I & I Final

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Which of the following adult flies has a painful bite and feeds on blood? A. Stomoxys calcitrans B. Oestrus ovis C. Gasterophilus nasalis D. Musca autumnalis E. Cochliomyia hominivorax

A. Stomoxys calcitrans

True / False: Some Dipylidium caninum isolates have been reported to be resistant to treatments (with praziquantel & epsiprantel.) A. True B. False.

A. True

Brown Dog tick (aka Kennel tick) A. Amblyomma americanum B. Ixodes scapularis C. Haemaphysalis longicornis D. Dermacentor variabilis E. Rhipicephalus sanguineus

E. Rhipicephalus sanguineus

41. In heartworm infected dogs during adulticide treatment there is a correlation between activity level of the dog and severity of heartworm disease. A. true B. false

42. Which method would you use to detect microfilariae when there is a low microfilaremia? A. modified Knott test B. drop of blood under a coverslip C. McMasters test D. seeing microfilariae in the buffy coat on hematocrit assay

1. The nervous system of parasitic nematodes is the target of many highly effective anthelmintic drugs, including avermectin class drugs such as Ivermectin and Moxidectin. What in nematode survival would require the LEAST neurological function? A. feeding by oral ingestion B. movement within the host C. sexual reproduction D. hypobiosis or arrested development

Matching: Fasciola hepatica and Haemonchus contortus are parasitic worms of ruminants. Match each of these parasitic worms with the appropriate association. A. Haemonchus contortus B. Fasciola hepatica C. Both 80. Anemia 81. Nematode 82. Bile ducts 83. Sedimentation

80. Anemia - C 81. Nematode - A 82. Bile ducts - B 83. Sedimentation - B

Matching: Many digenetic trematodes utilize a second intermediate host or an environmental substrate to infect the definitive host. Knowledge of these 2nd intermediate hosts assists the veterinarian in planning means for controlling fluke infections. Match each listed fluke with the appropriate 2nd intermediate host or environmental substrate with which the fluke utilizes. A. Ants B. Aquatic Vegetation C. Crayfish D. Fish 84. Fasciola hepatica 85. Nanophyetus salmincola 86. Dicrocoelium dendriticum 87. Paragonimus kellicotti

84. Fasciola hepatica - B 85. Nanophyetus salmincola - D 86. Dicrocoelium dendriticum - A 87. Paragonimus kellicotti - C

Matching: Humans can become infected with both adult tapeworms & important larval tapeworms. Match the tapeworm / stage with the mode of infection in which a human may acquire the tapeworm / stage. A. Ingest larval tapeworm from raw pork B. Ingest tapeworm egg from dog feces C. Ingest larval tapeworm from raw beef D. Ingest tapeworm egg from human feces E. Ingest larval tapeworm in copepod 90. Echinococcus sp. hydatid cyst 91. Taenia solium larvae 92. Taenia saginata adult tapeworm 93. Spirometra sp. larvae 94. Taenia solium adult tapeworm

90. Echinococcus sp. hydatid cyst - B 91. Taenia solium larvae - D 92. Taenia saginata adult tapeworm - C 93. Spirometra sp. larvae - E 94. Taenia solium adult tapeworm - A

Successful treatment of Trichuris vulpis (whipworm) infection in dogs requires prolonged repeat dosing with an appropriate anthelmintic drug even when the source of reinfection from the environment can be avoided. This is because early developing immature larvae in the host are not easily killed by current anthelmintic drugs. How long is the prepatent time that must be covered by repeated drug treatment? A. 12 weeks B. 1 week C. 9 months

A. 12 weeks

Toxoplasma gondii is a serious zoonotic disease for pregnant women, with the potential for causing fetal defects. Which of the following presents the greatest risk for congenital toxoplasmosis in the human fetus? [Circle the correct answer] (2 points) A. A mother whose primary infection occurs early in pregnancy. B. A mother who is seropositive before pregnancy. C. An old indoor cat.

A. A mother whose primary infection occurs early in pregnancy.

Toxoplasma gondii is a serious zoonotic disease for pregnant women, with the potential for causing fetal defects. Which of the following presents the greatest risk for congenital toxoplasmosis in the human fetus? (2 points) A. A mother, whose primary infection occurs early in pregnancy. B. A mother who is seropositive before pregnancy. C. An old indoor cat

A. A mother, whose primary infection occurs early in pregnancy.

Which one of the following is a good general statement about the life cycle of digenetic trematodes? (2 points) A. A snail intermediate host is required. B. The infective (metacercarial) stage always encysts on aquatic vegetation. C. The miracidial stage is always aquatic: hatching from the ova and swimming to its next host. D. The second intermediate host is always a vertebrate. E. The adult fluke is always found in the small intestine of the definitive host.

A. A snail intermediate host is required.

Which one of the following is a good general statement about the life cycle of digenetic trematodes? A. A snail intermediate host is required. B. The infective (metacercarial) stage always encysts on aquatic vegetation. C. The miracidial stage is always aquatic: hatching from the ova and swimming to its next host. D. The second intermediate host is always a vertebrate. E. The adult fluke is always found in the small intestine of the definitive host.

A. A snail intermediate host is required.

Toxoplasma gondii is a serious zoonotic disease for pregnant women, with the potential for causing fetal defects. Which of the following has the most potential for transmitting T. gondii ? A. A young indoor/outdoor cat B. An old feral dog C. An old indoor cat

A. A young indoor/outdoor cat

A three year old cat is presented to your clinic with a chronic cough, loss of weight and lack of appetite. Thoracic radiographs show density in parenchymal tissue of the lungs. Examination of sputum from the cat produced during a coughing episode shows nematode larvae with a "S" shaped tail or spine. What nematode is most likely infecting this cat? A. Aelurostrongylus abstrusus B. Ancylostoma tubaeforme C. Toxocara cati D. Paragonimus kellicotti

A. Aelurostrongylus abstrusus

A three-year-old cat is presented to your clinic with a chronic cough, loss of weight and lack of appetite. Thoracic radiographs show density in parenchymal tissue of the lungs. Examination of sputum from the cat produced during a coughing episode shows nematode larvae with a "S" shaped tail or spine. What nematode is most likely infecting this cat? A. Aelurostrongylus abstrusus B. Ancylostoma tubaeforme C. Toxocara cati D. Paragonimus kellicotti

A. Aelurostrongylus abstrusus

For which of the follow are ticks vectors? A. All of the following B. Protozoal diseases C. Rickettsial Diseases D. Viral Diseases E. Bacterial Diseases

A. All of the following

Severe anemia in puppies less than 2 weeks old with negative fecal ova results may be due to which nematode infection? A. Ancylostoma caninum. B. Uncinaria stenocephala. C. Toxocara canis. D. Strongyloides stercoralis.

