GMTs

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Code Of Conduct

1) To which article of the Code of Conduct does the following statement refer? If captured I will continue to resist by all means available. I will make every effort to escape and aid others to escape. I will accept neither parole nor special favors from the enemy. - Article III 2) The two types of reporting isolating events are observer-reported and media reporting. - False 3) When providing proof of life what information should you include? (Select all that apply) - You and your fellow captives' identities - Your health and welfare - A verifiable date 4) You should limit your communication with the captor to which of the following? (Select all that apply) - Identify yourself - Provide the innocent circumstances leading to capture -Ask to be returned to U.S. control -Address health and welfare concerns 5) What evasion aid is tailored to cover an individual operational area, combining standard navigation charts and maps with evasion and survival information? - Evasion chart 6) What are some de-escalation strategies personnel can use to discourage captor violence? (Select all that apply) - Maintain a low profile - Be conscious of your body language 7) The Code of Conduct is your moral guide from isolation to captivity resolution. - True 8) Should your captors provide an opportunity to communicate using written, oral, or video means, you should: - Provide proof of life 9) Identify elements of Article II of the Code of Conduct. (Select all that apply) -Military members are never authorized to surrender -During military operations outside declared hostilities you may delay contact with local authorities 10) You should attempt to provide proof of life during any audio or video recording or written documents? - True 11) The Evasion Plan of Action (EPA) provides recovery forces the following information should you become isolated. (Select all that apply) -Ensure you detail the factors concerning the methods and procedures you intend to use to communicate with recovery forces -It helps them to anticipate your actions and intentions should you become isolated - Your evasion intentions and key recovery information 12) What are some methods to purify water? (Select all that apply) - Purifying with a commercial micro filter - Chemically treating water with chlorine or iodine - Boiling vigorously for at least one minute 13) Leaving evidence of your presence supports U.S. Government effort to locate, identify and recover you. - True 14) When are personnel ALWAYS authorized to escape? - When in physical or mortal danger 15) Which of the following are criteria for selecting a shelter site? (Select all that apply) -The area is large enough for you and your equipment -Sufficient materials are available for constructing a shelter - Provides natural protection from environment, hazards, and threats 16) Limiting the amount of personal information available to others includes reducing your ______________ footprint, and personal information items not required for your operational mission such as credit cards and other identifiable items in your wallet or purse. - social media 17) An effective memory tool that can assist you with using situational awareness during an isolating event is the acronym PAID-E, which stands for perceive, ______________, interpret, decide, and execute. - analyze 18) Resistance is a BATTLE OF WITS with your captor. - False 19) In the event of isolation during operations other than war, the reasons to delay contact with legitimate authorities include. (Select all that apply) -Gain situational awareness - Contact friendly forces 20) Identify steps in building a fire. (Select all that apply) -Prepare adequate amounts of tinder, kindling, and fuel -Use a platform -Carefully place small, dry kindling over the burning tinder 21) Which of the following are used to control bleeding? (Select all that apply) -Elevate and immobilize -Use a tourniquet -Apply direct pressure 22) What are the goals of using a disguise? (Select all that apply) - Pass initial scrutiny - Prevent recognition 23) Tactical hand-held radio transceivers, cell phones, satellite phones, and personal locator beacons (PLBs) are devices you could use for electronic communication. - True 24) Selecting a signaling site and putting your signal in a suitable location is critical. A signaling site is defined as any site, based on your situation that enhances signaling efforts and the likelihood for the signal to be detected by friendly forces. What is a signaling site criterion? (Select all that apply) -Recovery possible from/near site - Site hidden from potential enemy observation and ground fire - Sufficient materials for signal construction 25) Which evasion aids can assist you with making contact with the local population? (Select all that apply) - Cultural Smart Cards - Pointee-Talkee 26) What pre-deployment document requires you to provide, four personal authentication statements, full front and right side photographs, and