Heme/Onco Lecturio

What levels of factor VIII are seen in severe haemophilia A? A. 2 to 5 units/dl B. Less than 2 units / dl C. 45 to 90 units/ dl D. More than 90 units E. 5 to 45 units/dl

B. Less than 2 units / dl

Which parameter measured on a peripheral smear is used in the classification of anemia? A. Mean corpuscular hemoglobin concentration B. Mean corpuscular volume C. Mean hematocrit percentage D. Red cell distribution width E. Red cell hemoglobin

B. Mean corpuscular volume

Which of the following blood profiles is MOST likely in a patient with a new diagnosis of essential thrombocythemia? A. Hb 8, WBC 8, platelets 1000 B. Hb 14, WBC 9, platelets 300 C. Hb 14, WBC 9, platelets 700 D. Hb 19, WBV 10, platelets 620 E. Hb 8, WBC 8, platelets 400

C. Hb 14, WBC 9, platelets 700

Which of the following are found in higher amounts in beta-thalassemia major? (Select all that apply) A. Hb A1C B. HbH C. Hb F D. Hb delta E. Hb A2

C. Hb F E. Hb A2

Where in the body is most iron stored? A. Transferrin in plasma B. Hemosiderin in reticuloendothelial system C. Hemoglobin in RBC D. Ferritin in reticuloendothelial system E. Myoglobin in muscle

C. Hemoglobin in RBC

Which of the following describes the etiology of hemolytic crises in G6PD deficiency? A. Ankyrin deficiency B. Decreased globin production C. Increased oxidative stress D. Substitution of a valine for glycine E. Spectrin deficiency

C. Increased oxidative stress

Which of the following statements regarding the Reed-Sternberg cell is NOT true? A. It has very prominent nucleoli B. it expresses CD15 C. It expresses CD35+ D. Presence is diagnostic of Hodgkin's lymphoma E. It is derived from a B cell

C. It expresses CD35+

Which of the following is NOT considered a myeloproliferative disorder? A. Polycythemia vera B. Essential thrombocythemia C. Lymphoma D. Primary myelofibrosis

C. Lymphoma

Which of the following is NOT used in the treatment of aplastic anemia? A. ATG B. Transfusion of red cells and platelets C. Plasmapheresis D. Cyclosporin E. Allogenic stem cell transplant

C. Plasmapheresis

Which of the following cells is is seen in myeloid leukemia on a bone marrow aspirate? A. Metamyelocytes B. Lymphoblasts C. Primitive myeloblasts C. Promyelocytes E. Plasma cells

C. Primitive myeloblasts

Which of the following is NOT part of the treatment of polycythemia vera? A. JAK2 inhibitors B. Hydroxyurea C. Serial blood removal D. Venesection

C. Serial blood removal I think this is wrong.. wouldn't this be phlebotomy

Which of the following techniques can be used to detect paraproteins in the blood of a patient with multiple myeloma? A. Nephlometry B. Peripheral blood smear C. Serum electrophoresis D. ELISA E. Western blot

C. Serum electrophoresis

Which of the following is NOT a common risk factor for arterial thrombosis? A. Smoking B. Atherosclerosis C. Slowing down and stagnation of blood D. Hypertension E. Cholesterol

C. Slowing down and stagnation of blood

Which the following tests is NOT used in the diagnosis of DVT? A. D-dimer B. MRI C. X-ray D. Ultrasound

C. X-ray

Which of the following mutations is seen in follicular lymphoma? A. t(4,11) B. t(11:21) C. t(14:18) D. t(11:22)

C. t(14:18)

Which of the following is NOT associated with chronic myeloid leukemia? Sweats Fever Massive splenomegaly Gout Calcium pyrophosphate

Calcium pyrophosphate

Below what approximate RBC lifespan can anemia be precipitated? A. 15 days B. 45 days C. 60 days D. 9 days E. 30 days

A. 15 days

What type of antibodies are directed against platelets in immune-mediated thrombocytopenia? A. IgD B. IgM C. IgE D. IgA E. IgG

E. IgG

Which of the following plays a role in the lysis of fibrin? A. Protein C B. Plasminogen C. Protein S D. Plasmin E. Factor V leidin

D. Plasmin

Which of the following is the treatment for stage III/IV of Hodgkin's lymphoma? A. 6 to 8 courses of ABVD with radiotherapy to residual lymphadenopathy B. 2 to 3 cycles of Imatinib mesylate C. Chemotherapy with or without radiotherapy D. 4 courses of the CHOP regimen E. 4 to 6 courses of ABVD with radiotherapy to bulk nodes