A. Ancylostoma caninum.

A canine is brought to your clinic. The dog is very lethargic & has a fever. Which list of canine protozoan parasites would be on your differential list? (2 points) A. Babesia canis, Babesia gibsoni, Leishmania infantum B. Neospora caninum, Sarcocystis cruzi, Trypanosoma cruzi C. Isospora canis, Isospora ohioensis, Giardia sp. Assemblage C D. Nanophyetus salmincola, Paragonimus kellicotti, Heterobilharzia americanum

A. Babesia canis, Babesia gibsoni, Leishmania infantum

Which tick-borne canine parasite should you consider if presented with an American Pit Bull Terrier with lethargy, pale mucous membranes, fever, lymphadenomegaly? [Circle the correct answer] (2 points) A. Babesia gibsoni B. Leishmania infantum C. Cytauxzoon felis D. Neospora caninum E. Babesia canis

A. Babesia gibsoni

When treating for lice, why is it important to determine what type of louse is infesting the animal? A. Chewing lice are not killed by systemic insecticides. B. Sucking lice are not killed by systemic insecticides. C. Chewing lice are not killed by topical insecticides. D. Sucking lice are not killed by topical insecticides.

A. Chewing lice are not killed by systemic insecticides.

Dogs and Cats become infected with the lung fluke, Paragonimus kellicotti, when they ingest a _________________, that contains metacercarial larval stages. A. Crayfish B. Bird C. Fish D. Rodent E. Rabbit

A. Crayfish

Which protozoan parasite produces thin-shelled oocysts that allow the oocyst to hatch within the same host, resulting in autoinfection and possibly a fatal hyperinfection? [Circle the correct answer] (2 points) A. Cryptosporidium parvum B. Eimeria bovis C. Sarcocystis cruzi D. Tritrichomonas foetus E. Eimeria tenella

A. Cryptosporidium parvum

You work with a rescue group, which treats animals that have been subjected to hoarding conditions. At one such facility you find a female dog in a pen with 5 other dogs. The female dog has generalized crusting, erosions, ulcers, pustules, erythema. Practicing your Pathology, you describe the morphology as: marked subacute multifocal to coalescing hyperkeratotic, ulcerative and pustular dermatitis with deep pyoderma and cellulitis. Later during the inspection of the facilities you come across a male dog with a similar condition, but housed in a different pen. You are informed that the male dog is an offspring of the female dog. Of the 20 neglected dogs at this facility, these are the only 2 dogs demonstrating this pathology. What should be at the top of your differential list? A. Demodex canis B. Linognathus setosus C. Trichodectes canis D. Otodectes cynotis E. Sarcoptes scabiei (var. canis)

A. Demodex canis

Which poultry mite attacks birds at night but hides in the environment during the day; and causes irritation and decreased production? [Circle the correct answer] (2 points) A. Dermanyssus gallinae B. Ornithonyssus sylviarum C. Otodectes cynotis D. Demodex gallinarium E. Eimeria tenella

A. Dermanyssus gallinae

Which coccidian pathogen may result in bloody calf scours? A. Eimeria bovis B. Tritrichomonas foetus C. Cystoisospora spp. D. Cryptosporidium parvum E. Eimeria ovinoidalis

A. Eimeria bovis

How might one control the abortion causing protozoan, Sarcocystis cruzi? [Circle the correct answer] (2 points) A. Elimination of Stray Canids, Don't feed offal / scraps to dogs B. Fecal sanitation, Coccidiostats C. Use Sanitary Artificial Insemination, Surveillance of Bulls D. Elimination of Stray Felids, Eliminate Rodent paratenic hosts E. Keep Opossums out of feed bins, Eliminate fruit trees in pastures

A. Elimination of Stray Canids, Don't feed offal / scraps to dogs

Cystoisospora spp. primarily infect which cells in the definitive hosts? A. Enterocytes in the small intestines of carnivores B. Enterocytes in the large intestines of carnivores C. Enterocytes in the small intestines of herbivores D. Enterocytes in the large intestines of herbivores E. Enterocytes in poultry

A. Enterocytes in the small intestines of carnivores

A 6‐year‐old, indoor/outdoor cat presents to you with a fever, anorexia, signs of pneumonia and mild thoracic effusion. The cat is Toxoplasma gondii seropositive. What is the best assessment and next steps based on these results? A. Explain to the owners that the antibodies may only represent a previous exposure to Toxoplasma gondii and you want to collect an aspirate of the thoracic effusion to obtain a definitive diagnosis before treating. B. Diagnose the cat with toxoplasmosis and start a 4‐week treatment with clindamycin C. Explain to the owner the cat may have an active infection, but you want to perform serological testing in 4 weeks to see if the titers change before treating. D. Explain to the owners that cat has toxoplasmosis and there are no medications to treat T. gondii. You can only provide supportive care and send him home. E. Diagnose the cat with toxoplasmosis and explain to the owners the cat is shedding oocysts and needs to be euthanized because it is a zoonotic disease.

A. Explain to the owners that the antibodies may only represent a previous exposure to Toxoplasma gondii and you want to collect an aspirate of the thoracic effusion to obtain a definitive diagnosis before treating.

