Hazmat Ops

What health effects may be produced by high levels of radiation received over a short time (acute doses)? A. Confusion, dizziness, and short-term memory loss. B. Flashing lights and blind spots in vision, accompanied by headache. C. Reduced blood count, hair loss, nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, and fatigue. D. No long-term health effects as the body has enough time to replace dead or nonfunctioning cells with healthy ones.

A: Confusion, dizziness, and short-term memory loss.

Materials released from ______ will tend to pool close to the ground and will initially be visible as a fog or cloud; most will displace oxygen, and some will create an explosive environment. A. Cryogenic liquid tanks B. Underground storage tanks C. Low pressure storage tanks D. Non-pressure/atmospheric storage tanks

A: Cryogenic liquid tanks

Which division in hazard class 1: Explosives have a mass explosion hazard that would affect almost the entire load instantaneously? A. Division 1.1 B. Division 1.3 C. Division 1.4 D. Division 1.6

A: Division 1.1

86. The chief danger in moving an injured victim quickly from the hot zone is the possibility of: A. Aggravating a spinal injury B. Inflicting injury on an uninjured victim C. Becoming disoriented and remaining too long in the hot zone D. A responder suffering an injury while carrying a victim through the decon corridor

A: Aggravating a spinal injury

What hazard class includes reactive substances or articles with a great deal of potential energy that may rapidly expand and release upon activation? A. Class 1: Explosives B. Class 3: Flammable Liquids C. Class 4: Flammable Solids; Spontaneously Combustible, and Dangerous When Wet D. Class 7: Radioactive Materials

A: Class 1: Explosives

What type of bulk cargo tank consists of individual steel cylinders stacked and mounted together? A. Compressed gas/tube trailers B. High pressure tank trucks ( MC-331 cargo tanks ) C. Cryogenic tanks trucks ( MC-338, TC-338, or SCT-338 cargo tanks ) D. Corrosive liquid tank trucks ( MC-312 or DOT/TC-412 cargo tank trucks

A: Compressed gas/tube trailers

Leak control is an offensive product control strategy that attempts to: A. Break the material into small droplets and encapsulate them B. Confine a hazardous material that has been released from its container C. Contain a material in its original container, or transfer it to another container D. Mix a hazardous material with water or air lower the concentration to safe levels

B: Confine a hazardous material that has been released from its container

When the chemical agents known as blood agents affect the body, they: A. Attack and cause tissue damage to the lungs B. Kill quickly by attacking the nervous system C. Interfere with the body's ability to use oxygen D. Burn and blister the skin or any other part of the body they contact

C: Interfere with the body's ability to use oxygen

Spill control neutralization reactions can release: A. Tremendous heat B. Cryogenic vapors C. Large volumes of runoff D. Secondary Contaminants

C: Large volumes of runoff

6. Dome roof tanks, spheroid tanks, and noded spheroid tanks are types of ______ bulk facility storage tanks. A. Atmospheric B. Floating Roof C. Low Pressure D. Cryogenic Liquid

C: Low Pressure

99. Most meters used to measure combustible gases measure the _____ of flammable vapors and gases in the atmosphere. A. Reactivity B. Vapor pressure C. Lower explosive limit ( LEL ) D. Upper reactivity limit ( URL )

C: Lower explosive limit ( LEL )

In order to prevent damage or malfunction, PPE must be stored properly according to: A. OSHA regulations B. A factory authorized technician C. Manufacturers' recommendations D. The local emergency management plan

C: Manufacturers' recommendations

In addition to dealing with people or animals who are carriers of such diseases, where might responders be exposed to biological hazards? A. Industrial and utility plants B. Pest control and lawn care companies C. Medical laboratories and agricultural facilities D. Power generating stations and utility substations

C: Medical laboratories and agricultural facilities.