A. 6 to 8 courses of ABVD with radiotherapy to residual lymphadenopathy

Which of the following is the most common malignant disease in children? A. Acute lymphoblastic leukemia B. Acute myeloid leukemia C. Chronic lymphoblastic leukemia D. Chronic myeloid leukemia

A. Acute lymphoblastic leukemia

Which of these statements is NOT TRUE regarding acute myeloid leukemia? A. Allogeneic bone marrow transplantation is only used in patients with low-risk disease B. It is caused by an inappropriate production of myeloblasts C. Stem cell transplantation is more effective when the stem cells are taken from another person (not the patient) D. It may develop from myelodysplasia E. Genetic analysis is valuable in predicting the outcome

A. Allogeneic bone marrow transplantation is only used in patients with low-risk disease

A 24-year-old woman notices bleeding from a venipuncture site during a difficult childbirth. Full blood count shows the platelet count has fallen from the normal value to 30 over 6 hours. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis? A. Disseminated intravascular coagulation B. Immune thrombocytopenic purpura C. Neonatal thrombocytopenia D. Scurvy E. Acquired haemophilia

A. Disseminated intravascular coagulation Because you have a drop greater than 50%

What cell types are predominantly involved in acute leukemia? A. Early hemopoietic progenitor cells B. Epithelial cells C. Connective tissue D. Well-differentiated, functional blood cells E. Well-differentiated, non functional blood cells

A. Early hemopoietic progenitor cells

Which of the following inherited thrombophilias is seen in approximately 3% of the population? A. Factor V Leiden B. Protein S deficiency C. Protein C deficiency D. Antithrombin III deficiency E. Hemophilia

A. Factor V Leiden MOST COMMON INHERITED

Which form of iron is most readily absorbed by the intestinal cells? A. Ferrous B. Ferritin C. Ferric D. Hemosiderin E. Transferrin

A. Ferrous

Which of the following statement is true with regards to acute leukemia? A. It is a rapidly progressive disease and can be fatal if not treated within weeks B. It is not curable C. It is a slowly progressive disease D. Acute lymphoblastic leukemia (ALL) is most common in the elderly E. It involves mature, fully differentiated cell types

A. It is a rapidly progressive disease and can be fatal if not treated within weeks

Which of the following statements is FALSE regarding thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura? A. It is treated with platelet transfusions B. It is caused by a deficiency of ADAMTS13 C. The patient often presents with fever and renal failure D. It can present as congenital or autoimmune E. It is associated with microangiopathic hemolytic anaemia

A. It is treated with platelet transfusions

A 24-year-old woman in the 6th week of an uncomplicated pregnancy develops a deep vein thrombus (DVT). Which of the following is the appropriate treatment? A. Low molecular weight heparin B. Warfarin C. Rivaroxaban D. Aspirin E. Streptokinase

A. Low molecular weight heparin

Which of the following hemoglobinopathies is thought to convey some protection against malaria? A. Sickle cell anemia B. Pyruvate kinase deficiency C. Pernicious anemia D. Autoimmune hemolytic anemia E. Iron deficiency anemia

A. Sickle cell anemia

Which of the following molecules is the major regulator of platelet production produced by the kidneys and liver? A. Thrombopoietin B. Thromboglien C. Thrombogenin D. Thrombospondin E. Thrombostatin

A. Thrombopoietin

Which Vitamin is antagonized by Warfarin? A. Vitamin K B. Vitamin D C. Vitamin C D. Vitamin E E. Vitamin B1

A. Vitamin K

What is the treatment for chronic lymphocytic leukemia? A. Radiotherapy B. A combination of chemotherapy and C. antibodies directed to B cells D. Surgical removal E. Bone marrow transplant

B. A combination of chemotherapy and C. antibodies directed to B cells

A 40-year-old female presents with bone pain and gum bleeding. Her CBC reveals leukocytosis. The patient has both a prolonged PT and aPTT with a low fibrinogen. What is the most likely cause of her presentation? A. HIV infection B. Acute promyelocytic leukemia C. Acute lymphoblastic leukemia E. HELLP syndrome D. Amniotic fluid embolism

B. Acute promyelocytic leukemia

Which one of the following drugs is NOT used in the treatment of acute lymphoblastic leukemia? A. Daunorubicin B. All trans retinoic acid C. Steroids D. Vincristine E. Asparaginase