A new client contacts you with concerns about coccidiosis in his newly acquired lambs. As you outline a treatment and management plan, you warn your client about potential secondary problems that can develop due to the diarrhea and management, which include: A. Fly strike and bacterial enteritis B. Zoonotic infection C. Tissue cysts forming in the sheep if the pathogen moves past the intestinal wall and becomes systemic D. Fecal/coccidian oocyst contamination of horse feed causing serious illness in his horses E. Chronic large bowel infection that may never resolve

A. Fly strike and bacterial enteritis

Which mucoflagellate infects the small intestine of cats causing malabsorption and persistent smelly diarrhea? [Circle the correct answer] (2 points) A. Giardia sp. Assemblage F B. Tritrichomonas foetus C. Cystoisospora canis D. Eimeria vulpis E. Cystoisipora ohioensis

A. Giardia sp. Assemblage F

One of the two biting filth flies requires fresh manure to lay its eggs and have its maggots develop to pupae. Which one of the flies listed below is a biting fly that requires fresh manure? A. Haematobia irritans (horn fly) B. Musca domestica (common house fly) C. Gasterophilus (horse bot fly)

A. Haematobia irritans (horn fly)

An autopsy in September of a three year old ewe that has been grazing the same pasture during May to August in Wake county, NC shows 1.5 cm long nematodes on the surface of the abomasum. What genus of nematode is this most likely to be? A. Haemonchus B. Cooperia C. Nematoduris D. Dictyocaulus

A. Haemonchus

This blood fluke is generally found in the mesenteric vessels of raccoons and other wildlife, but can also infect dogs causing a severe disease, characterized by diarrhea, anorexia, weight loss and eventual death. [Circle the correct answer] (2 points) A. Heterobilharzia americana B. Nanophyetus salmincola C. Dicrocoelium dendriticum D. Paragonimus kellicotti E. Platynosomum fastosum

A. Heterobilharzia americana

This blood fluke is generally found in the mesenteric vessels of raccoons and other wildlife, but can also infect dogs causing a severe disease, characterized by diarrhea, anorexia, weight loss and eventual death. (2 points) A. Heterobilharzia americana B. Nanophyetus salmincola C. Dicrocoelium dendriticum D. Paragonimus kellicotti E. Platynosomum fastosum

A. Heterobilharzia americana

Cystoisospora suis is the most important coccidian of piglets; causing scours, dehydration, and weight loss. Within the "piglet herd", this coccidian manifests ___________________________ . [Circle the correct answer] (2 points) A. High Morbidity and Low Mortality B. Low Morbidity and High Mortality

A. High Morbidity and Low Mortality

A free-range swine farmer calls you out to attend to some 12 day old piglets with scours (diarrhea). You know that there are many causes of diarrhea in piglets, including viruses, bacteria, and protozoa. Which herd-disease characteristic would move Cystoisospora (Isospora) suis higher on your differential list? A. High Morbidity, Low Mortality B. Low Morbidity, High Mortality

A. High Morbidity, Low Mortality

A herd of piglets infected with Cystoisospora suis shows ________________. [Circle the correct answer] (2 points) A. High Morbidity, Low Mortality B. Low Morbidity, High Mortality

A. High Morbidity, Low Mortality

Which tick has the common name black-legged tick or deer tick? A. Ixodes scapularis B. Rhipicephalus sanguineus C. Dermacenter variablis D. Amblyomma americanum

A. Ixodes scapularis

Which protozoan parasite is rare in US dogs, infecting the macrophage system and manifests various clinical signs including skin & eye issues as well as lymphadenopathy? [Circle the correct answer] (2 points) A. Leishmania infantum B. Cystoisospora canis C. Sarcocystis cruzi D. Trypanosoma cruzi E. Neospora caninum

A. Leishmania infantum

When treating canine chewing lice with topical insecticides, why must one retreat in 7-14 days? [Circle the correct answer] (2 points) A. Lice nits are not killed by topical insecticides B. Lice eggs extensively contaminate the environment C. Lice from rodent hosts transfer to the dog D. Topical insecticides do not kill lice larvae that migrate through the body. E. Topical insecticides do not adhere very well to dog hair shafts, on which the lice feeds

A. Lice nits are not killed by topical insecticides

Which tapeworm requires complete elimination, as this tapeworm has the ability to asexually reproduce in the host. This allows the tapeworm to repopulate the host without reinfection? A. Mesocestoides corti B. Spirometra sp. C. Moniezia expansa D. Platynosomum fastosum E. Dipylidium caninum

A. Mesocestoides corti

Musca autumnalis (face fly) is associated with transmission of which one of the following common infections in cattle? A. Morexella bovis causing pink eye or keratoconjunctivitis B. Babesia bigemina causing bovine piroplasmosis (Texas fever) C. Anaplasma marginale causing hemolytic anemia in cattle D. Borrelia theileri causing bovine borreliosis in cattle

A. Morexella bovis causing pink eye or keratoconjunctivitis

In 1890, the Veterinary Division of the USDA's Bureau of Animal Industry reported for the first time in history that an arthropod can be a vector for a disease. The arthropod, Rhipicephalus (Boophilus) annulatus; the animal disease, Texas Cattle fever (Babesia bigemina). In 1906, the USDA created the Cattle Fever Tick Eradication Program and through a coordinated cattle dipping program (with an arsenical solution of white arsenic, soda, and pine tar) was able to eradicate Texas Cattle fever from the USA by 1954. This program was successful because Rhipicephalus (Boophilus) annulatus has a __________ life cycle. A. One host B. Two host C. Three host

A. One host

A rancher near Boone, NC (western region of NC) is grazing 9-month-old angus calves, weaned before being put on pasture in April, on the same pasture lot from April to September. Several calves have watery diarrhea, and many appear to be in poor body condition, and do not appear to be grazing. Fecal egg counts for most of the calves are above 500 eggs per gram. What is at the top of your differential diagnosis list? A. Ostertagia ostertagi B. Haemonchus contortus C. Oesophagostomum D. Dictyocaulus viviparous