Which technical decontamination techniques uses a material to change the chemical structure of a hazardous material? A. Washing B. Sanitation C. Evaporation D. Chemical Degradation

D: Chemical Degradation

Which hazard class includes materials that have an anesthetic, noxious, or other similar property that cause distraction or discomfort to crew members during transportation? A. Class 4: Flammable Solids, Spontaneously Combustible, and Dangerous When Wet B. Class 5: Oxidizers and Organic Peroxides C. Class 7: Radioactive Materials D. Class 9: Miscellaneous Materials

D: Class 9: Miscellaneous Materials

7. Where can responders typically find emergency shutoff devices on corrosive liquid tanks (MC/DOT 312)? A. In the control box under the tank. B. In the loading/unloading area near valves and piping. C. Behind the driver's side cab and on the left rear corner. D. Corrosive liquid tanks do NOT typically have emergency shutoff devices.

D: Corrosive liquid tanks do NOT typically have emergency shutoff devices

Normally, personnel trained below the Technician level do not attempt offensive actions such as leak control; however, Operations responders with appropriate training, procedures, equipment, and PPE can take offensive actions with: A. Materials in containers intended for retail sale. B. Solid materials such as dust, granules, and powders. C. Compressed gases in containers of 75 cubic feet or smaller. D. Gasoline, diesel, liquefied petroleum gas (LPG), and natural gas fuels.

D: Gasoline, diesel, liquefied petroleum gas (LPG_, and natural gas fuels.

Detection and monitoring devices not calibrated and maintained in accordance to the manufactures' directions may pose a safety hazard by: A. Leaking caustic battery acid B. Creating an electrical short hazard C. Unexpectedly overheating / smoking D. Giving inaccurate and misleading readings

D: Giving inaccurate and misleading readings

What response objective may include actions such as incident level identification and public emergency information? A. Notification B. Product Control C. Evidence Preservation D. Isolation and Scene Control

D: Isolation and Scene Control

Which type of tank truck transports liquids, including flammable /combustible liquids, mild corrosives, and some toxic/poisons typically at pressures of 25 to 35 psi (172 to 241 kPa)? A. Compressed gas/tube trailers. B. High-pressure tank trucks (MC-331 cargo tanks) C. Non-pressure cargo tank trucks (MC-306 or DOT/TC 406 cargo tanks) D. Low pressure chemical tank trucks (MC-307 or DOT/TC 407 cargo tanks)

D: Low pressure chemical tank trucks (MC-307 or DOT/TC 407 cargo tanks)

Which type of cargo tank may have emergency shutoffs in the center of the tank near valves and piping, or built into the valve box? A. Compressed gas tube trailers B. High pressure tanks ( MC-331 ) C. Corrosive liquid tanks ( MC/DOT 312 ) D. Non-pressure liquid tanks ( MC/DOT-306/406 ) and low pressure chemical tanks ( MC/DOT-307/407 )

D: Non-pressure liquid tanks ( MC/DOT-306/406 ) and low pressure chemical tanks ( MC/DOT-307/407 )

What is the least energetic form of radiation? A. Gamma radiation B. Ionizing radiation C. Ultraviolet radiation D. Nonionizing radiation

D: Nonionizing radiation

Use of only ______ self-contained breathing apparatus ( SCBA ) is allowed in incidents where personnel are exposed to hazardous materials. A. Pressure-demand close-circuit B. Positive-pressure single-pathway C. Pressure-demand open-circuit or closed-circuit D. Positive-pressure open-circuit or closed-circuit

D: Positive-pressure open-circuit or closed-circuit

A more thorough triage of injured victims will be conducted: A. After transport to a witness interview area B. After victims have gone through the decon process C. In an area of refuge in the decontamination corridor D. In the hot zone, before transport to the decontamination area

B: After victims have gone through the decon process

Which type of respiratory protection does not protect against oxygen-deficient or oxygen-enriched atmospheres? A. Supplied air respirators (SARs) B. Air-purifying respirators (APRs) C. Powered and supplied air hoods D. Self-contained breathing apparatus (SCBA)