B. All trans retinoic acid

Which of the following statements about thalassemia is FALSE ? A. Electrophoresis is useful in diagnosis B. Beta chains are overproducend in beta-thalassaemia C. Treatment, where required, is through blood transfusion D. It is due to an imbalance in the production of alpha and beta globin chains E. It is a major cause of microcytic anemia

B. Beta chains are overproducend in beta-thalassaemia They are underproduced

Which of the following is used in the diagnosis of aplastic anemia? A. PCR B. Bone marrow aspiration C. Peripheral smear D. Bone marrow trephine biopsy E. Genetic analysis

B. Bone marrow aspiration Lecturio says this is D butttttttt the ppt for us says •marrow aspirate and bone marrow biopsy appear hypocellular

Which of the following is given to a patient with chronic renal failure to stimulate red blood cell production? A. Oral iron B. Erythropoietin C. Parenteral iron D. Vitamin B12 E. Folic acid

B. Erythropoietin Kidney disease = Erythropoietin ALL DAY

Which of the following factors does not effect aPTT? A. Factor VIII B. Factor VII C. Factor XII D. Factor IX E. Factor XI

B. Factor VII Intrinsic - TENET

Which of the following is NOT a common sign or symptom of polycythemia vera? A. Pruritus B. Fever C. Plethoric faces D. Headaches E. Enlarged spleen

B. Fever

Which of the following molecules is involved in platelet adhesion? A. GpIb/IX B. Gp1b C. Factor VII D. Fibrinogen E. GpIIb/IIIa

B. Gp1b

What is the characteristic radiological sign of thalassemia on skull X-Ray? A. Increased radiolucency in the frontal sinus area B. Hair on end appearance C. Punched out lesions E. Increase in the size of the width of the sutures F. Marbelling and radiodense areas within the skull

B. Hair on end appearance

Which ONE of these is a primary disorder of the blood vessel? A. Immune thrombocytopenia B. Hereditary haemorrhagic telangiectasia C. Warfarin overdose D. Haemophilia E. Disseminated intravascular coagulation

B. Hereditary haemorrhagic telangiectasia

Which of the following is part of the treatment protocol for essential thrombocytosis? A. Interferon B. Hydroxyurea C. Vincristine D. Cyclophosphamide E. Methotrexate

B. Hydroxyurea

Which of the following is a physical method of preventing venous thrombi from migrating to the lungs? A. Warfarin B. Inferior vena cava filter C. Oral anticoagulants D. Anti-platelet agents E. Heparin

B. Inferior vena cava filter

Which gene is commonly associated with polycythemia vera? A. Epo B. JAK2 C. p53 D. PML:RARA

B. JAK2

Which of the following statements is FALSE regarding myelodysplastic syndrome? A. Myeloid dysplasia of more than one lineage of dysplastic cells is a bad prognosis B. Ring sideroblasts are associated with myelodysplastic syndromes only C. If the monocyte count is more than 1x10⁹/l it is considered a chronic myelo-monocytic leukemia D. Anemia, neutropenia, and thrombocytopenia are seen in myelodysplastic syndromes E. Myelodysplastic syndromes can be pre-neoplastic

B. Ring sideroblasts are associated with myelodysplastic syndromes only

Which of the following conditions will result in a mild increase in HbA2, mild decrease in HbA1, a normal fetal hemoglobin, and absent Hb H on electrophoresis ? A. Alpha-thalassemia B. Normal hemoglobin C. Beta-thalassemia trait D. Hb H disease E. Beta-thalassemia major

C. Beta-thalassemia trait

Which of the following is required to make a definitive diagnosis of Hodgkin's lymphoma? A. MRI B. Ultrasound C. Biopsy of effected tissue D. Serology testing E. CT scan

C. Biopsy of effected tissue

Which of the following is classically associated with all acute leukemias? A. Massive splenomegaly B. Hemarthrosis C. Bone marrow failure D. Swollen lymph nodes E. Hyperviscosity

C. Bone marrow failure

Which of the following is a common site for relapse of acute lymphocytic leukemia? A. Skin B. Lungs C. CNS D. Liver E. Kidneys

C. CNS

A 60-year-old male presents for chronic fatigue. He reports dark colored stool. On examination, he has pallor of the conjunctiva. Complete blood count shows decreased hemoglobin and a peripheral smear is done. Which of the following is the next best step in management? A. Toal iron binding capacity B. Rigid colonoscopy C. Colonoscopy D. Prussian blue stain E. Reticulocyte index

