HM1 exam
retireesand their family members must pay an annual enrollemnt fee of 230 for an individual or how much for a family to enroll in tricare prime?
$460
What is the proper WBGT formula?
(0.1 x DB) + (0.7 x WB) + (0.2 x GT)
WBGT formula
(0.1 x DB) + (0.7 x WB) + (0.2 x GT) = WBGT
*Splinting a femur fracture - Splints should be fastened in what five places?*
(1) around the ankle (2) over the knee (3) just below the hip (4) around the pelvis (5) just below the armpit
What is necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis?
(NUG) Referred to as trenchmouth, or Vincent's infection. Characterized by redness, swelling, pain, accumulation of calculus around the teeth, and bleeding of the gingival tissues. There is a film of necrotic white or grayish tissue around the teeth that may be wiped off. There is an unpleasant odor and foul taste in the mouth.
Clark's rule
(weight in pounds/150) x adult dose = child's dose
What are dental caries?
"Cavities" ; Caused by a microbial process that starts on the surface of the teeth and leads to the breaking down of the enamel, dentin, and cementum.
general purpose of the FMF w/in the DON
"force unreadiness"
What is an MRE?
Meal Ready to Eat
What does MRE stand for?
Meals Ready to Eat
Inhalation administration
Means of introducing medications through respiratory system in form of vapor, gas, or powder
What are the two types of disinfection of potable water tanks?
Mechanical Cleaning with Chemical Disinfection, Chemical Disinfection
The part of the microscope on which the prepared specimen is placed for examination is called the
Mechanical stage
Whose responsibility is it to provide required health assessment components of care to active duty servicewomen?
Medical Department personnel.
Which of the following is not a phase of Care of Patient en Route?
Medical Evacuation Care
What is the primary duty of N093M?
Medical Officer of the Marine Corps.
What is SF 88?
Medical Record Report of Medical Examination
What is the vehicle that ensures the continuum of care throughout the beneficiary's life?
Medical record
The infection preventionist reports clinically to whom?
Medical, Infectious Disease, and Dental.
Intramuscular administration
Medication injected into the muscle (i.e. Procaine Penicillin G)
Subcutaneous administration
Medication injected just below the skin's cutaneous layers (i.e. insulin)
Intradermal administration
Medication injected within the dermis of the skin (i.e. PPD)
Intravenous administration
Medication introduced directly into the vein
Intrathecal or Intraspinal
Medication introduced into subarachnoid space of spinal column (i.e. Procaine Hydrochloride)
Vaporization
Medication is changed from a liquid or solid to a gas or vapor by use of heat
Nebulization
Medication is converted into a fine spray by use of compressed gas
Drug Facts and Comparisons
Medication reference organized by therapeutic medication class
Circulation and respiration are controlled primarily from what area of the brain?
Medulla
What are the 4 members of Brucellosis?
Melitensis, abortus,suis,canis
Who is typically the senior rater for performance evaluations?
Members division officer or department head.
The HM wil carpules in Navy dentistry. The two most common local anesthetics used in dentistry are 2% lidocaine hydrochloride and 2% what?
Mepivacaine
What are the Navy's two medical flagships?
Mercy and Comfort
You should remove instruments from the ultrasonic unit by which of the following means? 1.Your hands 2.Mesh basket 3.Instrument tongs 4.Ultrasonic retriever
Mesh basket
Who coordinates, reviews, manages, and distributes AMALs and ADALs?
Naval Medical Logistics Command, NAVMEDLOGCOM.
NAVMEDLOGCOM must get approval from whom on all AMAL and ADAL changes?
Naval Sea Systems Command, NAVSEASYSCOM, NAVSEA-50M.
Who should the Trater be for E5 and E6 performance evaluations?
Navy CPO.
What is NAVENPVNTMEDU?
Navy Environmental Preventative Medicine Units
Who ensures familiarization and organizational alignment with BUMEDINST 5450.165B?
Navy Medicine Regional Commanders.
Who is charged with the governance within their defined geographic or functional areas of responsibility and delegated day-to-day operational control and resource execution authority?
Navy Medicine Regional Commanders.
Who is an OPNAV Principal Officer and serves additional duty as Chief, BUMED?
Navy Surgeon General, N093.
The awarding of what medal is authorized for all SOY Sailors who compete below the force level of competition?
Navy and Marine Corps Achievement Medal.
The awarding of what medal is authorized for all SOY Sailors who compete at the force level of competition and above?
Navy and Marine Corps Commendation Medal.
Who is entitled to decedent affairs?
Navy and Marine Corps members who die while serving on active duty or active and inactive duties for training.
NAVMED 6150/21-30
Navy and marine Corps personnel and DoD eligible beneficiaries utilize what U.S. Navy Medical Outpatient and Dental Treatment Record as the official record jacket for the chronological documentation of medical and dental evaluations, care, treatments and occupational health?
Which bacteria causes gonorrhea?
Neisseria gonorrhoeae
The functional unit of the kidney is called the?
Nephron
What type of shock shows different signs and symptoms compared to the other types?
Neurogenic (Skin - warm, dry, pink; LOC - lucid; Cap refill - normal)
What must be assessed before and after applying a dressing or bandage?
Neurologic status and circulation of extremity
What type of leukocyte compromises the largest percentage of cells in the circulating blood?
Neutrophil
Which leukocyte functions by ingesting invading bacteria?
Neutrophil
all DHAs must be completed and submitted
electronically
The developer and fixer solutions in the automatic processor should be changed at what minimum frequencies?
every 3 to 4 weeks
How often should spaces be monitored if DB temperatures do not exceed 85 degrees F?
every 4 hours
How often should spaces be monitored if DB temperatures exceed 85 degrees F?
every hour
what is a statemtn sent to beneficiares showing that claims were processed and the amoutn paid to providers?
explanation of benefits
thre program for persons with disabilites will be replaced by the what in regional phases over the course of the year 2004
exteded care health optoin
the dha will be completed in the required time frame and reviewed in what manner
face-to-face interview
The oropharyngeal airway is the airway of choice for patients with a gag reflex.
false
Withdrawal from barbiturates is less life threatening than narcotic withdrawal.
false
what is the range for calculated WBGT and the reading on the WBGT meter?
0.2 degree F
What is the general treatment for severe anaphylaxis?
0.3 - 0.5 ml epinephrine, 1:1000 soln, SQ or IM (side note: for cardiac arrest, you give 1 mg epi (10mL), 1:10,000 soln, IV)
What primary group receives an orange folder?
00-09
The competitive cycle for the SOY will cover what dates?
01 October to 30 September every year.
Notification of PADD will normally be made during what hours?
0500-2400
Personal notification of the Person Authorized Direct Disposition(PADD) normally will be made between what time?
0500-2400
A person on a cholesterol restriction of 300 mg per day should have no more than how many whole eggs per day?
1
How many escorts are authorized when transporting remains?
1
Freezers are kept at what temperature?
0 degrees F or below
All command selecting a SOY will have their selection boards complete and packages ready for submission to their respective force commander by what date?
1 December each year.
Time for Urgent Casualties, Condition of casualty
1 HR all other services/ ASAP Air Force
When must STA-21 applications be submitted by?
1 July of the year in which the applicant desires acceptance into the program.
What is the normal range of WBCs to RBCs?
1 WBC to every 600 RBCs
In a DTR, at the beginning of the day, the unit water lines and hoses should be flushed for how long? 1.5 minutes 2.1 hour 3.1 minute 4.30 seconds
1 minute. "For DTRs, at the beginning of the day flush each of the unit water lines and hoses for at least 1 minute, even if their use is not anticipated and flush for at least 30 seconds between patients" Pg 9-15
What can be used for a non-emergent treatment area?
1. Empty ward, 2. Cleared out supply area.
Who may sign performance evaluations as the reporting senior for E5 and below?
1. Enlisted OIC in the grade of E9, 2. Civilians in command positions in the grade of GS9 to GS12.
What locally created items are not included in AMALs?
1. Equipment-specific laboratory reagents. 2. Mission specific items. 3. Immunizing agents.
What are the 3 parts of a pelvic exam?
1. External inspection, 2. Internal speculum exam, 3. Internal bimanual exam.
How is the Navy Performance Evaluation System utilized for officers, CPOs, and other enlisted personnel?
1. FITREP for Officers W2 to 06, 2. CHIEFEVAL, E7 to E9, 3. EVAL, E1 to E6.
What specific programs are contained within the MSC IPP?
1. Health Care Administrator, HCA, 2. Physician Assistant, PA, 3. Radiation Health Officer, 4. Environmental Health Officer, 5. Industrial Health Officer, 6. Entomology Officer, 7. Pharmacy Officer.
What two agents are recommended by the US Tactical Combat Casualty Care Committee?
1. HemCon 2. QuikClot
What studies must be performed to complete a physical exam?
1. Results of current HIV, 2. Current audiogram, 3. Current visual acuity, 4. Current dental exam, 5. Sickle cell screening, 6. G6 PD screening, 7. Pap smear for women 21 and older.
What two references are used for examiners for guidance regarding service members who are unable to perform their duties as a result of physical defect or medical condition?
1. SECNAVINST 1850.4, Disability Eval Manual, 2. MANMED Chapter 18.
Who is ineligible to compete for the SOY?
1. Sailors selected for CPO, 2. Sailors eligible for Enlisted Recruiter of the Year.
Enlisted summary groups consist of members of what?
1. Same pay grade, 2. Same promotion status, 3. Same type of report, 4. Same reporting senior, 5. Same ending date.
What is the 5-step promotion recommendation scale?
1. Significant problems, 2. Progressing, 3. Promotable, 4. Must Promote, 5. Early Promote.
What are the external factors that should be assessed for optimal casualty care?
1. Tactical situation of the mission, 2. Resupply, 3. Time, 4. Evacuation out.
What is a comparatively large aggressive rat, brown gray above, gray on its underside, and weighs approximately 7 to 17 ounces, and its tail length is slightly less that half its body length?
Norway Rat
What rat's preferred foods include meat or fish mixed with a diet of grain, vegetables, and fruit?
Norway Rat
What is an inpatient acquired infection not present or incubating at the time of admission?
Nosocomial Infection
Who has to agree for a cremation to be authorized?
PADD and NOK
How many days after inhalations of Glanders will signs and symptoms starts to show?
10-14 days (usually an aerosol release) !!!Late activation can occurs years later!!!
Signs and symptoms will show how many days after inhalation of melioidosis?
10-14 days after inhalation
What primary group receives a green folder?
10-19
What is the adult dose of morphine and how often can it be given?
10-20 mg every 4 hours
to be covered for gastric bypass, you must be how many pounds over ideal body weight and have a co morbidity or 200 percent of ideal body weight with no co morbidity?
100
Ground water sources must be located at least how many feet from all existing sources of contamination?
100 Feet
How far must trash be from a food facility?
100 ft
if you are referred by your pcm for specialty care at a location more than ho wmany miles from your pcm, you may be eligible to hav eyour reasonable trave expense reimbursed by tricare?
100 miles
When washing vegetables what do you use to clean them and for how long?
100 ppm FAC for 15 min or 50ppm FAC for 30 min
Applicants for MECP must have what minimum recommended SAT scores that are not older than 3 years?
1000 SAT score, 500 math and 500 critical reading/verbal.
How much volume does LR expand when treating hemorrhagic shock?
1000mL expands iv volume by 250 mL within 1 hour
When cooling a heat stroke casualty, at what temperature is cooling discontinued?
102F rectal temperature
During heat strokes, what is the body's temperature?
105F (41C) or higher
Between 1950-1953, how many corpsman were lost at Inchon/Chosin Valley during the Korean War?
108
CRTS augmentation teams
11 augmentation teams identified for large deck amphib ships Routine deployable: FST personnel immediately available to fleet for deployment Surge ready: personnel available to deploy with fleet units within 30 days of notification Emergency surge: forces capable of deploying within 120 days
service members who deploy for more than one 30 day period in how many months shall receive an annual concurrent PDHRA and PHA
12
When was the first hosptial school for women established?
12 Jan 1944
How many halogen/bacteriological samples do you take for a ship crew size of 1200?
12 each
OCS is how many weeks long?
12 weeks long.
A member should be placed on LIMDU if they have a medical condition that is going to require how long to recover from?
12 weeks or more
When the database shows a patient as ineligible because of ID card expiration, care may be rendered as long as the patient has a new ID card issued within the previous how many days?
120
a newborwn is covered as a tricare prime beneficiary for the first how many dyas after birth, as long as one additional faimly member is enrolled in tricare prime or tricare prime remote?
120 days
Calorie restricted diets should be at least how many calories per day?
1200
Effective sterilization the temp must be maintained at?
121c(250F) for 90 min at 15 psi
What would be the tertiary group in this SSN: 123-45-6789
123-45
What is the maximum water temperature for hot water bottles?
125 degrees
What is the desired urine sample volume for routine testing?
12ml
A written request for Department of the Navy (DoN) records that refer to FOIA must be responded to IAW the provisions of the Act. The official having responsibility for the records has how many working days to respond to the requester?
20
How many people will one pipe accommodate in a urine soakage pit?
20
what is minimum time for direct pressure?
20 mins
How long may it take to provide hemostasis when compressing at a pressure point?
20 mins.
Women with CIN 2, CIN 3, and AIS should be screened for at least how long after treatment and/or clearance even if they are 65 years of age or older?
20 years.
What primary group receives a yellow folder?
20-29
Flush water and air from any device connected to the dental water system that enters the patient's mouth for how long?
20-30 seconds.
The effective life of an oxygen breathing apparatus (OBA) is?
20-45 minutes
massive hemorrhage
200cc/hr for over 4hrs.
It is recommended that annual clinical breast exams and breast health awareness education for women of what ages?
21 to 39 years of age.
Cervical cancer screening for women should begin at what age?
21 years of age.
No cervical cytology screening is recommended for women before what age?
21 years of age.
How many Medals of Honor has the HM rate recieved?
22
What is the standard size of a casket?
23(1ft 11 inches) x 78 inches(6 ft 6 inches)
Standard size casket is?
23x78 in
When amalgam restorations are placed in the tooth, finishing and polishing of the restorations generally take place at another appointment. The appointment should be at least how many hours after the placement of the amalgam?
24
how long can you hold whole blood under refrigeration
24 hours
while enrolled in tricare prime the wait time for an urgent care appointment shall not exceed how long?
24 hours
PHF leftovers can be kept no longer than?
24 hrs.
What size chest tube should be inserted?
24 to 36 french tube
What time frame does an applicant to the MSC IPP have to complete their degree?
24 to 48 months.
how often should debridement take place?
24-72hr and subsequent procedures until wound is clean
How many people will a straddle trench serve?
25
What is the shelf life for nonwoven blue wrap using the time-related method? 1.Indefinite 2.635 days 3.365 days 4.30 days
30 days
To perform hand piece maintenance on dental hand pieces the HM should remove hand pieces, lubricate, and then run them for how long? 1.3 minutes 2.1 minute 3.30 seconds 4.5 minutes
30 seconds
What primary group receives a gray folder?
30-39
the PDHRA may be administered concurrently with the what if the time frames coincide
PHA
What is individually identifiable health information, including demographics, in paper, electronic, or oral form
PHI
What must be stenciled on potable water hoses and at what interval?
POTABLE WATER ONLY every 10 feet
the DD 2796 shall be completed as close to the redeployment date as possible but not earlier than how many days before the expected redeployment and not later than how many days after the redeployment.
30/30
the catastrophic cap for ad families is 1000 and the "" cap for all other tc eleible familes is how much
3000 dollars
How many teeth do adults have?
32
what is the operating range for the AHSS?
32-150 degrees F and 10%-95% relative humidity
Refrigerators are kept at what temperature?
32-41 degrees F
*Frostbite occurs when ice crystals form in the skin or deeper tissues after exposure to a temperature of what temperature?*
32F (0C) or lower
what is shelf life for liquid PRBCs
35 days, available at 3rd and 4th echelons
What is the time frame a member entering MECP has to complete all degree requirements?
36 consecutive calendar months, full time, year round, beginning in the fall of the year selected.
What is pulpalgia?
Pain in the dental pulp and commonly occurs after a restoration has been placed in a tooth.
What are some signs of Cutaneous Anthrax?
Painless necrotic ulcer with black eschar and local edema
Of these listed below, which function as the accessory organs of digestion for the small intestines?
Pancreas, liver, and gallbladder
Search and recovery operations lasting longer than how many hours will give chronological progress reports every 24 hours to BUMED and Navy Casualty Office?
36 hours
What is the minimum diameter of rat guards?
36 inches
Rat guards should have a ___ inch minimum outside diameter, a cone angle of __ degrees and be made of ___guage steel or aluminum.
36, 30, 18
To minimize cellular deterioration what temperature must a dead body be kept at?
36-40 F 2.2-4.4 c
elegitiblity for tricare standard ends how many days after birthfor any newborn who is not propelry regristered in deers?
365days
The recommended fiber intake for males is?
37 grams
Hematocrit for a normal, healthy female is within what range?
37-47 percent
A carbohydrate has how many calories per gram?
4
A protein has how many calories per gram?
4
How many dental quadrants are there?
4
Tooth fractures are classified into how many different types?
4
how many core elements does the magtf have
4
How many digits are included in the Federal Supply Classification? 1.4 2.3 3.2 4.1
4 Ex.6505 Drugs and Biologicals
How deep is a urine soakage pit?
4 feet deep
What type of course does a Food Worker need to take?
4 hour initial with 4 hour annual
How many hours after a casualty is confirmed must a casualty report be submitted?
4 hours
When a casualty occurs, how long do you have to submit a casualty report?
4 hours
Time for PRIORITY Casualties, Condition of casualty
4 hrs all other services/ Within 24 hrs Air Force
*How many days are facial sutures generally removed?*
4 or 5 days
How many iodine tablets are added to a 5 gallon container?
40
As a general rule field reefers will be maintained at or below __ degrees F and freezers will be maintained at or below __ degrees F.
40, 0
What primary group receives a tan folder?
40-49
how many gallons of water can an STP provide
400
When administering Ciprofloxacin for Tularemia what is the proper dose?
400 mg IV every 12 hours then switch to oral cipro 500 mg every 12 hours after the patient has clinically impoved
What temperatures must milk, shelled eggs, and cheese be maintained at?
41 degrees F or less
Cold PHF must be held at what temperature?
41 degrees f or less
What temp is the danger zone?
41 to 140 degrees F
Applicants for MECP must have what minimum recommended ACT scores that are not older than 3 years?
42 ACT score, 21 math and 21 English.
Under what act, a federal statute enacted in 1956, is it unlawful for the U.S. military to be used to enforce or assist in the enforcement of federal or state civil laws?
Posse Comitatus Act
Bleeding from an extraction site is referred to by which of the following terms?
Postextraction hemorrhage
All ice is prepared from what water?
Potable Water
Infusing too much ______ in an intravenous line can cause death.
Potassium
Which of the following chemical preparations is frequently used to detect fungi?
Potassium hydroxide
What is PHF?
Potentially Hazardous Food
What is NAVMED 6630/2?
Precious Metal Issue Record
Rectal administration
Preferred to oral route when there is danger of vomiting or when the patient is unconscious, uncooperative, or mentally incapable
When would a Servicewoman be allowed to have an abortion?
Pregnancy is a result of an act of rape or incest.
in what War(s) did the Loblolly's serve?
Quasi-War (1797-1800) and First Barbary War (1801-1805)
What water purify equipment machine is most common field purification system in use?
ROWPU
What are two equipments used to purify water?
ROWPU, ERDLATOR
What are the reservoir for Tularemia?
Rabbits, hares, rodents
Dosage Range
Range between the minimum and maximum amounts of a given medication required to produce the desired effect
Contraindication for chest PA
Rash and streaking
What is required on all tending lines?
Rat Guards
For performance evaluations, who's responsibility is it to review the member's performance, assign trait grades, propose career recommendations, and draft a justifying comment for each 1.0 grade and any other comments on performance?
Rater.
Emergency Surge
Ready and capable of deploying within 120 days
Surge Ready
Ready and capable of mobilizing and deploying within 30 days
In what area of the CSR will the HM take contaminated instruments after completion of a patient's treatment? 1.Issue 2.Receiving 3.Processing 4.Sterile storage
Receiving
In what area of the CSR will the disinfection, cleaning, and lubrication of dental handpieces take place? 1.Receiving and cleaning 2.Sterilization 3.Processing 4.Issue
Receiving and cleaning
Six "rights" of medication administration
Right patient Right medication Right dose Right route Right time Right documentation
Needles, scalpels and sutures should be disposed of in what container? 1.Thick red bag with Biohazard symbol 2.Cardboard box 3.Linen bag 4.Rigid, puncture resistant, red container with a biohazard symbol
Rigid, puncture resistant, red container with a biohazard symbol
What is applied to a burn if evacuation to a definitive care facility will be delayed 2-3 days?
Silvadene Cream ®
What is the largest single organ of the body?
Skin
The axial skeleton is composed of which two regions of the skeletal system?
Skull and vertebral column
Crotalids are identified by ______ .
Slit-like pupils of the eyes and flat, triangular heads
The paper towel test is used to test what?
Small Leaks
What is the most important type of injury for a first responder to recognize?
Tension Pneumothorax
What type of injury is characterized by a patient with a known chest injury presenting with an open airway and difficulty breathing?
Tension Pneumothorax
A General Hospital can provide care up to how many patients?
476 patients.
CO's are required to write a letter to the appropriate NOK within?
48 hours of a casualty
Infections are not considered HAI's unless the onset of the infections occurs in what time frame after the time of admission or treatment?
48 hours.
What is the shelf life of an MRE?
48 months
what is the average blood volume
4900ml
A field dishwashing unit uses how many GI cans?
5
How many stages of extrication are there?
5
Routine QA program-related documentation must be maintained in a secure location for a period of how many years before disposal?
5
How many levels of care, or roles, are used by NATO and ABCA?
5 Levels of Medical Care.
What is a post-exposure medication for Q-fever?
Tetracycline 500 mg PO every 6 hours for 5 days. or doxy 100 mg every 12 hours for 5 day. effective if begun 8-12 days
How long should the WBGT remain in the workspace to equilibrate?
5 minutes
How much blood is in the human body?
5-6 Liters
What is the average amount of blood in an adult?
5-6 liters
how many liters of blood are in the human body
5-6 liters
What percentage loss of body water will cause heat injury or death?
5-7%
What is the suture size used on the eyelid, lip and face?
7.0
What is the typical standard dry heat cycle? 1.90 minutes at 320 - 345°F 2.90 minutes at 345°C 3.90 minutes at 300°F 4.90 minutes at 375°F
90 minutes at 320 - 345°F
What substance is used against the egg stage of an insect?
Ovicide
the dd 2900 shall be administered and completed how many days after returning from deployment
90 to 180
Cutaneous anthrax accounts for more that what percent of all anthrax cases?
90%
What is the percentage of war injuries involve the chest are penetrating?
90%
What percent are penetrating chest injuries?
90%
what % of deaths happen forward of medical care
90%
What is marginal gingivitis?
This is the most common type of gingival disease. This is the result of poor oral hygiene and affects both the gingival margins and papilla. Chief irritants are food debris and plaque.
What is a periapical abscess?
This results when the pulp has become inflamed and a small pus-like abscess forms in the pulpal canal. May cause the tooth to be pushed up higher in its socket.
The Automated External Defibrillator analyzes cardiac rhythm and selects the appropriate strength of electrical therapy which stops an arrhythmia, allowing the heart to re-establish a normal rhythm.
True
The upper three ribs on each side are known as which of the following types?
True
Toxicology is defined as the science of poisons.
True
True or False Acute pulmonary disease is the most common form of melioidosis.
True
True or False Brucellosis is not communicable from person to person
True
True or False. Thawed foods should never be refrozen.
True
True or False. You should never spray aerosol insecticides directly on packaging?
True
True or False: Unmarried adult children of eligible individuals may be buried in any open national cemetery(except Arlington) if they were totally disabled either physically or mentally before attaining the age of 21?
True
True or False? Avoid pushing fragments into the brain when applying direct pressure, but control bleeding even at the expense of the exposed brain.
True
True or False? It is difficult to apply and maintain direct pressure to scalp injuries?
True
True or False? When reinforcing a dressing If at all possible, DO NOT remove the first dressing.
True
Valuable information on the antivenom is found in the package inserts.
True
True or false? Infection control records are considered Quality Assurance records and therefore exempt from the requirements of the Freedom of Information Act?
True.
True or False? No significant treatment should occur in the emergent triage area?
True. Casualties should be rapidly sent to the appropriate treatment are for care.
The first in, first out method is most important when dealing with items that have a shelf life or expiration code. True or False?
True. "This is especially important when managing items marked with a shelf life code or expiration date." Pg 5-18 `
True or False The disease called Glanders is not widespread
True. Usually occurs among animal workers who work with donkeys, horses, mules
African sleeping sickness is transmitted by what vector?
TseTse Fly
What is the recovery time for personnel reaching exposure limits?
Twice the exposure time or 4 hours, whichever is less.
What is pre-prohylaxis for Tularemia?
A live attenuated vaccine is available as an IND. It is given by scarification.
What is a hematoma?
A localized collection of blood.
What is an Abscess?
A localized collection of pus in a specific area of soft tissue or bone.
What is erosion?
A loss of tooth substances from a chemical process that does not involve bacteria. `
What ADAL is the Field Dental Operatory?
ADAL 662.
What AMAL is BAS equipment?
AMAL 635.
What AMAL is BAS supply?
AMAL 636.
What AMAL is the Preventive Medicine Technician?
AMAL 638.
What AMAL is used for Sick Call?
AMAL 699.
A patient presenting with chronic cervical spine pain should be ordered what type of radiograph?
AP Cervical Spine
Symptoms of a black widow spider bite may include severe pain, dyspnea, and ______ .