A. Ostertagia ostertagi

Because Imidocarb is used for the treatment Babesia canis, while a combo of Atovaquone & Azithromycin is used for Babesia gibsoni; it is best to distinguish between an infection of Babesia canis and Babesia gibsoni. Which is the best, most reliable test to determine between the Babesia species? [Circle the correct answer] (2 points) A. PCR B. Serology C. Fecal Centrifugation D. Blood Smear E. CBC & Chemistry Panel

A. PCR

Because Imidocarb is used for the treatment of Babesia canis, while a combo of Atovaquone & Azithromycin is used for Babesia gibsoni; it is best to distinguish between an infection of Babesia canis and Babesia gibsoni. Which is the best, most reliable test to determine between the Babesia species? [Circle the correct answer] (2 points) A. PCR B. Serology C. Fecal Centrifugation D. Blood Smear E. CBC & Chemistry Panel

A. PCR

Because Imidocarb is used for the treatment of Babesia canis, while a combo of Atovaquone & Azithromycin is used for Babesia gibsoni; it is best to distinguish between an infection of Babesia canis and Babesia gibsoni. Which is the best, most reliable test to determine between the Babesia species? A. PCR B. Serology C. Blood Smear D. Fecal Centrifugation E. CBC & Chemistry Panel

A. PCR

How does a sheep become infected with the tapeworm Moniezia expansa? While ingesting grass (grazing), a goat inadvertently ingests a ________________________, which is infected with a cysticercoid larval stage. A. Pasture Mite B. Bird C. Flea D. Rodent E. Rabbit

A. Pasture Mite

A client brings you a 4-5 cm long, thick white nematode that was vomited with blood by her 3-year-old beagle. You thought initially that it might be Toxocara canis but upon close inspection you see that anterior end lacks three fleshy lips and cervical alae characteristic of Toxocara, and instead has a well-defined anterior cuticular collar. What is this nematode most likely to be? A. Physaloptera B. Dirofilaria immitis C. Draschia D. Ancylostoma

A. Physaloptera

A farmer consults with you because his chickens have coccidiosis. You recommend several management changes, one of which includes: A. Raise the water troughs up off the floor B. Put a thick layer of liter to absorb all the waste C. Keep young birds in with adults so they will acquire immunity D. Only treat the chickens that are sick

A. Raise the water troughs up off the floor

Which of the primary NC hard ticks require indoor control measures, such as inside doghouses and kennels? [Circle the correct answer] (2 points) A. Rhipicephalus sanguineus B. Dermacenter variabilis C. Ixodes scapularis D. Amblyomma americanum

A. Rhipicephalus sanguineus

_____________________ is a systemic apicomplexan that can accidentally infect a horse, causing neural pathology; with disease manifestations including ataxia and muscle atrophy. [Circle the correct answer] (2 points) A. Sarcocystis neurona B. Toxoplasma gondii C. Spirometra mansonoides D. Neospora caninum E. Sarcocystis cruzi

A. Sarcocystis neurona

_____________________ is a systemic apicomplexan that can accidentally infect a horse, causing neural pathology; with disease manifestations including ataxia and muscle atrophy. (2 points) A. Sarcocystis neurona B. Toxoplasma gondii C. Spirometra mansonoides D. Neospora caninum E. Sarcocystis cruzi

A. Sarcocystis neurona

A swine farmer calls you out to the farm to examine his pigs. He is concerned because the pigs are destroying his pens by scratching against them. You notice some hyperkeratosis on the pigs, especially on the ear pinna. You do a deep skin scrape. For what parasite are you looking? A. Sarcoptes scabiei B. Cystoisospora suis C. Demodex canis D. Otodectes cynotis E. Acaris suum

A. Sarcoptes scabiei

A neglected dog comes into your rescue clinic with much alopecia, much erythema, and some hyperkeratosis. While examining the dog you notice an extra foul smell, also the dog scratches quite frequently. Which pair of parasites are at the top of your list? A. Sarcoptes scabiei & Demodex canis B. Stomoxys calcitrans & Ctenocephalides felis C. Psoroptes cuniculi & Otodectes cynotis D. Trichodectes canis & Felicola subrostratus E. Pediculus humanus & Phthirus pubis

A. Sarcoptes scabiei & Demodex canis

You take a job as a Large Animal Vet in California. You are called out to a cattle farm that has been having abortions. Assuming the offending parasite is Tritrichomonas foetus, how did the cows become infected? (2 points) A. Sexually transmitted by an infected bull B. Bitten by a tick vector C. Ingesting an oocyst from calf feces D. Ingesting an infected ant.

A. Sexually transmitted by an infected bull

A dairy farm calls you out to attend to a calf with scours (diarrhea). Both diarrhea-causing protozoans of calves produce large numbers of oocysts, consequently the ideal control method to prevent infection is: (2 points) A. Strict Sanitation B. Vector Control C. Eliminate Feral Canids D. Rodent Control

A. Strict Sanitation

A nursing one month old foal presents with diarrhea, and fecal flotation shows embryonated ova. What is the most likely nematode infection causing these clinical signs? A. Strongyloides westeri B. small strongyles C. Trichostrongylus axei D. Strongylus vulgaris

A. Strongyloides westeri

Which parasitic nematode of horses causes damage to the cranial mesenteric artery near its junction with the aorta? A. Strongylus vulgaris B. small strongyles (Cyathostomum and Cylicocyclus) C. Dictyocaulus arnfeldi D. Strongyloides westeri

A. Strongylus vulgaris

A canine is brought to your clinic. The dog is very lethargic & has a fever. Using PCR, you determine the dog is infected with Babesia canis. How did the dog become infected? (2 points) A. The bite of the tick, Rhipicephalus sanguineus B. Ingestion of oocysts from canine feces. C. The bite of a sandfly, Phlebotomus sp. D. Ingestion of sarcocysts in cattle tissues.