C. Colonoscopy

Which of the following drugs is a factor IIa inhibitor? A. Clopidogrel B. Rivaroxaban C. Dabigatran D. Edoxaban E. Apixaban

C. Dabigatran

Which of the following is NOT a plasminogen activator? A. Kallikrein B. Streptokinase C. Dipyramidole D. Factor XIIa E. Urokinase

C. Dipyramidole

Which of the following is the MOST common presentation of chronic lymphoid leukemia? A. Severe bleeding B. Life threatening infection C. Elevated lymphocites noted on labs ordered for other reasons D. Patient notices swollen glands in the neck E. The patient develops indigestion and examination shows a greatly enlarged spleen

C. Elevated lymphocites noted on labs ordered for other reasons

Which of the following clotting factors is deficient in hemophilia B? A. Factor XII B. Factor VII C. Factor IX D. Factor VIII E. Factor XI

C. Factor IX

Which of the following statements concerning inherited thrombophila is NOT true? A. Up to 30% of patients with venous thrombosis have a genetic predisposition to thrombosis B. Activated protein C inactivates the activated forms of factors V and VIII C. Factor V Leiden makes the protein easier to cleave by activated protein C D. Homozygotes for factor V Leiden have a 30% increased risk of thrombosis E. Protein S is a co-factor for protein C

C. Factor V Leiden makes the protein easier to cleave by activated protein C

What kind of rays are detected by PET scanners? A. Alpha B. Beta C. Gamma D. Elta E. Delta

C. Gamma

Which of the following is the enzyme required for conversion of inactive coagulation factors II, VII, IX, and X into active factors? A. Vitamin K epoxide reductase B. Vitamin K reductase C. Gamma-glutamyl carboxylase D. Vitamin K epoxide hydrogenase E. Vitamin K hydrogenase

C. Gamma-glutamyl carboxylase

In which age group is acute lymphoblastic leukemia commonly seen? A. 20 - 30 years B. 60 - 80 years C. 40 - 60 years D. 2 to 8 years E. 30 - 40 years

D. 2 to 8 years

Which of the following cell types gives rise to the Reed-Sternberg cell? A. Basophils B. Plasma Cells C. T cells D. B cells

D. B cells

Which of the following investigations is helpful in staging patients with non-Hodgkin lymphoma? A. Biopsy B. Mutation analysis C. Cytogenetic analysis D. CT and PET scan

D. CT and PET scan

Which ion is required for the platelet adhesion reaction? A. I B. K C. Na D. Ca E. Cl

D. Ca Factor IV comes in while X and V are bonding

BCR-ABL gene fusion is mostly involved in which of the following conditions? A. Acute myeloid leukemia B. Acute lymphoblastic leukemia C. Chronic lymphoblastic leukemia D. Chronic myeloid leukemia E. None of the above

D. Chronic myeloid leukemia

Which of the following is an ADP receptor antagonist? A. Aspirin B. Argatroban C. Streptokinase D. Clopidogrel E. Dipyridamole

D. Clopidogrel

Which of the following does NOT cause an oxidative stress that could precipitate a G6PD hemolytic crisis? A. Necrotising enterocolitis B. Contracting a viral infection C. Consumption of Fava beans D. Consumption of fruit E. Use of antimalarial medication

D. Consumption of fruit

Which of the following viruses is implicated in a subset of cases of Hodgkin's lymphoma? A. HBV B. Polyoma C. HHV D. EBV E. HPV

D. EBV

Which of the following factors is now thought to be critical to the initiation of coagulation? A. Factor VIII B. Factor XI C. Factor XII D. Factor VIIa E. Factor IX

D. Factor VIIa

What is the pathology causing illness in primary myelofibrosis? A. Necrosis of the bone marrow B. Production of red blood cells in the liver C. Decreased red blood cell lifespan D. Fibrosis of the bone marrow E. Enlargement of the spleen

D. Fibrosis of the bone marrow

Which of the following is the treatment of choice in patients with sickle cell anemia? A. Hydrogen sulphide B. Iron supplementation C. Vitamin B 12 D. Hydroxyurea E. Folic acid

D. Hydroxyurea it orginally said hydroxycarbamide but I changed it since that isnt what we learned

Which of the following finding is NOT suggestive of the diagnosis of multiple myeloma? A. Lytic bone lesions B. Anemia C. Decreased renal function D. Hypocalcemia E. Clonal proliferation of plasma cells