Abdominal rigidity
What on the performance evaluation report identifies the type, defines the context in which it was received, and make more informative to detailers and selection boards?
Administrative Blocks, blocks 1 to 19, 21 to 26, and 48 for Evals.
What substance is used to control the adult stage of an insect?
Adulticide
TERM FOR USAF FIXED WING INTRATHEATER
Aeromedical Evacuation
What is the topic chapter 4 Emergency War Surgery?
Aeromedical Evacuation
What is the AELT?
Aeromedical Evacuation Liaison Team 4-6 person communication team, collocated with MTF to coordinate requests with the AE system
What does the CO appoint to inventory the personal effects of deceased?
An inventory board
What are cremains?
Ashes of a body that are cremated.
What syringe is used in dentistry to inject a local anesthetic?
Aspirating
what is necessary to remove blood, pus, saliva, and deb ris from the treatment site and oral cavity?
Aspiration
What series list the required elements for process improvement (quality assurance) programs of naval hospitals, medical clinics, and dental clinics?
BUMEDINST 6010.13
What is the instruction that governs the use of tobacco products on Navy MTFs?
BUMEDINST 6200.12
Commands must oversee reporting of communicable diseases with local or state requirements, along with what instruction?
BUMEDINST 6220.12b Medical Surveillance and Medical Event Reporting.
Regulated medical waste, and general trash must be collected, treated, stored, disposed of, and managed following relevant local regulations and guidelines provided in what instruction?
BUMEDINST 6220.1a Management of Infectious Waste
What instruction sets the standard for drinking water for U.S. Naval establishments both ashore and afloat? 1.NAVMED P-5010 2.BUMEDINST 6280.A 3.NAVMED P-117 4.BUMEDINST 6240.1
BUMEDINST 6240.1
What is the management of regulated medical waste instruction?
BUMEDINST 6280.1B
The primary goal of the Patient Relations Program is to help resolve patient complaints and problems through patient intervention and negotiations in accordance with what series?
BUMEDINST 6300.10
The Clinical Performance Profile provides a format for compiling and summarizing individual-specific information per what instruction?
BUMEDINST 6320.66
What instruction give policy and guidelines to effectively manage medical and dental inventories and to establish responsibilities to develop, maintain, review AMALs and ADALs?
BUMEDINST 6700.13G, Management and Procurement of Authorized Medical and Dental Allowance List Material for Fleet Units.
To provide guidance on Navy performance evaluations is the purpose of which instruction?
BUPERS Instruction 1610.10C, Navy Performance Evaluation System.
What degree is awarded up graduation from the USNA?
Bachelor of Science Degree, B.S.
What is Q fever?
Bacteria named Coxielle burnetii. Highly resistent to heat.
Decalcification of the enamel is caused by what?
Bacterial plaque adhering to the teeth and acid
What is the third stage of the death process?
Bargaining
When performing a WBC differential, which cell has the large, scattered dark blue granules that are darker than the nucleus?
Basophils
What is Cimex Lectularius?
Bed Bug
What are cimex species, that are blood sucking insects which feed on sleeping hosts?
Bed Bugs
What bugs are oval shaped and flat, the adults are approximately 7mm long and appear brownish in color, are wingless, and have piercing sucking mouthparts?
Bed Bugs
When should specimens be labeled?
Before leaving patient
What is the pressure point and artery for the leg?
Behind the knee Popliteal
What is the pressure point and artery for the thigh?
Below the groin crease Femoral
What will allow data comparisons at multiple levels for purposes of performance improvement?
Benchmarking.
What are the stages of shock?
Compensated (non-progressive) - BP is maintained but narrowing of pulse pressure Decompensated (progressive) - blood volume has dropped 15-25%, signs and symptoms show Irreversible (terminal) - arterial bp is abnormally low, aggressive tx does not normally result in recovery
What refers to the ability to understand the nature and consequences of one's decision?
Competency
One of the most commonly used tooth-colored restorative materials is the what?
Composite resin
Cavity varnish is not used with what?
Composites
When two surfaces of the tooth are involved, the cavity is called a what?
Compound cavity
When ongoing direct pressure can not be applied, what should be used to control scalp bleeding?
Compression dressing * Requires circumferential head application
What are daily measures taken to control the spread of pathogenic organisms? 1.Portal of exit 2.Concurrent Disinfection 3.Reservoir of infectious agents 4.Susceptible host
Concurrent Disinfection
Which program combines the Curret Death Program and Graves Registration Program?
Concurrent Return Program
Which program is a combination of the Current Death Program and Graves Registration program?
Concurrent Return Program
Which program indicates that you can move buried remains from temporary cemeteries into permanent cemeteries?
Concurrent Return Program.
What type of performance reports provide a record of significant performance in additional duty, temporary additional duty, CAI status or designated billet assignment?
Concurrent reports.
What is impaction?
Condition in which a tooth is blocked by a physical barrier.
What waiver applies only to Active Duty?
Conditional Waiver
What is Tribolium Confusum>
Confused Flour Beetle
What is CHF?
Congestive Heart Failure - A heart suffering from prolonged hypertension, valve disease, or heart disease will try to compensate for decreased function by increasing the size of the left ventricle and increasing heart rate.
What in the medical setting refers to a patient's expressed or implied agreement to submit to an examination or treatment?
Consent
What is the classification for patients who have oral conditions that the examining dentist feels if not treated or followed up, have the potential but are not expected to result in dental emergencies within 12 months?
Class 2
What is the classification for patients who have oral conditions that the examining dentist expects will result in dental emergencies within 12 months if not treated?
Class 3
What Dental class is ineligible to PCS/Transfer/Deploy?
Class 3, Class 4
What is the classification for patients who require a dental examination?
Class 4
*Burn treatment - First aid: Airway, control bleeding, treat for shock and protect the burn area from contamination by covering it with what type of dressing?*
Clean sheets or dry dressings
Difference between Clearance and Validation
Clearance is medical care event Validation is a logistical event
Who are personnel who are required to be licensed but are not included in the definition of health care practitioners?
Clinical Support Staff
MTF's and DTF's, with guidance from higher authority, must develop what type of programs?
Clinical monitoring
Which bacteria causes tetanus?
Clostridium tetani
What is the term used to define bacteria that are round in shape?
Cocci
What is defined as tissue damage produced by exposure to cold?
Cold Injury
What is the first GI can used for?
Collecting Garbage
The secretion of digestive fluids and the absorption of digested foods and liquids is the chief function of which tissue?
Columnar
Who implements an effective, flexible, integrated, and comprehensive HAIPC Program guided by a written plan?
Commander, CO's, and OIC's, SMDR, and Dental Department Representative.
Who appoints IPCCs to implement the HAIPC Program within MTF's and DTF's according to which instruction?
Commanders, CO's, or OIC's, BUMEDINST 6010.13.
Who appoints IPCC to implement the HAIPC program?
Commanders, CO, OIC
What are diseases that transmitted from a carrier to a susceptible host?
Communicable Disease
What is an illness due to a specific infectious agent or toxic product which arises through transmission of that agent or its products from an infected person, animal, or inanimate reservoir to a susceptible host, either directly or indirectly?
Communicable disease.
20
Compared to gamma rays, neutrons can cause how many times greater damage to tissue?
Warning plates for potable water risers must be placed how?
Conspicuously
CBU
Construction Battalion Units Level 1 health services support Qualified field med HMs only
Which is the best form of communication for, Directing the patient to the pharmacy to fill a prescription ? A.Contact point communication B.Therapeutic communication
Contact point communication
Which is the best form of communication for, Explaining the necessities and methods of personal hygiene to the parent of a young patient? A.Contact point communication B.Therapeutic communication
Contact point communication
How are Melioidosis transmitted?
Contact with contaminated soil or water
What was developed to improve distribution and control of military healthcare services including the projection and allocation of costs for healthcare programs and to minimize fraudulent healthcare claims?
DEERS
What provides basic standards and policies governing the Navy's pest control programs and establishes the minimum levels of pest control?
DOD Directive 4150.7
Bottle water shall be procured only from what approved sources?
DOD Sources
The compliance date for the HIPPA Privacy rule was April 14, 2003 and is guided by what series?
DODINST 6025.18
For personnel pending casualty identification what shall be filled on the personnel casualty report?
DUSTWUN duty status whereabouts unknown
All Navy prevacuum sterilizers will be tested how often using a Bowie- Dick type test? 1.Quarterly 2.Monthly 3.Weekly 4.Daily
Daily
How often is the interior of a steam sterilizer cleaned before heating? 1.After each use 2.Daily 3.Monthly 4.After every 5 cycles
Daily
Which urine color is most related with a patient being treated with Pyridium®?
Dark orange
Pharmacognosy
Deals with biological, biochemical, and economic features of natural medications
Pharmacy
Deals with preparation, dispensing, and proper use of medications
Cardiovascular problems presents only 2% of Brucellosis but accounts for the most?
Death
OPNAVINST 5360.1
Decedent Affairs Manual
What is the OPNAV 5360.1?
Decedent Affairs Manual
10
Decontamination of chemical agents on the skin within 1 minute after contamination is perhaps how many times more effective than if decontamination is delayed 5 minutes?
Central nervous system stimulants are used for all of the following EXCEPT?
Decrease mental alertness
What temporary latrine is made by constructing a latrine box over a pit, has four seats, is 8 feet long and 2.5 feet wide at the base and mounted on 2 six inch planks?
Deep Pit Latrine
Gram positive bacteria stain what color?
Deep blue or purple
If direct pressure fails to stop the hemorrhage, it signifies?
Deep, massive, or arterial injury, and will require surgery or advanced hemostatic agents.
Applicants to the USNA must have a medical exam determining they are physically qualified, performed by whom?
Defense Medical Examination Review Board, DODMERB.
What is the state in which there is a variance from preestablished minimally acceptable standards of care?
Deficiency
What is DCAP-BTLS?
Deformities, contusions, abrasions, punctures/penetrations, burns, tenderness, lacerations and swelling
A patient with burns less than 50% of total body surface area, TBSA, would be triaged into what category?
Delayed.
A patient who is badly in need of time-consuming surgery, but whose general condition permits delay in surgical treatment without unduly endangering life would be what triage category?
Delayed. Injuries include: large muscle wounds, fractures of major bones, intra-abdominal and/or thoracic wounds, burns less than 50% of total body surface area.
The victim of a scorpion sting may safely be given any of the following pharmaceuticals EXCEPT?
Demerol or morphine
The impulse receptors of a nerve are called?
Dendrites
What is the first stage of the death process?
Denial
who has the additional duty as the MEF Dental officer
Dental BN Surgeon
What are used with a pulling motion to smooth and shape the floor and sides of cavity preparations?
Dental Hoes
What is DD Form 2322?
Dental Lab Work Authorization
advises the CMC and staff agencies on all dental matters
Dental Officer, USMC
For applicants to the USNA, who has the exclusive responsibility for scheduling and reviewing all medical examinations?
Department of Defense Medical Examination Board, DODMERB.
Five
Dependent upon the threat, forces may adopt a Mission-Orientated Protective Posture (MOPP) and there are how many levels?
Stop-Loss policy
Depending on operational situation, CNO may direct implementation of a stop-loss policy service-wide for certain rates or officer specialties
What is the fourth stage of the death process?
Depression
Who is the BUMED Chief Operating Officer, and is the principal staff advisor to the SG on all Navy Medicine Matters?
Deputy Surgeon General, N093B. Deputy Chief, BUMED, M09.
Who provides oversight of Navy Medicine Region Commands and BUMED?
Deputy Surgeon General, N093B. Deputy Chief, BUMED, M09.
Who serves as primary liaison with civil authorities in matters pertaining to public health, disasters, and other emergencies?
Deputy Surgeon General, N093B. Deputy Chief, BUMED, M09.
What beetles are medically important because hairs on the outside of the larvae can cause intestinal trauma, eye irritation, dermatitis, and allergic reactions?
Dermestid Beetles
What is Supernumery teeth?
Development of one or more extra teeth.
*What is an inherited condition in which the pancreas secretes an insufficient amount of insulin, which leads to hyperglycemia? Signs and symptoms include: Intense thirst, increased urination and unexplained weight loss.*
Diabetes Mellitus
How often should the shipboard pest control specialist conduct a cockroach survey in food service areas where no infestation have been found?
Every Two Weeks
If a manned space is currently 81 degrees, how often does the DB thermometer need to be read?
Every four hours
Protective eyewear must have slotted splash shields to provide maximum protection. 1.True 2.False
False. "Eyewear or goggles must have solid side shields to provide maximum protection." Pg 9-11
The medical departments aboard ships are not required to include ice samples in any bacteriological analyses performed on water. 1.True 2.False
False. "The medical departments aboard ships are required to include ice samples in any bacteriological analyses they perform on water." Pg 9-4
The first in, first out method is the process of issuing items to the first person that arrives. True or False?
False. "To prevent deterioration of items, the oldest products should always be issued first. This is the FIFO (first in, first out) method." Pg 5-18
True or False. Chemoprophylaxis for Q fever is effective if given immeidately within the first 7 days.
False. It just delays onset.
The purpose of what program is to identify and monitor spouse or child abuse/neglect (whether physical or psychological) and sexual abuse in military families?
Family Advocacy Program (FAP)
What is Adipose tissue?
Fat
What are some signs and symptoms of Anthrax?
Fever, Malaise, cough,. also improvement for 3 days then acute respiratory symptoms
What is a semi-permanent hospital that provides primarily convalescent care?
Field Hospital.
SECNAV M-5510.36
For security purposes, classified directives and documents are filed in separate binders and maintained in a safe in accordance with what series?
Veteran Affairs
For service members who were discharged after 31 January 1994, requests for record retrieval are sent to the?
The meninges, which cover the outer portion of the brain and spinal cord are composed of all the following EXCEPT?
Foramen magnum
advises the marine corps CO on all dental matters
Force dental surgeon
FDPMU
Forward Deployed Preventive Medicine Units Provide preventive medicine services beyond organic capability of supported force
What USMC Level 2 medical care is part of the surgical company, that can provide resuscitative surgery for 18 patients within 48 hours without resupply?
Forward Resuscitative Surgical System.
What Army Level 2 medical care provides 2 operating tables for a max of 10 cases per day, and for a total of 30 operations within 72 hours?
Forward Surgical Teams.
What is a Barton Bandage used for?
Fractures of the lower jaw
FAC stands for?
Free Available Chlorine
Documents and records created per this instruction are medical QA materials are therefore exemp from the requirements of what act?
Freedom of Information Act
Two federal statutes, the Privacy Act and what else combine to establish the criteria for collecting, maintaining, and releasing medical treatment records?
Freedom of Information Act (FOIA)
Lightly Infested food is treated how?
Freezing for 72 hours
What is the format for Block 20 of the eval?
From oldest to most recent.
What occurs from exposure to ambient or windchill temperature below freezing?
Frostbite
What is dosophila?
Fruit Flies
What are the authorized methods of transportation within the US
Government air, commercial air, chartered air taxi and funeral coach
What type of epileptic seizure is the most serious type and may be preceded by an aura?
Grand mal epilepsy
What is the best way to remove ticks?
Grasp with Forceps and pull slowly and steady, do not twist
Which program deals with temporary burial sites?
Graves Registration Program
Which program includes the eastablishment and maintenance of temporary burial sites?
Graves Registration Program
Which program is only operational when authorized by the responsible commander during military operations?
Graves Registration Program
Which program is operational when authorized by the responsible commander during major military operations?
Graves Registration Program
All treatment facilities must fully integrate into their QA program Risk Management procedures requiring review of cases and events that represent liability or injury risk to patients and staff, and must recommend methods of decreasing what?
Liability risk
What is pediculosis?
Lice
What is a malignant tumor?
Life threatening if left untreated.
What will decrease bleeding associated with fractures and soft tissue injuries by aligning, stabilizing, and returning limb to length?
Limb Splints
The USNA academic program focuses primarily on technical fields of study, which lead to appointments in what communities in the Navy?
Unrestricted Line, URL, communities. Such as: 1. Surface Warfare, 2. Submarines, 3. Aviation, 4. Special Warfare, 5. EOD.
STA-21 students can receive up to how much money paid to the university to supplement costs of tuition, books, and fees?
Up to $10,000.
How man warfare/qualification designators can be placed in Block 3 of the eval report?
Up to 2.
A periodic report may be extended by a letter up to how many months?
Up to 3 months.
How long does it take to determine if direct pressure effectively stopped bleeding?
Up to 5 minutes
SF 600
Upon compketion of an annual medical record verification, the HM will make an entry on the what for medical records and black-out the corresponding year block on the front leaf of the jacket witha black felt-tip pen?
One day
Upon final discharge or death, send the complete and verified health and dental records to the command maintaining the member's service record (no later than how long following seperation) for inclusion in and transmittal with the member's service record?
Blood
What agents basic physical actions disrupt oxygen utilization at the cellular level causing cellular suffocation?
Pulmonary
What agents damage the membranes in the lungs that separate the alveolar tissue resulting in fluid from the blood, known as plasma, to leak into the alveoli and fill with fluid?
Lacrimators
What are essentially local irritants that act primarily on the eyes?
Alpha
What are heavy, very short-range particles that are not able to penetrate clothing or human skin?
Viruses
What are intracellular parasites that lack a system for their own metabolism, meaning, they require living cells in order to multiply?
Bacteria
What are single celled organisms capable of causing a variety of diseases in animals, plants, and humans?
Eyes
What are the most vulnerable part of the body to mustard gas?
3-M Systems
What are the nucleus for managing maintenance aboard all ships and applicable shore station equipment?
Antibiotics
What are the primary treatment required for Anthrax?
Fleet Hospitals
What are used to provide medical support during intense combat operations and in lengthy low-intensity scenarios?
NAVMED 6150/7
What charge out Form Health Record Receipt also known as the pink card, will be used for charge out control of medical records?
M256A1
What chemical agent detector kit is a portable kit that detects nerve gas, mustard gas, and cyanide?
FMF
What consists of a headquarters, a Marine logistics Group (MLG), and Marine divisions, brigades, and aircraft wings?
Classifying
What is the process of determining the correct subject group or name-title codes under which correspondance should be filed and any subordinate subjects that should be cross-referenced?
Variola Major
What is the severe and most common form of smallpox?
SF 513
What is used for outpatients who need to be referred to other healthcare providers or specialists, such as gynecologists, intermists, optometrists, etc?
Radiation Absorbed Dose (RAD)
What is used to measure a quantity of absorbed dose of radiation?
AN/VDR 2
What is used to perform ground radiological surveys in vehicles or in dismounted mode by individual personnel as a handheld instrument?
Battalion Aid Station (BAS)
What is used to provide direct support to company and platoon corpsman, and to provide advanced trauma life support under fire?
PHA
What is used to review and correct any IMR deficiencies?
Radioactivity
What may be defined as the spontaneous and instantaneous decomposition of the nucleus of an unstable atom with the accompanying emission of a particle, a gamma ray, or both?
SF 600
What provides a continuous comprehensive record of a patient's medical history?
Convenience
What record contains excerpts from a patient's primary record and is kept within the MTF by a treating clinic, service, department, or individual provider for increased access to the information?
Ancillary
What records consist of original healthcare documentation withheld from a patient's primary HREC or OREC?
2-PAM CL
What removes the nerve agent from the enzyme acetylcholinesterase within the synaptic cleft (the space between the nerve cells) of the nervous system?
SECNAVINST 5210.8
What series, Department of the Navy Records Managment Program, provides guidance for records maintenance, use, and disposition?
Botulinum
What toxin is the most toxic substance known and is 10-15,000 times more toxic then VX nerve agent by weight?
Primary
What type of medical records are used for the documentation of outpatient medical and dental care?
When would a detachment of individual report be submitted?
When a member is permanently detached with orders to report to another command.
24
When a member of the naval service incurs an injury that might result in permanent disability or results in a physical inability to perform duty for a period exceeding how many hours, an entry will be made concerning line-of-duty misconduct?
How are Anthrax transmitted?
contact with infected animals, ingesting contaminated meat or Inhaling spores during the processing of wool for textiles.
what program is intended to provice transitional benefits for a specified period of time(18-36 months)?
continued health care benefit program
what is hte % of the allowable charges a beneficiary will pay under tc extra and tc standard?
cost share
CK
creatinine phosphokinase
CS
crush syndrome characterized by ischemia and muscle death
What is the fluid of choice for shock
crystalloids are the fluid of choice for shock.
what PHEL curve is light work?
curve I
what PHEL curve is heavy work?
curve VI
what form, statement of personal inry third party liability form will be sent to you if a colaim is recieved that appears to have third party liability involvement?
dd form 2527
provides a level of care adapted to the precise condition of a patient
definitive care
What factors contribute to susceptibility to heat stress
dehydration, lack of sleep, illness, use of medication, drugs, alcohol, and presence of atmospheric contaminants
regularly scheduled DOD-mandated instruments used to screen service members prior to deployment and after deployment to identify health concerns and facilitate care
deployment health assessments (DHA)
hypovolemia
diminished volume resulting in poor perfusion and a result of blood loss
what is the most effective and preferred method for hemorrhage control
direct pressure
shock that has poor perfusion due to loss of vascular tone
distributive shock
How do you evaluate a throacic injury
do a complete and rapid trauma assessment
What two types of micro-organisms are killed by all three levels of disinfection? 1.Bacterial spores and nonlipid viruses 2.Tubercle bacillus and lipid viruses 3.Lipid viruses and vegetative spores 4.Lipid viruses and vegetative bacteria
Lipid viruses and vegetative bacteria
The most common phospholipids is bile; where is it produced?
Liver
Who were the foreunners of the corpsman? (I.E.m, what were the very first Medical Enlisted Sailors called?)
Loblolly Boys
Deaths occurring outside 50 states and District of Columbia follow what requirements?
Local civil requirements `
To allow steam to circulate freely, how should packs be wrapped? 1.Open 2.Tight 3.Loosely 4.Together
Loosely
What disease is caused by lice that are considered of historical medical importance?
Louse Borne Typhus
MARFOR
Marine Forces Level 2 health services support Qualified field med HM/MDs only Only males will be assigned to MARDIV unless female personnel are specifically requested
what form, statemtn of personal injury third party liablity form will be sent to you if a claim is recieve dthat appears to have third part liability involvement?
fedearl medical recover act
what allows tricare to be reimbursed for its costs of treating you if you are injured in an accident that was caused by someone else
federal medical recover act
What are some signs and symptoms of atypical pneumonia?
fever, fatigue,chills, sweats,myalgia in abscence of respiratory symptoms
What are some signs and symptoms of Glanders?
fever,rigors,sweating,myalgia,headache
Asbestos
is a fibrous mineral that can be produced into a material that is fireproof, possesses high tensile strength, good heat and electrical insulating capabilities, and moderate to good chemical resistance
Mishap probability
is the likelihood that a hazard will result in a mishap, based on an assessment of such factors as location, exposure in terms of cycles or hours of operation, and affected population
if you choose to sienroll from tricare prime before your annual enrollment renawl date, or are diserolled for nonpayment, you may be subject to a lockout lasting how long?
one year
runs to POTUS to COCOMs
operational chain
What personal protective equipment item is not necessarily worn while treating a patient under Contact Precautions? 1.Gloves 2.Disposable gown 3.Mask 4.None of the above
Mask
What type of injury is characterized immediate return of 1,500 cc of blood or the continued loss of 200 cc/hour of blood for over 4 hours?
Massive Hemothorax
When muliple surfaces of the tooth are removed during the cavity preparation, what is used to approximate the original surface and hold the restorative material in proper form and position until it sets?
Matrix
the purpose of this instruction is to establish policy and to ensure timely and accurate completion of deployment health assessments for active component and reserve component service members and to provide the process for reporting compliance to the chief of naval operations
opnavinst 6100.3
which type of dha are no longer authorized for submission
paper forms
a chest tube is the best treatment for what
penetrating chest injuries
DHAs augment the what and is not intended as a substitute
periodic health assessment (pha)
what creates a global centralized data repository that recrods info about prescriptions filled for tricare beneficiaries at mtf, the tc retail pharmacy network and through tmop?
pharmacy data transaction service
the DHA process also helps to evaluate and treat what following deployment?
physical and psychological problems
Interim controls may consist of
physical barriers, written instructions, word passed over the 1 multi-channel (1MC), warning signs
What are the reservoir for Melioidosis?
soil and water throughout the world between 20 degrees north and south latitudes
What is non-regulated medical waste? RMW
solid material intended for disposal, produced as the direct result of patient diagnosis, treatment, therapy, or medical research. Examples include, soiled dressings, gowns, and urine cups.
What is the method of treatment for microbiological?
steam sterilization chemical disinfection incineration
What is the treatment and disposal of sharps in sharp containers?
steam sterilization/incineration sanitary landfill
What should the last liter of of irrigant be?
sterile solution with antibiotics
What is the percentage of war injuries involve the chest are superficial?
10%
What level of medical care is provided in the CONUS?
Level 5 medical care.
Navy Mortuary Affairs
Overall manager of the Navy and Marine corps decedent affairs
What are the triage categories for patients at a surgical unit?
1. Emergent, 2. Non-emergent, 3. Expectant.
What vertical angulation setting should you use when exposing a maxillary anterior occlusal radiograph?
+65
When exposing a maxillary posterior occlusal radiograph, you should use what vertical angulation setting?
+75
What are the capabilities of TAHs?
- 1,000 beds, 100 bed ICU, 12 ORs, - 1,000 staff, over 50 physicians, - Extensive lab and x-ray, - Patient holding limited to 5 days.
What are the capabilities of the Navy Fleet Hospital?
- 500 bed hospitals, 80 ICU beds, 6 ORs, - 1,000 personnel, - No limit on holding capabilities.
When exposing a mandibular anterior occlusal radiograph, what vertical angulation should you use?
-10
Symptoms of periodontal disease are?