fingerprints? - Defense Legal Next of Kin Notification Form 27) During a hole-up what is your primary concern? - Security 28) To which article of the Code of Conduct does the following statement refer? When questioned, should I become a prisoner of war, I am required to give name, rank, service number and date of birth. I will evade answering further questions to the utmost of my ability. I will make no oral or written statements disloyal to my country and its allies or harmful to their cause? - Article V 29) The three basic food sources during isolation are packed rations, animals and insects, and plants. -True 30) Upon your release, a DoD Public Affairs Officer (PAO) will be available to help you. Their goal is to_______________________________________. (Select all that apply) - help you regain control over your life -coordinate your interactions with the media 31) The weakened state of the captives' ____________reduces their capacity to collectively resist adversary exploitation efforts. Acceptance of special favors also provides an opening for an adversary's future exploitation efforts against you. -organization 32) Identify some posture and resistance constants of an effective resistance posture. (Select all that apply) -Stall - Control emotions - Bounce back 33) During a direct action recovery, you should pick up a weapon and assist the recovery team. -False 34) As part of your resistance posture you should portray ______ at all times. - innocence 35) Continuously learning about your captivity environment and the captor is known as ___________________. - situational awareness 36) Actions to take when capture is imminent include. (Select all that apply) -Sanitize personal or sensitive materials - Try to retain your personal cell phone - Leave evidence of presence at capture point 37) What should you do during USG negotiations for your release? (Select all that apply) -Remain professional and avoid exploitation - Maintain your honor and communicate your innocence -Have faith in the USG 38) The Code of Conduct is a ____________ for military members when isolated or held against their will by entities hostile to the U.S. -moral guide 39) Unlike a wartime situation, where the senior ranking member takes command of all prisoners, in a hostage situation, the most capable member must take command to ensure survivability. - False 40) One way to gain acceptance from the local population after making contact is to discuss the similarities between your religions. This helps to show you are peaceful and mean no harm. - False 41) When using a visual signal to support your recovery efforts, guidelines to follow include. - ratio, contrast, size 42)What are some techniques you can use to help cope with the psychological effects of captivity? -Keep your mind active by recalling fond memories or designing a house, Reaffirm your will to live and focus on positive reasons to return home, Have faith that the U.S. government will support your family 43) Ensure you record data about your communication devices, i.e. cellular phone, survival radio, and personal locator beacon on your ___________________ prior to deploying or mission execution. -EPA 44)What types of information can be found on an EPA? -Immediate evasion actions, Communications plan, Planned routes of travel 45)Which reintegration phase moves the recovered person to the Continental United States (CONUS)? - phase III 46)The acronym SCORE is used to help guide your behavior in captivity. What does SCORE stand for? - Survive, Communicate, Organize, Resist, Escape 47) If held in captivity you must remember to give no information or take part in any action which might be harmful to your comrades. This is an example of _____________ under Article IV of the Code of Conduct. -keeping faith 48)When confronted with capture, medical personnel and chaplains may resort to aggressive action and the use of force for ______________________ or in defense of the sick and wounded. -self-defense 49)Which of the following techniques can be used to resist interrogation? -Keep faith with yourself and fellow comrades 50)Your resistance goals include which of the following? (Select all that apply) -Focus on your authorized communications, Resist providing a confession 51)Which of the following are suggested means of preparation for isolation? -All of the above 52)Which of the following are elements of the COLDER principle? -Select all four 53) The traditional chain of command roles and responsibilities continue in all captivity environments. The senior eligible military member assumes command over captives from all US Military Departments. - true 54)Which of the following are consumable sources of water? (Select all that apply) - water from plants, rainfall, melted snow 55)The first personnel recovery (PR) task is _____________. This task activates the execution portion of the PR system. -report 56)Which of the following are procedures for the proper use of clothing? -Prevent overheating by removing layers before strenuous activities