A. The bite of the tick, Rhipicephalus sanguineus

A new pig farmer is worried about a recent outbreak of scours in his 12‐day old piglets. At that age you know that piglet scours can be cause be bacteria or coccidia. After performing a fecal exam, you confidently diagnose Cystoisospora suis. What oocyst morphological features did you see to make that diagnosis? A. The oocyst had 2 sporocysts and no polar cap B. The oocyst had 4 sporocysts and a polar cap C. The oocyst had 4 sporocysts and no polar cap D. The oocyst was very tiny and contained 4 sporozoites E. The oocyst was very tiny and contained 2 sporozoites

A. The oocyst had 2 sporocysts and no polar cap

You are presented with mixed‐breed dog, recently adopted from a shelter in GA. The dog has several ticks attached and some old scars that appear to be from bite wounds. The dog is lethargic, febrile, and has an enlarged spleen. Evaluation of a stained blood smear revealed piroplasms inside erythrocytes. You perform a CBC. What is the most common blood abnormality typically seen with this type of protozoal infection. A. Thrombocytopenia (low platelets) B. Anemia (low red blood cells) C. Neutrophilia (elevated neutrophils) D. Lymphocytosis (elevated lymphocytes) E. Pancytopenia ( = anemia, thrombocytopenia, neutropenia)

A. Thrombocytopenia (low platelets)

Parasitic arthropods include both arachnids and insects. Arachnids have simple metamorphosis where stages that hatch from eggs and develop to adults look very similar to the adult stage. This is important to know because immature larval stages can be found on the host and sometimes transmit infectious diseases. Which one of the following has larval stages that look like the adult stage? A. Ticks B. Fleas C. Blow flies D. Bot flies

A. Ticks

Which type of insecticide can be used against both sucking and chewing lice? A. Topical insecticides B. Systemic insecticides

A. Topical insecticides

Which parasite shows high host specificity for its feline definitive host; but very low host specificity for paratenic host, allowing it to infect any warm-blooded animal? (2 points) A. Toxoplasma gondii B. Eimeria tenella C. Cystoisospora felis D. Neospora caninum E. Sarcocystis cruzi

A. Toxoplasma gondii

Which protozoan parasite shows high host specificity for its feline definitive host; but very low host specificity for paratenic host, allowing it to infect any warm-blooded animal? [Circle the correct answer] (2 points) A. Toxoplasma gondii B. Eimeria tenella C. Cystoisospora felis D. Neospora caninum E. Sarcocystis cruzi

A. Toxoplasma gondii

Which protozoan parasite shows high host specificity for its feline definitive host; but very low host specificity for paratenic hosts, allowing it to infect any warm-blooded animal? [Circle the correct answer] (2 points) A. Toxoplasma gondii B. Eimeria tenella C. Cystoisospora canis D. Neospora caninum E. Sarcocystis cruzi

A. Toxoplasma gondii

Which 2 apicomplexans are of serious zoonotic concern, especially for immunocompromised people? Select one: A. Toxoplasma gondii & Cryptosporidium parvum B. Sarcocystis neurona & Sarcocystis cruzi C. Cystoisospora ohioensis & Babesia gibsoni D. Neospora caninum & Tritichomonas foetus E. Cystoisopora rivolta & Eimeria zuernii

A. Toxoplasma gondii & Cryptosporidium parvum

Signs of bloody diarrhea in a dog would suggest inflammation of the large intestine, including the cecum. Which nematode can be found inhabiting the cecum and possibly the colon of the dog? A. Trichuris B. Capillaria C. Ancylostoma D. Toxocara

A. Trichuris

Which one of the following parasitic nematode genera does not require an arthropod intermediate host? A. Trichuris B. Dirofilaria C. Physaloptera D. Habronema

A. Trichuris

A feline comes into your clinic with diarrhea. Which diarrhea-causing protozoan of cats is transmitted to the cat by the ingestion of the protozoan's trophozoite stage? (2 points) A. Tritrichomonas foetus B. Trypanosoma cruzi C. Cystoisospora (Isospora) felis D. Giardia sp. Assembly F E. Cytauxzoon felis

A. Tritrichomonas foetus

A feline comes into your clinic with diarrhea. If this feline with diarrhea: is an adult Show Cat that has a good body score and is Bright and Alert, which protozoan parasite moves to the top of your list? (2 points) A. Tritrichomonas foetus B. Trypanosoma cruzi C. Cystoisospora (Isospora) felis D. Giardia sp. Assembly F E. Cytauxzoon felis

A. Tritrichomonas foetus

A feline comes into your clinic with diarrhea. Which diarrhea-causing protozoan of cats infects the Large Intestine? (2 points) A. Tritrichomonas foetus B. Trypanosoma cruzi C. Cystoisospora (Isospora) felis D. Giardia sp. Assembly F E. Cytauxzoon felis

A. Tritrichomonas foetus

US Foxhounds are commonly infected with Leishmania infantum via which route of transmission? A. Vertical (transplacental) B. Sand fly bite C. Tick bite D. Ingesting sporocysts E. Traveling overseas to other countries

A. Vertical (transplacental)

The threat of flea infestation to client-owned dogs and cats must be constantly guarded against with insecticide collars, topical or oral systemic medication because of what characteristic of the flea life cycle? A. a large portion of the flea development stages, as well as adult fleas, are off the host in the environment where the dog or cat can be exposed. B. fleas readily and frequently jump from one host to another. C. insecticide resistant larval and pupal stages exist on the dog or cat that can mature to adults and begin feeding when there is no insecticide protection. D. adult fleas can be in an insecticide-resistant dormant stage when on the host.

A. a large portion of the flea development stages, as well as adult fleas, are off the host in the environment where the dog or cat can be exposed.

If you are suspicious of Ostertagia infection in calves, in what organ do you expect to find adult worms? A. abomasum B. ileum C. cecum D. lungs

A. abomasum

Reduction of development of drug-resistance in populations of small strongyles (cyathostomes) is attempted by selective deworming of horses in herds using results of individual fecal egg counts (McMasters technique). The justification for this approach to reduce drug resistance is what? A. about 20% of horses in a herd produce 80% of the small strongyle eggs shed on pasture and are selected for more frequent treatment leaving many horses untreated as sources of refugia populations of worms to reduce selection for resistance. B. horses with low egg counts have the most resistant worms and are selected for more frequent treatment. C. McMasters fecal egg counts reveal horses with high metabolic breakdown of drugs with loss of efficacy. D. refugia populations of worms can be identified post-treatment by fecal egg counts.