D. Hypocalcemia Its hyper

What is the common complication of treatment of thalassemia? A. Copper deficiency B. Iron deficiency Anemia C. Copper overload D. Iron overload E. Zinc increase

D. Iron overload Chelation for increased infusions to prevent this

Which of the following genes is most commonly found to be mutated in myeloproliferative disorders? A. Epo B. CALR C. MEN1 D. JAK2

D. JAK2

Where does the body sequester iron in patients with chronic infections? A. Reticulocytes B. Neutrophils C. Eosinophil D. Macrophages E. Lymphocytes

D. Macrophages

Which of the types of cell listed below is characteristically found in vitamin B12 deficiency? A. Myelocytes B. Reticulocytes C. Promyelocytes D. Megaloblasts E. Metamyelocytes

D. Megaloblasts

Which of the following is NOT a route of administration of heparin? A. Intravenous B. None of the options is correct C. Subcutaneously D. Oral tablet

D. Oral tablet

Of the clotting study results shown below, which is most likely to belong a patient with Hemophilia? A. PT - prolonged aPTT- prolonged Fibrinogen - low B. PT - prolonged aPTT- normal Fibrinogen - low C. PT - prolonged aPTT- normal Fibrinogen - normal D. PT - normal aPTT- prolonged Fibrinogen - normal E. PT - normal aPTT- prolonged Fibrinogen - low

D. PT - normal aPTT- prolonged Fibrinogen - normal

Which ONE of these is NOT true concerning platelets and their function? A. Platelets are made from megakaryocytes B. Platelets adhere to each other using the IIb/IIIa receptors C. GP1b binds to VWF to promote adhesion D. Platelet nuclei are extruded during the release reaction E. Platelets bind to exposed collagen on vessels

D. Platelet nuclei are extruded during the release reaction

Which of the following does NOT cause a decrease in red blood cell production? A. Leukemia B. Aplastic anemia C. Myeloproliferative disease D. Polycythemia Vera E. Carcinoma infiltration

D. Polycythemia Vera

Which of the following findings would you expect in a patient with primary polycythemia? A. Red cell mass — normal Plasma volume — decreased B. Red cell mass — decreased Plasma volume — normal C. Red cell mass — normal Plasma volume — normal D. Red cell mass — increased Plasma volume — normal E. Rec cell mass — increased Plasma volume — increased

D. Red cell mass — increased Plasma volume — normal

Which of the following statements regarding the staging of lymphoma is NOT true ? A. Stage IV is defined by the involvement of non lymphoid organs such as the bone marrow or liver B. Stage I is characterized by LAD in only one region C. Stage III refers to swollen lymph nodes both above and below the diaphragm D. Stage A is defined by presence of systemic symptoms E. Stage B can be characterized by presence of fever and weight loss.

D. Stage A is defined by presence of systemic symptoms

Which of the following is a typical finding of deep vein thrombosis? A. Angina B. Sudden onset of cold and blue toes C. Decreased D-dimer concentrations in blood D. Swelling, tenderness and warmth of the lower extremity E. Purpura of the lower extremities

D. Swelling, tenderness and warmth of the lower extremity

Which of the following is NOT a feature of non-Hodgkin lymphoma? A. Non-Hodgkin lymphoma can often have an extranodal presentation B. Non-Hodgkin lymphomas can be high grade, which is aggressive, but more easily curable C. Non-Hodgkin lymphomas can be derived from both B or T cells D. The diagnosis of Non-Hodgkin's lymphoma can be done using only CT scan E. Non-Hodgkin lymphomas can be low grade, which is slowly progressive, but be difficult to treat

D. The diagnosis of Non-Hodgkin's lymphoma can be done using only CT scan

Which type of bilirubin will be increased in the blood of a patient with hemolytic anemia? A. Unconjugated and conjugated bilirubin B. Total bilirubin only C. Delta bilirubin and total bilirubin D. Unconjugated and total bilirubin E. Conjugated and total bilirubin

D. Unconjugated and total bilirubin

Which of the following drugs used in the treatment of acute leukemia causes microtubule arrest and thus prevents the further division of cells? A. Cytosine arabinoside B. Asparaginase C. Daunorubicin D. Vincristine E.Steroids

D. Vincristine TK INHIBITORS

Which of the following conditions will cause a prolonged PT only? A. Von Willebrand Disease B. Lupus anticoagulant C. DIC D. Vitamin K deficiency E. Hemophilia

D. Vitamin K deficiency

Which of the following is a benign form of lymphoma? A. Lymphocyte predominant B. Mixed cellularity C. Lymphocyte depleted D. Nodular sclerosing E. None of the above