Anti Antiterrorism

1) True or False: When possible, it is best to always travel with a cell phone. (Antiterrorism Scenario Training, Page 2) - True (correct) 2) True or False: In the event of a skyjacking, you should immediately attempt to subdue the skyjackers. (Antiterrorism Scenario Training, Page 4) - False (correct) 3) Since September 11, 2001, which of the following attack methods has NOT been attempted against an airport or airline? (Antiterrorism Scenario Training, Page 1) -Chemical or biological attack (correct) 4) Which of the following is NOT a useful vehicle feature from a security perspective? (Antiterrorism Scenario Training, Page 4) - Air bags (correct) 5) True or False: Internet acquaintances can pose a security threat and should be carefully monitored. (Antiterrorism Scenario Training, Page 5) True (correct) 6) Force Protection Condition DELTA means that your base is at which one of the following? (Introduction to Antiterrorism, Page 10) The most increased level of protection (correct) 7) Which of the following is NOT a recommended response to an active shooter incident? (Antiterrorism Scenario Training, Pages 3 and 4) Provide instructions to arriving emergency response personnel (correct) 8) Which one of the following is NOT an early indicator of a potential insider threat? (Antiterrorism Scenario Training, Page 3) A reasonable disagreement with a US Government policy (correct) 9) Which of the following have NOT been targeted or plotted against by terrorists or violent individuals? (Antiterrorism Scenario Training, Page 1) None of these answers (correct) 10) True or False: Terrorists usually avoid tourist locations since they are not DOD-related. (Antiterrorism Scenario Training, Page 1) False (correct) -------------------------------------------------------------------------------- 11) What is NOT a physical security measure for your home? (Antiterrorism Scenario Training, Page 2) Hiding a key outside to ensure family members can get in if they lose their keys. (correct) 12) Select all factors that are ways in which you might become the victim of a terrorist attack. (Introduction to Antiterrorism, Page 4) Opportunity (correct) Location (correct) Predictability (correct) Association (correct) 13) Alerts from the National Terrorism Advisory System apply only to the United States and its possessions. (Introduction to Antiterrorism, Page 12) True (correct) 14) What is NOT a terrorist method of surveillance? (Antiterrorism Scenario Training, Page 3) [objective6] Breaking and entering to steal valuables (correct) 15) True or False: The initial moments of a hostage taking incident can be extremely dangerous. (Antiterrorism Scenario Training, Page 2) True (correct) 16) Which of the following is NOT an Antiterrorism Level I theme? (Antiterrorism Scenario Training, Page 2) Counter-surveillance (correct) 17) Persons who have been given access to an installation can be counted on to be of no threat. True or False? (Antiterrorism Scenario Training, Page 3) False (correct) 18) True or False: Room invasions are a significant security issue for hotels located in CONUS. (Antiterrorism Scenario Training, Page 1) True (correct) 19) True or False: In an active shooter incident involving firearms you should immediately lie on the ground. (Antiterrorism Scenario Training, Page 2) False (correct) 20) True or False: From a security perspective, the best rooms are directly next to emergency exits. (Antiterrorism Scenario Training, Page 3) False (correct) 21) From the following choices, select the factors you should consider to understand the threat in your environment. (Introduction to Antiterrorism, Page 3) ---ALL of Above 22) True or False: Everyone on an installation has shared responsibility for security. (Antiterrorism Scenario Training, Page 2) True (correct) 23) IEDs may come in many forms and may be camouflaged to blend in to the surrounding environment. True or False? True (correct) 24) Knowing indicators of an unstable person can allow you to identify a potential insider threat before an incident. (Antiterrorism Scenario Training, Page 4) True (correct) 25) What should you NOT do during a hostage rescue attempt? (Antiterrorism Scenario Training, Page 4) Try to assist hostage rescue team (correct) 26) Early symptoms of a biological attack may appear the same as common illnesses. True or False? (Antiterrorism Scenario Training, Page 2) True (correct) 27) True or False: Security is a team effort. (Antiterrorism Scenario Training, Page 6) True (correct) 28) True or False: Surveillance can be performed through either stationary or mobile means. (Antiterrorism Scenario Training, Page 3) True (correct)