B: Air-purifying respirators (APRs)

Which hazard-control zone is the site for the multiagency command post ( CP ), staging area, and triage/ treatment/rehabilitation? A. Hot zone B. Cold zone C. Warm zone D. Contamination reduction zon

B: Cold zone

Which organizational function of the NIMS-ICS has the delegated authority to direct, order, and control all resources? A. Logistics Section B. Command Section C. Operations Section D. Finance/Administration Section

B: Command Section

When using an adsorbent for technical decontamination of a hazardous liquid, it is important to make certain the adsorbent material is: A. The most cost-effective option available B. Compatible with the hazardous material C. Sold by an approved, licensed equipment vendor D. Available in packages not to exceed 25 pounds (12.5kg)

B: Compatible with the hazard material

What actions use time as a protective strategy in order to reduce the likelihood that responders will suffer serious harm at a hazardous materials incident? A. Implement hazard-control zones and maximize the distance from potential hazards. B. Restrict work times in the hot zone, and frequently rotate personnel on work groups. C. Place a physical barrier between a responder and the hazard such as a wall, building, or apparatus. D. Require responders who work in the hot zone to take additional time in rehabilitation, up to twice as much as other responders.

A: Implement hazard-control zones and maximize the distance from potential hazards.

What is the decontamination of large numbers of people in the fastest possible time to reduce surface contamination to a safe level, with or without a formal decontamination corridor or line? A. Mass decontamination B. Technical decontamination C. Homogeneous decontamination D. Comprehensive decontamination

A: Mass decontamination

What term describes the ability of two or more gases or liquids to mix with or to dissolve into each other? A. Miscibility B. Insolubility C. Persistence D. Luminescence

A: Miscibility

What complicates the development of an effective Incident Action Plan (IAP) for operations at an illicit laboratory? A. Most illicit lab responses involve multiple agencies, each with a specific jurisdiction. B. The IAP may not be complete before emergency conditions require operations to begin. C. Because there is no solid model for joint command among agencies, each response will have to create a new structure. D. Each agency responding is required to adhere to their own SOP/G's which may contradict those of other agencies.

A: Most illicit lab responses involve multiple agencies, each with a specific jurisdiction.

What is the most common type of IED found in the United States? A. Pipe Bombs B. Pressure cooker bombs C. Carbon dioxide ( CO2 ) grenades D. Satchel, backpack, briefcase, or box bombs

A: Pipe Bombs

At large hazardous materials incidents, what section of NIMS-ICS gathers, assimilates, analyzes, and processes information needed for effective decision making. A. Planning B. Logistics C. Operations D. Intelligence and Information

A: Planning

9. What assistance can be provided by Disaster Medical Assistance Teams (DMAT)? A. Provide emergency medical care during a disaster or other event. B. Provide technical assistance and personnel to recover, identity, and process deceased victims. C. Manage large and/or complex incidents by providing full logistical support for receiving and distribution centers. D. Locate and extract victims from a contaminated environment, perform mass patient/casualty decontamination, and provide treatment as necessary to stabilize patients for evacuation.

A: Provide emergency medical care during a disaster of other event

OSHA requires the appointment of a ________ officer at hazmat incidents. A. Safety B. Liaison C. Logistics D. Public information

A: Safety

If responders discover an illicit lab, they should: A. Stop, get out, and report it to authorities immediately B. Initiate clean-up operations according to SOP/G's C. Search the are for secondary devices and booby traps D. Station a responder inside the door to control the scene

A: Stop, get out, and report it to authorities immediately

Per the ERG, why is the initial isolation zone one mile ( 1.6 km ) for a pressure tank railroad car involved in fire? A. The tank my BLEVE B. They are enclosed spaces C. The contents will displace oxygen D. The contents pose significant respiratory hazards

A: The tank may BLEVE

Who is responsible for maintaining both immediate and functional supervision over teams to ensure their safety during a rescue operation? (pg. 593) A. The unit leader B. The backup team C. The Logistics Officer D. The Incident Commander

