspeed at which a person may operate an aircraft below 10,000 feet MSL?
Over a densely populated area or in a congested airway
Unless otherwise specifically authorized, no person may operate an aircraft that has an experimental certificate...
Above the glide slope
VASI lights as shown by illustration C indicate that the airplane is...
From AWOS 3 135.075
Weather information is available at the Coeur d'Alene (COE) Airport (Area 2)...
Will have impaired motor and mental responses
Well experiencing a hangover, a pilot...
The aircraft on the left shall give way
What action is required when two aircraft of the same category converge, but not head on?
Exercise extreme caution when military activity is being conducted
What action should a pilot take when operating under VFR in a Military Operations (MOA)?
Both pilot should give away to the right
What action should the pilots of a glider and an airplane take if on a head on collision course...
File a detailed report within 48 hours to the chief of the appropriate ATC facility, if requested
What action, if any, is appropriate if the pilot deviates from an ATC instruction during an emergency and is given priority?
Annual condition and 100 hour inspections
What aircraft inspections are required for rental aircraft that are also used flight instruction?
1 statue mile, clear of clouds
What are the basic VFR weather minima required to takeoff from the Onawa, IA (K36) airport during the day?
A magenta vignette that goes around an airport
What depicts a Class E airspace that begins at 700 feet AGL?
Identifies direction to take-off runways
What does the outbound destination sign identify?
Current NOTAMs (D).
What information is contained in the Notices to Airmen Publication (NTAP)?
AUNICOM
What is the acronym for a computerized command response system that provides automated weather, radio check capability, and airport advisory information selected from an automated menu by microphone clicks?
3,000
What is the base of Class B airspace at Lakeview (30F) Airport (Area 2)?
"A" may be used for taxi and takeoff; "E" may be used only as an overrun
What is the difference between area A and area E on the airport depicted?
Wilderness area
What is the dotted outlined area Northeast of Gila Bend Airport, bear Area 3?
3 statute miles
What is the minimum visibility for a pilot to receive a land and hold short (LAHSO) clearance?
Denotes intersecting runways
What is the purpose of the runway /runway hold position sign?
Monitor airport traffic and announce your position and intentions on 118.5 MHz.
What is the recommended communications procedure for landing at Lincoln Municipal during the hours when the tower is not in operation?
Enough to fly to the first point of intended landing and to fly after that for 45 minutes at normal cruising speed
What is the specific fuel requirement for Flight under VFR at night in an airplane?
Enough to fly to the first point of intended landing and to fly after that for 30 minutes at normal cruising speed
What is the specific fuel requirement for Flight under VFR during daylight hours in an airplane?
Be aware that the area may contain unusual aeronautical activity or high volume of pilot training
What must a pilot do or be aware of when transitioning an Alert Area?
Identifies taxiway on which an aircraft is located
What purpose does the taxiway location sign serve?
That ATC will give you a clearance to land and hold short of a specified point on the runway
What should you expect when you are told that LAHSO operations are in effect at your destination airport?
Only available in a standard weather briefing if the pilot requests published NOTAMs
When NOTAMs are published in the Notices of Airmen Publication (NTAP), they are...
121.5 and 243.0 MHz
When activated, an emergency locator transmitter (ELT) transmits on...
An emergency
When an ATC clearance has been obtained, no pilot in command may deviate from that clearance unless that pilot obtains an amended clearance. The one exception to this regulation is...
Lincoln Approach Control on 124.0 MHz
When approaching Lincoln Municipal from the West at noon for the purpose of landing, initial communications should be with...
Should not cross the lines without ATC clearance
When approaching taxiway holding lines from the side with the continuous lines, the pilot...
Maintain an altitude at or above the glide slope
When approaching to land on a runway served by a visual approach slope indicator (VASI), the pilot shall...
When 50 percent of their useful life expires
When are non-rechargeable batteries of an emergency locator transmitter (ELT) required to be replaced?
Entering the Corpus Christi Class C airspace
When are two-way radio communications required on a flight from Bishop Airport (Area 4) to McCampbell Airport (Area 1) at an altitude of 2,000 feet MSL?
The Livermore Airport Class D airspace
When are two-way radio communications required on a flight from Gnoss Airport (DVO) (Area 4) to Livermore Airport (LVK) (Area 5) at an altitude of 3,500 ft. MSL? When entering...
