HazMat Tech: Chapter 11

It is estimated that the average decon time will be 5 minutes; therefore, the last person of a two-person team will require how much air supply for decon? Select one: a. 10 minutes b. One-third of a cylinder c. Half a cylinder d. 5 minutes

A. 10 minutes

Which OSHA regulation, also known as HAZWOPER, applies to five distinct groups of employees that may come into contact with hazardous materials? Select one: a. 29 CFR 1910.120 b. 40 CFR Part 311 c. 29 CFR 1910.132 d. 40 CFR Part 577

A. 29 CFR 1910.120

A self-contained breathing apparatus unit consists of a facepiece, pressure regulator, harness assembly, and: Select one: a. a compressed air cylinder. b. an air-purifying filter. c. 100 feet (30 m) of supplied air hose. d. an encapsulating ensemble.

A. A compressed air cylinder.

What is an example of clothing design as a consideration for selecting protective clothing at a hazardous materials incident? Select one: a. Adequate seam and closure construction b. EPA or OSHA rating c. Physical hazards at the incident d. Single-use or reusable ensembles

A. Adequate seam and closure construction

What component is found on an air-purifying respirator? Select one: a. Air-purifying filter, canister, or cartridge b. Facepiece-mounted regulator c. Voice communications system d. Compressed air cylinder

A. Air-unifying filter, canister, or cartridge

Air-purifying respirators are: Select one: a. available in either powered or nonpowered designs. b. built to supply oxygen or air from a separate source. c. only available in half facepieces. d. not recommended at incidents at which the primary hazard is dust or particulates.

A. Available in either powered or non powered designs.

Which is NOT a primary environmental condition that causes cold-related stress? Select one: a. Being active b. Working on cold surfaces c. Dampness d. High winds

A. Being active

Avoiding contamination at a hazardous material incident means NOT: Select one: a. coming into contact with hazardous materials. b. engaging in offensive operations. c. initiating ambulatory decontamination. d. going through technical decontamination.

A. Coming into contact with hazardous materials.

Pre-entry inspection of PPE should include: Select one: a. confirming pressure test completion dates. b. replacing all valves and breathing apparatus. c. researching safety data sheets. d. confirming container damage.

A. Confirming pressure test completion dates.

Which EPA level of protection is primarily used at incidents including highly toxic and corrosive gases? Select one: a. Level A b. Level B c. Level D d. Level C

A. Level A

Facepiece fogging is an example of what type of respiratory equipment limitation? Select one: a. Limited visibility b. Decreased ability to communicate c. Chemical specific d. Inadequate oxygen levels

A. Limited visibility

Hazardous materials responders should have designated hand signals for communicating: Select one: a. loss of radio communication. b. safety briefings. c. names of hazardous materials. d. distance to the hot zone.

A. Loss of radio communication.

As with respiratory protection, the U.S. Department of Homeland Security (DHS) has adopted standards on protective clothing from: Select one: a. NIOSH and NFPA. b. EPA and DoD. c. NFPA and NIST. d. OSHA and NIOSH.

A. NIOSH and NFPA

How should chemical-protective clothing be stored? Select one: a. Out of sunlight to avoid exposure to ultraviolet light b. Within a clear or see-through bag or box c. It should not be folded d. Next to inspection tools and documentation

A. Out of sunlight to avoid exposure to ultraviolet light

What are the two different types of filters used with air-purifying respirators? Select one: a. Particulate removing and vapor-and-gas removing b. HEPA and non-HEPA c. Oil soluble and water soluble d. Adsorbent and absorbent

A. Particulate removing and vapor-and-gas removing

What kind of CPC suit testing involves ensuring that a Level A CPC suit is gastight? Select one: a. Pressure test b. Tactile inspection c. Soap bubble test d. Visual inspection

A. Pressure test

One objective of a written Chemical-Protective Clothing Program and Respiratory Protection Management Program is to: Select one: a. prevent injury to the user from incorrect use or malfunction of protective clothing or equipment. b. create accountability for periodic training with chemical protective clothing and equipment. c. provide recommendations to its users regarding hot zone actions. d. create a maintenance record of all departmental chemical protective clothing and equipment.