-Bleeding gingival tissue during tooth brushing -Tender or red swollen gums -Receding gingival tissue -Tooth shifting or elongation -Mobile(loose) teeth -Purulent exudate(pus) in-between the teeth and gums -Abnormal change in the fit of partial dentures -Halitosis
Neoplasms (tumors) have been linked to what factors?
-Hereditary -Chemicals -Overexposure to X-rays -Excessive sunlight -Smokeless tobacco
What may cause reoccurrence of the HSV-1 lesions?
-Sunlight -Menstruation -Dental Treatment -Stress or anxiety
How long are temperature logs maintained?
1 year
The entrance to RMW storage spaces should be labeled how?
1) "RMW" and universal biohazard sign 2) also waste bags/bins should be labeled with Biohazard sign as well.
Three names of medication
1) Chemical name 2) Generic name 3) Brand name (trade name)
Three areas of medication classification
1) General: grouped according to source 2) Chemical: grouped by chemical characteristics 3) Therapeutic: grouped according to action on body
RMW treatment is achieved through what types of destruction?
1) Incineration 2) Inactivation by heat, chemicals, or radiation
How do you transport RMW?
1) place infectious waste into RIGID, LEAK-PROOF CONTAINERS before transporting off-site. Containers shall be labeled or color coded per paragraph 3b(1) off this enclosure. 2) Refer to Federal, State, and local laws, regulations, or status of forces agreements for transportation requirements such as licensing and vehicle labeling.
The Aircraft Carrier, CVN, Battle Group contains how many ORs, how many beds, and how many ICU beds?
1. 1 OR, 2. 40-60 beds, 3. 3 ICU beds.
For a reporting period in which a member has failed three or more PFAs in the most recent 4 year period, how is it documented for enlisted members?
1. 1.0 in "Military Bearing" or Professionalism, Block 35 for Chiefs, Block 36 for Evals, 2. "Significant problems" and "Retention Not Recommended".
To be considered for a SECNAV nomination, a candidate for the USNA should obtain what scores on ACT?
1. 24 in math, 2. 22 in English.
How many operating rooms or beds does a surgical company have the capability of supporting?
1. 3 operating rooms, 2. Or 60 beds.
What is the minimum service obligation upon initial appointment as an officer from USNA?
1. 5 years active duty, 2. 3 years Individual Ready Reserve.
To be considered for a SECNAV nomination, a candidate for the USNA should obtain what scores on SAT?
1. 550 in math, 2. 500 in critical reading/verbal.
Evals on personnel E6 and below should contain the signatures of whom?
1. A Rater, 2. A Senior Rater.
What performance grades must be substantiated in the comments block on performance evaluations?
1. All 1.0 grades, 2. Three 2.0 grades, 3. Any grade below 3.0 in Character or Command Or Organizational Climate/Equal Opportunity.
What rank will a service member be appointed upon graduation from OCS, and incur a minimum active duty obligation of how many years?
1. Appointed as Ensigns, 2. 4 year active duty obligation.
What factors may lead to inability to form a blood clot?
1. Bloodloss 2. Massive fluid resuscitation 3. Drop in body temperature
Graduates of MECP are commissioned as what rank, and incur a military service obligation for how long?
1. Commissioned as Ensigns, 2. Incur an 8 year military service obligation, with a minimum of 4 years on active duty.
What are the possible uses for MAST? (Military Anti-Shock Trousers)
1. Controls hemorrhage form mangled lower extremities 2. Provides temporary stabilization of pelvic fractures to decrease hemorrhage 3. Splints fractures of the lower extremities
At a minimum, what should be included in separation evaluations?
1. DD 2807-1, 2. Focused physical exam with lab test results, 3. Determination if member is physically qualified for separation, 4. DD 2697, 5. Any member over 35 offered Hep C screening.
All complete physical exams will include what forms?
1. DD 2807-1, Report of Medical History, 2. DD 2808, Report of Medical Examination.
What are the two categories of triage divided within non-emergent triage category?
1. Delayed, 2. Minimal.
Who can be the rater for personnel E1 to E4?
1. E6, 2. Civilian equivalent.
What are the performance marks for each performance recommendation?
1. EP = 4.0, 2. MP = 3.8, 3. P = 3.6, 4. Progressing = 3.4, 5. SP = 2.0.
Personnel report to gaining command with these administrative items:
1. ID tags 2. CAC card 3. DD2766 4. NAVPERS 1070/604 Enlisted Qualifications History 5. NAVPERS 1070/602W Emergency Data Worksheet 6. SGLI certificate 7. PHS 731 8. NAVPERS 1740/6 Family Care Certificate 9. Security clearance verification
What are the traditional categories of triage?
1. Immediate, 2. Delayed, 3. Minimal, 4. Expectant.
What are the two surgical triage categories within the Emergent category of triage?
1. Immediate, 2. Urgent.
In the emergent treatment area, what information is of critical importance when triaging a patient?
1. Initial vital signs, 2. Pattern of injury, 3. Response to initial intervention.
What four things should you remember concerning Coagulopathy?
1. Keep patient warm (above34°C). 2. Use warm fluids. 3. Use crystalloid fluids sparingly. 4. Transfuse with fresh whole blood (less than 24 hold).
What classes of ships are Marine amphibious assault helicopter carriers that function as casualty receiving platforms?
1. LHA, Tarawa-class, 2. LHD, Wasp-class.
What are the 2 categories of combat stress a patient may be put into?
1. Light stress, 2. Heavy stress.
Traditionally, what is included in Level 4 medical care?
1. MF2K Field Hospital, FH, 2. General Hospital, GH.
Manning priority (8 platforms)
1. Marine Forces (MARFOR) 2. Casualty Receiving and Treatment Ship (CRTS) 3. Forward Deployed Preventive Medicine Unit (FDPMU) 4. Expeditionary Medical Facility (EMF) 5. Construction Battalion Unit (CBU) 6. Hospital Ship (T-AH) 7. OCONUS MTF 8. Blood Processing Unit (BPU)
What are the internal factors that should be assessed for optimal casualty care?
1. Medical supplies, 2. Space/Capability, 3. Personnel, 4. Stress.
What are the ACT requirements when applying for STA-21?
1. Must be within 3 years of application due date, 2. Score 21 in math, and 20 in English.
What are the SAT requirements when applying for STA-21?
1. Must be within 3 years of application due date, 2. Score 500 in math, and 500 in critical reading/verbal.
What provides intensive instruction and preparation for the academic, military and physical training curricula at USNA?
1. NAPS.
What are the two components for the STA-21 program?
1. Naval Science Institute, 2. Full time, year round study up to 36 months at a NROTC affiliated University.
What ranks are graduates of the USNA commissioned as?
1. Navy, Ensigns, 2. USMC, 2nd LT.
When should normal and abnormal pap results be provided to the patient?
1. Normal, within 30 days, 2. Abnormal, as soon as possible.
Annual health assessments for Servicewomen include what?
1. Obesity screening, 2. Hypertension screening, 3. Chlamydia screening, 4. Cervical cancer screening.
What are the 6 different Physical Fitness Assessment codes that can be used in Block 20 on evals?
1. P - passed, 2. B - passed BCA non-participant in PRT for other than medical reasons, 3. F, overall PFA failure, failed BCA or PRT, 4. M, medically waived from entire PFA, 5. W, passed BCA but medically waived from 1 or more PRT events, 6. N, No PFA conducted during reporting period.
Who makes up the resuscitation team in the emergent triage area?
1. Physician, 2. Nurse, 3. Medical technician.
What are the possible pitfalls of MAST? (Military Anti-Shock Trousers)
1. Protracted MAST use leads to compartment syndrome and ischemic limbs 2. Respiratory compromise due to diaphragmatic elevation 3. Increased torso bleeding 4. Requires close monitoring in aircrafts due to pressure changes
Qualities of an ideal initial emergent triage area should include what?
1. Proximity to receiving area of casualties, 2. One-way flow in and out of area, 3. Well-lit, covered, climate-controlled, 4. Dedicated casualty recorders, 5. Sufficient litter bearers.
What are the 4 types of promotion status that can be placed in block 8 of the eval report?
1. REGULAR, 2. FROCKED, 3. SELECTED, 4. SPOT.
Who must work together to ensure consistent interpretation and application of Navy standards for performance evaluations?
1. Rater, 2. Senior Rater, 3. Reporting Senior.
What are the three types of reports that must be submitted?
1. Regular reports, 2. Concurrent reports, 3. Operational Commander reports.
What are the placement rules for application of a tourniquet on the forearm and the leg?
1. The tourniquet can not compress the vessels, which lie between the double long bones. 2. Place tourniquet on upper arm for upper extremities 3. If bleeding of the lower extremity can be be controlled by tourniquet on the leg then move to the thigh.
Name four benefits of dressings.
1. They promote hemostasis 2. They protect wounds from mechanical injury and contamination 3. They immobilize tissues 4. They provide physical and psychological support to the patient
Which of the following is/are (a) function(s) of the kidneys?
1. To maintain acid-base balance 2. To remove excess waste from the blood 3. Formation of urine `
What are the 6 Navy Commissioning Programs offered to enlisted personnel?
1. US Naval Academy (USNA), and Naval Academy Preparatory School, NAPS, 2. Officer Candidate School, OCS, 3. Medical Enlisted Commissioning Program, MECP, 4. Medical Service Corps In-Service Procurement Program, MSC IPP, 5. Limited Duty Officer, LDO, and Chief Warrant Officer, CWO, 6. Seaman to Admiral-21, STA-21.
What are the two Navy TAHs?
1. USNS Mercy located in San Diego, CA, 2. USNS Comfort located in Norfolk, VA.
What are the six field hemostatic dressings considerations?
1. Use should be delayed until after a trial of conventional dressings. 2. Do not use on minor injuries. 3. Use on internal wounds is not yet recommended. 4. Must apply pressure to the bleeding site after application. 5. Risk of inadequate contact of HemCon to the bleeding tissues in deep wounds. 6. Heat generation from QuikClot.
Three methods of controlling hazards
1. prevent at design stage 2. identify and eliminate existing hazards 3. reduce likelihood and severity of unavoidable hazards
4 methods of preventing hazards
1. preventative maintenance 2. ORM 3. SOP's 4. Purchasing controls (proper specs and amounts)
Principles of hazard control in order of preference
1. substitution 2. engineering controls (isolation, ventilation) 3. admin controls (adjust work schedules) 4. PPE (least preferred)
An enlisted member who receives any trait grade of what, loses eligibility for their Good Conduct Medal?
1.0 trait grade.
What is the treatment for scabies?
1.0% Gamma Isomer of BHC (Lindane), heat sterilization of clothing and bedding
What performance grade must be substantiated in the comments, as well as general comments on the remainder of the evaluative blocks?
1.0.
Normal specific gravity for routine urinalysis is within what range?
1.015 - 1.030
What are the objectives of the Decedent Affairs Program?
1.Immediate recovery and identification of deceased personnel. 2. High standards of and uniformity in services provided. 3. Minimum elapsed time between death and delivery of remains or cremains to the primary next of kin (PNOK) 4. Prompt notification to the PNOK and secondary next of kin (SNOK) concerning matters applicable to the Decedent Affairs Program.
For proper operation, the ultrasonic reservoir should be filled to what level with an ultrasonic solution? 1.2" from the bottom 2.2" from the top 3.1/4 to 3/4's full 4.1/2 to 3/4's full
1/2 to 3/4's full
Frost or glaze can not exceed what in a freezer?
1/4 inch
How many baby teeth come in for each dental arch?
10
How many leads are used in a 12-lead EKG?
10
children under what age can n;oramlly use the id card of thier parent or guardian but they must be registered in DEERS?
10
The biocidal activity of iodophors is accomplished with how many minutes of exposure? 1.1 to 25 2.10 to 25 3.15 to 25 4.20 to 25
10 to 25.
Most symptoms of these asbestos-related diseases do not show up until?
10 to 45 years after exposure
what is shelf life for frozen RBCs
10 years, available at 3rd and 4th echelons
Recruit screening exams should be conducted within how many days of reporting to recruit training?
14 days.
How many characters are allowed for filling out Block 29, Primary/Collateral/Watchstanding duties/PFA, of the eval report?
14 total characters.
The normal value for male hemoglobin is?
14-18
What IV catheter size is needed to do needle decompression
14/16/18 gauge and at least 2-3inches in length.
Hot PHF must be maintained at what temperature?
140 degrees F or higher
What internal temps do pork need to reach?
145 degrees F for 3 minutes
How man corpsman were killed in Beirut?
15
Triwest is owend by how many blue cross and blue shield plans and two university hosptial systems?
15
What percent of water content, if any, occurs with chemical vapor sterilization? 1.10 2.15 3.30 4.None of the above
15
When establishing a helicopter landing site, the ground slope can be no more than ____ degrees
15
You should wait what number of seconds between films before inserting another film into the automatic processor?
15
MTF's and DTF's (cliamancy 18 only) must forward an annual assessment of the preceding fiscal year's QA program to MED-3C4 with a copy to the cognizant responsible line commander and HLTHCARE SUPPO to reach BUMED by what date of each year?
15 JAN
The frequency between regular reports shall not exceed what time frame unless approved by NAVPERSCOM, PERS-32?
15 months.
When washing hands, what is the minimum duration from fingertips to the wrist with soap and lukewarm water?
15 seconds.
Crutches should be fitted so that the patient's elbows are maintained with a ______ to _____ degree bend.
15 to 30
What is the percentage of war injuries involve the chest?
15%
What percent of war injuries involve the chest
15% of those 10% are superficial
Which of the following is the method of choice for the HM to use to induce vomiting?
15-30 cc of syrup of Ipecac
What internal temps do game animals need to reach?
150 degrees F for 1 minute
what indicates a massive hemothorax
1500cc of blood.
What internal temps doe fish and eggs need to reach?
155 degrees F for 15 sec
What internal temp does ground beef need to reach?
155 degrees f for 15 sec or until juices run clear
What internal temps do poultry meats need to reach?
165 degrees F for 15 sec
What levels of a glutaraldehyde-based solution are FDA registered? 1.2.0-3.2 2.2.3-2.0 3.1.0-2.0 4.2.5-2.6
2.0-3.2.
How much water should females consume daily?
2.7 liters
The SECNAV may appoint how may enlisted members of the regular and Navy Reserve and Marine Corps to the USNA each year?
170.
What are the caskets made out of?
18 guage silver tone metal sealer with a cut top
What type of course does a Food Worker Supervisor need to take?
18 hour course with refresher every 3 years
In what year did the SOY start recognizing one outstanding Sailor to represent the many superior petty officers serving in shore establishments Navy wide?
1973.
The Quality Assurance program was originally issued in what year to standardize QA activities within Naval Medical Command MTF's?
1984
Naval Medical Department policy, Procedures, Responsibilities for Naval DTF's ashore and afloat were issued in 1987 and incorporated into this instruction in what year?
1989
The Health Information Portability and Accountability Act was enacted into law in what year?
1996
Disaccharides contain how many carbon molecules?
2
How many iodine tablets are added to each canteen full of any type of water?
2
How many people can a straddle trench serve at one time?
2
QA inquiries and medical records related to a potentialy compensable event (PCE) and Judge Advocate General (JAGMAN) investigations must be maintained in a secure location at the local command for a minimum of how many years or as long as needed thereafter?
2
When the CO is satisfied with identification of remains and proper documentation how many statements of recognition are required?
2
How far away must a DB thermometer be hung from any supply ventilation terminal/opening?
2 feet
How many forms of identification should be used to determine right patient?
2 forms
Application of a tourniquet for longer than _____ will increase limb loss.
2 hours
How many hours of training does a temporary food service employee need?
2 hours
If a tourniquet is applied of greater than what length of time may result in loss of the limb?
2 hours
how many hours using tourniquet can increase the chance of limb loss
2 hours
The brain can go 4-6 minutes without oxygen before permanent damage or death. Death from massive hemorrhage may occur within how many minutes?
2 minutes
How many physicians are attached to a Shock Trauma Platoon?
2 physicians.
Bromine has a shelf life of how many years?
2 years
Federal regulations require facilities maintain shipping paperwork/manifests for how long after the RMW was accepted by the waste carrier?
2 years
Water log is maintained for how many years?
2 years
When do you disposition decedent affairs records?
2 years or when purpose is served.
All complete physical exams recorded on a DD 2807-1 and DD 2808 are valid for how many years?
2 years.
Commands must retain copies of enlisted evals and Chief evals for how long?
2 years.
Facilities conducting physical exams will keep a copy of the examination for how long?
2 years.
How long can a patient be placed on a liquid diet without suffering any adverse effects?
2-3 Days
When performing an emergency treatment for a periapical abscess, what instrument will be used to drain the abscess?
2. Explorer
The recommended fiber intake for females is?
25 grams `
What is the size of a oversize casket?
25(2ft 1 inch) x 81 inches(6ft 9 inches)
ASWBPL is responsible for maintaining a peacetime inventory of how many units of liquid blood for use as a rapid response requirement?
250 Units
At what temperature are all known organisms killed? 1.150°F 2.121°F 3.220°F 4.250°F
250°F
Over sized casket is?
25x81 in
If death occurs from contagious or communicable disease, what is marked on the outside of the receptacle at the head end?
2inch x 4inch label marked "CONTAGIOUS"
How many different spatulas are available for mixing restorative materials?
3
The tofflemire retainer (or matrix retainer) is available in how many different designs?
3
Topical fluoride can be administered by how many different methods?
3
What is the max number of attempts that should be made with a laryngoscopy?
3
When a requisition exceeds the current competitive threshold, the HM must receive quotes from how many additional vendors? 1.1 2.2 3.3 4.4
3
the medical support of the FMF must satisfy how many responsibilities
3
What size bandage is used for applying a roller bandage to the ankle or foot?
3 inches
how long should the meter remain at each site to allow for stabilization of the first reading?
3 minutes
At what distance can you discharge untreated sewage?
3 nautical miles
Remains from an overseas activity transferred to CONUS requires how many DDform 2064 and how many DD Form 565?
3 signed DD Form 2064 2 DD Form 565
service members often rate their general health as worse how many months after returning from deployment compared to assessments completed within 30 days of redeployment
3 to 6
How long does it take for the crown to fully emerge in the mouth?
3 years
What percentage of enamel is made up of water?
3% `
each flying squadron consists of a flight surgeon and how many HMS
3-4
What size incision should you make in a tube thracostomy
3-4cm in length between the 5th and 6th rib anterior axillary line.
Pressure must be applied for how long at the bleeding site, after application of a hemostatic dressing?
3-5 minutes
What performance grade signifies that personnel can handle the aspect of the next higher paygrade?
3.0, Dependable, "Fully Qualified", Journeyman Performance.
What performance trait represents performance to full Navy standards?
3.0.
How much water should males consume daily?
3.7 liters
A medical record is considered delinquent if all required record components are not completed within how many days of patient discharge?
30
Active duty members and reservists recalled to active duty for a period of more than how many days are eligible for all dental services?
30
active component and reserve component service members must complete an DHA if deployed more than how many days with duties oconus without a fixed MTF
30
resreve component family members are eligible for TPRAFM if their sponsor is activated for more than how amny days and the family members reside with their sponor upon activatoin of orders?
30
Frozen storage of RMW pathological wastes should not exceed how many days?
30 days
Acid-etching the enamel portion of cavity preparations with a 35 to what percent solution of phosphoric acid results in improved retention for resin restoration?
50
How many people does a deep pit latrine accommodate?
50
active duty service members under full time orders with a permanent duty assignment who live iand work mroe htan how many miles or one hours drive time from an mtf are required to enroll in TC prime reomote?
50 miles
How many PPM does the chlorine need to be for ice machines?
50 ppm Chlorine
What primary group receives a blue folder?
50-59
Field Hospitals can provide care up to how many patients?
504 patients.
Along what intercostals space are leads V4, V5, and V6 placed?
5th `
How many urine tubes are inserted into the urine soakage pit?
6
The film badge should be placed behind the lead-lined barrier at least what number of feet from the tube head?
6
What chapter of the NAVMED P-117 is Dental Corp?
6
how many PHEL curves exist?
6
how many functions are there in the marine avaiation
6
What are the proper dosage for the pre-exposure prophylaxis for Anthrax vaccine?
6 doses at 0,2 and 4th week then 6,12 and 18 months with annual boosting.
How far are rat guards placed?
6 feet from pier, 2 feet from ship
An ARG is made up of how many ships?
6 ships.
Upon receipt of PCS orders to STA-21, each selectee will be required to acquire what length active service obligation by extending or reenlisting?
6 year active service obligation.
Rat guards must be mounted on all tending lines at least __ feet from the pier and greater than __ feet from the ship.
6, 2
Storage containers or bulk lots of food will be stored __ inches above the floor and __ inches from the wall.
6, 4
What is the normal amount of WBC in the human body?
6-8,000
Newborns will not be denied care for a period of how many days?
60
you will recieve an interim written repsonse to your grievance within 30 days if the grievance isnot resovled and a final written notification of the resutls within how many dyas?
60 days
Authorized quantities reflect how many days of supply to support the required operational capabilities, ROC, of individual units?
60 days of supply support.
A patient would be triaged as expectant if they had second and third degree burns in excess of what percent total body surface area?
60% total body surface area.
What primary group receives a white folder?
60-69
What is the approximate total capacity of the adult bladder?
600 ml
How many corspamn were killed or wounded during Vietnam?
620 and 3,353
TC for life is a TRICARES meicare wraparound coverage for TRICARE beneficiaries age what and over who become entitiled to medicare part A and purchase medicare part B?
65
What is the dental health goal for active duty?
65%
what is the operating temperature for the RSS-220 and Vista Model 960 WBGT meters?
65-150 degrees F
What would be the secondary group in this SSN: 123-45-6789
67
For a person who weighs 185 lbs, what is the recommended amount of protein that should be consumed daily?
67 grams
Storage of Non-RMW shall not exceed how many days?
7 days
How many insects must be in food for it to be labeled Heavily Infested Food?
7 or more insects per pound
What primary group receives an almond folder?
70-79
An infection is considered nosocomial if it first becomes apparent how many hours (or more) after admission?
72 hours
Army Forward Surgical Teams can support continuous operations for up to how many hours?
72 hours.
What is the patient holding time for a Surgical Company?
72 hours.
How many hours after the last dose does narcotic withdraw normally peak?
72 hrs
How many bones make up the skull?
8
How many bored hole latrines are constructed for 100 people?
8
Navy Fleet Hospitals can be operational within what time frame?
8 to 10 days.
What are the dimensions of a cat hole?
8 to 12 inches diameter, 6 to 12 inches deep
What is the military service obligation upon commissioning from the MSC IPP?
8 year military service obligation, with a minimum of 3 years on active duty.
What is the cabin pressure maintained at aboard military aircraft?
8,000 and 10,000 feet
When bitten by an animal, every effort must be made to catch the animal and keep it confine for a minimum of how many days?
8-10 days
What temperature should the recovery room/area be for a personnel reaching exposure limits?
80 degrees
What primary group receives a pink folder?
80-89
Death results as the core temperature of the body decreases to/approaches what temperature?
80F
about what % of americans is rh positive?
85%
What would be the primary group in this SSN: 123-45-6789
89
A fat has how many calories per gram?
9
How many marines are assigned to a NDC/DEN BN?
9 Enlisted Marines
An Aircraft Carrier Battle Group is made up of how many ships?
9 ships.
prescriptions may be filled at an mtf pharmacy free of charge?
90
you must file your apeal within how many days of the date on the explanation of benefits?
90
Case fatality rate for acute septicemic disease exceeds ?
90 %
How long are CACOs usually assigned?
90 days to 9 months
What percent of combat fatalities occur forward of medical care?
90% * Half of these casualties bleed to death,1/5 from extremity trauma (10%-15% of all deaths).
service members who received wounds or injuries that required hospitalization or extended treatment at an MTF before returning to their home station will have their reassessment conducted how many days after returning to the home station
90-180
What primary group receives a red folder?
90-99
What percentage of enamel is made up of inorganic material?
96%
Performance traits are graded on what scale?
A 5 point scale, 1.0 to 5.0.
Applicants for OCS must have what type of degree or higher from an accredited institution in a field of study or major which satisfies requirements for the specific designator desired?
A Baccalaureate degree or higher.
What are the negative factors of bandages?
A Bandage Does Not Equal Direct Pressure! A bandage may wick blood from the wound without stopping the bleeding. A bandage hides ongoing bleeding.
Probabilities chart
A Likely to occur immediately or in a short period of time. B Probably will occur in time. C May occur in time. D Unlikely to occur.
SECNAVINST 5216.5
A Memorandum for the Record is prepared in accordance with (IAW) what series, Department of the Navy Correspondance Manual, series for any event of historical or legal importance, or for which good judgment dictates that it should be recorded?
A reduction in rate for enlisted members would rate what type of performance report?
A Special Report.
An E6 who has performed duty at a new command for at least 3 months and has not yet received an observed report at that command, may receive what type of report for a promotions selection board?
A Special Report.
M291
A chemical agent on the skin can be removed effectively by using what skin decontamination kit?
What are recurrent caries?
A decay processes that occur underneath existing dental restorations?
What is an ulcer?
A disruption of the superficial covering of the mucosa or skin caused by biting, denture irritation, toothbrush injury, viruses or other irritants.
COCOM
A fleet hospital's mission depends on the requirements of the what?
What is a pre-exposure prophylaxis for Q fever?
A formalin inactivated whole cell vaccine, which provides exposure for 5 years.
The rule that applies to the principle of radiation safety is?
A good rule is the acronym, ALARA, "As Low As Reasonably Achievable."
What is QuikClot?
A granular zeolite that absorbs fluid and causes hemostasis. It has handling properties similar to sand.
What are vesicles?
A small elevation that contains fluid.