COUNTERINTELLIGENCE AWARENESS

1. Foreign Intelligence entities seldom use the internet or other communications including social networking services as a collection method. - False 2. Foreign intelligence entity (FIE) is defined in DoD directive 5240.06 as "as known or suspected forign organization, person, or group (public, private, or governmental) that conducts intelligence activities to acquire U.S. infomation, block or impair - US......... -Ture 3. Personnel who fail to report CI activities of concern as outlined in Enclosure 4 of DoD Directive 5240.06 are subject to appropriate disciplinary action under regulations. -ture 4. Foreign intelligence entities seldom use elicitation to extract info from people who have access to classified or sensitive info. - false 5. Counterintelligence as defined in the National Security Act of 1947, is ...... - true. 6. which of the following is not an example of an anomaly? - foreign diplomat attempts to defect. 7. DoD personnel who suspect a coworker of possible espionage should - report directly to your Ci or security office

Individual - Managing Your Risk

1. Knowledge, skills, automation, and techniques are _____________. -Resources in ORM 2. ___________ are actions taken or measures put in place to eliminate a hazard or reduce the associated identified risk. - Controls 3.Why is communication important for TCRM? - Provides shared knowledge of a situation - Provides a new perspective when dealing with potential risk 4. Being able, willing, and ready to actively participate, state, and maintain your position until convinced that other options are better is a behavioral skill called _________. -assertiveness 5. What are the factors that should be considered when assigning a risk level in the second step of the five-step process? -Probability and severity 6. Any real or potential condition that can cause injury, illness, or death to personnel; damage to or loss of equipment or property; degradation of mission capability or impact to mission accomplishment; or damage to the environment. -hazard 7. An expression of possible loss, adverse outcome or negative consequence; such as injury or illness, in terms of probability and severity. -risk 8. A structured process to identify and assess hazards. An expression of potential harm, described in terms of hazard severity, mishap probability and exposure to hazards . -risk assessment 9. Risk remaining after controls have been identified and selected. -residual risk 10. An expression of the risk associated with a hazard that combines its severity and probability into a single arabic numeral which can be used to help determine hazard abatement priorities. -risk assessment code 11. Actions taken or measures put in place to eliminate a hazard or reduce the associated indentified risk. -controls 12. Personal characteristics and skills are fundamental in ORM, how do they support the TCRM process? -Guide the Sailors decision making process 13. Which of the following is NOT a level of ORM? -Intentional 14. ORM should be applied to simple and redundant everyday evolutions, like driving to and from work. -True 15. Navy ORM is a ____ step process applied using ____ principles at ____ levels. -5, 4, 3 16. Used for complex operations or introduction of new equipment -In depth 17. Planning of unit missions, tasks or events -deliberate 18. Point of execution of a mission or task -time critical 19.The ability to use logic and sound judgment to make decisions based on available information to complete the mission or task is a behavioral skill called ________. -decision-making 20.Navy Core Values, though fundamental to Naval operations, are overlooked in a TCRM situation. -False 21. Which of the following is NOT a principle of ORM? - Eliminate risk through the application of ORM. 22. Which two of the following are fundamental to ORM mission success? - Mission success is a shared responsibility & Knowledge of hazard controls is important to mission or task accomplishment 23. _________ is based on the worst credible outcome when analyzing risk . - Severity 24. An individual must be willing to accept the level of risk his or her supervisor assigns. - False 25. ORM should only be used when the individual has time to plan an operation or evolution. -False 26. The ability to clearly and accurately send and acknowledge information and/or instructions and provide useful feedback. - communication 27. the ability to develop short term, long term, and contingency plans- including the coordination, allocation, and monitoring of resources--while monitoring for changes to the plans while they are occuring. - mission/task analysis 28. the ability to alter a course of action when the situation changes. -adaptability/flexbility 29. being ready, willing, and able to actively participate, state, and maintain your position until convinced by the facts that other options are better. -assertiveness 30. the ability to direct and coordinate the activities of other team members and to take responsibility for how plans are executed. -leadership 31. the perception of what you see and how it affects the task or mission, and the projection of what it means in the future. -situational awareness.