A. Prevent injury to the user from incorrect use or malfunction of protective clothing or equipment.

What should be conducted before responders enter the hot zone? Select one: a. Safety briefing b. Setting up incident command c. Technical decontamination d. Incident debriefing

A. Safety briefing

When selecting chemical protective clothing (CPC): Select one: a. the manufacturer must provide a list of chemicals for which the suit is effective. b. the highest level of protection will be protective against the great majority of hazards. c. it is designed to shield or isolate individuals from chemical, physical, and thermal hazards. d. it is made from a variety of different materials, most of which protect against all types of chemicals.

A. The manufacturer must provide a list of chemicals for which the suit is effective.

What is the function of an emergency breathing support system? Select one: a. To provide sufficient self-contained breathing air to permit the wearer to safely exit the hazardous area b. To provide backup breathing air to responders wearing air-purifying respirators c. To notify the wearer that breathing air supply has reached unsafe levels d. To supply breathing air to the wearer via air supply hose

A. To provide sufficient self-contained breathing air to permit the wearer to safely exit the hazardous area

What determines the PPE needed at a hazmat incident? Select one: a. A product assessment b. A hazard assessment c. A personnel assessment d. A damage assessment

B. A hazard assessment

SCBA must be worn during emergency operations at terrorist/hazmat incidents until which action determines other options are acceptable? Select one: a. Product research b. Air monitoring and sampling c. Initial scene size-up d. Decontamination operations

B. Air monitoring and sampling

Supplied air respirators: Select one: a. provide greater mobility by extending the distance the wearer can travel. b. are certified for confined space, hazardous materials, but not fire fighting operations. c. increase physical stress to the wearer by adding the weight of a breathing air source. d. supply about half the amount of breathing air of SCBA, reducing work time in the hot zone.

B. Are certified for confined space, hazardous materials, but not fire fighting operations

NFPA 1994 sets performance requirements for what three types of protective ensembles used in response to CBRN terrorism incidents? Select one: a. Levels A, B, and C b. Classes 2, 3, and 4 c. Awareness, Operations, and Technician d. Types Alpha, Beta, Gamma

B. Classes 2, 3, and 4

The most common observations of _____ are discoloration, swelling, loss of physical strength, or deterioration. Select one: a. penetration b. degradation c. contamination d. permeation

B. Degradation

Which statement regarding the doffing of PPE is MOST accurate? Select one: a. Chemical-protective clothing should only be doffed by the responder wearing the PPE. b. Entry team members should only touch the inside of the garments and never the outside. c. Upon exit, it can be assumed that the entry team has not been contaminated or potentially contaminated by the hazard. d. Based on the chemical hazards, it may be necessary to have the doffing personnel wear a higher level CPC.

B. Entry team members should only touch the inside of the garments and never the outside.

What is the difference between proximity suits and fire-entry suits? Select one: a. Proximity suits do not limit the wearer's vision. b. Fire-entry suits provide short-duration and close-proximity protection at radiant heat temperatures as high as 2,000°F (1 100°C). c. Proximity suits allow a person to work in total flame environments for short periods of time. d. Fire entry suits are very inexpensive.

B. Fire-entry suits provide short-duration and close-proximity protection at radiant heat temperatures as high as 2,000°F (1 100°C).

What is the heat illness in which the body's heat regulating mechanism fails? Select one: a. Heat rash b. Heat stroke c. Heat cramp d. Heat exhaustion

B. Heat stroke

What is a difference between inherently flame resistant (IFR) and flame retardant? Select one: a. Flame-retardant properties cannot be washed out of or removed from the material. b. IFR protective properties cannot be washed out of the material. c. IFR provides short-duration and close-proximity protection. d. Flame-retardant materials do not support combustion due to their chemical structure.

B. IFR protective properties cannot be washed out of the material.

Structural firefighters' protective clothing: Select one: a. should be used on every hazardous materials incident. b. is not a substitute for chemical-protective clothing. c. is not corrosive resistant, but is vapor tight. d. will provide long-term exposure protection from materials such as liquid chemicals.

B. Is not a substitute for chemical-protective clothing.

Which typical ensemble worn by response personnel typically consists of ballistic protection and no respiratory protection? Select one: a. Industrial ensembles b. Law enforcement ensembles c. EMS ensembles d. Fire service ensembles

B. Law enforcement ensembles

Which EPA level of protection provides liquid splash-protection, but no protection against chemical vapors or gases? Select one: a. Level A b. Level B c. Level C d. Level D

B. Level B

What is the relationship between air monitoring and instrumentation and the selection and use of chemical-protective clothing? Select one: a. Selection and use should dictate monitoring. b. Monitoring should reinforce selection and use. c. There is no relationship between the two. d. Monitoring should occur after selection and use.