A: The unit leader

The only way to confirm if radiation is present at an incident is to: A. Use a radiological monitoring equipment B. Call for expert guidance from state or federal experts C. Observe the symptoms of radiation exposure in victims D. Find a radiation exposure or radiological dispersal device

A: Use radiological monitoring equipment

First responders should always adhere to universal precautions whenever they have contact with a broken or moist skin, blood, or bloody fluids including: A. Using disposable gloves and changing gloves between patients. B. Restraining victims who exhibit symptoms of contagious diseases. C. Wearing an air-purifying respirator with an organic vapor cartridge. D. Beginning prophylactic antibiotic therapy as soon as the incident stabilizes.

A: Using disposable gloves and changing gloves between patients.

What is an example of the action option of protecting/defending in place? A. Using hose streams to diffuse a plume B. Covering/containing a hazardous material spill C. Diverting material toward a drain D. Evacuating an are when flames impinge on a pressure container

A: Using hose streams to diffuse a plume

What is and effective strategy to protect first responders at hazmat incidents? A. Using time, distance, and shielding B. Evacuation, escape, and sheltering C. Rescue, decontamination, and triage D. Reminding responders to stop, look, and listen

A: Using time, distance, and shielding

If the threat of a BLEVE or other dangerous situation develops during a hazmat response, it may become necessary to: A. Withdraw immediately B. Seek an area of safe refuge C. Initiate a Mayday response D. Travel to an emergency medical facility for treatment

A: Withdraw immediately

5. Responders can use potassium iodide (KI) starch paper to test: A. The pH of unknown chemicals. B. The concentration of toxic materials. C. The oxidizing potential of unknown chemicals. D. For presence of fluoride ions and gaseous hydrogen fluoride.

A: the pH of unknown chemicals

To use pH meter to test liquid materials: A. Insert the probe into the material being tested B. Place a drop of the material being tested on the meter sensor C. Place a drop of the material on the sample plate, close the sample plate, and hold the meter to a natural light D. Hold the tip of the meter above the liquid, then gently pump vapors into the meter until the reading is shown

A; Insert the probe into the material being tested

What is a service offered by emergency response centers, such as the Chemical Transportation Emergency Center ( CHEM - TREC ), Canadian Transport Emergency Center ( CANUTEC ), Civil Protection Agency ( CENACOM ), and Emergency Transportation System for the chemical industry ( SECTIQ )? A. Dispatch incident management teams B. Contact the shipper of the material or other exports C. Alert local medical centers to possible incoming victims D. Initiate reverse 9-1-1 calls to residents in the hazard area

B: Contact the shipper of the material or other exports

A biological attack with a ______ disease agent has the potential to become an epidemic. A. Chronic B. Contagious C. Biological toxin D. Non-Communicable

B: Contagious

What type of illicit lab might contain wires, fuses, batteries, or switches; tubes and pipes; or ammonium nitrate? A. Biological lab B. Explosives lab C. Methamphetamine lab D. Chemical weapons lab

B: Explosives lab

What types of hazardous materials are usually contained in low pressure bulk storage tanks? A. Liquids such as milk, molasses, corn syrup, and fruit juices. B. Flammable and combustible liquids with low vapor pressures. C. Liquefied petroleum gases (LPG) such as propane and butane. D. Corrosives, typically acids as acetyl chloride, hydrochloric acid, and sodium hydroxide.

B: Flammable and combustible liquids with low vapor pressures.

Generally, self-reading dosimeters (SRDs) only measure: A. Alpha and beta radiation B. Gamma and X-ray radiation C. Radiation at or above 50% of the NFPA exposure limits. D. Radiation at or below 50% of the NFPA exposure limits.

B: Gamma and X-ray radiation

8. What will provide the scene control required at hazmat and terrorist incidents to prevent interference by unauthorized persons, minimize contamination, and help ensure accountability of all personnel? A. Areas of safe refuge. B. Hazard control zones. C. Decontamination corridors. D. Personnel-tracking systems.