Assistant - Leading Risk Management Integration

1. Navy ORM training is for military and civilian personnel, enabling successful completion of all operations or activities. --- true 2. According to CNO Guidance, "Zero risk is the achievable goal." ---false 3.Training, coordination of ORM assessments, and monitoring risk controls is the responsibility of the __________. ---Command ORM assistant 4. The command ORM manager must designate _________ as command ORM assistants and technical experts. --- 1 officer & 1 senior enlisted 5. The Navy instruction that directs all Naval activities to apply the principles of ORM is _______.---OPNAVINST 3500.39 series 6. Which concentrations are sections of the ORM Program Assessment Sheet? ---Administration/Training & Implementation/Feedback 7. The ORM Program Assessment tools were designed for use only during external administrative evaluations. ---False 8. The Evolution ORM Assessment Sheet has been condensed into four evolution phases and ________ ORM application tasks. --- 16 9.The CO should designate the ________ as the command ORM manager. --- XO 10. An opposing force, condition, source, or circumstance with the potential to negatively impact your mission and/or degrade the mission capability is a __________. ---hazard 11. Navy ORM training is for military and civilian personnel, enabling successful completion of all operations or activities. ---True 12. TRACS stands for _________. ---Total Risk Assessment and Control System 13. Individual units may keep files of their own tailored TRACS Assessments in a secure place other than on the TRACS website. --- True

Supervisor - Managing Your Team's Risk

1. Risk to forces is the risk that could potentially damage or injure our personnel ---True 2. Supervisors need only concern themselves with attaining good ORM communication with their subordinates, not what comes down from the upper chain-of-command. ---False 3. Residual risk is the risk remaining after controls have been identified, selected, and implemented for the hazard. --True 4.The overall goal of ORM is to completely eliminate risk from planned operational evolutions. --- False 5. Individual units may keep files of their own tailored TRACS Assessments in a secure place other than on the TRACS website.--True 6. An opposing force, condition, source, or circumstance with the potential to negatively impact your mission and/or degrade the mission capability is a __________. ---hazard 7. _________ is the estimate of the likelihood that a hazard will cause an impact on an operation.---Probability 8. __________ controls are based on the knowledge and skills of the units and individuals.---Educational 9. Which is NOT a level of ORM? ---Planned 10. PPE falls into the category of _________ controls. ----physical 11. In regards to the Supervise step of ORM, which is NOT an aspect? ---Provide support 12. The portion of total risk that remains after unacceptable risk has been determined is ________. ---Residual 13. TRACS stands for _________. --Total Risk Assessment and Control System 14. Risk to force is the risk to personnel when executing a task or mission.---True 15. A _________ is any condition with the potential to negatively impact mission accomplishment or cause injury, death or property damage ---hazard

Combating Trafficking in Persons (CTIP) General Awareness Refresher Training

1. Trafficking in persons consists of which of the following -- Sex and Labor trafficking. 2. Traffickers exploit people who are vulnerable because of -- All of the above 3. Sex traffickers are most likely to take advantage of individuals in which of the following locations?-- Dance clubs, massage parlors. 4. Which of the following most likely indicates a labor trafficking situation? -- employment contracts were not drafted in the employees' native language, & Employees are required to work and live in the same location. 5. Which of the following is an appropriate action if you suspect a trafficking in persons violation? -- A and C 6.The National Defense Authorization Act (NDAA) for Fiscal Year 2013 prohibits contractors from performing which of the following actions?--- Confiscating identity documents, Offering employment using false representations, Failing to meet housing and safety standards 7. Traffickers look for victims in vulnerable situations such as ----Politically unstable countries 8. Labor traffickers are most likely to take advantage of employees in which of the following professions? -----Janitorial services & Hospitality industry 9. Which of the following most likely indicates a trafficking in persons situation? ---------A and B 10. Which of the following is an appropriate action if you come across a trafficking in persons violation? ---- Contact the Department of Defense Inspector General (IG) at 1-800-424-9098 11. The Trafficking Victims Protection Reauthorization Act (TVPRA) 2013 does which of the following? -----All of the above 12. Traffickers look for victims in vulnerable situations such as ________________.Areas struck by natural disasters &Cities facing economic hardship 13. Trafficking in persons could take place in which of the following locations? ---- all of above