E. None of the above

What is the temperature at which antibodies bind to red cells in warm autoimmune hemolytic anemia? A. 37 degree Fahrenheit B. 54 degree Celsius C. 4 degree Celsius D. 4-degree Fahrenheit E. 37 degree Celsius

E. 37 degree Celsius

Which of the following statements accurately describes the pathogenesis of pernicious anemia? A. Vitamin B12 deficiency B. Folate deficiency C. Pregnancy-induced auto antibodies D. Deficiency of intrinsic factor E. Auto-antibodies against gastric parietal cells

E. Auto-antibodies against gastric parietal cells

With which of the following clotting factors is Von Willebrand disease associated? A. Factor VII B. Factor XI C. Factor XII D. Factor IX E. Factor VIII

E. Factor VIII

In which of the following lymphomas is therapy usually witheld unless pathological clinical symptoms due to the cancer are detected? A. Adult T cell lymphoma B. Burkitt lymphoma C. Mantle cell lymphoma D. Lymphoplasmacytic lymphoma E. Follicular lymphoma

E. Follicular lymphoma

A 19-year-old woman presents with painless swelling of a cervical lymph node and episode of night sweats. Her past medical history is positive for a recent episode of infectious mononucleosis. Which type of lymphoma is the most likely diagnosis in this case? A. Lymphoplasmacytic lymphoma B. Mantle cell lymphoma C. Burkitt lymphoma D. Follicular Lymphoma E. Hodgkin Lymphoma

E. Hodgkin Lymphoma

Which of the following is the correct order of the response to vessel injury with regards to platelet function? A. Injury-> platelet granule release -> platelet aggregation-> platelet adhesion-> cessation of bleeding B. Injury-> platelet adhesion -> platelet aggregation->cessation of bleeding -> platelet granule release C. Injury-> platelet aggregation -> platelet adhesion-> platelet granule release-> cessation of bleeding D. Injury-> platelet adhesion -> platelet granule release-> platelet aggregation-> cessation of bleeding E. Injury-> platelet adhesion -> platelet aggregation-> platelet granule release-> cessation of bleeding

E. Injury-> platelet adhesion -> platelet aggregation-> platelet granule release-> cessation of bleeding

Which of the following is calculated as a ratio of measured prothrombin time to a standard value determined in the laboratory? A. Clotting time B. Thrombin time C. Activated partial thromboplastin time D. Platelet aggregation time E. International normalised ratio

E. International normalised ratio

Which of the following red blood cell parameters is increased due to the presence of reticulocytes in hemolytic anemia? A. Hematocrit B. Mean corpuscular hemoglobin concentration C. Mean corpuscular hemoglobin D. Hemoglobin E. Mean corpuscular volume

E. Mean corpuscular volume

To what class of molecules does heparin belong to? A. Monosaccharides B. Lipids C. Lipoproteins D. Proteins E. Mucopolysaccharides

E. Mucopolysaccharides

Which of the following is the mechanism whereby the factor V Leiden mutation causes bleeding disorders? A. Protein C is unable to cleave activated protein S. B. Factor V is unable to cleave activated protein C. C. Factor V is unable to cleave activated protein S. D. Factor V is unable to cleave activated antithrombin II. E. Protein C is unable to cleave activated Factor V.

E. Protein C is unable to cleave activated Factor V.

Which of the following findings, commonly seen in the peripheral blood film of patients with multiple myeloma, is due to increased antibody levels in the blood? A. Proliferation of plasma cells B. Leukoerythroblastic blood picture C. Tear drop cells D. Anemia E. Rouleux formation

E. Rouleux formation

Which of the following cases can be diagnosed as a stage 2A Hodgkin's lymphoma? A. Swelling of the lymph nodes in 2 or more lymph node groups on the same side of the diaphragm w/ systemic symptoms B. Swelling of lymph node groups above and below the diaphragm without systemic symptoms. C. Swelling of lymph nodes in one lymph node group with systemic symptoms. D. Disease disseminated to non-lymphoid organs with systemic symptoms. E. Swelling of lymph nodes in 2 or more lymph node groups on the same side of the diaphragm without systemic symptoms.

E. Swelling of lymph nodes in 2 or more lymph node groups on the same side of the diaphragm without systemic symptoms.

Which of the following treatments is NOT used for patients multiple myeloma? A. Lenalidomide B. Vincristine C. Dexamethasone D. Bortezomib E. Melphalan

Vincristine