B: Hazard control zones

Responders conducting monitoring and sampling activities at hazmat incidents involving ______ will typically be sufficiently protected when using firefighting protective equipment with SCBA or level C PPE. A. Liquid spills B. Hazardous solids C. Unknown hazards D. Cryogenic materials

B: Hazardous solids

Dilution of liquid materials rarely has practical applications at hazmat incidents in terms of spill control, because: A. It is difficult to bring water to the majority of spill locations. B. It requires huge volumes of water that may create runoff problems, C. Of the specialized equipment and large number of personnel required. D. The dangers of unidentified water reactive materials present a significant hazard.

B: It requires huge volumes of water that may create runoff problems.

What procedures should responders follow when issuing notifications of a hazardous materials incident? A. OSHA mandate notifications B. Local SOP's C. Directions of an Allied Professional D. Notifications listed in the EERG white pages

B: Local SOP's

What monitor detects low concentrations of many organic and some inorganic gases and vapors, and makes a good survey instrument? A. Colorimetric indicator tubes B. Photoionization detectors ( PID's ) C. Direct reading dosimeters ( DRD's ) D. Combustion gas indicators ( CGI's )

B: Photoionization detectors (PID's)

What radioactive hazard class contains materials capable of undergoing self-reactions that release energy? A. Peroxidizable B. Polymerizable C. Water-reactive D. Highly flammable

B: Polymerizable

Witnesses at incidents should be advised to: A. Contact the incident investigator within 48 hours of the incident. B. Remain at the scene in a safe location until they have been interviewed and released. C. Undergo decontamination and medical monitoring, then contact a physician within 24 hours. D. Remain on scene at a safe location and report their observations during the on-scene debriefing.

B: Remain at the scene in a safe location until they have been interviewed and released.

74. What resources provide responders with the exposure limits for many materials? A. Facility chemical inventory reports B. Shipping papers or receiving documents C. The emergency response guidebook ( ERG ) D. The NIOSH Pocket Guide to Hazardous Materials

B: Shipping papers or receiving documents

What component of risk analysis is a continuous process involving all responders that includes size-up, interpreting signs, assessing what is happening over the life of the incident, and predicting outcomes based on a plan of action? A. Maximizing benefits B. Situational awareness C. Monitoring and detection D. Effective communication

B: Situational awareness

During PPE doffing operations, the last item removed from the entry personnel should be: A. The two-way radio B. The respirator facepiece C. Chemical-resistant boots D. Chemical-resistant gloves

B: The respirator facepiece

How can responders use pH paper to test the pH of hydrocarbons with high vapor pressure? A. Plunge the pH paper into the hydrocarbon. B. Wave the dry pH paper in the vapor space above the hydrocarbon. C. Wet the pH paper with distilled water and plunge the pH paper into the hydrocarbon. D. Wet the pH paper with distilled water and wave the pH paper into the hydrocarbon.

B: Wave the dry pH paper in the vapor space above the hydrocarbon.

What weather condition is a critical factor to evaluate when working outside, as it may cause rapid heat loss leading to cold emergency? A. Snowfall B. Wind chill C. Cloud cover D. Low temperature

B: Wind chill

What detection and monitoring equipment is used to detect corrosive materials? A. Gas-filled detectors B. pH meters and pH paper C. Photoionization detectors (PIDs) D. Potassium iodide (KI) starch paper

B: pH meters and pH paper

OSHA title 29 CFR 1910.120 mandates that incidents are critiqued ( post-incident critique ) for the purpose of: A. Determining the cause of the incident B. Recommending remediation actions to restore the site C. Identifying operational deficiencies and learning from mistakes D. Calculating incident expenses to allow for the recovery of costs incurred from the incident

C: Identifying operational deficiencies and learning from mistakes

Under NIMS-ICS Command organization, the Safety Officer: A. Must be trained to the Hazardous Materials Technician level at all incidents. B. Is responsible for identifying the materials or conditions involved in the incident. C. May exercise emergency authority to stop or prevent unsafe acts when immediate action is required. D. Must implement a site security and control plan to limit the number of personnel operating in control zone.