A. about 20% of horses in a herd produce 80% of the small strongyle eggs shed on pasture and are selected for more frequent treatment leaving many horses untreated as sources of refugia populations of worms to reduce selection for resistance.

A frequently used variation of life cycle progression that allows some nematodes (hookworms in dogs, trichostrongyles in ruminants, and cyathostomes in horses are examples) to optimize transmission to a new generation of hosts or to bridge from one grazing season to the next is called what? A. arrested development B. asexual replication C. metabolic adjustment D. morphogenesis

A. arrested development

A frequently used variation of life cycle progression that allows some nematodes (trichostrongyles and hookworms are examples) to optimize transmission to a new generation of hosts or to bridge from one grazing season to the next is called what? A. arrested development B. asexual replication C. morphogenesis

A. arrested development

Cats can show clinical signs of heartworm infection at two stages of infection, one stage is at the death of adult heartworms that results in pulmonary thromboembolism from degenerating adult worms, the other stage results in asthma-like signs. What stage of infection is associated with asthma-like signs? A. arrival of immature adult worms (early L5) in pulmonary arteries and arterioles at about 3 to 4 month post infection B. migrating L4 in fascial tissue of the thorax at about 1 to 2 months post infection C. allergic hypersensitivity to infective larvae (L3) in the skin at less than a week post infection

A. arrival of immature adult worms (early L5) in pulmonary arteries and arterioles at about 3 to 4 month post infection

Which of the following food items presents the highest risk for infection with Trichinella when eaten by humans? A. bear meat eaten after a hunt and cooked over a camp fire B. frozen and well cooked pork from pigs raised in confinement with good biosecurity C. beef D. lamb

A. bear meat eaten after a hunt and cooked over a camp fire

Which of the following food items presents the highest risk for infection with Trichinella when eaten by humans? A. bear meat eaten after a hunt and cooked over a campfire B. frozen or well cooked pork from pigs raised in confinement with good biosecurity C. beef D. lamb

A. bear meat eaten after a hunt and cooked over a campfire

What are the pathological changes caused by Haemonchus contortus? A. blood loss anemia and hypoproteinemia B. gastric gland dysfunction, abomasal mucosal cell hyperplasia, increased systemic protein catabolism C. colitis caused by emergence of larvae from the mucosa of the large intestine D. ischemia and infarction of the arteries flowing to the large intestine, subsequent necrosis of the bowel.

A. blood loss anemia and hypoproteinemia

The success of ascarid nematodes being world‐wide infections of high frequency in pigs (Ascaris suum) and horses (Parascaris equorum) is most likely due to which two characteristics of Ascaris suum and Parascaris equorum? A. both have highly resistant long‐lived infective ova containing larva, and mature female worms that produce very large numbers of ova. B. pigs can be infected transuterine by Ascaris suum, and horses are infected transmammary by Parascaris equorum. C. horses can be infected transuterine by Parascaris equorum, and pigs are infected transmammary by Ascaris suum. D. both have skin‐penetrating infective stage larvae, and potential for somatic migration.

A. both have highly resistant long‐lived infective ova containing larva, and mature female worms that produce very large numbers of ova.

Cryptosporidium parvum: A. can infect the microvilli of enterocytes B. can only infect one specific host species C. cannot infect humans D. can form cysts in tissues of paratenic hosts

A. can infect the microvilli of enterocytes

Infection with Toxocara canis and Toxocara cati in dogs and cats, respectively, can occur by ingestion of a paratenic or transport host (bird or rodent usually) that contains the infective larva. This route of infection leads to establishment of the adult worms without migration outside of the gut wall. It is often the source of infections seen in adult hosts. In most clinics, which host is this more common in? A. cats B. dogs

A. cats

Gasterophilus has three species of bot flies that infect horses. What is one of the most important pathological lesions caused by the larval stages of these flies? A. damage to mucosa of the mouth and stomach B. ulcers of the colon C. skin erosions D. subcutaneous cysts

A. damage to mucosa of the mouth and stomach

Generalized infection with Demodex in dogs is very difficult to treat. What is the most sensitive approach to monitoring infection during treatment? A. deep skin scraping, hair pluck or biopsy to see cigar-shaped mites B. observation of hair coat return C. observation of when the dog stops itching

A. deep skin scraping, hair pluck or biopsy to see cigar-shaped mites

The canid/raccoon blood fluke, Heterobilharzia americana, infects the canid or raccoon host by: A. direct skin penetration by the cercaria. B. ingestion of the metacercariae in vegetation. C. ingestion of the mesocercariae in frogs or snakes. D. ingestion of the metacercariae in terrestrial isopods (rolly‐polly bug). E. ingestion of the rediae in the aquatic snail.

A. direct skin penetration by the cercaria.

Which is the most important limiting factor for Dirofilaria immitis transmission in a canine population for a geographic region? A. environmental temperatures not high enough for infective larvae to develop in mosquitoes before the mosquito dies of old age. B. absence of the tiger mosquito as the only really effective mosquito host. C. absence of wild coyote or wolf populations as reservoir hosts.

A. environmental temperatures not high enough for infective larvae to develop in mosquitoes before the mosquito dies of old age.