Operational Risk Management - Time-Critical Risk Management

1. What is the outcome from the "DO and DEBRIEF" step of risk management? All the Above. 2. What are the THREE resources used during the "BALANCE" step of risk management? Balance resources VS Hazards & Balance resources & Individual VS Team Effort 3. What is the definition of Operational Risk Management (ORM)? The process of dealing with risk associated within military operations, which includes risk assessment, risk decision making and implementation of effective risk controls. 4. What is the definition of Time Critical Risk Management (TCRM)? Effective use of all available resources by individuals, crews and teams to safely and effectively accomplish the mission or task using risk management concepts when time and resources are limited. 5. What are THREE criteria used in the "COMMUNICATION" step of risk management? Communicate to the right people .& Use the right communication style., & Communicate your hazards and intentions. 6. What are the THREE factors in the "ASSESS" step of risk management? Task Loading & Additive Conditions & Human Factors 7. What are the THREE different levels of risk?- Time Critical & Deliberate & In-Depth 8. What is the role of communication in risk management? All of the above. 9. Select the THREE stages of situational Awareness within risk management from the answers provided. - Perception of the elements in the environment within a volume of time and space. & Determination of corrective measures to prevent further incidents . & Projection of their status in the near future.

Maintenance Data System

1. What is the purpose of the Maintenance Data System? a 2. CDMD-OA, NSLC, TYCOM, NAVICP, ISEA 60%out of 100 3. Which of the following acts as a means for moving data between the MDS reporting agencies? d 4. What are the basic functions of SCLSIS? abc 5. Which of the following are increased by the use of SCLSIS? bcd 6. Which of the following are decreased by the use of SCLSIS? Abc 7. How often does a ship receive a new/revised COSAL?d 8. Which of the following items are listed in the COSAL?d 9. When making a transaction using the COSAL, a common mistake is to use what APL? c 10.Which description is not a purpose of the COSAL? d 11. zeh 12.How are JSNs assigned by the Work Center? c 13.If GM3 Jones looks in his Work Center's JSN Log and sees that the last maintenance action was assigned the number 0500, what number should he assign to the next entry? a 14. 52693/ wt05/1500 15.UIC, work center, jsn 16 . 2l,ck,2k 17.During the INSURV inspection, the inspectors identify an uncorrected maintenance deficiency. Which form should be used to document it? a 18.What do Work Center Supervisors use the CSMP for? c 19.How does the CSMP help maintenance managers? a

Record Management

1. Willfully and knowingly destroying a federal record, or failing to follow the appropriate disposition schedule, may result in: =========A fine, imprisonment, or both 2.Per 44 U.S.C. Section 3301, the legal definition of a record is: All documentary materials - regardless of physical form - that have been made or received by an agency of the U.S. Government under federal law or in connection with the transaction of public business, and . . . (Select one of the following): ==========Preserved as evidence of the organization, functions, policies, decisions, procedures, operations or other activities of the Government. 3. E-mail that contains information that would have been considered a record if in another format, is to be managed as a record. That includes: ========Printing and filing the hard copy in the corresponding folder within your command's records management system 4.The unauthorized disposition or destruction of a federal record may result in: =======The possibility of a fine, jail or both 5. You have just received notice of an official records freeze from your Service's Records Manager. You are responsible to: ===========Preserve records in your custody, then collect and forward the information as directed;;& Destroy records in your custody that you believe to be derogatory, then collect and forward the information as directed. ;;& Do nothing; the notice is sent only as a courtesy or For Your Information (FYI) only. 6.Your responsibilities in support of the DON Records Management Program include: ========Performing records disposition - retirement, transfer or destruction - as directed by SECNAV Manual 5210.1, DON Records Management Program, Records Management Manual 7.There are two types of records. The first is known as "permanent" and refers to records identified as having long-term value, including significant historical, cultural or reference value. What is the other type of record included in the DON Records Management Program? ========Temporary record 8.Which of the following statements is CORRECT:=====Records management requires the safeguarding, protection and management of federal records - regardless of their format or classification.