C. May exercise emergency authority to stop or prevent unsafe acts when immediate action is required.

When a fixed facility, piping, or pipeline remote shutoff valve is operated to stop the flow of product: A. A loud alarm, flashing light, or both will be activated B. The flow of product should stop almost immediately with no additional release. C. A significant amount of product may release for some time before the flow stops. D. A small amount of product may continue to flow as a pressure release safety measure.

C: A significant amount of product may release for some time before the flow stops.

Which statement about transferring command is accurate? A. The person assuming command must conduct their own size-up to gain as clear of a picture of the situation as possible. B. Command can be transferred face-to face over the radio, but only to someone within the IC's company, organization, or agency. C. Before transferring command, the IC must ensure that the new IC is both capable of assuming command and willing to accept command. D. Command may be transferred only once, as an incident grows larger, the IC may need to delegate tasks to experienced assistants to help bring the situation under control.

C: Before transferring command, the IC must ensure that the new IC is both capable of assuming command and willing to accept command.

Inhalation is the route of exposure by which hazardous materials enter the body by: A. Passing through your skin or eyes B. Puncture by a contaminated sharp or pointed object C. Breathing hazardous materials in through your nose or mouth D. Eating or swallowing hazardous materials through your mouth

C: Breathing hazardous materials in through your nose or mouth

Mass decontamination at hazardous materials incidents: A. Creates no additional environmental hazards B. Allows victims to be decontaminated without having to remove any clothing C. Can be implemented quickly using a limited amount of personnel and equipment D. Fully decontaminates the victim, eliminating the need for secondary decontamination

C: Can be implemented quickly using a limited amount of personnel and equipment

1. What describes the nature of a material and the behaviors and interactions that occur at a molecular level? A. Physical properties B. Covalent properties C. Chemical properties D. Mechanical properties

C: Chemicial Properties

What devices measure the amount of flammable vapors and gases in the atmosphere? A. Gas-filled detectors B. Fluoride test meters C. Combustible gas indicators (CGIs) D. Time-integrated sampling canisters

C: Combustible gas indicators (CGIs)

To combat the chaos of an incident requiring the use of mass decontamination, responders should: A. Form a cordon standing shoulder to shoulder to guide victims to the decontamination corridor. B. Guide victims to the decontamination corridor by placing a hand on the victims' arms or shoulders C. Communicate with the victims, provide clear and simple instructions, and clearly mark decon corridors. D. Institute a hand signal or coded word to communicate to victims that need to be quiet and wait for instructions.

C: Communicate with the victims, provide clear and simple instructions, and clearly mark decon corridors.

The mass decontamination plan is part of? A. NIMS-ICS Deployment guidelines B. OSHA decontamination regulations C. Each agency's overall emergency response plan D. The EPA Recourse Conservation and Recovery Act (RCRA) laws and regulations.

C: Each agency's overall emergency response plan

2. During rescue operations, ______ will perform the actual search, rescue and removal of victims from the hazardous area. A. The unit leader B. Medical responders C. Entry team members D. Backup team members

C: Entry team members

Photoionization detectors ( PID's ) should be used in situations when responders are: A. Attempting to identify individual materials. B. Evaluating the oxygen level in a confine space. C. Evaluating the extent of contamination from a release. D. Surveying for radiation or contamination after an explosion.

C: Evaluating the extent of contamination from a release.

Evacuation may be a better option than sheltering in place when ______ are involved. A. Biological toxins B. Corrosive vapors C. Explosive vapors or gases D. Liquid hazards with low vapor pressures

C: Explosive vapors or gases

The responder can jeopardize his or her safety and the safety of others if: A. The mitigation efforts take longer than intended. B. Critical evidence in a criminal case is disallowed. C. He or she does not understand how to use monitoring and sampling devices correctly. D. He or she uses monitoring and sampling devices in accordance with manufacturer's guidelines.