For equipment that is difficult to clean, what should be done before using it on a patient? 1.Spray-Wipe Spray 2.A sterile or clean drape 3.Sterilize 4.Wet-vac
A sterile or clean drape
Within the emergent triage staff, who is normally assigned the Team Leader?
A surgical triage officer.
*For clavicle fractures, what type of splint is applied?*
A swing and swathe splint
If direct pressure, elevation, or pressure point compression don't work then apply what?
A tourniquet
What is a pit and fissure carie?
A type of carious lesion that develops in depressions of teeth surfaces that are hard to keep clean of food debris and plaque.
What is a smooth surface type carie?
A type of carious lesion that develops on the proximal surface or the gingival third of facial and lingual surfaces on the teeth.
ASWBPL are responsible for retyping of what types of blood.
A, B, & O and Rhesus factor only.
What vitamins are fat soluble?
A, D, E, and K
20%
About what percent of untreated cases of cutaneous anthrax will result in death?
Systemic effect
Absorbed through the skin into the bloodstream
What is the fifth/final stage of the death process?
Acceptance
Anthrax
According to international rules, entries on the PHS-731 require authentication for immunizations against smallpox (if administered), yellow fever, cholera, and what else?
Fixed MTF's and DTF's meeting applicable criteria must gain and maintain what by the Joint Commision on Accreditation of Healthcare Organizations?
Accreditation
Which nerve is responsible for controlling hearing and balance?
Acoustic
When students are attending NAPS, what status are they considered to be in?
Active Duty Enlisted Status.
approximately 33 percent of Q fever will develop what?
Acute hepatitis (abnormal LFT to diagose)
What are some signs and symptoms of plague?
Acute onset of fever and prostration with acute painful lymphadenitis draining the site of the fleabite. Also, high fever, systemic toxicity, productive cough, and hemoptysis
What are the signs and symptoms of Tularemia?
Acute pneumonia, fever, chest tightning, coughing ; ulceration at the portal of entry, and regional adenopathy involving the node groups draining the portal of entry.
Which of the following conditions exists if a patient is experiencing pain caused by the pressure of fluid building up inside the pulp chamber?
Acute pulpitis
What is ARF
Acute renal failure
How should ACM be removed and transported?
Adequately wet ACM during removal and maintain wet through disposal. Dispose of the wet waste material in double, heavyduty (six millimeters thickness) plastic bags or other suitable impermeable containers.
What are treatment meds for Q fever?
Administer 100 mg doxycycline orally every 12 hours for atleast 2 days after patient is afebrile or 500 mg tetracycline every 6 hours for atleast 2 days.
Sublingual medications
Administered by placing medication under the tongue (i.e. nitroglycerin)
Buccal medications
Administered by placing the medication between the cheek and gum (i.e. anesthetic benzocaine)
What is used as a restorative material on the surfaces of both permanent and primary teeth?
Amalgam
After rewarming a frostbite of the feet/hands, how are dressings applied?
After rewarming, keep the skin dry with sterile dressings and place cotton between the toes and fingers to prevent their sticking together
Factors affecting dosage
Age (most common factor) and weight of patient
How is mess gear dried?
Air Dried Only
What rate is required to have an autopsy while performing in the line of duty?
Air crew members
What Transmission-based Precaution requires a negative air pressure room? 1.Airborne 2.Droplet 3.Contact 4.All the above
Airborne
What is the topic chapter 5 Emergency War Surgery?
Airway/Breathing
HAIPC program covers what aspects of health care operations?
All aspects of health care operations.
Wht transport the freshly prepared amalgam restorative material to the cavity preparation?
Amalgam carriers
Dose
Amount of medication to be administered
Senior Medical Department Representative (SMDR)
All important occurrences are reported by the what to the OOD for entry into the duty log or journal of the command?
SECNAVINST 5216.5
All information to prepare naval correspondance can be found in what series?
Who is authorized to issue a NAVMED 6410/1?
All medical department personnel.
Patient education is the responsibility of ______. 1.The members of the command education and training department 2.Only the physician and nurses for the patient 3.All members of the healthcare team 4.The outpatient staff and clinic supervisor only
All members of the healthcare team. "As a member of the healthcare team, the HM shares a responsibility with all other team members to be alert to patient education needs, to undertake patient teaching within the limitation of knowledge and skills, and to communicate to other team members the need for patient education in areas the HM is not personally qualified to undertake." Pg 11-10
When should the HM wash his/her hands? 1.At the beginning of the day 2.Before handling food 3.Between patients 4.All of the above
All of the above
Which of the following is a disadvantage when using chlorine dioxide-based solutions? 1.Has a 24-day use life as a sterilant 2.Does not readily penetrate inorganic debris 3.Must be discarded daily 4.All of the above
All of the above. "Chlorine dioxide is an effective surface disinfectant or sterilant. These solutions may be used for high-level disinfection of semi-critical items that are not subject to corrosion. It has a rapid action of 3 minutes for disinfection or 6 hours for sterilization. As with sodium hypochlorite (bleach), there are several disadvantages: chlorine dioxide must be discarded daily; has a 24-hour use life as a sterilant; and does not readily penetrate organic debris." Pg 10-4
What are some post exposure chemoprophylaxis for anthrax?
All personel exposed to aerosolized Anthrax should be administered ciprofloxacin 500mg tabs orally every 12 hours for 60 days
Annually
All records are verified how often by medical and dental personnel having custody of them?
Communication barriers inhibit the flow of information and may consist of which of the following factors? 1.Hearing impairment 2.Age 3.Education 4.All the above
All the above
In the healthcare field, accountability means that providers ______ . 1.Are held responsible for their actions 2.Must continue their education in the healthcare field 3.Provide the best healthcare possible 4.All the above
All the above
Name a Transmission-based Precaution. 1.Airborne 2.Droplet 3.Contact 4.All the above
All the above
What gear must be worn to enter a surgical suite? 1.Scrubs 2.Hair cover 3.Mask 4.All the above
All the above
Which of the following are goals of patient health education? 1.Promoting patient self-care 2.Promoting behavior modification 3.Influencing a patient's attitude toward health and disease 4.All the above
All the above
Why is the spica or figure eight bandage used around the elbow?
Allows for movement while holding a compress
Gas inhalation
Almost entirely restricted to anesthesia
What is recurrent aphthous stomatitis?
Also known as canker sores, these are painful ulcerations found in the vestibular and buccal mucosa, tongue, soft palate, and in the floor of the mouth. Healing time is usually 7-10 days.
What is toxic epidermal necrolysis (TEN)?
Also known as the scalded skin syndrome; characterized by sudden onset, excessive skin irritation, painful erythema, bullae and exfoliation of the skin in sheets.
Spray-Wipe-Spray is ____. 1.A way to sterilize instruments 2.Proper dinner etiquette 3.An acceptable method of cleaning and disinfecting 4.How to apply insect repellant
An acceptable method of cleaning and disinfecting
Which of the following is a true statement concerning oropharyngeal airways?
An airway of proper size is measured from the tip of the earlobe to the corner of the mouth
Hazard Severity
An assessment of the worst reasonably expected consequence, defined by degree of injury, illness, or physical damage which is likely to occur as a result of the hazard
What is a cyst?
An enclosed pouch or sac containing fluid or semi-solid material.
What is pericoronitis?
An inflammation of the gingiva around a partially erupted tooth.
60%
Intestinal anthrax results in death in 25% to what percent of cases?
What antibotic is used with a contaminated environment
Ancef or cefazolin
A low RBC count may indicate that the patient has which of the following listed conditions?
Anemia
What is the second stage of the death process?
Anger
A review of the QA program effectiveness must be completed with revision as necessary every how often?
Annually
All employees with occupational exposure to RMW shall receive training when?
Annually
BUMED submits a QA program summary report required by DoD Directive 6025.13 how often?
Annually
Dental examinations of all active duty Navy and Marine Corps personnel must be conducted at least how often and on other appropriate occasions to establish the need for dental treatment and verify dental records?
Annually
How often does an MTF need to conduct an inventory of all drugs stocked inside the pharmacy?
Annually
What ages for women should annual clinical breast exams and screening mammography's be performed?
Annually.
A patient presents with dilated pupils, fever, dry skin, urinary retention, decreased bowel sounds, and increased heart rate. What toxidrome does this set of symptoms suggest?
Anticholinergic
What is the term used for a substance that, when introduced into an individual's body, is recognized as foreign to the body, and causes a detectable reaction?
Antigen
DD Form 2766
Any immunizations recorded on the PHS-731 should be transcribed onto the what?
Class 3
Any oral condition that will result in an emergency condition within the next 12 months is known as what class?
What is an oral lesion?
Any pathological or traumatic disorder of tissue that creates a loss of function of the area affected.
What procedure involves the surgical removal of the apex of the tooth?
Apicoetomy
Topical medication
Applied to a surface area of the body for either local or systemic effect
After a separation physical is completed, where should the DD 2697 be sent?
Appropriate Veterans Affair location.
When are E9 performance evaluations due?
April 9.
What gives the cornea its curved shape?
Aqueous humor
What is NOT a characteristic of resident flora? 1.Can survive and multiply on the skin 2.Can be cultured repeatedly from the skin 3.Are not firmly attached to the skin 4.Are usually of low virulence
Are not firmly attached to the skin
The ASWBPL release blood to unified commands upon approval by whihc office?
Armed Service Blood Program Office
What system are the medical forces that use blood and blood products entered into in order to establish contact and integration with the Joint Blood Program?
Armed Services Blood Distribution System
The SG advises who on Tri-service medical issues?
Assistant Secretary of Defense for Health Affairs.
When does a person get there 2nd molars?
At age 12
What is the age requirements for attending the USNA?
At least 17 years old, and not have passed their 23rd birthday on Induction Day.
Apply direct pressure to the wound for how long before looking to see if it is effective?
At least 5 minutes * Impaled foreign bodies should not be removed because profuse bleeding may occur.
Applicants for OCS must have at least how many months of obligated service remaining on current enlistment upon receipt of order to OCS/ODS?
At least 6 months.
What are the service requirements for an active duty member applying to the LDO program?
At least 8 years, but not more than 16 years of active Naval service.
How many times are parenteral medications examined?
At least three times: Upon receiving solution Periodically while in storage Immediately preceding use
A patient who is a professed atheist is placed on the Very Serious List (VSL) with a poor prognosis for recovery. All of the following actions by the staff are considered appropriate and ethical EXCEPT? 1.Informing the rest of the staff of th patient's nonreligious beliefs 2.Informing the rest of the staff of the patient's condition 3.Informing pastoral services (chaplain) of the patient's condition and nonreligious beliefs 4.Attempting to convince the patient to accept a religious belief
Attempting to convince the patient to accept a religious belief
The mechanical transmission of sound from the tympanic membrane to the inner ear is a function of which of the following?
Auditory ossicles
What are some medications given to treat Melioidosis?
Augmentin 60 mg per kg per day in 3 divided oral doses or tetracycline 40mg per Kg per day in 3 divided oral doses.
What are some treatments for Glanders?
Augmentin 60mg/kg/day in 3 div oral doses, Tetracycline 40mg/kg/day in 3 divided oral doses
What date was the dental corps established?
August 22, 1912
When was the Dental Corps established?
August 22, 1912
What three countries fall under approved sources?
Australia, England, Canada
What is an ADAL?
Authorized Dental Allowance List
A steam sterilizer may be referred to by what other name? 1.Old rusty 2.Autoclave 3.Autosteam 4.Dry heat
Autoclave
What cleaning process is safer and more effective than manual scrubbing? 1.Dip tank only 2.Ultrasonic 3.Automated processor 4.Both 2 and 3 above
Automated processor
What is the pressure point and artery for the lower arm?
Axilla Axillary
What does the mnemonic BICEPS stand for in relation to combat stress?
B, Brief, I, Immediate, C, Central, E, Expectant, P, Proximal, S, Simple.
the most forward deployed and most mobile of the MTF supporting MAGTF
BAS
Who interprets Department of Defense (DoD), Secretary of the Navy (SECNAV), and CNO policies and provides guidance for Navy-wide QA program implementation?
BUMED
the CMC coordinates with what in meeting the allocation of required medical personnel, equipment and supplies
BUMED
Who provides guidance for Navy-wide HAIPC Program implementation?
BUMED Infection Control Consultant.
Who is responsible for maintaining BUMEDINST 5450.165B, providing administrative assistance to codes as necessary, and reviewing proposed changes for format and content?
BUMED Secretariat, M09B3.
What is the instruction that governs the Exceptional Family Member Program (EFMP)?
BUMEDINST 1300.2
To describe Chief, BUMED and subordinate command relationships is the purpose of what instruction?
BUMEDINST 5450.165B, Offices of the Surgeon General and Chief, Bureau of Medicine and Surgery Organization.
Dextrose, which is a commonly used carbohydrate, is normally used in what form?
Intravenous
How often will the appointed pharmacy custodian conduct an inventory of all controlled substances?
Biennially
What are the three factors that influence germicidal procedures? 1.Bioburden, nature of the material, and organic debris present 2.Organic debris present, type of sterilizer, and bioburden 3.Nature of the material, bioburden, and packaging 4.Bioburden, packaging, and type of sterilizer
Bioburden, nature of the material, and organic debris present
What type of sterilization monitor will assess whether sterilization actually occurred? 1.Internal 2.External 3.Universal 4.Biological
Biological. "Biological monitors are designed to assess whether sterilization actually occurred and to confirm that all bacteria and endospores have been killed. The Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC), the ADA, and the Organization for Safety and Asepsis Procedures (OSAP) recommend at least weekly but preferably daily monitoring." Pg 10-21
What type of radiographs do you use to find and diagnose interproximal dental carries?
Bitewing
When the WBGT index is above 90 what color flag is flown?
Black
What is another name for Roof Rat?
Black Rat
What is a hemothorax? How is it treated?
Bleeding from lacerated blood vessels in the chest cavity and or lungs. Treat by controlling hemorrhage and chest tube.
What method of hemostasis is more likely to cause additional injury than to control bleeding?
Blind clamping
What are beetles that when touched exude a drop of desiccating fluid through the membranes of the appendage joints?
Blister Beetle
If the eval report will be a wholly Not Observed Report, what block would you enter the "X"?
Block 16.
What blocks of the performance eval are used for the reporting senior?
Block 22 to Block 27.
What block of the eval report would you enter the members PFA cycles during that period of reporting?
Block 29.
What block on the eval report would the enlisted designator be placed?
Block 3.
What eval block will have the individual trait average for the eval?
Block 40, average of blocks 33 to 39.
What eval block is used for the individual promotion recommendation?
Block 45.
What eval block is where the individual being evaluated will sign?
Block 51.
What block on the eval report would you enter the UIC of the members ship or station?
Block 6.
What block on the eval report would you enter the Ship or Station the member is assigned to?
Block 7. Examples: Ships, CG-47 TICONDEROGA. Aviation, CVW-9, VR-58.
What block on the eval report would you enter the members promotion status?
Block 8.
What blocks of the eval report are the Performance Traits?
Blocks 33 to 39.
BPU
Blood Program Unit Support Armed Services Whole Blood Processing Lab (ASWBPL) and Blood Donor Centers (BDC)
What is Pediculus humanus humans?
Body Louse
What sucking lice is the species responsible for transmitting louse borne typhus, trench fever, and relapsing fever?
Body Louse
What are the three types of sucking lice?
Body Louse, Crab Louse, Head Louse
What is the most common symptoms of Brucellosis?
Bone and Joint disease nonspecific symptoms of fever, malaise, fatigue, anorexia, weight loss, and depression
What temporary latrine is an 18 inch hole bored to a depth of 15 to 20 feet?
Bored Hole Latrine
The concepts of health include? 1.The absence of disease or disability 2.Soundness of mind, body, and spirit 3.Both 1 and 2 above 4.A feeling of euphoria
Both 1 and 2 above
How often must ultrasonic solutions be changed? 1.Daily only 2.When visibly contaminated only 3.Both 1 or 2 above 4.Monthly
Both 1 or 2 above
The period during which sterilized items are considered safe for use is known by which of the following terms? 1.Safe zone 2.Event-rotated shelf life 3.Expiration date only 4.Both 2 and 3 above
Both 2 and 3 above
In the emergency room, the HM is examining a patient who suddenly vomits and states that he has been feeling nauseous for the past several hours. Which of the following is the type of observation that most accurately applys to the scenario described in the question? A.Subjective observations only B.Objective observations only C.Both subjective and objective observations
Both subjective and objective observations
*In infants, where do we check for pulse?*
Brachial pulse
What is another name for Norway Rat?
Brown Rat
Incubation periods
Brucellosis - Incubation varies from 5 days to 8 weeks, usually 2 to 8 weeks Anthrax - Hours to 7 days (most within 48 hours) Meloidosis - 10 to 14 days Glanders - 10 to 14 days Plague - 2 to 10 days Q fever - 2 to 14 days (usually 7 days) Tularemia - 1 to 21 days (usually 3-5 days)
If a tub is not available for re-warming a hypothermic patient, what is the next best method?
Buddy warming
What is the preferred style of writing for performance evaluations?
Bullet style.
What are the two way to get rid of garbage disposal?
Burial, Incineration
What is the difference between a burn and a scald?
Burns are caused by dry heat Scalds are caused by moist heat
How does the staff encourage renal function for the patients during recovery?
By adequate fluid intake and movement/ ambulation
Cleaning, disinfecting and sterilizing of reusable medical and dental equipment must be managed how?
By an integrated centralized training program that is conducted by sterile processing department SME's with infection control oversight for all personnel reprocessing reusable devices.
How are Tularemia transmitted?
By anthropod vectors such as: ticks and deerflies or direct contact with infected animals.
How does the staff encourage cardiovascular function for the patients during recovery?
By changing the position of the patient, movement/ ambulation, and IV therapy
How does the staff encourage respiratory function for the patients during recovery?
By encouraging the patient to cough, deep breathing, and movement/ambulation
Who performs actual cockroach control treatment on the ship?
Certified Shipboard Pest Control Specialists
What classification is for patients who do not require dental treatment or reevaluation within 12 months?
Class 1
Parenteral medications
Introduced by injection
The movement of casualty from point of injury to medical treatment center by non medical personnel. Traditionally by helo.
CASEVAC
Dental unit waterline monitoring and treatment must follow what guidelines and standards?
CDC guidelines and EPA standards.
All eligible MTF's and DTF's shall report HAI's via which way?
CDC's NHSN.
Who must approve government air travel of remains?
CNO
Who promulgates navy policy and assigns responsibilities concerning prevention, control, and abatement of environmental pollution caused by Navy Ships and shore stations?
CNO
The SG is directly responsible to whom for executing assigned functions and for his or her respective organizational components?
CNO and VCNO.
Who established the Navy Medicine Region Commands under the authority and military command of the Chief, BUMED?
CNO.
Who established the SOY program?
CNO.
Who must approve AMAL and ADAL revisions that have a cumulative cost over $100,000?
CNO.
Who is responsible to obtain the discharge permit?
CO
Who promulgates the water sanitation bill?
CO
Who writes a condolence letter to the NOK within how many hours?
CO within 48 hrs
Who guides the counseling program and monitors counselor performance and results?
CO's.
What area of the treatment facility is designed for receiving, cleaning, processing, sterilizing, storing, and issuing instruments and equipment? 1.CRS 2.SRC 3.CSR 4.CPR
CSR. Central Sterilization Room
Who in the enlisted to commissioning program, are technical specialists who perform duties requiring extensive knowledge and skills of a specific occupational field at a level that is normally expected of a MCPO?
CWOs.
Which of the following is not considered a trace mineral?
Calcium
What is HTH?
Calcium Hypochlorite
Women 30 years and older should be screened how often by cytology and HPV co-testing?
Every 5 years.
Nine groups of RMW:
Can = Cultures, stocks, vaccine - Group 1 Peanut = Pathological wastes - Group 2 Butter = Blood & blood products - Group 3 Save = Sharps - Group 4 & 7 An = Animal wastes Individual = Isolation On= Other Chemo = Chemotherapy trace wastes
What is adenocarcinoma?
Cancer found in the oral region or salivary glands.
What is carcinoma?
Cancer of the epithelium.
What is Kaposi's sarcoma?
Cancerous, dark bluish-purple lesions that involve blood vessels.
Of the following, which is considered the most common agent in inhalation poisoning?
Carbon monoxide
what have sharp cutting edges that are used to shape, form, or cut tooth anatomy into amalgam restorations?
Carvers
Which program is not apart of the decedent affairs program?
Casualty Assistance Calls Program (CACP)
CRTS
Casualty Receiving and Treatment Ships Level 2 health services support 84 personnel each
What Navy Level 2 medical care is part of a Amphibious Ready Group?
Casualty Receiving and Treatment Ships, CRTS.
What is the CACO?
Casualty assistance calls officer
Who helps the PNOK and SNOK with problems surrounding the death?
Casualty assistance calls officer
What is the CACP?
Casualty assistance calls program
What program is not apart of the DAP but closely related?
Casualty assistance calls program
What type of cleaning effect does an ultrasonic cleaner provide? 1.Cavitation 2.Positive 3.Gravity 4.Ion
Cavitation. "The ultrasonic cleaner uses electrical energy to generate sound waves. When the sound waves travel through the liquid, millions of tiny bubbles form and burst continuously. This process is called a "cavitation" effect." 10-9
What is a liner used to seal the dentinal tubules to help prevent micro-leakage and is placed in a cavity to receive amalgam alloy after any bases have been placed?
Cavity varnish
Which of the following dental materials will be used to treat a Type I fracture?
Cavity varnish
What is a New(Inactive) national cemetery classification?
Cemeteries planned but not yet opened.
What is an open(active) national cemetery classification?
Cemeteries with grave spaces available
What is a closed(Inactive) national cemetery classification?
Cemeteries without grave spaces available.
In what part of the body is cerebral spinal fluid produced?
Central Ventricles
Balance, coordination or movement, and harmony of motion are functions of what part of the brain?
Cerebellum
What fluid is responsible for balance, coordination, and movement?
Cerebellum
What is the largest part of the brain?
Cerebellum
*What is sudden, with little or no warning with first signs that include weakness or paralysis on one side and where the patient's level of consciousness varies from alert to unresponsive?*
Cerebrovascular accident (Stroke)
What is the DD Form 2064?
Certificate of Death(Overseas)
What chapter of the MANMED provides guidance on performing, recording, and interpreting the results of physical exams?
Chapter 15.
In caring for drug-intoxicated persons, the HM should perform what actions as the first priority?
Check for an adequate airway `
What is angina pectoris? What can provide relief to a patient with angina?
Chest pain caused by insufficient oxygen to the heart muscles during exertion and subsides with rest. Nitroglycerin tablets can provide relief.
Who is responsible for the FITREP, CHIEFEVAL, and EVAL program?
Chief of Naval Personnel.
Who is the point of contact and coordinating authority for all change requests?
Chief of Staff, M09B.
Who serves as the advisory to BUMED with regards to dentistry?
Chief of the Navy Dental Corps
Who establishes and promulgates health standards, promulgates instructions, notices, or other publication, sets forth medical surveillance?
Chief, BUMED
Aviation medical exams shall be performed by a medical officer who is authorized by whom?
Chief, BUMED.
Organizational structure changes are only authorized through change transmittals signed by whom?
Chief, BUMED.
The medical authority to recommend a waiver of the standards to various commands resides with whom?
Chief, BUMED.
Who approves AMAL and ADAL revisions before distribution?
Chief, BUMED.
Who provides guiding principles and overarching policies for Navy Medicine, as well as exercise command and control authority?
Chief, BUMED.
What type of hand washing agent usually has 4 percent isopropyl alcohol in a sudsy base? 1.Idophors 2.Bleach 3.Chlorhexidine Gluconate 4.Chlorine
Chlorhexidine Gluconate
What is the most common method of disinfecting potable water?
Chlorination
What are the two approved methods for disinfecting shipboard potable water?
Chlorine and Bromine
A patient presents with salivation, lacrimation, urination, and muscle weakness. What toxic syndrome does this set of symptoms suggest?
Cholinergic
The inner part of the eye derives its dimensional nourishment primarily from what vascular tissue?
Choroid
What is periodontitis?
Chronic inflammatory condition that involves the gingiva, crest of the alveolar bone, and periodontal membrane.
What means of transportation of RMW is prohibited?
Chutes and dumbwaiters
What are some treatments for anthrax
Ciprofloxacin 400 mg IV every 12 hours. Doxycycline 200 mg IV loading dose followed by 100mg IV every 12 hours
The end user must complete all of the following EXCEPT upon receipt of items? 1.Sign 2.Date 3.Circle Amount 4.Place a check by each item received
Circle Amount
While gowning the surgeon who is responsible for tying the gown? 1.Scrub tech 2.Circulator 3.Surgeon 4.All of the above
Circulator `
What occurs when freshly sterilized items are placed on metal or cold surfaces? 1.Contamination 2.Become oily 3.Nothing 4.Stick
Contamination. "Freshly sterilized items are never placed on metal or cold surfaces. Packages become damp from the condensation that occurs and become contaminated." Pg 10-12
What is a structured approach which continuously analyzes clinical and administrative processes with pre-established boundaries using various analytic tables?
Continuous Quality Improvement
How are white phosphorus burns treated? WP ignite upon contact with what?
Continuously flush the particles while removing them. Air
treatment of shock
Control Bleeding Maintain airway establish IV elevation keep warm
Who controls the litter bearers in the emergent triage area?
Controlled by an NCO.
Operational Support Officer (OSO)
Coordinates reserve utilization within the sourcing command
Electrolyte balance is a function of the hormone produced by the?
Cortex of the adrenal gland
How will cremains of an active duty personnel be transported?
Cremains will be hand carried.
What is the CCATT and what does it consist of?
Critical Care Air Transport Teams -Intensivist physician -Critical Care or Emergency Medicine Nurse -Cardiopulmonary technician
What type of devices should be discarded after being used?