Pathological changes caused by small strongyles in horses can occur in any horse that is or has been grazing on pasture. What are these changes and how are they caused? A. granulomatous colitis due to emergence of numerous larvae embedded in the mucosa of the large intestine B. thromboemboli of the large intestine vasculature due to migrating larvae C. non-healing granulomas in the skin on the face or at previous wound sites D. gastritis caused by adult worms present on the mucosa of the stomach

A. granulomatous colitis due to emergence of numerous larvae embedded in the mucosa of the large intestine

Pathological changes caused by small strongyles in horses can occur in any horse that is or has been grazing on pasture. What are these changes and how are they caused? A. granulomatous colitis due to numerous larvae embedded in the mucosa of the large intestine B. thromboemboli of the large intestine vasculature due to migrating larvae C. non-healing granulomas in the skin on the face or at previous wound sites D. gastritis caused by adult worms present on the mucosa of the stomach

A. granulomatous colitis due to numerous larvae embedded in the mucosa of the large intestine

A farm dog with the habit of eating freshly passed horse feces might be mistakenly diagnosed by fecal flotation with what parasitic nematode if the horse was infected with small strongyles? A. hookworm (Ancylostoma or Uncinaria) B. Toxocara canis C. Trichuris vulpis D. Dirofilaria immitis

A. hookworm (Ancylostoma or Uncinaria)

Most hosts of Strongyloides pass larvated ova in their feces except which two that pass first stage larvae in feces? A. humans and dogs B. humans and pigs C. pigs and horses D. dogs and horses

A. humans and dogs

What is the most common pathological process associated with chronic heartworm infection in dogs? A. inflammation and fibrosis of pulmonary arteries. B. blockage of the posterior vena cava leading to the caval syndrome. C. liver damage and kidney failure due to increased venous blood pressure. D. inflammation around alveoli and terminal bronchi resulting in asthma-like signs.

A. inflammation and fibrosis of pulmonary arteries.

Sarcocystis cruzi causes sporadic abortions in cattle. How do cattle become infected? [Circle the correct answer] (2 points) A. ingesting sporocysts from dog feces B. being bitten by an infected Amblyomma americana C. being bitten by an infected Phlebotomus Sandfly D. ingesting sporocysts from opossum feces E. ingesting oocysts from cat feces

A. ingesting sporocysts from dog feces

Parascaris infection in horses and Ascaris infection in pigs and humans involve what route of infection and larval migration to establish adult worms? A. ingestion of ova containing infective larva and tracheal migration. B. ingestion of ova containing infective larva and somatic migration. C. infective larva skin penetration and tracheal migration. D. infective larva ingestion and mucosal migration.

A. ingestion of ova containing infective larva and tracheal migration.

The most important pathology caused by louse infestation is which one of the following? A. irritation caused by mallophagan lice and anemia caused by anapluran lice B. irritation caused by anaphulran lice and anemia caused by mallophagan lice C. blood-borne diseases D. allergic dermatitis

A. irritation caused by mallophagan lice and anemia caused by anapluran lice

Tritrichomonas foetus infection in cows and heifers______________ A. is self‐limiting and the pathogen is eventually cleared. B. does not cause significant clinical disease, but cows can remain infected for life. C. can cause diarrhea. D. can encyst in the muscle.

A. is self‐limiting and the pathogen is eventually cleared.

Treatment and control of Haemonchus contortus infection in small ruminants is very difficult due to what feature of this nematode? A. it has developed drug resistance to almost all of the current anthelmintic drugs B. it is transmitted by transmammary infection C. it has infective larvae that are highly resistant to cold D. it has adult worm stages outside of the host that can generate infective larvae

A. it has developed drug resistance to almost all of the current anthelmintic drugs

Large numbers of trichostrongyle infective larvae on pasture is due to what? A. large numbers of adult worms in grazing hosts B. replication of infective stage larvae in fecal pats C. adult stage worms outside of the host

A. large numbers of adult worms in grazing hosts

Which life stage of the large strongyles (e.g. Strongylus vulgaris) causes the most important pathological lesions? A. larvae migrating in host tissues. B. adult worms. C. infective larvae entering the mucosa of the small intestine. D. arrested, hypobiotic larvae.

A. larvae migrating in host tissues.

How are Strongylus species (large strongyles) different from cyathostomes (small strongyles)? A. larvae of Strongylus species (S. vulgaris, S. edentatus, S. equinus) migrate in abdominal organs or tissues outside of the intestinal wall whereas cyathostomes do not. B. larvae of cyathostomes migrate in abdominal organs or tissues outside of the intestinal wall whereas Strongylus species do not. C. larvae of Strongylus species undergo arrested development whereas cyathostomes do not. D. larvae of Strongylus species are resistant to many deworming drugs whereas larvae of cyathostomes are easily killed by deworming drugs.

A. larvae of Strongylus species (S. vulgaris, S. edentatus, S. equinus) migrate in abdominal organs or tissues outside of the intestinal wall whereas cyathostomes do not.

The major source of Strongyloides sp contamination of the environment that leads to increased levels of infection and disease in newborn, and restoring larvae in the tissues of the mother is from which one of the following? A. larvae or larvated eggs shed by the very young host. B. the mother passing large numbers of larvae or larvated eggs in her feces. C. snails shedding infective larvae.

A. larvae or larvated eggs shed by the very young host.

What is the life stage form of Dirofilaria immitis detected on blood examination of infected dogs? A. microfilariae B. L4 larvae C. circulating immature adult females and males

A. microfilariae

What is the life stage form of Dirofilaria immitis detected on blood examination of infected dogs? A. microfilariae B. L4 larvae C. circulating immature adult females and males

A. microfilariae

Habronema infective larvae when deposited on the surface of an open wound or near lips or eyes of a horse by feeding flies, such as Musca, can remain at the site and cause an eosinophil infiltrated granulomatous reaction or continue migration to establish adult worms. Where are adult Habronema nematodes found in the horse? A. mucosal surface of the stomach B. subcutaneous nodules C. tracheal lumen D. small intestine

A. mucosal surface of the stomach

What is the risk of establishing an adult worm infection of Dirofilaria immitis by transfusing blood from a microfilaremic dog to a non-infected dog? A. no risk B. moderate risk, depending on age of recipient C. high risk

A. no risk

What is the risk of establishing an adult worm infection of Dirofilaria immitis by transfusing blood from a microfilaremic dog to a non‐infected dog? A. no risk B. moderate risk, depending on age of recipient C. high risk