C: He or she does not understand how to use monitoring and sampling devices correctly.

What heat disorder symptoms include weakness, cold and clammy skin, heavy perspiration, rapid and shallow breathing, and dizziness? A. Heat stroke B. Hypothermia C. Heat exhaustion D. Heat intolerance

C: Heat exhaustion

Which statement about incident action plans is accurate? A. the creation and maintenance of a written plan is required for all incidents. B. The incident action plan addresses the initial actions to be taken upon arrival at an incident scene. C. Necessary modifications may be made to improve the plan if necessary as part of a continuous size-up process. D. Once the plan is established and resources are committed, the initial plan shall be followed until the conclusion of the incident.

C: Necessary modification may be made to improve the plan if necessary as part of a continuous size-up process.

3. Who must operate under the guidance of a hazmat technician, SOP/G or an allied professional when conducting technical decontamination? A. Ambulatory victims B. Technical level responders C. Operations level responders D. Responders being contaminated

C: Operations level responders

4. During technical decontamination operations, ______ typically perform such duties as setting up the decon corridor, assisting in doffing of PPE, and performing physical decontamination activities. A. Allied professional specialists B. Awareness Level responders C. Operations Level Responders D. Hazardous Materials Technicians

C: Operations level responders

Emergency response centers, such as the Chemical Transportation Emergency Center ( CHEM - TREC ), Canadian Transport Emergency Center ( CANUTEC ), Civil Protection Agency ( CENACOM ), and Emergency Transportation System for the Chemical Industry ( SETIQ ) can assist responders by: A. Providing copies of local emergency response plans B. Alerting and dispatching regional incident management teams (IMT) C. Providing 24-hour technical assistance to personnel responding to hazmat incidents D. Managing large and/or complex incidents and providing full logistical support for receiving and distribution centers

C: Providing 24-hour technical assistance to personnel responding to hazmat incidents

What is the term for the ratio of the density (mass per volume) of a material to the density of a standard material, usually an equal volume of water, at standard conditions of pressure and temperature? A. Atomic weight B. Polar solubility C. Specific gravity D. Atmospheric density

C: Specific gravity

What are indicators of a radiological attack? A. An unusual number of sick or dying people or animals; illnesses associated with a common source of food, water, or location; or nonendemic illness for the geographic area. B. Accelerant odors (such as gasoline); unattended packages, backpacks, or objects left in high traffic/public areas, or the presence of propane or other flammable gas cylinders. C. Suspicious packages that seem to weigh more than their appearance suggests they should, or material that is hot or seems to emit heat without any sign of an external heat source. D. Unexplained patterns of sudden onset of similar nontraumatic illnesses or deaths; casualties disturbed downwind (outdoors) or near ventilation systems (indoors) or unexplained odors or tastes.

C: Suspicious packages that seem to weigh more than their appearance suggests they should, or material that is hot or seems to emit heat without any sign of an external heat source.

What will dictate the detection and monitoring strategies and tactics used at the incident? A. The time available to accurately assess the hazards B. The nature of the incident ( accident or possible crime scene ) C. The hazards present at the incident and the responders' mission D. The number of PPE ensembles available for responders entering the work zone

C: The hazards present at the incident and the responders' mission

Which of the following should be evaluated before attempting a rescue? A. Medical assistance available on site B. Ability of the victim to communicate C. The location and viability of the victim D. Readiness of the technical decontamination

C: The location and viability of the victim.