B. Monitoring should reinforce selection and use.

What organization must certify all SCBA for use in immediately dangerous to life or health (IDLH) atmospheres? Select one: a. DHS b. NIOSH c. NFPA d. OSHA

B. NIOSH

Which two organizations produce standards relating to respiratory equipment at hazmat/WMD incidents? Select one: a. OSHA and NIOSH b. NIOSH and NFPA c. DHS and DoD d. NFPA and EPA

B. NIOSH and NFPA

The buddy system is a safety and emergency procedure that calls for teams of two or more with one team: Select one: a. inside the IDLH atmosphere. b. outside the IDLH atmosphere. c. doffing chemical-protective clothing. d. donning chemical-protective clothing.

B. Outside the IDLH atmosphere

Do not use powered air-purifying respirators in: Select one: a. defensive operations. b. potentially explosive atmospheres. c. decontamination operations. d. particulate rich atmospheres.

B. Potentially explosive atmospheres.

An atmosphere-supplying respirator where the user does not carry the breathing air source is called a: Select one: a. positive-pressure SCBA. b. supplied-air respirator. c. emergency breathing support system. d. powered air-purifying respirator.

B. Supplied-air respirator.

What is the difference between liquid splash-protective clothing and vapor-protective clothing? Select one: a. Liquid splash-protective clothing must be worn with positive-pressure SCBA or combination SCBA/SAR. b. Vapor-protective clothing is primarily used as part of a Level A protective ensemble. c. Vapor-protective clothing may be encapsulating or nonencapsulating. d. Liquid splash-protective clothing protects the wearer against corrosive liquids and gases.

B. Vapor-protective clothing is primarily used as part of a Level A protective ensemble.

Compromise of PPE from permeation occurs when: Select one: a. an object punctures the material. b. the chemical product weakens the material. c. a chemical passes through the material. d. the product comes in contact with the material.

C. A chemical passes through the material.

As a means of reducing the effects of heat exposure, when is it better to drink room temperature water rather than chilled water? Select one: a. At least 24 hours before a work period b. Before a work period in protective clothing c. After a work period in protective clothing d. At least 24 hours after a work period

C. After a work period in protective clothing

Psychological issues related to PPE stress will most likely involve issues of: Select one: a. boredom. b. confusion. c. claustrophobia. d. distractions.

C. Claustrophobia

Respiratory protection is a primary concern for first responders because _____ is the most significant route of entry for hazardous materials. Select one: a. ingestion b. injection c. inhalation d. absorption

C. Inhalation

Whether or not communications equipment can be integrated into the ensemble is an example of which PPE selection factor? Select one: a. Ease of decontamination b. Cost c. Interoperability d. Physical properties

C. Interoperability

Which is NOT a general selection factor in selecting PPE at hazardous materials incidents? Select one: a. Exposure duration b. Compliance with regulations c. Jurisdiction boundaries d. Physical environment

C. Jurisdiction boundaries

Which NIOSH classification of SCBA is NOT allowed in incidents where personnel are exposed to hazardous materials? Select one: a. Closed circuit b. High pressure c. Pressure-demand d. Supplied air

C. Pressure-demand

What is considered a limitation of respiratory equipment used by first responders during a hazardous materials incident? Select one: a. Open-circuit SCBA offers a nearly unlimited working duration based upon air quantity. b. Air-purifying respirators are limited by a small power supply. c. Rates of air consumption from SCBA will vary. d. Currently, no SCBAs are rated for hazardous materials operation.

C. Rates of air consumption from SCBA will vary.

The Department of Homeland Security has adopted recommended standards for: Select one: a. technical decontamination tools and equipment. b. turnout gear that protects against corrosive and toxic hazards. c. respiratory equipment that protect responders from hazards from materials that could be used in terrorist attacks. d. threats that can be diminished with ballistic plates and helmets.

C. Respiratory equipment that protect responders from hazards from materials that could be used in terrorist attacks.

Air-purifying respirators may be worn at incidents in which: Select one: a. the oxygen level is below 19.5%. b. corrosive gases have been confined within a structure. c. specific contaminants can be removed from air. d. unknown atmospheric conditions exist.