"MC ALESTER RADIO, HAWK SIX SIX SIX CHARLIE BRAVO, RECEIVING ARDMORE VORTAC, OVER"
When flying HAWK N666CB, the proper phraseology for initial contact with McAlester FSS is...
200 knots
When flying in a VFR corridor designated through class B airspace, the maximum speed authorized is...
200 knots
When flying in the air space underlying class B airspace, the maximum speed authorized is...
7600
When making routine transponder code changes, pilots should avoid inadvertent selection of which code?
7500
When making routine transponder code changes, pilots should avoid inadvertent selection of which codes?
During the first 5 minutes after the hour
When may an emergency locator transmitter (ELT) be tested?
Upon request
When must a pilot who deviates from a regulation during an emergency send a written report of that deviation to the administrator?
When the ELT has been in use for more than one cumulative hour
When must batteries in an emergency locator transmitter be replaced or re-charged if rechargeable?
That flight time in excess of 30 minutes at those altitudes
When operating an aircraft at cabin pressure altitudes above 12,500 feet MSL up to and including 14,000 feet MSL, supplemental oxygen shall be used during...
1200
When operating under VFR below 18,000 feet MSL, unless otherwise authorized, what transponder code should be selected?
When it will compromise safety
When should pilots decline a land and hold short (LAHSO) clearance?
Indicates designation and direction of taxiway leading out of an intersection.
When turning onto a taxiway from another taxiway, what is the purpose of the taxiway directional sign?
At the lower altitude, but it shall not take advantage of this rule to cut in front of or to overtake another
When two or more aircraft are approaching an airport for the purpose of landing, the right of way belongs to the aircraft...
After one half the batteries useful life
When was the battery in an emergency locator transmitter ELT be replaced or re-charged if the battery is rechargeable?
Within 48 hours if requested by ATC
When would a pilot be required to submit a detailed report of an emergency which caused the pilot to deviate from an ATC clearance?
Northwest approximately 1 mile
Where is Loup City Municipal located with relation to the city?
Special Notices section of the Chart Supplement
Where is the "Available Landing Distance" (ALD) data published for an airport that utilizes Land and Hold Short Operations (LAHSO) ?
Attached to the airworthiness certificate
Where may an Aircrafts operating limitations be found if the aircraft has an experimental or special light sport airworthiness certificate?
In the current, FAA approved flight manual, approved manual material, markings, and placards, or any combination thereof
Where may an aircraft's operating limitations be found?
5,500 feet
Which VFR cruising altitude is acceptable for a flight on a vector airway with a magnetic course of 175 degrees? The terrain is less than 1000 feet.
4,500 feet
Which VFR cruising altitude is appropriate when flying above 3000 feet AGL on a magnetic course of 185 degrees?
An aircraft in distress
Which aircraft has the right of way over all other air traffic
Aircraft towing other aircraft
Which aircraft has the right of way over the other aircraft listed
Glider
Which aircraft has the right of way over the other aircraft listed?
Safe obstruction clearance in the approach area
Which approach and landing objective is assured when the pilot remains on the proper glidepath of the VASI?
Safety belts during takeoff and landing and while en route; shoulder harnesses during takeoff and landing.
Which best describes the flight conditions under which flight crew members are specifically required to keep their safety belts and shoulder harness fastened?
Odd thousand plus 500 feet
Which cruising altitude is appropriate for a VFR flight on a magnetic course of 135 degrees?
Flight over a densely populated area
Which is normally prohibited when operating a restricted category civil aircraft?
Comply with any FAA traffic pattern established for the aiport
Which is the correct traffic pattern departure procedure to use at a noncontrolled airport?
Airports with control towers underlying Class B, C, D, and E airspace are shown in blue
Which is true concerning the blue and magenta colors used to depict airports on Sectional Aeronautical Charts?
Flashing green
Which light signal from the control tower clears a pilot to taxi?
C
Which marking indicates a vehicle lane?
1200, Mode A/3
Which of the following codes should be set for VFR flight in Class E airspace?
D
Which of the signs in the figure is a mandatory instruction sign?
Become familiar with all available information concerning the flight
Which preflight action is specifically required of the pilot prior to each flight?
Monitor 121.5 before engine shutdown
Which procedure is recommended to ensure that the emergency locator transmitter (ELT) has not been activated?