Supplied air respirator ( SAR ) apparatus are limited by: A. The limit duration of the air supply B. The need to know the hazard present in the atmosphere C. The potential for mechanical or heat damage to the air supply line D. The need for the oxygen level to be between 19.5 and 23.5 percent

C: The potential for mechanical or heat damage to the air supply line

Why must responders to a hazardous materials incident be aware of open flames, static electricity, radiant heat, and activation of flashlights or cell phones? A. They can disturb an incident scene and contaminate or destroy evidence B. They can cause deterioration and permeation of chemical-resistant PPE C. They are potential ignition source that could ignite flammable gases and vapors D. They can distort the electronic readings of hazardous materials detection and monitoring devices

C: They are potential ignition source that could ignite flammable gases and vapors

What action should responders take if they come in contact with contaminants while conducting emergency decon? A. They should initiate a Mayday response. B. Establish a secondary decontamination line. C. They may need to decontaminate themselves. D. Travel to an emergency medical facility for treatment.

C: They may need to decontaminate themselves.

What is one way that responses to terrorist incidents differ from other hazardous material incident responses? A. Terrorist events never involve large numbers of casualties. B. Law enforcement will have lead jurisdiction over all incidents involving terrorism. C. Unique supplies, equipment, and emergency response plans are required to terrorist incidents. D. Evidence collection will take precedence over the priorities of life safety, incident stabilization, protecting property, and the environment.

C: Unique supplies, equipment, and emergency response plans are requires to terrorist incidents.

Which statement about chemical protective clothing (CPC) is accurate? A. All CPC is made of polyethylene fiber; different treatments provide protection from different chemicals. B. Only a single type of CPC protects against all types of chemicals, but it is cost-prohibitive for many agencies. C. The agency purchasing a particular suit may test the suit to confirm the list of chemicals for which the suit is effective. D. Selection of appropriate CPC depends on the specific chemical and on the specific tasks to be performed by the wearer.

D: Selection of appropriate CPC depends on the specific chemical and on the specific tasks to be performed by the wearer.

Once the incident Action Plan is developed, the ______ will spell out PPE requirements for tasks performed at the incident. A. Medical plan B. Site safety plan C. Current situation summary D. Strategies / incident objectives

D: Strategies / incident objectives

What type of decontamination uses chemical or physical methods to thoroughly remove contaminants from responders (primarily entry team personnel ) and their equipment and is usually conducted within a formal decontamination line or corridor following gross decontamination? A. Mass decontamination B. Gross decontamination C. Precision decontamination D. Technical decontamination

D: Technical decontamination

Responders should bring emergency/mass decon operations quickly; the speed necessary will be determined by: A. The number of victim's present B. The anxiety level of the victim's C. The number of personnel available D. The material and type of incident involved

D: The material and type of incident involved

When evaluating actions during an incident, tactical and/or task supervisors should communicate progress reports to the IC, which includes sharing: A. Time spent on each task as it progresses. B. Observations that might lead to the cause of the incident. C. Which equipment and personnel are being applied to each task. D. The status of the planned response and the progress of their actions.

D: The status of the planned response and the progress of their actions.

During an evacuation of responders from the hot zone, what information should be communicated to the appropriate personnel? A. The status of mission-related tasks B. The estimated time spent in the hot zone C. The remaining capabilities of equipment D. The type and degree of decontamination needed

D: The type and degree of decontamination needed

Because neutralization reactions can cause pH shift in the opposite direction and/or release tremendous heat, Operations level responders should only conduct neutralization: A. With intrinsically safe equipment B. Outdoors in a well-ventilated area C. While wearing Level A chemical protective clothing with SCBA D. Under the direction of a hazardous materials technician, allied professional, or SOP/G

D: Under the direction of a hazardous materials technician, allied professional, or SOP/G

Tactics for radiological incidents include: A. Tun on all ventilation systems B. Conduct overhaul and clean-up operations C. Disperse dust plums with streams from fog nozzles D. Use time, distance, and shielding as protective measures

D: Use time, distance, and shielding as protective measures

Responders who apply firefighting foam to the surface of a pool of flammable or combustible liquid are performing the control tactic of: A. Adsorption B. Emulsification C. Vapor dispersion D. Vapor suppression

D: Vapor suppression