C. Specific contaminants can be removed from air.

A written PPE plan should address any limitations of the protective clothing as well as: Select one: a. broad descriptions for the most popular types of CPC. b. manufacturers' guideline for purchasing replacement CPC. c. the proper wear and fit of the protective garments. d. a quick reference guide for responders not trained in the use of the clothing.

C. The proper wear and fit of the protective garments.

Most protective clothing is designed to be impermeable to moisture, thus limiting the: Select one: a. methods of technical decontamination available. b. effects of chemical degradation on the clothing's material. c. transfer of heat from the body through natural evaporation. d. protection it can provide against corrosive materials.

C. Transfer of heat from the body through natural evaporation.

To ensure adequate work time while wearing SCBA, calculate estimated times for tasks such as: Select one: a. chemical-protective clothing testing. b. researching product information. c. walking to the incident. d. donning chemical-protective clothing.

C. Walking to the incident.

What is an End-of-Service-Time Indicator found on SCBA? Select one: a. Another name for a PASS device b. The heads-up display found in the facepiece c. The expiration date for a hydrostatic test d. A device that alerts the user that the respiratory protection equipment is about to reach its limit.

D. A device that alerts the user that the respiratory protection equipment is about to reach its limit.

Less time to perform tasks at hand is an example of what type of respiratory equipment limitation? Select one: a. Decreased ability to communicate b. Decreased mobility c. Limited visibility d. Air supply limitations

D. Air supply limitations

No single combination or ensemble of protective equipment (even with respiratory protection) can protect against _____ hazards. Select one: a. thermal b. acidic c. biological d. all

D. All

Self-contained breathing apparatus is a(an): Select one: a. respirator for which the user carries the oxygen supply. b. air-powered respirator where the user does not carry the breathing air source. c. atmosphere-supplying respirator where the user does not carry the breathing air source. d. atmosphere-supplying respirator for which the user carries the breathing-air supply.

D. Atmosphere-supplying respirator for which the user carries the breathing-air supply

Which of the following BEST describes the limitations of structural firefighting clothing used at hazardous materials incidents? Select one: a. Provides inadequate protection to all types of radioactive hazards b. No protection against thermal damage in an explosive attack c. Does not provide protection against inhalation hazards d. Chemicals permeate the rubber, leather, or neoprene in boots

D. Chemicals permeate the rubber, leather, or neoprene in boots

Which statement regarding the donning of PPE is MOST accurate? Select one: a. Donning chemical-protective clothing should be done as quickly as possible. b. Check all equipment visually and operationally once offensive or defensive operations begin. c. Donning operations should be conducted in the warm zone whenever possible. d. It is necessary to select an area that is large enough to accommodate all personnel involved in the donning procedures.

D. It is necessary to select an area that is large enough to accommodate all personnel involved in the donning procedures.

Which EPA level of protection is composed of a splash-protecting garment and an air-purifying device? Select one: a. Level B b. Level D c. Level A d. Level C

D. Level C

How much of a cylinder's working time should be allotted for a safety buffer? Select one: a. One quarter b. All of it c. At least half d. One third

D. One third

What do responders need to take into account in order to choose protective clothing with the appropriate level of chemical resistance? Select one: a. Puncture or cut resistance b. Physical hazards at the incident c. Mobility restriction d. Permeation and degradation

D. Permeation and degradation

Ensembles that consist of typical work uniforms, street clothing, or coveralls: Select one: a. can be worn when atmospheric hazards are present. b. are acceptable for hazmat emergency response above the Awareness Level. c. do not require safety glasses or chemical-splash goggles. d. provide no respiratory protection and minimal skin protection.

D. Provide no respiratory protection and minimal skin protection.

A powered air-purifying respirator: Select one: a. pulls contaminants away from the wearer. b. should not be used during decontamination or other long-term operations. c. provides the facepiece with air under high pressure. d. provides the facepiece with air under positive pressure.

D. Provides the facepiece with air under positive pressure.

What documentation is required when placing a new protective garment into service? Select one: a. List of failures that occurred during testing b. The cost of replacement and repair for use c. Date it is taken out of service d. Results of the acceptance test

D. Results of the acceptance test