Minot Int'l (Area 1).
Which public use airport depicted is indicated as having fuel?
Rockwall (Area 1) and Sulphur Springs (Area 5).
Which public use airports depicted are indicated as having fuel?
Aircraft maintenance records
Which records or documents shall the owner or operator of an aircraft keep to show compliance with an applicable airworthiness directive?
Left-hand traffic on Runway 36
Which runway and traffic pattern should be used as indicated by the wind cone in the segmented circle?
D
Which sign identifies where aircraft are prohibited from entering?
K
Which sign is a designation and direction of an exit taxiway from a runway?
Lines of longitude cross the Equator at right angles
Which statement about longitude and latitude is true?
Sequencing to the primary Class C airport, traffic advisories, conflict resolution, and safety alerts
Which type radar service is provided to VFR aircraft at Lincoln Municipal?
121.5 MHz
While on a VFR cross country and not in contact with ATC, what frequency would you use in the event of an emergency?
Exercise extreme caution and abandon the approach, realizing the airport is unsafe for landing
While on final approach for landing, an alternating green and red light followed by a flashing red light is received from the control tower. Under these circumstances, the pilot should...
Below the glide path
While on final approach to a runway equipped with a standard 2-bar VASI, the lights appear as shown by illustration D. This means that the aircraft is...
Maintain an altitude at or above the glide slope until a lower altitude is necessary for a safe landing
While operating in class D airspace, each pilot of an aircraft approaching to land on a runway served by a visual approach slope indicator (VASI) shall...
Pilot in command
Who has final authority to accept or decline any land and hold short (LAHSO) clearance?
The pilot in command
Who is responsible for determining if an aircraft is in condition for safe flight?
Owner or operator
Who is responsible for ensuring airworthiness directives are complied with?
Owner or operator
Who is responsible for ensuring appropriate entries are made in maintenance records indicating the aircraft has been approved for return to service?
Student pilots
Who should not participate in the Land and Hold Short Operations (LAHSO) program?
When intentionally pitching the nose of the aircraft up or down 30° or more
With certain Exceptions, when must each occupant of an aircraft wear an approved parachute?
18,000 feet MSL
With certain exceptions, Class E airspace extends upward from either 700 feet or 1,200 feet AGL to, but does not include...
Taxi, takeoffs, and landings
With certain exceptions, safety belts are required to be secured about passengers during...
The pilot in command must brief the passengers on the use of safety belts and notify them to fasten their safety belts during taxi, takeoff, and landing
With respect to passengers, what obligation, if any, does a pilot in command have concerning the use of safety belts?
The pilot in command
You are a pilot in command of a flight. During your preflight, you notice a mechanical discrepancy that you think makes the aircraft unairworthy. Who is responsible for this determination?
Depart because the ELT is within the inspection requirements
You are conducting your preflight of an aircraft and notice that the last inspection of the emergency locator transmitter was 11 calendar months ago. You may...
Check the wind sock to determine the appropriate runway
You are on approach to land on Runway 19 of a non-towered airport. You observe ripples on the southeast side of a small lake 3/4 mi. East of the airport. What is the most appropriate course of action?
Obtain weather reports, forecasts, and fuel requirements for the flight
You are pilot in command of a VFR flight that you think will be within the fuel range of your aircraft. As part of your preflight planning you must...
You cancel the flight and have the aircraft scheduled for maintenance
You are pilot in command of a flight and determine that the aircraft you plan to fly has an overdue airworthiness directive. Which of the following is an appropriate decision?
Explain that it is a mandatory requirement and that he must use the shoulder harness during takeoff and landing
You are planning a trip and one of your passengers states that he prefers not to use his shoulder harness because it is uncomfortable. You should...
In the Chart Supplements U.S.
You are preflight planning in the morning before an afternoon flight. Where would you find information regarding an "Airport surface hot spot?"
Below .04%
You attended a party last night, and you consumed several glasses of wine. You are planning to fly your aircraft home and have been careful to make sure eight hours have passed since your last alcoholic drink. You can make the flight now only if you are not under the influence of alcohol and your blood alcohol level is...
Controlling ATC facility at least one hour before the proposed flight
Your transponder is inoperative. In order to enter Class B airspace, you must submit a request for a deviation from the...