Critical and semi-critical devices.
Surgical instruments, cardiac and urinary catheters, implants and ultrasound probes used in sterile body cavities are considered to be what type of devices?
Critical devices.
What type of medical devices confer a high risk for infection if they are contaminated with any microorganisms, including bacterial spores?
Critical devices.
What is the name of the tube that was discovered in 1895?
Crooke's tube
In the Gram's stain, what is the primary stain?
Crystal violet
Which program is normally operational on a worldwide basis during peacetime, but may also be used during major conflicts?
Current Death Program
What are the programs of the decedent affairs manual?
Current Death Program- Graves Registration Program Concurrent Return Program Return of Remains Program
Describe the 4 programs of the decedent affairs manual.
Current Death Program- Which program is normally operational on a worldwide basis during peacetime, but may also be used during major conflicts Graves Registration Program- This program is only operational when authorized by the responsible commander during military operations & deals with temporary burial sites. Concurrent Return Program- Combination of Current Death Program and Graves registration program. Also normally becomes operational when large numbers of military personnel are committed to a strategic area. Return of Remains Program- Is only activated only upon the enactment of special legislation! Also provides for permanent disposition of remains of persons buried in temporary burial sites.
24
Cyanides usually dissipate in less than how many hours?
Family member enrollment is accomplished for all seven uniformed services by completing what Uniformed Services Identification and Privilege Card application?
DD 1172
What is the most common receipt document that is encountered? 1.DD 200 2.DD 1348 3.DD 1348-1 4.DD 1200
DD 1348. "There are several types of receipt papers. The most commonly encountered receipt is the DoD Single Line Item Release/Receipt Document, DD Form 1348." Pg 5-15
first component of the dha process pre-deployment health assessment (pre-DHA)
DD 2795
what shall be administered at home station or at navy mobilization processing site NMPS no earlier than 60 days prior to the expected deployment date
DD 2795
second component of the dha process post deployment health assessment (PDHA)
DD 2796
service members redeploying through an NMPS can complete the what at the NMPS
DD 2796
What is used to record the finding of a dental examination?
DD 2808
third component of the dha process post deployment health re-assessment (PDHRA)
DD 2900
What is the Record of Preparation and Disposition of Remains?
DD Form 2063
What form is the Statement of Recognition of Deceased?
DD Form 565
NAVMED 6150/29 as the treatment record jacket.
For members who do not have an SSN (e.g., foreign military personnel) use what treatment jacket?
What is the difference between Diabetes Mellitus and Diabetes Insipidus?
Diabetes Mellitus - Inherited condition in which the pancreas secretes insufficient amount of insulin. Insulin is produced in the Islets of Langerhans in the Pancreas. Diabetes Insipidus - Uncommon condition where kidneys are unable to conserve water, which is controlled by the antidiuretic hormone (ADH). ADH is produced in the hypothalamus and stored and released by the pituitary gland.
Which of the following diseases is characterized by a deficiency of the antidiuretic hormone?
Diabetes insipidus
What are the prohibited symptoms in a food worker?
Diarrhea, Fever, Vomiting, Jaundice, Sore Throat with Fever
When decontaminating personnel contaminated from a HAZMAT situation, the most frequently appropriate method of decontamination is?
Dilution `
When performing a finger puncture, the first drop should be wiped away to avoid which of the following conditions?
Dilution of the specimen with tissue fluids
What is the most common mode of transmission for HSV-1?
Direct contact
What is the most effective and preferred method of hemorrhage control?
Direct pressure at site of injury
An alternate name for "The Dental Officer of the Marine Corp"?
Director of Dental Programs, USMARCOR
What are the two types of water production plants?
Distillation Plants, Reverse Osmosis
The specific gravity of a liquid is the weight of the substance as compared to an equal volume of
Distilled water
Who will limit personnel heat exposures per established stay times, except as approved by the commanding officer in an operational emergency?
Division officers
When dealing with a patient with an abdominal evisceration what are the important things to remember NOT to do?
Do not attempt to remove protruding foreign objects Do not apply pressure on the wound or expose internal parts Do not try to push any exposed organs back into the body
DD Form 1289
DoD Prescription
What two agencies have established uniform physical standards for entry into military service?
DoD and DON
exemptions to face-to-face interviews are made for reservists and AC remote military that can utilize the
DoD-sponsored PDHRA call center
What is the NAVSUP Form 29?
Inventory of Personal Effects
How are Brucellosis treated?
Doxy 200 mg and Rifampin 600 mg daily for 6 weeks or Doxy 200 mg daily for 6 weeks and streptomycin 1 gm Intramuscularly daily for 2 weeks.
What are some post-exposure prophylaxis for Tularemia?
Doxycycline 100 mg po every 12 h Tetracycline 500 mg orally every 6 hours for 2 weeks, or cipro 500 mg every 12 hours for 2 weeks
What usually occurs when teeth move toward the space of an extracted tooth?
Drifting
What Transmission-based Precaution requires limited transport EXCEPT for essential purposes? 1.Airborne 2.Droplet 3.Contact 4.All the Above
Droplet
Who is the command's primary advisor for all alcohol and drug matters?
Drug and Alcohol Program Advisor (DAPA)
What is the least expensive form of heat sterilization? 1.Air free 2.Dry heat 3.Chemical 4.Gravity displacement
Dry heat
How should adult moths be submitted for testing?
Dry in vials without alcohol
Postextraction alveolar osteitis is a condition commonly referred to by what term?
Dry socket
When do teeth first develop?
During the 17th week of fetal life
What is DUSTWUN?
Dust Status Whereabouts Unknown
For identification cases that are pending, how are they categorized?
Duty Status Whereabouts Unknown(DUSTWUN)
What paygrade must an Active Duty enlisted member be in order to apply to the MSC IPP?
E-5 to E-9.
What paygrade must an Active Duty member be in order to apply to the CWO program?
E-7 to E-9.
A CPO or SCPO may be the reporting senior for which performance evaluations?
E4 and below only.
Enlisted applicants selected for OSC that are in paygrade E-4 and below are advanced to what paygrade upon reporting to OCS?
E5.
NAVSUP form 29
Inventory of personal effects Form
What water purify equipment machine is a transportable quick response water purification system capable of aerating, clarifying, filtering, and disinfecting contaminated water?
ERDLATOR
The Dental Examination form (what form number) is intended to be used on the initial, subsequent periodic, annual, recall, DD2808, and separation exams?
EZ603
Record the completion of all dental treatment such as the treatment plan, dental emergencies and any other narrative dental findings on the what?
EZ603A
What promotion recommendations are based solely on performance and do not require eligibility for early promotion?
Early Promote.
The CNO is what OPNAV command Echelon?
Echelon 1.
Navy SG, N093 is the CNO's principal advisor and also serves as Chief, BUMED, which is what command Echelon?
Echelon 2.
The Deputy Surgeon General, N093B, also serves as the Deputy Chief, BUMED, which is what command Echelon?
Echelon 2.
What are organisms that are destructive to structures, store products, grounds and other material properties are known as what?
Economic Pest
The purpose of therapeutic communication includes all of the following EXCEPT? 1.Assessing behavior and modifying if appropriate 2.Educating a patient regarding health and health care 3.Providing information on the appropriate clinic for treatment 4.Obtaining information to determine a patient's illness
Educating a patient regarding health and health care. "This kind of communication has three general purposes: collecting information to determine illness, assessing and modifying behavior, and providing health education. By using therapeutic communication, the HM attempts to learn as much as possible about the patient in relation to the illness." Pg 11-9
HMs who provide emergency treatment of a fractured mandible will use which of the following materials?
Elastic bandage
What will decrease most bleeding besides direct pressure?
Elevation
Non-military federal prisoners are authorized only what type of care?
Emergency
What surgical triage category would a patient who is unstable and requiring attention within 15 minutes be put in?
Emergent Immediate.
What surgical triage category would a patient who is temporarily stable but requiring care within a few hours?
Emergent Urgent.
What Surgical Triage category would a patient be placed in who requires attention within minutes to several hours of arriving at the point of care to avoid death or major disability?
Emergent.
The last cutting step in thepreparation of the cavity is finishing the what?
Enamel walls
Fractured teeth can involve which of the following areas of a tooth?
Enamel, dentin, pulp, and root `
What is the specialty of dentistry that manages the prevention, diagnosis, and treatment of the dental pulp and the periradicular tissues that surround the root of the tooth (root canals)?
Endodontics
Proper ship to shore connection is the responsibility of what department?
Engineering Department
Uniforms for enlisted personnel
Enlisted personnel are not obligated to purchase organizational clothing
Date of arrival, Projected rotation date, Home address, and telephone number, Command UIC and telephone number.
Enter the following information in pencil on the inside front cover (Fig. 4-3) of the record jacket. Recording the information in pencil allows changes and updating throughout a member's career.
NMN ( NO MIDDLE NAME)
Enter the member's full name (last, first, middle initial, in that order) in the upper-right corner. Indicate no middle name by the abbreviation?
What type of detergent products may be used in DTF's to prevent drying of saliva, blood, and debris?
Enzymatic detergent products.
Which leukocyte helps respond to parasitic infections?
Eosinophil
*What is another name for nose bleed?*
Epistaxis
What AMAL/ADAL module contains equipment and reusable material required to establish the basic function of the module?
Equipment module.
Status of Resources and Training System (SORTS)
Establishes joint readiness reporting requirements for reporting readiness of personnel, training, and equipment C1 - C5
The most widely abused drug(s) is/are?
Ethanol
What type of related shelf life presumes continued sterility until the package is damaged, wet, or torn? 1.Pack 2.Time 3.Event 4.Damaged
Event
When search, recovery, and identification operations continue for more than 36 hours, chronological progress reports should be dispatched how often?
Every 24 hours
The recommended cervical cytology screening for women 21 to 29 years of age is how often?
Every 3 years.
Women 30 years and older should be screened how often by cytology alone if no HPV screening is available?
Every 3 years.
EMF
Expeditionary Medical Facility Level 3 health services support EMF COs designated by BUMED
EMPARTS
Expeditionary Medicine Platform Augmentation, Readiness, and Training System Automated information management system that reports platform and personnel readiness
What are memorial service expenses?
Expenses incurred in connection with memorial services when remains of deceased naval members are not recovered.
What are primary expenses?
Expenses incurred in connection with recovery, preparation, and encasement of remains. Recover body, Prep Body, Encase Body Things that directly involve the member
What are Secondary expenses?
Expenses incurred in connection with the funeral and burial of remains. Things that deal with the funeral honors, nothing to do with the body.
What are secondary expenses?
Expenses incurred in connection with the funeral and burial of remains. Things that do not directly involve the member.
What are Primary expenses?
Expenses incurred in connection with the recovery, preparation, encasement, and burial of remains. Anything that deals with the body.
When storing sterilized items, how should they be arranged? 1.Alphabetically 2.Expiration, with later dates toward the front 3.Expiration, with later dates toward the rear 4.Contents only, with later dates toward the front
Expiration, with later dates toward the rear
Do not remove impaled objects or objects embedded in what parts of the body?
Eyes, skull, abdomen
Non-critical SUDs that are reprocessed by a third party reprocessing facility must comply with who's regulations?
FDA.
What governs the disclosure of documents maintained by government agencies?
FOIA
dental support of the FMF is provided at the MEF level by dental BN assigned to
FSSG
Fertilization of an ovum normally takes place in the?
Fallopian tubes
What are the four most common injuries that occur in hospitals as determined by JACHO?
Falls, electrical shocks, physical and chemical burns, and fire and explosions
A report on urine clarity is valid regardless of standing time.
False
Civil authorities have jurisdiction of deaths occurring on naval reservations? T/F
False
Disinfection is a more lethal process than sterilization. 1.True 2.False
False
Hetastarch is a substitute for blood plasma and has oxygen carrying capabilities
False
If the monospot is negative, the patient does not have infectious mononucleosis.
False
Instruments being sterilized in the STERRAD do not need to be completely dry. 1.True 2.False
False
Protective eyewear and gloves are not required when using chemical agents. 1.True 2.False
False
The RPR is a specific test to diagnose syphilis.
False
When a patient ingests an acid or base treatment is to give a neutralizing agent orally.
False
If a person is under the care of a physician autopsies are required? T/F
False Local medical examiner may decide
True or False. Fumigation aboard ship is conducted at any time and requires no approval.
False (Conducted only under special circumstances and must have approval of Navy Medical Entomologist)
True or False? A readily identified bleeding vessel CANNOT be clamped, and the wound should generally be explored FIRST before applying direct pressure.
False! A readily identified bleeding vessel CAN be clamped, but the wound should generally NOT be explored.
True or False? Internal blood loss into the abdomen or chest must be controlled in the field.
False! Blood loss into the abdomen or chest cannot be controlled in the field and requires immediate evacuation for salvage or definitive surgery.
The communication process takes place only through the written or spoken word. 1.True 2.False
False. "Communication is a highly complicated inter-personal process of people relating to each other through conversation, gestures, appearance, behavior, writing, and, at times, even silence." Pg 11-6
What traps have been effective in reducing small populations of mice within 2-3 weeks if properly placed in the area of rodent activity?
Glue Boards
Where is seawater used aboard ships?
Fire Mains, Decon, Marine Sanitation Devices
The best urine specimen for screening purposes is that taken during which of the following times?
First morning
What degree is a burn where the epidermal layer is irritated, reddened and tingling and skin is blanchable?
First-degree burn
What type of injury is characterized by entire segment of the chest wall floating due to fractures of a block of ribs, with two fractures on each rib?
Flail chest
What is a CINC?
Fleet Commander-in-Chief
Who do you forward the request to for At Sea Disposition?
Fleet Commander-in-Chief (CINC)
Who is responsible for the overview and oversight of all matters pertaining to the dental health care of the fleet by means of visits and reviews of dental service reports and reports of inspections?
Fleet Dental Officer
60
Fleet hospitals are designed to be used in operations greater than how many days?
What are examples of deploying forces?
Flight Surgeons Air-ground forces AOE [ Fast combat support ships] CG [guided missle cruisers] LCC [amphibious command ship] LPD [amphibious transport dock] LHA & LHD T-AH EMF Marine Corps MEDBN.
What beetles appear as shiny, flattened, reddish brown insects?
Flour Beetles
What beetles are common pests of crackers, cereal, flour, and other grain products?
Flour Beetles
Which of the following is not considered a major mineral?
Fluoride
A person may display which of the following sign(s) after using a hallucinogenic drug?
Flushed face
In regards to food storage who is inspect all food items at the time of receipt?
Food Service Officer
What does the german cockroach require for growth and survival?
Food, Water, Warmth, and Harborages
When are Promotion/Frocking reports submitted?
For E6 only, upon promotion or frocking to E7.
The National Personnel Records Center (NPRC) for record retrieval?
For Navy and Marine Corps service members who were discharged before 31 January 1994, requests should be sent to______________
Which chart tells CSR personnel the specific order equipment, instruments, and materials are to be processed? 1.Figure eight 2.Functional area 3.Functional flow 4.Functional system
Functional flow. "All CSRs should have a functional flow system (Fig. 10-2) where equipment, instruments, and materials are first introduced into the receiving area, and work their way through to the issue area in a specific order." Messy question, could be two different answers.
What substance is used to control fungi?
Fungicide
What is the method of treatment and disposal of bulk blood and other infectious liquid?
GELATINIZATION sanitary sewer/landfill
What are used to trim, smooth, and shape the gingival margin of a cavity preparation?
GMTs
MSD valves and operating levers must be what color?
GOld
What is the solid or semisolid wet wastes resulting from the preparation, cooking, and serving of food?
Garbage
What is generally regarded as the most effective means of topical fluride treatment?
Gel Application `
What is usually a permanent or semi-permanent facility with outpatient specialties and primary care services?
General Hospital.
What are the 2 types of PGY-1 Programs in Dentistry?
General Practice Residency, Advanced Education in General Dentistry
Combatant Commander (COCOM) responsibilities
Generally responsible for travel and TAD expenses for duration of the deployment
Herpes simplex virus, type two is?
Genital herpes
What are the two common types of stomatitis found in the oral mucosa?
Genital herpes and aphthous stomatitis
What is the correct emergency treatment for a periodontal abscess?
Gently probe the affected area with a scaler to establish drainage
What is Blatella Germanica?
German Cockroach
What is a small, flattened, light brown insect easily identified by the presence of two dark longitudinal stripes behind the head?
German Cockroach
What is the most common species of cockroach found?
German Cockroaches
If the HM is unable to reach the poison control center or a physician for specific instructions, how should the HM treat a victim who has ingested turpentine?
Give 1 to 2 ounces of vegetable oil orally
What three diseases may present the same and require isolation until one can be ruled out?
Glanders, melioidosis, and smallpox may present with diffuse pustular rashes; strict isolation and quarantine would be indicated until smallpox can be excluded
Which nerve is responsible for a person's gag reflex?
Glossopharyngeal nerve
What hormone is produced by the alpha cells of the islands of Langerhans in the pancreas?
Glucagon
Which critical result is indicative of uncontrolled diabetes?
Glucose and ketones both present in urine
What colored membrane will be covering the gingiva if a patient has NUG?
Gray-white
When the WBGT index is between 80 and 84.9 what color flag is flown?
Green
What is Ch. 9 of NAVMED P-5010?
Ground Forces
advises the FSSG commanders on all medical matters
Group Surgeon
Which condition exists when swelling is confined to a small area at the site of a sinus tract?
Gumboil
How are Remains of victims of communicable diseases labeled?
Gummed 2x4 in marked "CONTAGIOUS" on the outside head end
What is designed to provide protection for individually identifiable health information that is maintained transmitted, or received in electronic form--not just the information in standard transactions?
HIPPA Security Rule
What is the preferred agent of chlorine because it comes in granular form, has a long shelf life, and is readily available from Navy stock system?
HTH
What is done under the water surveillance program?
Halogen and Coliform Bacteria Testing
How will Cremation remains will be transported?
Hand carried by escort
What are used on the wall of the cavity preparation to cleave enamel and cut dentin so there will be a sharp cavity outline?
Hatchets
Electrical and electronic equipment poses significant injury hazards. Of the following, which is the authorized means of reducing this hazard?
Having medical repair perform electrical safety checks on all new equipment `
What is Pediculus humanus capitus?
Head Louse
What is an infection whose manifestations are not evident either at admission or within a likely incubation period for acquisition outside the health care facility?
Healthcare-Associated Infection (HAI).
What are the signs fish is fresh?
Healthy Red Gills, Soft Firm Flesh, Clear Eyes
What are painful and severe cramps of the voluntary muscles primarily in the extremities and abdominal walls?
Heat Cramps
What results from peripheral vascular collapse due to excessive water and salt depletion?
Heat Exhaustion
What are the signs of heat stroke? What are the signs of heat exhaustion?
Heat Stroke: Flushed, very dry/hot, pinpoint pupils, pulse is fast and strong Heat Exhaustion: Ashen gray, cool/moist/clammy skin, dilated pupils, weak pulse
What occurs when there is excessive pooling of the blood in the extremities, consequently the brain does not receive enough blood?
Heat Syncope
What is often an early sign of approaching heat exhaustion?
Heat cramps
Identifying, assessing, and decreasing risk to patients and staff are objectives of the QA program to reduce exposure to what?
Liability
What is the result of the collapse of the thermal regulatory mechanism?
Heatstroke
What dressing is a firm 4 x 4 inch dressing that is sterile and individually packaged. It works by adherence to the bleeding wound and has some vasoconstrictive properties.
HemCon * The blood and clot in the wound should be removed before application.
If the bleeding is external and not at a site where a tourniquet can be applied, what can be used if conventional pressure dressings fail.
HemCon and QuikClot
If standard measures such as elevation and pressure dressings do not control bleeding, it is recommended that tourniquet be used and that the first agent be _____ . If this dressing fails, it should be removed and ______ used if the bleeding is life threatening.
HemCon then QuikClot
*What is the difference between hematemesis and hemoptysis?*
Hematemesis is vomiting bright red blood; hemoptysis is coughing up bright red blood
*What are visible indications of internal soft-tissue injury?*
Hematemesis, hemoptysis, melena, hematochezia, hematuria, nonmenstrual vaginal bleeding, epistaxis and ecchymosis
What is the term used for the volume of erythrocytes expressed as a percentage of the volume of whole blood in a sample?
Hematocrit
What is the leading cause of preventable death on the battlefield.
Hemorrhage
What is the leading cause of preventable death on the battlefield?
Hemorrhage Control
What is the topic chapter 6 Emergency War Surgery?
Hemorrhage Control
What may be used to clamp a vessel if the damage is easily identified?
Hemostat
__________ bandages currently being developed may stop bleeding.
Hemostatic
What substance is used to control undesired vegetation?
Herbicide
How must canned products be sealed?
Hermatically
All semi-critical category items should receive what level of disinfection? 1.Intermediate 2.High 3.Middle 4.Low
High
What level of a disinfectant and sterilant are glutaraldehyde-based solutions classified? 1.Medium 2.High 3.Low 4.Both 2 and 3 above
High. "Glutaraldehyde Solutions. These agents are available in several formulations differing in pH, concentration, and exposure time. They are classified as high-level disinfectants; any chemical agent used chiefly on inanimate objects to destroy or inhibit the growth of harmful organisms or sterilants...Glutaraldehydes of 2 to 3.2 percent are FDA-registered." Pg 10-4
*Immersion foot, which may also occur in the hands, results from prolonged exposure to wet cold temperatures ranging in what temperatures?*
Just above freezing to 50F (10C)
What are the safety precautions for taking radiographs?
Hold the film packet in the patient's mouth during exposure if necessary • NEVER stand in the path of the central Xray beam during exposure • NEVER hold the X-ray film packet in the patient's mouth during a dental exposure • NEVER hold the tube head or the tube head cylinder of the X-ray machine during exposure • ALWAYS stand behind a lead-lined window during an exposure
What rates for Navy Medical Enlisted were established in June 17, 1898?
Hospital Apprentice, Hospital Apprentice First Class, Hospital Steward
In 1916 what were the new rates of enlisted medical navy?
Hospital Apprentice, Hospital Second Class, Hospital First Class, Pharmacist Mate, Third, Second, and First Chief Pharamacist Mate
What were the names of the new rates established on 2 April 1948?
Hospital Recruit, Hospital Apprentice, Hospitalman, Hospital Corpsman Third Class, Second Class, First Class, Chief Hospital Corspman
T-AH
Hospital Ship Level 3 health services support Ships operated by Military Sealift Command (MSC), operated by civilians, Cos and XOs nominated by BUMED
What are the two methods of sanitizing?
Hot Water, Chemical
What is musca domestic?
House Fly
Which type of fly are the most important to mankind?
House Fly
What is Mus musculus?
House Mouse
What is a small rodent, adults weighing only about 3/4 ounce and have total length of 5-8 inches?
House Mouse
What is the solution of bleach to clean spills with?
Household bleach diluted 1:10 with clear water
Which definition best describes "Interpersonal relations"? A.Learned and shared behavior patterns and standards B.How one responds and regards others C.Inherited characteristics D.Belief system
How one responds and regards others
Which nerve is responsible for controlling the tongue?
Hypoglossal
What is the general cooling of the body's core temperature?
Hypothermia
*What is a loss of intravascular volume, which may occur from blood, plasma, or fluid loss and is also known as hemorrhagic shock?*
Hypovolemic shock
*What is the most common type of shock? What is most common in the battlefield?*
Hypovolemic shock; hemorrhagic shock
What level of medical care is definitive medical and surgical care outside the combat zone, yet within the communication zone/EAC of the theater of operations?
Level 4.
Six
IMR is composed of how many elements?
What is frostbite?
Ice crystals form in the skin after exposure to freezing temperatures or lower
"FLAG OFFICER" or "GENERAL OFFICER," as appropriate, on the lower portion of the patient identification box. If a patient identification label is used, print or stamp the appropriate identification below the label.
Identify flag officers and general officers by stamping or printing?
4
If an infected person gets the smallpox vaccine within how many days after exposure to the virus, it may lessen the severity of illness or even prevent illness?
What level of medical care would a patient requiring more intensive rehab or special needs be sent to?
Level 4.
provided by military land or VA hospitals in CONUS
Level 5 care
What are contraindications to wound closure/suturing?
If there is reddening and edema, pus, persistent fever and toxemia If it is a puncture wound or animal bite If the wound is deep
A patient requiring life saving surgery with a high chance of survival would be what triage category?
Immediate. Injuries include: respiratory obstruction, unstable with chest or abdominal injuries, or emergency amputation.
What is a serious condition which may occur in as little as 24 hours in environments where the water temperature is below 50 degrees?
Immersion Syndrome
If the hypothermic casualty is conscious, what is the most effective method of warming? What temp?
Immersion in a tub of warm water (100-105F or 38-41C)
What may cause recurrent caries?
Improper cavity preparations, inadequate cavity restoration, and old restorations
Two
In general, Medical Department personnel serving with FMF may may be devided into how many groups?
When does a patient require emergency surgery?
In order to save the patient's life
Where can clinical apparel be worn? 1.In the MTF/DTF only 2.Can go into stores for gas and emergency situations 3.Only on base 4.Can be worn home only if they are washed every night
In the MTF/DTF only
By entering an "X" in the appropriate box. If there are no allergies or sensitivities, leave it blank. If allergies and or sensitivities are listed ensure that all information is the same on the DREC and either the HREC (active duty) or OREC (nonactive duty).
In the lower center area of the outside front cover; indicate in the alert box whether the member has drug sensitivities or allergies by entering an?
Signs and symptoms of stimulant intoxication include all of the following EXCEPT?
Increased appetite
Which of the following is not a symptom of alcohol abuse?
Increased level of consciousness
What SPP is the number one pest of dried fruits in storage?