Energy General Military Training

1. ab 2. ab 3. ab 4. a 5. a 6. b 7. a 8. bcd 9. abde 10. all 11. a 12. b

planned maintenance system answers

1. d 2. c 3. c 4. a 5. a 6. d 7. c 8. d 9. 6641/004-45 10. a 11. d 12. * 13. 1-06 14. d 15. c 16. c 17. b&E 18. DC 19. c 20. c 21. a 22. c 23. ac 24. b&e, c 25. d 26. a 27. c 28. a 29. * 30. a 31. b 32. a 33. a 34. c 35. d 36. c 37. bd 38. c

MicroSNAP

1.7314652 2.Your supervisor provides you with an equipment validation sheet in order to validate a portable air conditioning unit. When you find the piece of equipment, you find only the serial number and nomenclature. Can you validate this piece of equipment? b 3.When you return to your WCS after checking the label plate, what should be validated next? 4.What is used to ensure that the equipment validation is performed correctly? c 5.Who normally obtains the equipment validation sheets for the maintenance personnel? a 6.Given the equipment validation sheet by your Work Center Supervisor, you discover that the serial number does not match the serial number on the equipment. What should you do? a 7.During a routine maintenance check, you cannot find the piece of equipment according to the Location item on the EVS. What should you do next? a 8.After you ensure that the label plate is correct, what step should be next? d 9.Who ensures that the maintenance process begins and that the MicroSNAP database is updated? c 10.What is Expeditionary Forces' goal for finishing all equipment validation? c

Malaria Control

Which of the four species of Plasmodium is the most dangerous? - P. falciparum Malaria transmission is carried by the male Anopheles mosquito - False How long should personnel continue to take antimalarial medication upon return from deployment? - Four weeks In what two Plasmodium species does the sporozoite remain dormant in the liver? - P. ovale and P. vivax How long before sporozoites, that have infected the liver cells, disappear from the bloodstream? - 30 minutes What is the primary method to avoid malaria infection? -Avoid getting bit Where does a malaria parasite mature? - Liver Young Trophozoite Stage for the malaria parasite. - Ring Stage (Correct Answer) What personal prevention methods should personnel be utilizing during deployment? CHECK ALL THAT APPLY. - Bed nets sprayed with permthrin - DEET Cellular Division Forming Merozoites Stage for the malaria parasite. - - Schizonts What is the malaria incubation period for P. vivax? - 12 - 17 days If a sample smear is negative, how often should the sample be repeated? - Every 6-8 hours for 24-36 hours What is the name of the male/female sexual forms of the malaria parasite? -Gametocytes Sexually Differentiated Forms Stage for the malaria parasite -Gametocytes What is the dosage for Doxycycline over a 7 day period as part of malaria -100 mg oral bid Plasmodum requires _____ hosts to complete its life cycle -2 __________ is the first line of defense against mosquito bites. -Minimize skin exposure If a sample smear is positve for malaria, the smear should be repeated once a day while there are symptoms present and during treatment . -False What is the primary vector of malaria? -Anopheles mosquito Where should blood be taken from to perfom a smear? -Capillary or venous blood Developmental Stage for the malaria parasite -Trophozoites Which type of malaria has a 3 day cycle and can last a lifetime? -. P. malariae _______ are Standard Naval Letters sent from more than one person -Joint Letters Malaria in Southeast Asia was demonstrated resistance to which malaria -Melfoquine and Chlorquine