Indian Meal Moth
According to the national fire safety association what type of hazard do red containers pose?
Indicates Flammability
According to the national fire safety association what type of hazard do blue containers pose?
Indicates a health hazard
According to the national fire safety association what type of hazard do white containers pose?
Indicates any Special Hazards
According to the national fire safety association what type of hazard do yellow containers pose?
Indicates reactivity
ITEMPO
Individual Personnel Tempo Tracks and reports deployment days on individuals who are away from their homeport or assigned unit
A white blood cell (WBC) count of 18,000 may indicate what condition?
Infection
What is an essential part of the HAIPC Program?
Infection Surveillance.
What infection surveillance programs should be integrated in health care facilities?
Infection prevention, performance improvement, patient safety, and public health activities.
What is the entry and development or multiplication of an infectious agent in the body of a host?
Infection.
This is critical in identifying outbreaks, emerging infectious diseases, antibiotic-resistant organisms (AROs), and bioterrorist events so that infection prevention measures can be instituted.
Infections surveillance.
What is a clinically manifested disease of man or animal resulting from infection?
Infectious disease.
What is gingivitis?
Inflammation involving the gingival tissues.
What is pulpitis?
Inflammation of the dental pulp, caused by a bacterial infection resulting from dental caries or fractured teeth. (may also be caused by chemical irritants or thermal changes)
What requires that the healthcare provider give the patient all the information necessary for a knowledgeable decision?
Informed Consent
What is the most common route of exposure to toxic chemicals in the home?
Ingested
How are Brucellosis transmitted?
Inhalations, ingestion or inoculations
Which definition best describes "Race"? A.Learned and shared behavior patterns and standards B.How one responds and regards others C.Inherited characteristics D.Belief system
Inherited characteristics
How often should Healthcare Associated Infection training occur?
Initial indoctrination, annually thereafter, and on as-needed basis.
All casualties should flow through a single triage area and undergo rapid evaluation by whom?
Initial triage officer.
What is a sprain?
Injuries to the ligaments and soft tissues that support a joint
What is the pressure point and artery for the forearm?
Inner upper arm Brachial
How is a chest needle decompression performed?
Insert a large bore (3.25 inch, 14 gauge) needle and catheter unit in the second intercostal space at the mid-clavicular line
Vaginal administration
Inserted to produce local effect
Open torso injuries. If direct pressure does not stop the hemorrhage, consider doing what method?
Inserting a tamponade with a balloon (Foley) catheter into the wound, and then with balloon inflated pulling back to compress the bleeding site.
After drying the instrument, what is the next step in the sterilization process? 1.Inspection 2.Packaging 3.Wrapping 4.Storing
Inspection
Standard Subject Identification Code (SSIC)
Instructions are normally placed in large three-ring binders in numerical sequence according to what number and issuing authority?
Local effect
Intended to relieve itching, burning, or other skin conditions without being absorbed into the bloodstream
All noncritical category items require at least what level of disinfection? 1.Intermediate 2.Middle 3.High 4.Low
Intermediate
Which of the following levels of disinfectants are classified by the EPA? 1.Low, middle, and high 2.Low, high, and medium 3.Maximum, low, and high 4.Intermediate, high, and low
Intermediate, high, and low
What level of disinfection are iodophors and phenolics classified? 1.Intermediate 2.High 3.Middle 4.Low
Intermediate. "Iodophors are classified as intermediate-level disinfectants or can be used as antiseptics if the product label claims tuberculocidal (lethal to mycobacterium tuberculosis) activity....Their biocidal activity is accomplished within 10 to 25 minutes of exposure." Pg 10-4
The Clinical Performance Profile is what type of document?
Internal
What type of sterilization indicator will change color upon short exposure to sterilizing conditions such as steam, dry heat, or chemical vapor? 1.Internal 2.Incubator type 3.Biological 4.Both 1 and 2
Internal. "Internal indicators are chemical dyes that change color when exposed to steam, dry heat, or chemical vapor for a specified period of time. When placed inside an instrument pack, they determine whether the conditions necessary for sterilization have been met. " Pg 10-20
To treat post extraction alveolar osteitis, what type of dental material is placed in a tooth socket?
Iodoform gauze with eugenol
Generic name
Is the common name of the medication, often derived from the chemical name (i.e. triamterene) `
What is Candidiasis?
It is a fungal infection of the mouth, red or white in color.
What year was marine corp aviation dental forces est?
Jan 1975
What HM participated in the flag raising of Iwo Jima?
John Bradley (Pharmacist Mate)
Who was the first loblolly prisoner of war?
John Domyn
Who was the first Loblolly Boy of the USN?
John Wall
Who was the first African-American Loblolly boy?
Joseph Anderson
When are E3 and below performance evaluations due?
Jul 15.
What year was marine corp ground forces established?
July 1955
When are E4 performance evaluations due?
Jun 15.
Which vitamin interferes with anti-clotting medications such as warfarin?
K
*Deep frostbite (cold burns) treatment - after re-warming and pat dry has been completed, how must the skin be kept dry?*
Keep the skin dry with sterile dressings and place cotton between the toes and fingers to prevent their sticking together
What beetle are the adults and larvae generally brown in color and covered with yellowish hairs?
Khapra Beetle (Trogoderma)
Remington: The Science and Practice of Pharmacy
Known as the "blue bible" of pharmacology, is the most widely used text/reference in American pharmacies
Who in the enlisted to commissioning program, are technically oriented officers who perform duties limited to specific occupational fields and require strong managerial skills?
LDOs.
What is contained in AMAL 618?
Lab equipment.
What is contained in AMAL 619?
Lab supply.
What is Ecchymoses?
Large, purplish-red areas caused by blood under the skin or mucosa; turns to a blue or yellow color.
Maximum dose
Largest amount of medication that can be given without reaching the toxic effect
What type of pesticide is used to kill larvae?
Larvacide
Which color tube is the best choice for a CBC?
Lavender top
Which definition best describes "Culture"? A.Learned and shared behavior patterns and standards B.How one responds and regards others C.Inherited characteristics D.Belief system
Learned and shared behavior patterns and standards
Minimum dose
Least amount of medication required to produce a therapeutic effect
Minimum lethal dose
Least amount of medication that can produce death
What is acute herpetic gingivostomatitis?
Lesions of the HSV-1 characterized by red and swollen gingiva.
Dental unit waterline monitoring and treatment EPA standards are less than how many colony-forming units per millimeter (CFU/ml)?
Less than 500 CFU/ml.
10
Lethal agents are those that result in what percent or greater death rate among casualties?
Select the term used to describe an abnormally high WBC count.
Leukocytosis
Immediate first aid delivered to a patient at the scene is what level of medical care?
Level 1.
The BAS is considered what level MTF?
Level 1.
What level of care includes basic primary care, optometry, combat operational stress control and mental health, dental, labs, and surgical and x-ray capabilities?
Level 2.
What level of medical care has increased medical capabilities but limited bed space?
Level 2.
The Navy's Fleet Hospitals are considered what level of medical care?
Level 3 Medical Care.
What level of medical care represents the highest level of medical care available within the combat zone with the bulk of inpatient beds?
Level 3 Medical Care.
OCONUS MTF
Level 4 health services support
Which leukocyte fights viral infection?
Lymphocyte
Who is the CNO coordinator for the SOY program?
MCPON.
Health Service Support Operations
MCWP 4-11.1
Medical Surveillance is Conducted by whom?
MDR
Who tests halogen residual at pier?
MDR
What enlisted to officer commissioning program provides a pathway for active duty enlisted of all ratings to obtain a baccalaureate degree in nursing and a commission into the Nurse Corps?
MECP, Medical Enlisted Commissioning Program.
the primary source of medical support above the BAS level
MED BN
administers and coordinates all of the BUMED aspects relating to fleet and USMC medical support
MED-02, Asst Chief, Operational and Fleet Support
Movement by medical personnel
MEDEVAC
AMALs and ADALs are maintained and resupplied by whom?
MEDLOG, supply company, MLG.
In the communication process, listening is a critical skill and can be improved by developing which, if any, of the following attitudes and behaviors? 1.Anticipating what the patient will say 2.Managing distractions 3.Taking notes 4.None of the above
Managing distractions. "Listening skills can be improved and enhanced by developing the following attitudes and skills: Hear the speaker out Focus on ideas Remove or manage distractions Maintain objectivity Concentrate on the immediate interaction" Pg 11-8
What type of folders should be used when creating a temporary record?
Manila folder
Who delivers patients to the determined triage areas?
Manpower team.
When are E5 performance evaluations due?
March 15.
When were "Cockpits" or "Sickbays" mandated by congress?
March 2, 1799
Periodontitis usually results from what untreated condition?
Marginal gingivitis
What DTF's are considered independent commands?
Marine Battalions DTF's
What does the acronym MRSA stand for? 1.Methaline Resilient Sterilizer Antiseptic 2.Methicilin-Resistant Staphylococcus Aureus 3.Myopic Rutherford's Sanitation Amalgam 4.Medical Really Sounds Awesome
Methicilin-Resistant Staphylococcus Aureus
IPs should be trained in what as a basis for understanding IP/C?
Microbiology and infectious disease. Basic epidemiology. Infection surveillance. Outbreak investigation. disinfection/sterilization methods and technologies. Basic biostatistics.
What is periodontal pocket formation?
Microorganisms and their products progress toward the apex of the tooth, forming a pocket.
What type of inflammation is present in marginal gingivitis?
Mild
What are some signs and symptoms of Melioidosis?
Mild bronchitis or necrotizing pneumonia, headache, anorexia, and a fever of 102 F
What is chilblain?
Mild cold injury caused by exposure for several hours to air temperatures from above freezing (32F, 0C) to as high as 60F (16C)
What does MAST stand for?
Military Anti-Shock Trousers
Service members offered an appointment at the USNA must have a minimum of how many months of active obligated service as of 1 July the entering year?
Minimum of 24 months of active obligated service.
How many statements of recognition must be submitted when identifying a casualty?
Minimum of two statements
AMALs and ADALs establish what quantity of medical and dental equipment and consumables that fleet and Fleet Marine Force units must maintain?
Minimum quantity.
Routine deployable
Mission capable and ready to deploy within 5 days
Acaricide is used to kill what kind of pest?
Mites, Ticks
What Air Force Level 2 medical care is designed to augment an aid station or flight line clinic?
Mobile Field Surgical Teams, MFST.
The largest of the normal WBCs is the?
Monocyte
An executive management team may perform the command QA function if it meets at least how often?
Monthly
How often does a pharmacy need to conduct an inspection for expired drugs?
Monthly
How ofter are food establishments inspected?
Monthly
A Controlled Substance Inventory is conducted how often? 1.Weekly 2.Monthly 3.Annually 4.Bi-annually
Monthly. "Conducted monthly, unannounced inventory done by members of the Controlled Substances Inventory Board." Pg 5-12
Aedes, anopheles, and culex are what type of insects?
Mosquitos
Oral administration
Most common method of administering medications
Francisella Tularensis is limited to what hemisphere?
Northern Hemisphere
Actin and myosin are two protein substances involved in?
Muscle nourishment
What are the requirements of an escort?
Must be the same branch, status and pay grade of deceased
What are the service requirements for an active duty member applying to the CWO program?
Must have completed 10 years active, but no more than 16 years of active Naval Service.
*What results when a coronary artery is severely occluded by arteriosclerosis (or calcification) or completely blocked by a clot?*
Myocardial infarction
maintains liaison bet CMC and Chief BUMED
N093M, Deputy for Marine Corps Medical Matters
What type of mask should be worn when in contact with a patient diagnosed with ? 1.Surgical mask 2.Cone mask 3.N95 respirator 4.M-15 Gas mask w/ canister
N95 respirator
All enrollees in the NROTC and US Merchant Marine Academy will complete what form annually?
NAVMED 6120/3, Annual Certificate of Physical Condition.
The findings of food-service inspections are documented on what form? 1.NAVMED P-5010 2.NAVMED 6240/1 3.SECNAVINST 4060.1 4.NAVMED P-5038
NAVMED 6240/1
What form is used to ground aviation personnel for medically related issues?
NAVMED 6410/1, Aeromedical Grounding Notice.
What form is used as a means to communicate to the aviation units CO after successful completion of an aviation physical, or return to flight status following a temporary grounding?
NAVMED 6410/2, Aeromedical Clearance Notice.
The procedures for the medical and dental evaluation of Navy and marine Corps members and their accompanying family members, who are undergoing suitability processing for overseas assignment, are provided in what series?
NAVMEDCOMINST 1300.1
What series provides guidance as to who and under what circumstances members can receive medical and dental care at Navy Medical Department facilities; the extent and conditions under which such care may be provided; and the collection process to pay for that care?
NAVMEDCOMINST 6320.3
Condolence letter must be sent to the NOK and copies sent to?
NAVPERSCOM and OJAG
Where would the HM locate the policies and guidance for operating and managing procedures of supply departments and activities? 1.NAVSUP 485 2.OPNAVINST P-485 3.NAVMEDCOMINST 4850 4.NAVSUP P-485
NAVSUP P-485
For a condition or diagnosis that is deemed to be within physical standards, what notation should be made at the end of the description of the condition or diagnosis?
NCD, Not Considered Disqualifying.
Are pre-exposure prophylaxis available for Brucellosis?
NO
Should the command remove installed ACM, which are in good condition, for the sole purpose of eliminating asbestos?
NO
will The m291 skin decontamination kit neutralize Q fever?
NO; A 0.5 percent chlorine solution should be used for personnel and patient decontamination
What is Rattus Norvegicus?
Norway Rat
Are civillian personnel authorized to attend at sea dispositions?
No
Are cockroaches vectors?
No
Can a person that has come in contact with sewage, walk around without restrictions?
No
May civilians attend a ceremony at sea abroad a naval ship?
No
SECNAV nomination requests for the USNA must be received by the USNA admissions office by what date?
No later than 31 January of the year in which the applicant desires admission.
How long does a reserve member have to complete their final physical after being activated?
No less than 180 days
When the HM is preparing for a surgical case, what is the maximum length of the fingernail? 1.¼ inch 2.1 ½ inches 3.No longer than the tips of the fingers 4.The cuticle
No longer than the tips of the fingers
SAT or ACT tests must be no more than how many years old when applying to the USNA?
No more than 2 years old.
When using a observed report with a non observed promotion recommendation, what is the number of traits allowed to be evaluated?
No more than 3 traits.
How long should the processing times take to place a member on LIMDU?
No more than 5 days
What is the maximum amount of time a member can be on limited duty?
No more than 6 months
are nerves and tendons primarily repaired?
No primary repair is not performed, this prevents dissection
do you attempt a subxiphoid pericardial window in an unstable patient?
No they should undergo median sternotomy/thoracotomy
Should you close a war wound primarily
No, all war wounds are considered contaminated and should not be initially closed
Should a gram stain be used for Tularemia?
No, stains are usually not visualized and the organism doesn't grow on standard media
Will putrefied remains be accepted for burial at sea?
No, the odor will detract from the dignity of the ceremony.
For shock do the vast majority of casualties need iv's?
No, they do not
What is a benign tumor?
Non life threatening
What are the classes of suture materials?
Non-absorbable Sutures -Silk - "spit" -Cotton - loses tensile strength with each autoclave -Linen - better than silk or cotton but more expensive -Synthetic (nylon) - very little tissue reaction, knots untie, preferred over silk for face/lip -Rust-proof metal (stainless steel wire) - least tissue reaction, strongest, kinks, must be cut with wire cutters Absorbable Sutures -Surgical gut/cat gut - from sheep gut
What type of devices do not ordinarily touch the patient of touch only intact skin?
Non-critical devices.
What non-emergent triage category would a patient requiring intervention, but could stand significant delay be triaged as?
Non-emergent delayed.
What non-emergent triage category would a patient not requiring the attention of the emergent group, and lacks significant potential for loss of life, limb, or eyesight?
Non-emergent minimal.
Protection of exposed brain with what can minimize injury?
Nonadherent gauze or plastic
What include filled and unfilled resins, glass ionomer cement, and pit and fissure sealants?
Nonmetallic Permanent Restorations
Therapeutic dose
Normal adult dose, usual dose, average dose; amount needed to produce the desired therapeutic effect
What is the age requirements for attending NAPS?
Not have passed their 22nd birthday on July of that year they will enter NAPS.
If a sterile item's sterility is in question the HM should_____. 1.Keep it if the packages looks undamaged 2.Not use it if there is any question about the sterility 3.Use it on the next patient if the sterility indicator has changed 4.None of the above
Not use it if there is any question about the sterility
When should skin grafts be done?
Not while in theater.
What is the first step to be performed when positive biological monitoring occurs? 1.Notify biomedical repair personnel 2.Notify commanding officer 3.Notify ICO 4.Notify CO
Notify ICO `
If a patient reports to the dental clinic after hours with a toothache, which of the following steps should the duty HM first take?
Notify the duty dental officer
When are E6 performance evaluations due?
November 15.
Line #3 in the MEDEVAC Request is?
Number of patients by precedence
What is the predominant blood packed group
O packed red blood cells
What form is used when applying for enlisted to officer commissioning programs?
OPNAV 1420/1, Officer Programs Application.
What form is used at all levels of competition when grading the SOY candidate?
OPNAV 1650/17, SOY Grading Sheet.
What instruction provides concise information on each commissioning program open to enlisted personnel?
OPNAVINST 1420.1B, Enlisted To Officer Commissioning Programs Application Administrative Manual
Which of the following publications contains further guidance on the Medical Surveillance Program?
OPNAVINST 5100.23
Responsibilities of the DAPA are outlined in what series?
OPNAVINST 5350.4
What is the instruction that governs the Navy's physical readiness program?
OPNAVINST 6110.1
What instruction provides guidelines and procedures for the Sailor of the Year Program?
OPNAVINT 1700.10M.
Reassessing surge capacity
OPTEMPO is one of many factors that compels commanders to continuously reassess surge capacity of a specific platform to accommodate operational requirements
An EKG performed on a patient is interpreted as normal and the patient's breathing improves with oxygen therapy. Select the type of observation that most accurately applys to the scenario described in the question. A.Subjective observations only B.Objective observations only C.Both subjective and objective observations
Objective observations only `
When picking up a patient's dinner tray, the HM notices that only the liquids have been consumed at this meal, although the patient has normally eaten full meals before this. Select the type of observation that most accurately applys to the scenario described in the question. A.Subjective observations only B.Objective observations only C.Both subjective and objective observations
Objective observations only. "OBJECTIVE.—The next part is the objective observation. These objective observations include signs the HM can actually see, hear, touch, feel, or smell. Included in objective observations are measurements such as temperature, pulse, respiration, skin color, swelling, and the results of tests whether normal or abnormal." pG 11-12
Which nerve is responsible for the eyes moving?
Oculomotor
Who coordinates the Navy Shore SOY program?
Office of the Chief of Naval Operations, OPNAV, Command Master Chief.
What is the initial commissioning program for individuals possessing at least a baccalaureate degree from an accredited institution?
Officer Candidate School, OCS.
Uniforms for officers
Officers are required to purchase uniforms
Standard naval letter
Official Navy correspondance is usually prepared and referred to as the what?
United States Pharmacopeia and National Formulary (USP-NF)
Official reference for medications marketed in the US; sets standards for the quality, purity, strength, and consistency and provides standards for medications of therapeutic usefulness and pharmaceutical necessity
What objective should be used for a detailed study of stained bacterial smears?
Oil immersion
Which nerve is responsible for the sense of smell?
Olfactory
When placing packages in a sterilizer, how are they placed? 1.On the edges 2.On the top 3.In middle 4.On the bottom
On the edges
How many exports are authorized to one family?
One
What is created through Navy Casualty Office to the funeral home when an annual contract is not in effect?
One-Time Contracts
What are the three National Cemetery Classifications?
Open Closed New
What type of injury is characterized by hole in chest wall?
Open pneumothorax
How are hinged instruments arranged during packaging? 1.Top to bottom 2.Open 3.Closed 4.Sideways
Open. "Opening all hinged instruments during packaging to allow steam to penetrate these areas." Pg 10-11
DD Form 2766
Opening a secondary medical record requires the healthcare provider to write a note on the Adult Preventive and Chronic Care flow Sheet which is what form in the primary treatment record?
what dentistry strives to restore decayed or fractured teeth to their original functional ability and esthetic quality of healthy dentition?
Operative
What is the area of dental concerned with the prevention and treatment of defects in tooth enamel and dentin?
Operative dentistry
Herpes simplex virus, type one is?
Oral herpes
Bed linens, towels, smocks, trousers, and other protective attire are classified as what? 1.Biohazards 2.Ordinary laundry 3.Contaminated laundry 4.OPIM
Ordinary laundry
The conversion of mechanical impulses (sound waves) to neural impulses that can be interpreted by the brain is a function of the ______?
Organ of Corti
The plague is caused by what vector?
Oriental Rat Flea
What is the specailty of dentistry that is concerned with the supervision, guidance, and correction of growing and mature dentofacial structures (braces and retainers)?
Orthodontics
Calcium levels in the blood are controlled by which of the following hormones?
Parathormone
What is the most aggressive type of nutritional therapy?
Parenteral
What is the term used for bacteria that cause disease?
Pathogen
What is the PMRC and where are their locations?
Patient Movement Requirements Center Located at Scott AFB, IL Ramstein, Germany Hickam AFB, HI
All cases in MTF or DTF's involving serious injury, prolonged disability, or death secondary to HAIPC problem, need to be reported to whom?
Patient Safety and Risk Management locally and at BUMED.
The infection preventionist reports administratively to whom?
Patient safety, Risk Management, and Quality.
Central repository for liquid and frozean blood required when?
Peacetime, Contingencies, and war
What is an infestation of lice on various parts of the body?
Pediculosis
What is the process by which practitioners of the same or like discipline evaluate the outcomes of QA program-related monitoring devices?
Peer review
When to consider (CAR) Cabin Altitude Restriction
Penetrating Eye Injury (intraocular aiar) Free air in any body cavity Pulmonary disease Decompression Sickness and AGE Pneumothorax- chest tube required Air splints should not be used Vent ostomy collection bag
What is the dental specialty involved in the diagnosis and treatment of diseases of the supporting tissues?
Periodonitics
What is the most prevalent chronic disease of humankind?
Periodontal disease
Which of the following conditions exist if a patient complains that their gums are "itching"?
Periodontitis
What is a PADD?
Person Authorized Direct Disposition
Deploying after reporting
Personnel will not deploy earlier than 6 months from their report date; personnel may participate in pre-deployment or inter-deployment training beginning 60 days after reporting
Deploying before PCSing
Personnel will return from deployment no later than 6 months before PCS or retirement, or 3 months before separating from active duty
Deploying with deployment history
Personnel with past deployment history will not deploy for a minimum of 6 months following the end of their last deployment
What is Directive 4150.7?
Pest Management Program
What is any substance or mixture of substances intended for preventing, destroying, repelling, or mitigating any pest?
Pesticide
Which of the following are the two most prominent mineral elements of bone?
Phosphorus and calcium
What is the purpose of the physical exam?
Physically capable of performing assigned duties: 1. Without unnecessary risk of injury or harm, 2. Without assignment limitations or modifications to existing equipment and systems, 3. Not likely to incur a physical disability as a result of military service.
On patrol, a member of the unit receives a rattlesnake bite just below the elbow. What first aid treatment should be performed?
Place a constricting band 2 inches proximal to the bite site
What type of sterilization is STERRAD? 1.Prevacuum 2.Gravity 3.Sterris 4.Plasma
Plasma. "STERRAD STERILIZATION PROCEDURE Sterilization using plasma state hydrogen peroxide (Fig. 10-12) will be accomplished for those products unable to withstand steam sterilization parameters and have been approved, in writing, for sterilization by this method by the medical device manufacturer." Pg 10-17
Amalgam condensers, often called what, are instruments used to condense or pack the amalgam filling materials into the cavity preparation?
Pluggers
The Puffer, Surgeon, Trigger, and Parrot fish are known to be_________.
Poisonous at all times
NAVMED 6710/6
Poly Prescription
The venous system that carries digested materials from the intestinal tract is called the?
Portal
What type of sterilizer was designed to overcome the trapping of air in the chamber? 1.Air-free 2.Dry heat 3.Chemical vapor 4.Prevacuum steam
Prevacuum steam (Autoclave)
What is the purpose of the Dental Corp?
Prevent and remedy, ensure dental readiness
The goal of what is to assist the patient in either establishing control of the dental disease or in continuing to maintain good oral health?
Preventive dentistry
three responsibilities medical support to FMF
Prevmed, Sickcall and Evac and Supply
What is the second GI can used for?
Prewash
Annual Contracts and One Time Contacts cover what funeral expenses?
Primary Expenses
What is the PNOK?
Primary Next of Kin
What are the three types of expenses dealing with decedent affairs?
Primary, Secondary, and Transportation
When should the diversion of casualties to another facility for further support be established?
Prior to any mass casualty event.
STA-21 applicants must be able to complete degree requirements and be commissioned by what age?
Prior to their 27th birthday.
All OCS applicants, regardless of their designator, must be able to be commissioned prior to what age?
Prior to their 42nd birthday.
Applicants of MECP must be able to complete the nursing degree requirements and be commissioned prior to what age?
Prior to their 42nd birthday.
How should personnel casualty reports be sent?
Priority Message
Personnel casualty reports should be submitted by?
Priority Message
What establishes safeguards concerning the right to privacy by regulating the collection, maintenance, use, and dissemination of personal information by federal agencies?
Privacy Act
Lymph nodes participate in all of the following functions EXCEPT?
Production of hormones
An insufficient secretion of thyroxin is characterized by all of the following EXCEPT?
Profuse sweating
What promotion recommendation means the member is making progress but is not ready to be recommended for promotion?
Progressing, 3.4 on the 4.0 scale.
What performance recommendations can NOT be assigned on an Eval or Chief Eval when a promotable or higher promotion recommendation for advancement has been given in a previous report in the same pay grade?
Progressing.
All Navy IPCC's must meet how often?
Quarterly.
DD Form 2766
Properly maintained, what form aids healthcare providers by allowing them quick access to pertinent medical factors that may affect how they manage a patient's medical care?
What is the specialized areas of dentistry involved in replacing missing teeth with gold or porcelain prosthesis (crown and Bridge)?
Prosthodontics
Commonly called the building blocks of the body
Protein
What type of diet is in indicative of renal or hepatic disease?
Protein restricted diet
What data elements are not required for those cases closed through administrative denial of payment or where the health care incident occurred before JAN 1, 1985?
Provider-specific
What is the preferred method when testing color discrimination of an active duty service member?
Pseudoisochromatic Plates (PIP)
What type of shock is unlikely to results in true "shock"?
Psychogenic (vasovagal) shock aka vasovagal syncope
The most common cause of ineffective communication and the most difficult obstacle to identify is which of the following barriers? 1.Psychological 2.Physical 3.Psychosocial 4.Spiritual or religious
Psychological
What is small grayish white insect with a broad abdomen and large second and third pairs of legs giving it a crab like appearance?
Pubic Louse
What is pthirus pubis?
Pubic Louse (Crab Louse)
Name/service cloth strips
Purchase of name and service cloth strips is the responsibility of the service member
Which of the following diets is usually lower in fiber?
Pureed diet
Which committee is multidisciplinary and provides a forum for discussion and oversight of all nonmedical staff QA Functions?
QA
What reports are designed to promptly document all circumstances surrounding an event, to alert the commanding officer, Command Risk Manager, and other involved administrators clinicians of a potential liability situation?
Quality Care Review (QCR)
What is the DD 2063?
Record of Preparation and Disposition of Remains
What is the DD Form 2062?
Record of Preparation and Disposition of Remains(Outside Conus)
What is DD Form 2063?
Record of Preparation and Disposition of Remains(Within Conus)
5
Records charged out from the file should be returned as soon as possible after the patient's visit, but no more than how many working days?
When the WBGT index is between 88 and 89.9 what color flag is flown?
Red
What cell is not normally found in urine?
Red Blood Cell
What is the Tribolium Castaneum?
Red Flour Beetle
The addition of one drop of 2 percent acetic acid to urine sediment will disintegrate which cell?
Red blood cells
Which color tube is the best choice for routine chemistry tests?
Red top
*What is the treatment for heat stroke patient?* At what temperature is cooling discontinued?
Reduce heat immediately by dousing the body with cold water by applying wet, cold towels to the body. Discontinue cooling when the rectal/core temperature is 102F.
Chagas disease is transmitted by what?
Reduviid Bug
A patient requests the HM's advice concerning the care they are undergoing. Which, if any, of the following is the appropriate response? 1.Answer honestly, to the best ability possible 2.Refer the patient to the nurse or physician responsible for the care 3.Say, "I will ask the supervisor" 4.None of the above
Refer the patient to the nurse or physician responsible for the care
When pain from an affected tooth manifests to a healthy, non-involved tooth, what is the condition called?
Referred pain
What is pulposis?
Refers to any disease involving the dental pulp.
What is the perferred method of transporting cremains when an escort is not authorized?
Registered Mail
What type of performance reports are the foundation of the performance record?
Regular reports.
Chemical name
Related to chemical and molecular structure
When do EPA standards not apply to ACM removal?
Repair and removal operations conducted at sea, at a distance greater than 3nm from U.S. shore
Any item that has an application and appears on APL, SNSL, ISL, or Naval Ship Systems Command is known as what? 1.Consumable 2.Non-consumable 3.Repair part 4.Standard stock item
Repair part
When the HM encounters a shipping or packaging discrepancy on behalf of the shipper, the HM should submit a? 1.Discrepancy report 2.DD 365 3.Report of Discrepancy 4.DD 374
Report of Discrepancy
What is DD Form 2808?
Report of Medical Exam
First Call Program
Report to duty station within 72 hours of notification
What is DD Form 1222?
Reporting Infestations of Shipboard Product Pests
Who determines the final distribution of promotion recommendations within the member's summary group using command-directed procedures where applicable?
Reporting Senior.
What are the four links is a chain of transmission?
Reservoir, Means of Transmission, Portal of Entry, Susceptible Host
Command Readiness Officer (CRO)
Responsible for monitoring and advising the commander on operational readiness Ensures deployments from previous commands are verified and entered into the EMPARTS and ITEMPO databases Ensures deployable personnel complete administrative requirements within 30 working days of reporting Ensures HSAP personnel are identified, notified and prepared for deployment within 30 days of reporting to command
What is Ankyloglossia?
Results from a short lingual frenulum attachment also known as tongue tied.
What is abrasion?
Results in the loss of tooth structure secondary to the action of external agents.
Who determines the required disposition for patients in the triage area?
Resuscitation teams.
Which program is only activated only upon the enactment of special legislation?
Return of Remains Program
Which program provides for permanent disposition of remains of persons buried in temporary burial sites who could not be evacuated under the Concurrent Return Program?
Return of Remains Program
What is ROWPU?
Reverse Osmosis Water Purification Unit
What SPP are reddish brown and have a characteristic long beak or snout and are easily recognized by the presence of two yellowish or reddish spots on the top of each front wing?
Rice Weevil
What shipboard product pest is considered to be one the of the most destructive?
Rice Weevil
The house mite is a vector of what disease?
Rickettsial Pox
What is the fourth GI can used for?
Rinsing
Clinical dentistry is practiced under what two basic conditions that require the application of infection control measure to mitigate the risk of cross-contamination?
Risk of exposure blood, and other potentially infectious material (OPIM).
Who was the first (of 22) Hospital Corpsman to recieve The Medal of Honor?
Robert Stanley
What is the prescribed method of rodent control?
Rodent Trapping
What is the primary reservoir for plague?
Rodents
Of the elements listed below, which makes seeing in the dark possible?
Rods
What is Rattus Rattus?
Roof Rat
What rat prefers seeds, cereals, vegetables, and fruit?
Roof Rat
What rat was the carrier of the bubonic plague during the 14th century?
Roof Rat
What rat weighs 4-13 ounces, and its tail length is greater than half its total body length?
Roof Rat
Which is more common on ships the roof rat or norway rat?
Roof Rat
Which rat has its tail longer than the length of his body and head combined?
Roof Rat
What is petechiae?
Round pinpoint, non-raised, purplish-red spots, caused by mucosal or dermal hemorrhage.
Readiness categories
Routine Deployable Surge Ready Emergency Surge
FDPMU surge capacity
Routine deployable: 2 FDPMU maintain ready status on 6-month rotating basis; prepared to deploy within days of notification Surge ready: 2 FDPMU maintained in this status; 6 month training phase before "routine deployable"; able to deploy within 30 days of notification Emergency surge: 2 FDPMU in this status after completing their duty as ready FDPMU; able to deploy within 60 days of notification
MARFOR surge capacity
Routine deployable: assets immediately available to USMC for deployment Surge ready: personnel available to deploy with USMC units within 30 days of notification Emergency surge: forces capable of deploying within 120 days
T-AH surge capacity
Routine deployable: forces ready to deploy within days in support of 250-bed configuration Surge ready: Forces deploying within 30 days to support a 500-bed configuration Emergency surge: forces ready to deploy within 120 days in support of 1,000 bed configuration
EMF surge capacity
Routine deployable: two EMF systems maintained in this status for 1 year; prepared to deploy detachments up to 500 beds within days of notification Surge ready: three EMF systems maintained in this status for 1 year; able to deploy detachments up to 500 beds within 30 days of notification Emergency surge: EMF most recently released from "routine deployable" status will be held in an "emergency surge" status for 6 months
What is used to isolate a designated tooth or teeth in the mouth before certain operative, endodontic andpreventive dentistry procedures are performed?
Rubber dam
What is dry, disposable waste resulting from almost all of man's activities?
Rubbish
Who is responsible for deciding the strength of the overall dental corp?
SECNAV
who are the main two persons the CMC are responsible to
SECNAV and CNO
What instruction provides a list of medical conditions and physical defects which normally are cause for referral to the Physical Evaluation Board?
SECNAVINST 1850.4
OPNAVINST 1752.1 series, (Sexual Assault Victim Intervention (SAVI) Program), and what other series, (Victim and Witness Program), provide guidance for the care and support of alleged victims of sexual assault?
SECNAVINST 5800.11
What is the instruction that governs the requirement for a PHA for all active and reserve military members?
SECNAVINST 6120.3
A ROD is submitted on what form? 1.DD 364 2.NAVMED 3640 3.NAVSUP 364 4.SF 364
SF 364
Dental Treatment Facilities (DTFs), Medical Treatment Facilities (MTFs), and shipboard medical and dental departments use what formto refer patients from one DTF/MTF, or department to another?
SF 513
What is the form number Radiologic Consultation Request/Report?
SF 519 `
When dealing with records disposition, what SSIC do you file paperwork under?
SSIC code 5360
13
SSICs are devided into how many major groups?
SECNAVINST 5210.11
SSICs are found in what series?
the smallest most mobile medical support platoon of the medical BN
STO
From out of theater of operations to main support area
STRATEVAC
What are the prohibited Disease in a Food Worker?
Salmonella, Shigella, E Coli, Hepatitis A
How should an escort be selected?
Same branch of service, status, and pay grade of deceased.
What is the fifth GI can used for?
Sanitizing Rinse
Unless extraordinary circumstances exist with respect to the condition of remains, interment in national cemeteries will not be made when?
Saturdays, Sundays, and Holidays
What beetle as an adult is slender, flat, and brown and is easily recognized by the six saw toothed like projections on each side of the thorax?
Saw Toothed Grain Beetle
What is the most common shipboard product pest aboard ships?
Saw Toothed Grain Beetle
What is an infectious disease of the skin caused by a mite, penetration of the skin is visible as papules or tiny linear burrow containing mites and the eggs?
Scabies
What are the three priorities of the Scene Assessment / Size Up?
Scene safety Identifications of Patients Mechanism of Injury
What schedule drug has no acceptable medical use and a very high abuse potential?
Schedule I
What schedule drug have an acceptable medical use and a very high abuse potential?
Schedule II
What schedule drug has an acceptable medical use which are considered to have lessening degrees of abuse potential?
Schedules III, IV, V
Pharmacology
Science dealing with the origin, nature, chemistry, effects, and uses of medications
Therapeutics
Science of treating disease by any method that will relieve pain
The cornea is part of the protective outer layer of the eye called the?
Sclera
What is the outer layer of the eye called?
Sclera
Antivenin is available to neutralize the effects of the following types of Coelenterates?
Sea wasp, box jellyfish
What burn is characterized by epidermal blisters, mottled appearance, and a red base? Damage extends into but not through the dermis. Edema and "weeping" fluid (plasma) is observed.
Second-degree burn
What is the SNOK?
Secondary Next of Kin
Who has overall responsibility of the decedent affairs program?
Secretary of the Navy
Personnel from the Fleet who are applying for entrance into the USNA, must apply for a nomination from whom?
Secretary of the Navy.
Who aligned all Navy Medical and Dental Commands under the military command of the Chief, BUMED?
Secretary of the Navy.
Currently, physical readiness testing is required for all personnel on what basis?
Semi-annual
What type of medical devices contact mucous membranes or non-intact skin?
Semi-critical devices.
What structure(s) of the inner ear provide(s) neural stimuli used to maintain equilibrium?
Semicircular canals
______are instruments that frequently contact mucous membranes, but cannot be sterilized because of their design or inability to withstand heat. 1.Semicritical items 2.Unit Dose 3.Pre Vacuum Sterilizer 4.Critical items
Semicritical items
For performance evaluations, who's responsibility is it to propose a promotion recommendation?
Senior Rater.
What evaluations should be treated as adverse evaluations?
Significant problems, or any recommendation against retention.
When are E7 and E8 performance evaluations due?
September 15.
The RPR test to screen for syphilis is best used with what type of specimen?
Serum
begins with POTUS to SECDEF, SECNAV and CMC
Service Chain
What is the standard burial uniform?
Service Dress Blues
Bones that develop within a tendon are known as which of the following?
Sesamoid
What X-Ray machine settings should you use when exposing a maxillary occlusal radiograph on an adult?
Set the X-ray machine at 10 mA, 90 kVp, and 60 impulses (1 second).
Persons who regularly abuse inhalants risk which of the following injuries?
Severe brain damage & Damaged internal organs &Death
Other factors that may influence dosage
Sex Race Occuption Habitual use (tolerance) Time of administration Frequency of administration Mode of administration
What is the reservoir for Q fever?
Sheeps, dogs, cattle, cats
Shellfish should be shipped with what?
Shellfish Shippers List
What is chapter 8 of NAVMED P 5010?
Ships Afloat
What is the first symptom as the body cools?
Shivering
What is contained in AMAL 632?
Shock Surgical Team/Triage Supply.
What is contained in AMAL 631?
Shock Surgical/Triage Equipment.
What uniform items are not authorized?
Shoes and headgear
What individual performance recommendation is a recommendation AGAINST promotion and must be justified in the comments?
Significant Problems.
Absorption of food occurs predominantly in which of the following areas of the intestines?
Small intestines
A person suffering from a Venomous Fish sting should?
Soak the wound in hot water for 30 to 90 minutes
*What is the most common injuries seen by HMs in a first aid setting?*
Soft tissue injuries
What is the most common injuries seen by HMs in a first aid setting?
Soft tissue injuries
The overproduction of which hormone leads to acromegaly?
Somatotropin
What are the six steps of ware washing?
Sorting, Scraping, Washing, Rinsing, Sanitizing, Air Drying
BUMEDINST 5210.9
Specific instructions for managment of reports and forms are covered in the current version of what series?
Which nerve is responsible for controlling the turning of the head?
Spinal Accessory
what are used primarily to remove debris from tooth cavities?
Spoon excavators
What is stomoxys calcitrans?
Stable Fly
What stage of ANESTHESIA should a patient be in during the operation?
Stage 3
What stage of ANESTHESIA is the patient considered to be toxic or danger stage?
Stage 4
Joint Blood Program requires deploying medical forces to write what?
Standing Operating Procedures
What is the DD Form 565?
Statement of Recognition of Deceased.
What policy is to protect, to the maximum extent possible, the rights of U.S. personnel who may be subject to criminal trial by foreign courts and imprisonment in foreign prisons?
Status of Forces
What type of gloves are the highest quality and best fitting? 1.Examination gloves 2.Nitrile gloves 3.Procedural gloves 4.Sterile gloves
Sterile gloves
The sum total of the operating level and safety level is also known as what? 1.Requisitioning objective 2.Supply Level 3.Stockage objective 4.Operating level
Stockage objective
What are the three types of pesticide by mode of entry?
Stomach Poisons, Contact Poisons, Fumigants
Identify the fish with which there is antivenom available.
Stonefish& Scorpionfish& Zebrafish
What is SPP
Stored Products Pest
The gallbladder performs which of the following purposes?
Stores bile
What temporary latrine is made by digging a hole 1 foot wide, 2.5 feet deep, and 4 feet long?
Straddle Trench
Tooth decay has been linked to what?
Streptococci and other acid producing bacteria
Which bacteria causes strep throat?
Streptococcus pyogenes
Posology
Study of dosages of medicines and medications
Toxicology
Study of poisons
Pharmacodynamics
Study of the action or effects of medications on living organisms
Pharmacotherapeutics
Study of the uses of medications in the treatment of disease
A patient complains of chest pain and has difficulty breathing. Select the type of observation that most accurately applys to the scenario described in the question. A.Subjective observations only B.Objective observations only C.Both subjective and objective observations
Subjective observations only
A patient claims to have swallowed many respiratory problems pills and complains of sleepiness and nausea. Select the type of observation that most accurately applys to the scenario described in the question. A.Subjective observations only B.Objective observations only C.Both subjective and objective observations
Subjective observations only. "SUBJECTIVE.—The initial portion of the SOAP note consists of subjective observations. These are symptoms verbally given to the HM by the patient or by a significant other (family or friend). These subjective observations include the patient's descriptions of pain or discomfort, the presence of nausea or dizziness, and a multitude of other descriptions of dysfunction, discomfort, or illness." pG 11-12
What is the most serious chest injury that requires immediate first aid treatment?
Sucking Chest Wound
What are extra teeth other than the normal 32 teeth that are present in the mouth?
Supernumerary Teeth
Who are qualified Food instructors?
Supervisors, EHO, PMT, IDC
Most dental treatment is provided with the patient in what position?
Supine
The main role of fats is to?
Supply energy to the body
What AMAL/ADAL module contains consumable material designed to support the function in the treatment of a designated number of casualties or to perform a specific task?
Supply module.
Retriaging and assigning resuscitation teams to patients in the triage system is the responsibility of whom?
Team leader, surgical triage officer.
Who in the emergent triage system coordinates the movement of patients to the next stop in their treatment?
Team leader, surgical triage officer.
infrastructure that consists of 16 major bases in the US and Japan and all the equipment personnel and facilities to operated them
Supporting establishment
Who ensures readiness of Navy Medical personnel and material?
Surgeon General, N093. Chief, BUMED, M00.
Who is the principal advisor to the CNO?
Surgeon General, N093. Chief, BUMED, M00.
What USCM Level 2 medical care provides stabilizing surgical care for a MEF?
Surgical Company.
What is the term used to describe the sterilization, storage and handling of articles to keep them free of pathogenic organisms? 1.Surgical aseptic technique 2.Spray-wipe-spray 3.Medical asepsis 4.Isolation technique
Surgical aseptic technique
Within the emergent triage staff, who is responsible for determining priority for operative interventions?
Surgical triage officer, Team Leader.
An IP's time should be divided among what activities?
Surveillance. Data management. Policy and procedure development. Education. Employee health. Quality improvement. Consulting. Investigating potential outbreaks.
Conservation and restoration of energy are the result of nerve impulses arising from which, if any, of the following nervous systems?
Sympathetic
The autonomic nervous system is composed of two main divisions.
Sympathetic and parasympathetic systems
10-12
Symptoms of smallpox infection usually appear within how many days after exposure to the virus?
A nerve, cell, or neuron is composed of all of the following EXCEPT a/an?
Synapse
The space through which a nerve impulse passes from one neuron to another is called a/an?
Synapse
From combat zone to points outside of combat zone
TACEVAC
Waht is the dod health care program for active duty and retired members of the uniformed services, their familes and survivors?
TRICARE
What is a medical benefits program established to manage the care services in military MTF's?
TRICARE
Who may elect to have a fleet-wide medical and dental QA program under the cognizance of the fleet medical and dental officer?
TYCOMS
Who must approve stock levels of controlled medicinals above allowance quantities?
TYCOMs.
65
The BAS of an infantry battalion is normally comprised of two medical officers and up to how many HMs, depending on the size of the battalion?
Who may request an autopsy be done at the navy's expense?
The CO
Who is responsible for the operation of the pharmacy?
The Commanding Officer
Who shall establish and enforce an effective heat stress policy that ensures personnel heat exposures are limited per chapter B2?
The Commanding Officer
4
The DD Form 2766 is divided into how many pages?
Preparing Part III (Back of Center Page) NAVMED 6150/21-30.
The Disclosure Accounting Record is preprinted and located where?
Class 1 or 2
The Fleet and Force Dental Officers ensure that the fleet is dental ready. A service member who is what class is considered worldwide deployable?
Preparing Part IV (Inside Back Cover) NAVMED 6150/21-30.
The Forensic Examination form is preprinted and located where?
Patient rights and responsibilities are standards addressed by what organization? 1.Commander, Navy Medical Command (formerly Bureau of Medicine and Surgery) 2.American Medical Association (AMA) 3.The Joint Commission (TJC) 4.National League of Nursing (NLN)
The Joint Commission (TJC)
The time setting on the X-Ray machine is measured by using which of the following methods?
The MAS (milliampere per second) controls the exposure time to the patient14
Who will review all engineering and non-engineering heat stress surveys to determine obvious inaccuracies, reduced PHEL stay times, and any personnel protective actions being taken?
The MDR
The SG maintains cognizance and provides capabilities supporting Force Health Protection requirements to operating Navy and Marine Corps forces in coordination with whom?
The Medical Officer of the Marine Corps.
Terminal Digit Filing System (TDFS)
The Navy Medical Department uses what system to file health records?
Annual
The PHA provides the opportunity to assess changes in a members health on what basis that could potentially impact the ability to perform military duites and deploy worldwide?
48
The SF 539 may be used as a substitute for the narrative summary for those admissions of a minor nature that require less than how many hours of hospitalization?
Daily
The Sick Call Treatment Log report is forwarded to the commanding Officer on what basis?
The nipple line is at what level?
The T4 level and anything below it will probably involve abdominal injuries
What can happen if Military Anti-Shock Trousers (MAST) are used?
The patient may develop compartment syndrome
A medical record is the property of whom?
The U.S. government
What bone acts as passage for the spinal cord into the head?
The Vertebral forehead
What is Anodontia?
The absence of single or multiple teeth
Who will escort the remains of an OCONUS to conus transfer?
The aircraft commander
Which of the following is not a concern about the distance a casualty can be carried?
The amount of radiation with which the victim is contaminated
60
The average is from 1 to 7 days, although incubation periods of up to how many days can be possible for anthrax?
What forms the shoulder joint?
The pectoral girdle and the fossa articulates
Personnel who have received a color vision discrimination test on PIP must be retested as soon as a FALANT is available.
True
*What are signs of heat stroke?*
The casualty will be flushed, very dry, and very hot.
If the surgeon asks for a specific kind of suture in the middle of a surgical case, who should retrieve it? 1.The scrub tech 2.The most junior corpsman 3.The surgeon 4.The circulator
The circulator
What is necrosis?
The death of tissue is called necrosis. Pulpal necrosis occurs as a result of untreated pulpitis.
What causes goose bumps?
The small muscles called arrector
Who will review heat stress surveys and ensure stay times for engineering/reactor personnel are being properly determined?
The engineering officer/reactor officer
A patient who has been fitted with a cast should be instructed to return to the medical treatment facility as soon as possible under which of the following circumstances?
The extremity affected by the cast is numb
World War I
The first large-scale use of chemical agents came during what conflict?
WWII
The first use of an atomic weapon during war took place during what?
CATASTROPHIC I
The hazard may cause death, loss of facility/asset or result in grave damage to national interests.
MARGINAL III
The hazard may cause minor injury, illness, property damage, damage to national, service or command interests or degradation to efficient use of assets.
CRITICAL II
The hazard may cause severe injury, illness, property damage, damage to national or service interests or degradation to efficient use of assets.
NEGLIGIBLE IV
The hazard presents a minimal threat to personnel safety or health property, national, service or command interests or efficient use of assets.
Preparing Part II (Front of Center Page) NAVMED 6150/21-30.
The imprint of DD 2005, Privacy Act Statement form is preprinted and located where?
0.5%
The initial management of a casualty contaminated by chemical agents will require removal of MOPP and decontamination with what percent hypochlorite before treatment?
Toxic dose
The lease amount of medication that will produce symptoms of poisoning
SECNAVINST 6230.4
The specific protocol for recording anthrax immunizations is outlined in what series?
What is attrition?
The loss of substance of a tooth from a wearing away process caused by teeth against teeth.
What is a cleft lip?
The maxillary and medial nasal processes fail to fuse.
Responsibility of MDR for asbestos
The medical department representative shall implement, if applicable, an AMSP (asbestos surveillance program)
exsanguinating hemorrhage is the cause of what?
The most preventable deaths during war.
What is CASEVAC?
The movement of a casualty from the point of injury to medical treatment by nonmedical personnel.
Yellow Fever
The only approved VHF vaccination is for what?
Poisoning is defined as contact with or exposure to a toxic substance.
True
The standard of practice limitations imposed upon a healthcare provider are based on local regulations and which of the following elements? 1.The rating's occupational standards 2.The rate training manual 3.The provider's training and experience 4.All of the above
The provider's training and experience
A concurrent performance evaluation report must be countersigned by whom?
The regular reporting senior.
Which number should be blacked out on a medical record?
The same digit as the last digit of the applicable SSN
What is oral pathology?
The science that treats the nature, causes, and development of oral diseases.
Who may assign and qualify departmental personnel to conduct heat stress surveys or access AHSS readings of departmental spaces?
The supply officer, air boss, and other department heads
Each individual treatment team will coordinate movement with whom?
The team leader, surgical triage officer.
What is a MEDEVAC?
The timely, efficient movement and en route care provided by medical personnel to the wounded being evacuated from the battlefield to MTFs, using medically equipped vehicles or aircraft.
A patient with a periapical abscess may complain of which of the following symptoms?
The tooth "feels longer" than the others
T or F. Theatre MTF's may not go dircctly to the ASMBPL for blood.
True
What is the key identifying feature of the North American coral snake that distinguishes it from other snakes with similar markings?
The yellow band is always next to the red band
Which is the best form of communication for, Developing a patient's history of a complaint? A.Contact point communication B.Therapeutic communication
Therapeutic communication
Which is the best form of communication for, Providing self-care instructions to a patient released to convalescent leave? A.Contact point communication B.Therapeutic communication
Therapeutic communication
Eight
There are a total of how many NMCBs home ported in Gulfport, MS and Port Hueneme, CA? `
Three
There are how many different types of Biological Agents used as weapons?
Three
There are how many types of anthrax in humans?
Which statement is false concerning Normal Saline?
There are no dangers in giving "too much" normal saline.
characteristics and properties of Xrays are
They travel in straight lines at the speed of light • They affect photographic film by producing a hidden image made visible by processing • They cause certain substances to fluoresce (glow) • They cause irritation of living cells. In large amounts can cause necrosis (death) of the cells, a fact that necessitates caution in using X-rays
What burn is a full-thickness injury penetrating into muscle and fatty connective tissues? Tissues and nerves are destroyed. Shock, with blood in urine, is likely to be present. Tissue ranges from white (scalds) to black (charring).
Third-degree burn
SORTS C4
Unit is unable to perform its wartime mission unless it is provided additional resources or training
What is the topic of chapter 16 of the Emergency War Surgery manual?
Thoracic Injuries
How many sinks are needed to allow personnel to perform the manual scrubbing method? 1.One 2.Two 3.Three 4.Four
Three
Prisoner patients fall into how many categories of eligible beneficiaries?
Three
When death occurs OCONUS how many signed copies must accompany the remins to CONUS?
Three signed copies
*During a surgical cricothyroidotomy, where is the horizontal incision made?*
Through the cricothyroid membrane, which is between the thyroid cartilage (Adam's apple) and the cricoid cartilage.
What type of related shelf life presumes that after the expiration date the item is considered outdated and should not be used? 1.Pack 2.Time 3.Event 4.Damaged
Time
What is the treatment for all injuries to the diaphragm?
To close all injuries
What is the function of leukocytes?
To control various disease
Anthrax
What (Bacillus anthracis) is a disease caused by the bacterium Bacillus anthracis?
What is the chief purpose of teeth pulp?
To form dentin
In addition to preventing excessive blood loss, the formation of a blood clot serves which, if any, of the following purposes?
To form the foundation for new tissue growth
What is the goal of the proactive HAIPC Program?
To have zero tolerance for HAIs, taking action to prevent or minimize effects of such adverse events.
Personal and medical information learned about a patient as the result of the HM position is privileged and must not be shared with unauthorized individuals. 1.True 2.False
True
A Complete Blood Count includes which of the following?
Total RBC count 2. Hematocrit 3. Differential WBC count
What is a late sign that results from an unequal intrathoracic pressure in the chest cavity?
Tracheal deviation
Why are sand flies of medical importance?
Transfer Leishmaniasis
The function of hemoglobin in the body is to?
Transport oxygen to the tissues
Along what plane do the precordial leads record the heart's electrical conduction?
Transverse
What are the most common injuries/syndromes for returning soldiers from Iraq and Afghanistan?
Traumatic Brain Injury (TBI) and PTSD (Post-Traumatic Stress Disorder)
What are the main components of t-rations?
Tray Packs
How are heat exhaustion patient's treated?
Treat as if the casualty were in shock
Which is a true statement when treating a patient that is radioactively contaminated?
Treatment of life threatening injuries takes precedence over decontamination procedures
What is the topic chapter 3 Emergency War Surgery?
Triage
What is the dynamic process of sorting casualties to identify the priority of treatment and evacuation of the wounded?
Triage.
A tolerance level of only 3 or more insects per pound are allowed in stored foods for what kind of beetle?
Tribolium
This nerve receives sensory input from the face.
Trigeminal
Which nerve is responsible for sensation in the forehead?
Trigeminal
An infestation of one or more living or dead larvae of what beetle shall be justification for condemnation of the lot?
Trogoderma
What is the other name for the Khapra Beetle?
Trogoderma Grenarium
Infants and children require a greater daily protein intake then adults.
True
the Naval School of Health Sciences in Bethesda Maryland will conduct how many educational workshops each year in the principles, components, and management of QA programs for Naval Medical Department personnel?
Two
What does an inventory board consist of?
Two members, one of which is normally a officer
Sievert (Sv)
Two other units that may be used to express radiation units are Roentgen equivalent man (Rem) and what else?
What shore type commands fall under the Navy Shore SOY program?
Type 1 and Type 6.
What is the ideal examination, for it is the most extensive dental examination?
Type-1
What is a comprehensive hard and soft tissue dental examination?
Type-2
What type of dental examination consists of a mouth-mirror and explorer or tongue depressor examination with whatever illumination is available?
Type-4
What must spill response personnel wear?
Tyvex suit, rubber gloves, face shield
Armed Service Whole Blood Processing Laboratories (ASWBPL) are managed by what branch of service?
US Air Force
What standerd do fruits and vegetables fall under?
USDA Standards
What commissioning program's academic curriculum focuses primarily on technical fields of study such as engineering, math, and physics?
USNA.
The agreement to a contract with a vendor without the appropriate level of authority is also known as? 1.Commitment 2.Obligation 3.Unauthorized commitment 4.Ratification
Unauthorized commitment
100
Under the Terminal Digit Filing System, the central files are divided into how many approximately equal sections?
What is an important element of triage to prevent clogging the system?
Unidirectional flow of patients.
SORTS C3
Unit is capable of undertaking a major portion of its wartime mission; major deficiencies
SORTS C2
Unit is capable of undertaking bulk of its wartime mission; substantially combat ready
SORTS C1
Unit is capable of undertaking the full wartime mission is was organized and designed for; fully mission capable
SORTS C5
Unit is not able to perform its wartime mission and is not mission capable
Nerve
What agents are of greatest concern as compared to all chemical agents?
What is a screened 55 gallon drum designed to receive and trap urine and to dispose of it through the soakage pit?
Urinoils
How many times is medication compared to MAR?
Use MAR to prepare medications. 1) Before removing from shelf or drawer 2) As the amount of medication ordered is removed from container 3) Before returning container to storage
If you must remain under fire, stop external bleeding with?
Use of a tourniquet * Do not endanger the casualty or yourself with unnecessary treatment. Stay engaged in the firefight if necessary. Keep Your Head Down*
The bisecting angle technique
Use the bisecting-angle technique when paralleling devices are not available; when a patient finds it painful or impossible to close on the bite-block; or when an X-ray is needed when a rubber dam is in place.
Which one of these choices should be placed in a Biohazardous waste receptacle? 1.Wet towel 2.Urine soaked sheets 3.Used I.V. catheter 4.Sterile gear wrapper
Used I.V. catheter
How long does it take an individual to become acclimated to heat?
Usually requiring 3 weeks
What is a periodontal abscess?
Usually results from long-continued irritation by food debris, plaque, deep deposits of calculus, or foreign objects.
How is Q fever transmitted?
Usually via aerosols
MTF's and DTF's will have what type of programs to monitor resource use and to recommend ways to balance assigned mission statements with existing health care resources?
Utilization Review
Of the following nerves, which, if any, controls the larynx during the process of breathing?
Vagus
Which nerve is responsible for controlling the voice box?
Vagus nerve
The only person who can validate a request, which then becomes an AE requirement
Validating Flight Surgeon at the PMRC
What is a determination concerning a monitor outcome confirmed throughout the peer review process?
Validation
A _____ is any animal capable of transmitting pathogens or producing human or animal discomfort or injury. 1.Pest 2.Pathogen 3.Vector 4.Virus
Vector
What are organisms which transmit disease to man, act as intermediate hosts or reservoirs of disease, present problems of sanitary or hygienic significance, or otherwise affects the health and efficiency of personnel?
Vector
Which of the following is considered the preferred source for blood specimens obtained for clinical examination?
Venipuncture
How are Plague transmitted?
Via infected fleas from rodents to humans, dog or cat to humans. Also, respiratory transmission human-human via droplets.
*For alkali burns, mix 1 or 2 teaspoons of ____ to a pint of water and flush it over the affected area.*
Vinegar
Four
Viral hemorrhagic fevers (VHFs) refer to a group of illnesses that are caused by how many distinct families of viruses?
What is Hairy Leukoplakia?
Viral infection on the tongue with lesions that appear as white and slightly raised.
What operational program may be used on some operational platforms to treat critical patients in a mass casualty situation when delay of blood products would cause a critical delay?
WBB `
Which study within a CBC often provides the most helpful information in determining the severity and type of infection?
WBC differential
What is the most effective means of assessing the effect of heat stress on the human body?
WBGT
The Naval Reserve Personnel Center - (NRPC), New Orleans
WHO is the HREC custodian for inactive reserve personnel and is responsible for records' preparation and maintenance?
Which ambulatory device provides the most stability?
Walkers
A patient presents exhibiting signs of anaphylactic reaction to a bee or wasp sting. Of the following, which is NOT considered appropriate treatment
Warm packs over the sting site
Which of the following solutions should be used to irrigate the tissue flap if a patient has pericoronitis?
Warm saline solution
Re-warming shock can be minimized by doing what?
Warming the body trunk before the limbs to prevent vasodilation in the extremities
What is the third GI can used for?
Washing
What is the most important nutrient?
Water
What is Ch.6 of NAVMED P-5010?
Water Supply Afloat
How often are ice machines tested?
Weekly
How often should the shipboard pest control specialist conduct a cockroach survey in food service areas where infestations have been found?
Weekly (until no more cockroaches present)
How is sanitation done for cockroach control on submarines?
Weekly berthing inspections by MDR
Which factor has a more direct bearing on dose
Weight
What is the leading cause of nutrition related diseases in the environment in which humans live?
Weight gain
What is WBGT?
Wet Bulb Globe Thermometer
DREC
What contains all documents of dental care provided during a member's career?
Temporary
What directives are normally issued as a notice to request comments or approval, and announce information such as a change of command or education and promotion opportunities?
Permanent
What directives regulate administration, establish policy, delegate authority, and assign a mission function or task?
Vesicants
What exert their primary action on the skin, producing large and painful blisters that are incapacitating?
DD Form 1141
What form is initiated when military personnel are first exposed to ionizing radiation (with the exception of patients incurring such radiation while undergoing diagnostic treatment)?
SF 509
What form is routinely used for inpatient admission notes and is filed in the patient's IREC?
NAVMED 6600/3
What form is the Dental Health Questionnaire?
DD Form 771
What form is used to order corrective prescription eyewear?
SF 502
What form is used to summarize clinical data relative to treatment received during periods of hospitalization?
Phosgene
What is a colorless gas with a distinctive odor similar to that of new-mown hay or freshly cut grass?
AN/UDR 13
What is a compact, handheld, or pocket carried, tactical device that can measure prompt gamma/neutron doses from a nuclear event?
MLG
What is a composite grouping of functional units providing combat service support beyond the organic capability of all elements of the FMF?
HREC
What is a file of continuous care given to active duty members and documents all outpatient care provided during a member's career?
OREC
What is a file of continuous care that documents ambulatory treatment received by a person other than an active duty person, i.e. retiree and family members?
Beta radiation
What is a light, short-range particle and is actually an ejected electron?
Chronic Radiation Syndrome (CRS)
What is a medical condition caused by long term exposure to low dose radiation? `
IREC
What is a medical file that documents care provided to a patient assigned to a designated inpatient bed at an MTF or ship?
AN/PDQ-1
What is a multi range Radiac device that detects beta and gamma radiation?
Smallpox
What is a serious, contagious, and sometimes fatal infectious disease caused by the variola virus that emerged in human populations thousands of years ago?
ATNAA
What is a single autoinjector that has two chambers that deliver 2.1 mg of Atropine and 600mg of 2-PAM CL in a single injection?
Acute Radiation Syndrome (ARS)
What is an acute illness caused by irradiation of the body by high dose of penetrating radiation in a very short period of time, usually a matter of minutes?
MRRS
What is an administrative managment tool that is used to track the medical and dental readiness of every active duty and reserve Sailor or Marine?
SAMS
What is an administrative managment tool that tracks the medical and dental readiness of Navy and Marine Corps operational units?
Shielding
What is an essential component in preventing/reducing radiation exposure?
Plague
What is an infectious disease that affects animals and humans and is caused by the bacterium Yersinia pestis?
RDD
What is any device that causes the purposeful dissemination of radioactive material across an area without a nuclear detonation?
Ricin
What is derived from the beans of the castor plant (Ricinus communis) and can be made from the waste material left over from processing castor beans and is a potent toxin that has potential to be used as an agent of biological warfare and as a weapon of mass destruction?
EZ603A
What is the Dental Treatment Form?
Privacy Act Statement
What is the form for the Privacy Act Statement?
Bubonic
What is the most common form of plague?
Lead
What is the most effective shielding material in preventing/reducing radiation exposure?
M9 paper
What is the most widely used method of detecting liquid chemical warfare agents?
what is a dispute with certain payment and coverage dcisions made by tricare?
appeal
What is an open pneumothorax? How is it treated?
When air enters the pleural space through a chest wound causing the lung to collapse when the air enters in and out of the pleural space. Three sided-taped occlusive dressing / ACS.
What is a tension pneumothorax? How is it treated?
When air enters the pleural space through a hole in the lung, expanding the confined pleural space with every breath. Treat with needle chest decompression if indicated.
When will remains not be escorted by an escort?
When flying OCONUS to CONUS
When can pesticides be sprayed on a submarine?
When in port and able to ventilate outboard for at least 24 hours
1 year
When loose treatment forms are discovered, every effort should be made to determine the present location of the record. If reasonable search efforts do not locate the record, retain loose forms for a period of how long?
Charge out guide
When open-shelf filing is used for records, what may be used in conjunction with the charge out form?
Ionization
When radiation interacts with atoms, energy is deposited, resulting in what?
10
When recording positive results (how many mm or more induration) of the tuberculin skin test (TST), refer to BUMEDINST 6224.8 series Tuberculosis Control Program, for guidance?
When are cat holes used for human waste?
When troops are on march
When does a patient require an elective surgery?
Whenever the patient needs surgery but is able to schedule for the operation
What instuments are used to transport and place dental cements,resins, temporaries, and insulating and pulpcapping materials?
composite resin
What may reduce pelvic bleeding besides stabilization of pelvic fracture with MAST garment?
Wrapping the pelvis tightly with a wide strap (such as a folded sheet)
Cane height is measured from the floor to the
Wrist
What is the pressure point and artery for the hand?
Wrist Radial/ulnar
Surgeon General of the Navy
Who is the official responsible for administering and supervising the execution of SECNAVINST 5211.5 series, Department of the Navy Privacy Act Program (PAP), as it pertains to the Health Care Treatment Record System?
How will the deceased be sealed?
With pressure sensitive tape or heat sealed
15
With recent advances in diagnostic testing, biological agents can be detected in the field. A first-line presumptive test is the Hand-Held Assay Panel that can make and indication of the presence of several biological agents within how many minutes?
An Army FST can be operational within what time frame of arrival at the supported company?
Within 1 hour.
When must a prescription for a non-controlled medication be filled by?
Within 1 year of the prescription date
When should separation physicals be performed?
Within 180 days of the members last active duty day.
Retirement exams and evaluations should be completed within how many days of the members last active duty day?
Within 180 days.
Time for ROUTINE Casualties, Condition of casualty
Within 24 hrs all other services, Air Force within 72 hrs
Personnel shall not be authorized to submit applications to OCS or ODS if within what time frame of transfer or separation?
Within 3 months.
How long do a service member and family have to complete the overseas screening physical?
Within 30 days of receiving orders
When must a prescription for a Schedule II drug be filled by?
Within 30 days of the date of prescription
When must a prescription for Schedule III, IV, and V drugs be filled by?
Within 6 months of the prescription date
What was the name of the first hospital school for women called?
Women Accepted For Volunteer Emergency Service (WAVES)
How will remains be transferred?
Wrapped in a white cotton sheet with a second layer of polyethylene cover
What is contained in AMAL 627?
X-Ray.
When the WBGT index is between 85 and 87.9 what color flag is flown?
Yellow
Which urine color is most related with the presence of bile?
Yellow or brown
What is another name for Plague?
Yersinia pestis
Do general officers and flag officers (0-7 and above) receive special record categories?
Yes
Would a retiree who died at a military treatment facility require an autopsy?
Yes
While in the process of doing a minor procedure the HM's glove is punctured by a suture and it breaks the skin, should the HM report it to occupational health? 1.No, because it's a minor procedure 2.Yes, any puncture injury with possible contaminated fluid should be reported 3.No, because the patient says he doesn't have anything 4.Maybe, if I bleed a lot
Yes, any puncture injury with possible contaminated fluid should be reported
Surgical patients who do not consume enough of _____ mineral found in shellfish could have poor wound healing.
Zinc
What are diseases transmitted under natural conditions from vertebrate animals to man either directly (rabies) or indirectly by vector borne means (plague)?
Zoonotic Disease
Young's rule
[age in years/(age in years + 12)] x adult dose = child's dose
Each EART team shall consist of
a supervisor, a cutter, and a cleaner
It is impossible to identify asbestos based solely on what?
a visual inspection
what percent of rh positive will be given to rh negative
about 10%
If the dressing becomes thoroughly saturated, reevaluate the wound for a source of bleeding amenable to direct pressure, and consider what?
advanced hemostatic agents or a proximal tourniquet.
Ships requirements for asbestos:
all ships shall implement and maintain an asbestos management plan
what term is the max amount tc wil lauthroize for medical and other services furnished in an inpatinet or outpaitent setting?
allowable chare
rhabdomyolysis
an efflux of potassium, nephorotoxic metabolites, myoglobin, purines
what type of excision must be performed?
an excision of 1-2mm which is conservative
what are the 2 compartments of the arm
anterior flexors adnn posterior extensors
When should therapy be initiated?
as soon as possible.
ACM
asbestos containing material
Navy policy concerning asbestos
asbestos-contaminated insulating materials will not be used on U.S. ships.
Inhalation of asbestos fibers has been demonstrated to cause at least two distinct disease states
asbestosis and cancer
Where should RWM be seperated from other waste?
at its point of origin
physicians, PA, RN, advanced RN, IDC, independent duty medical technician, or special forces medical sergeants are examples of
authorized personnel to conduct DHA interviews
what term is used to describe when a provider bills a beneficary for the rest of the charges?
balance billing
Why is a pneumonectomy a last resort?
because it has a 90% mortality rate
What is the risk of closing an exit point
because of positive pressure the risk is an air embolism
The two most common types of chisels used in operative dentistry are the wedelstaedt and what other chisels?
biangle
When the carving is complete, the dentist may use what to smooth and polish the restoration?
burnishers
the lung parenchyma is best managed by what
by the insertion of a chest tube and basic wound treatment.
What is Sarcomas?
cancer that affects the supportive and connective tissues, such as the bones of the jaw.
shock caused by cardiac pump failure, either caused by trauma or pressure
cardiogenic shock
the items used to give local anesthetics are an aspirating syringe, a needle, and a waht?
carpule
active component and reserve component service members must complete an DHA process during individual and unit deployments to
central command area of responsibility (AOR)
What are used to cleave (split) tooth enamel, smooth cavity walls, and sharpen cavity preparations?
chisels
What are the 4 "c"s
color, contraction, consistency and circulation
advises the USMC commander on all medical matters
force surgeon
while enrolled in tricare prime the wait time for a specialty care appt or wellness visit shall not exceed how long?
four weeks
What is regulated medical waste? RMW
generated during diagnosis, treatment, or immunizations of humans or animals and is capable of causing disease or would pose other adverse health risks to individuals or the community if properly handled.
active component and reserve component service members must complete an DHA process if the commander exercising operational control determines what exists
health threats
the DHA process supports the DoD health protection strategy to deploy
healthy, fit, and medically ready forces
Which type of shock do you treat first?
hemorrhagic shock
What is the most common of all HSV-1 lesions?
herpes labialis
HMMWV stands for
high mobility multipurpose WHeeleed vehicle
what is aaialbe in liu of other triacre benefits to provide palliative care to indivuals with prognoses of less than six montsh to live if the terminal illness runs its course?
hospice care
shock caused by diminished poor perfusion throughout the body
hypovolemic shock
the DHA process helps minimize what on deployments
illnesses and injuries
What is the single most important and life-saving intervention in treatment of chest injuries
immediate recognition
When do you suspect CS injuries
in people who were trapped.
What is the method of treatment and disposal of pathological?
incineration/cremation sanitary landfill/burial
the purpose of this care is to provide emergency surgical procedure which constitute resuscitation, characteristic of surge co and crt's
initial resucitative care
What is the usual result for high velocity injuries to the heart?
irreparable destruction of the muscle
What is the best way to expose the heart
is through a median sternotomy
why is whole blood the best for transfusion
it contains clotting factors that can be used for lifesaving
What position should you place the patient until a formal airway is established?
lateral or prone position (rescue position)
5 levels of care
level 1: first aid level 2: initial resuscitative care level 3:resuscitative care level 4: definitive care level 5: convalescent, restorative and rehabilitative care
what level of tx does the MED BN provide
level 2, initial resuscitative tx
what level of dental services does the DN BN provide in garrisson
level 4
When do you add blood to shock hemorrage
loss of 30 to 40% of blood loss
4 broad Categories of USMC
marfor, macor res, supporting establishment, HQ USMC
Friable ACM is defined as
material that can be crumbled, pulverized, or reduced to powder under hand pressure, thereby releasing airborne fibers.
medical duties and facilities available within the USMC are detailed in what publication
mcwp 4-11.1 HSSO
a printed copy of the completed dha form electronically signed by a health care provider will be kept in the patients
medical treatment record
Pathological wastes not immediately processed must be frozen if stored for how long?
more than 24 hours
spinal injuries can cause this type of shock
neurogenic shock
does a bandage equal direct pressure
no
Do you pack an open soft tissue wound
no it prevents wound drainage
Are antibiotics a replacement for surgical treatment
no, they are therapeutic not prphylactic
What shall thermometers be hung with?
non-heat conducting material such as plastic tiewrap or string (never hang with metal wire)
what is a certification from an mtf that a specific health care service or procedure cannot be provide
nonavailability statement
When does the MDR conduct heat stress surveys in engineering spaces?
on submarines
while enrolled in tricare prime the wait time for a routine appt shall not exceed how long?
one week
signs and symptoms of shock
poor skin turgor, pallor, cool extremities, cap refill greater than 2seconds,
Which of the following colors would be considered abnormal in a urine sample?
red
Which urine color is most related with the presence of blood?
red
A decreased red blood cell (RBC) count could be the result of a medical condition affecting the?
red marrow
CK has a direct relationship to urine colors what are they?
reddish brown, or port wine or iced tea urine (usually ck level greater than 100,000iu/ml
what is the goal of treating for shock?
restore proper tissue perfusion and oxygen delivery throughout the body
level of care provided at combat zone fleet hospitals and hospital ships.
resucitative care
The MDR should
review all engineering and non-engineering heat stress surveys to determine obvious inaccuracies, reduced PHEL stay times, and any personnel protective actions being taken
What is the goal in treatment of soft-tissue injury
save lives, preserve function, minimize morbidity and prevent infections through early and aggressive treatment
What evidence indicates infectious waste poses no greater threat to public health and enviroment than residential waste?
scientific evidence
service members separating from service prior to 90 to 180 day window shall receive a concurrent PDHRA and
separation health assessment
What are the Reservoirs for Brucellosis?
sheep,goats,cattle swine, dogs and cayotes
the DHA will be required if service members are assigned to what conducting routine deployments
ships and squadrons
clinical condition marked by inadequate organ perfusion and tissue oxygenation. tachycardia, hypotension, cap refill > 2 sec
shock
tricare helps pay for maternity care during prengancy, delivery of the bayby and up to how long after the baby is born?
six weeks
Navy policy is to eliminate asbestos exposure hazards by
substitution of ACM with asbestos-free materials
The body's primary thermo-regulatory action is a function of dilating and contracting blood vessels and the?
sweat glands
What are non-obvious life-threats
tension pneumothorax, massive hemothorax, cardiac tamponade
Time Weighted Mean WBGT values
the TWM WBGT is for use in especially hot environments where reduced stay times have been imposed on watch/work standers
Which of the following oragns will not be seen in a KUB radiograph?
the liver
What is a cleft palate?
the palate shelves, right and left side do not fuse leaving a space.
An advanced hemostatic agent is used after a tourniquet has been placed. What should you do concerning the tourniquet?
the tourniquet may be carefully removed after the agent has achieved hemostasis and the wound observed for hemorrhage. If hemorrhage recurs, return to the tourniquet.
Vasopressor have what role in initial treatment of shock
they have no role.
the DHA process consists of how many components
three
the top consists of how many oversess region
three
Annual Contracts are awarded to funeral directors serving the local area of activities anticipating how many deaths per year?
three or more
Radiation exposure should be managed by what 4 factors
time, distance, amount, shielding
Dental materials are exchaged under the patient's chin and over the patient's chest in what zone?
transfer
htough what program ceratin univormed services member and their family members may be eligible for transitional health care benetifs when the sponsr separates from ad servide?
transitional assiatnance mgt program
Armed Service Whole Blood Processing Laboratories (ASWBPL) are Staffed by who?
tri-Service
what is the dod managed health care program fora ll geopraphic areas and territorail waters outside the 5o us states?
tricare overseas program
what offers fewer opt out of pocket costs that any other tricare optoin?
tricare prime
True or False. Dry-bulb thermometers must still be mounted on ships with AHSS.
true
what services are medically necessary services which are requried for an illness or injury that would not result in further disabiltity or death if not treated immediatley, but require professional attention and have the potential to devolop such a threat if tx is delayed longer than24 hours?
urgent care
How is WBGT index calculated?
using dry bulb, wet bulb, and globe temperature
In HAZMAT management situations, site control is divided into 3 zones. In which zone does personnel decontamination happen?
warm zone
Any ship whose keel was laid during or after 1980
was prohibited from being constructed with TSI, and by definition, does not require an EART.
In the United States, oxygen bottles are colored green. What is the international color code of oxygen bottles?
white
Any ship whose keel was laid prior to 1980
will be considered to contain friable asbestos thermal systems insulation (TSI), and shall therefore maintain an EART (emergency asbestos response team)
who is the claims processor for claims for beneficiaries who are eleigible for both tricare and medicare?
wisconsin physicans service
when should surgery to prevent infection be?
within 6hrs.
What jeopardizes women who become pregnant
women who are transfused with rh positive blood when they are rh negative. This causes a seroconversion.
can an endotracheal tube be used in place of a chest tube?
yes it may be used if its an adult chest tube.
When mounting radiographs, the raised dimple should be facing?
you