A. no risk

How many adult stage small strongyle nematodes can develop from the ingestion of a single L3 in a horse? A. one B. 10 ‐100 C. 100 - 1,000

A. one

Heavy infections with Haemonchus contortus in sheep present with what set of clinical signs? A. pale mucous membranes, intramandibular edema, dark pasty feces B. watery diarrhea, intramendibular edema, anorexia (lack of appetite) C. bloody diarrhea, loss of weight, pale mucous membranes D. constipation, loss of weight, jaundice

A. pale mucous membranes, intramandibular edema, dark pasty feces

What are the clinical signs associated with Haemonchus contortus infection in sheep and goats? A. pale mucous membranes, low hematocrit, intermandibular edema in all ages of animals grazing pasture. B. anorexia, watery diarrhea, poor growth and body condition, in lambs and kids. C. labored breathing and cough in lambs at 3 weeks after placed on spring pastures. D. bloody diarrhea.

A. pale mucous membranes, low hematocrit, intermandibular edema in all ages of animals grazing pasture.

A three-year-old, indoor/outdoor cat is presented to your clinic with coughing and loss of appetite. Thoracic radiographs show density of parenchymal lung tissue. You suspect infection with Aelurostrongylus abstrusus. How would you confirm your diagnosis? A. perform a Baermann preparation of feces to identify L1 larvae. B. do an antigenemia test on heated serum. C. look for larvated ova on fecal flotation. D. look for strongyle-type ova on fecal flotation.

A. perform a Baermann preparation of feces to identify L1 larvae.

A 3-year-old dog with outdoor yard access is presented to you because the dog is repeatedly rubbing its nose on the ground or on carpets inside, in addition to having sneezing fits. The physician owner wants you to prescribe corticosteroid pills to treat this obvious case of allergic rhinitis. You are not sure that this is allergic disease and you are suspicious it may be due to a nematode infection in the nose. What would confirm your suspicions? A. presence of bipolar ova with pitted surface on fecal flotation. B. larvae collected from Baermann of sputum or feces. C. strongyle-type ova on fecal flotation. D. larvae seen in a drop of blood.

A. presence of bipolar ova with pitted surface on fecal flotation.

The anatomical feature called the "copulatory spicule" refers to what structure in nematodes? A. present at the posterior end of adult males to facilitate insemination of females. B. present at the anterior end of males and females to facilitate feeding. C. present at the vulvar opening of adult females. D. present in the body cavity to facilitate movement.

A. present at the posterior end of adult males to facilitate insemination of females

Trichuris vulpis infections are often difficult to treat because of what two factors? A. reinfection from long-lived ova in the environment, and a long prepatent time with larvae in the host that are not easily killed B. female worms produce large numbers of ova continuously, and a long prepatent time with larvae in the host that are not easily killed C. reinfection from long-lived ova in the environment, and a very rapid development with 2 - 3 days of infective larvae in ova D. adult stage Trichuris has developed resistance to most current anthelmintic drugs, and infective larvae in the soil can infect by skin penetration

A. reinfection from long-lived ova in the environment, and a long prepatent time with larvae in the host that are not easily killed

Adult stage Ancylostoma in dogs or cats is found at what organ site? A. small intestine B. large intestine C. lungs D. liver

A. small intestine

Adult stage Ancylostoma in dogs or cats is found at what organ site? A. small intestine B. large intestine C. lungs D. liver

A. small intestine

Adult stage Ancylostoma in dogs or cats is found at what organ site? A. small intestine B. large intestine C. lungs D. liver

A. small intestine

The most common clinical signs associated with ascarid infections in dogs, cats, horses, and pigs are due to adult worms in what organ? A. small intestine B. large intestine C. stomach D. heart

A. small intestine

The emergence of drug resistance across all classes of currently used anthelmintic drugs (including avermectins) by a genus of nematodes with major health importance in a particular domestic species is pervasive in which host and parasite? A. small ruminants with Haemonchus. B. cattle with Ostertagia. C. dogs with Toxocara D. pigs with Ascaris.

A. small ruminants with Haemonchus.

Large amounts of money are spent on deworming horses throughout their lives primarily to reduce persistent burdens of what nematode? A. small strongyles (cyathostomes) B. large strongyles (Strongylus sp.) C. Habronema

A. small strongyles (cyathostomes)

There is no justification for doing an antigenemia test for Dirofilaria immitis in dogs or cats under the age of 7 months. Why? A. the antigen being detected in blood is only present when adult female worms have become patent at 6 to 7 months after infection. B. the antigen being detected will be masked by host antibodies in younger animals. C. you cannot use the adulticide melarsomine on animals under 7 months of age. D. it takes at least 6 months of exposure for a strong antibody response to be detectable.

A. the antigen being detected in blood is only present when adult female worms have become patent at 6 to 7 months after infection.

Detection of circulating adult heartworm antigen in a one‐year‐old dog that was adopted from an animal shelter at 4 months of age and put on a monthly preventative at that time is most likely because of which circumstance? A. the dog was infected 3 months before the monthly preventative was started B. the monthly preventative failed to protect C. the dog was infected one month after the monthly preventative was started

A. the dog was infected 3 months before the monthly preventative was started

Why is the treatment of adult Dirofilaria immitis infections in cats much more difficult than in dogs? A. the drug used to kill adult worms, melarsomine, is much more toxic to cats than dogs, and not recommended for use in cats. B. the strain of Dirofilaria immitis that infects cats is much more resistant to the drug used to kill the strain of D. immitis in dogs. C. prednisone treatment to reduce inflammation is not effective in cats. D. cats have a much higher level of Wolbachia presence in adult D. immitis than dogs.

A. the drug used to kill adult worms, melarsomine, is much more toxic to cats than dogs, and not recommended for use in cats.

Ancylostoma caninum is essentially species specific for dogs and Ancylostoma tubaeforme is species specific for cats. How do these two nematodes differ in the route of infection for their respective hosts? A. the lactogenic route of infection is very important for puppies, whereas there is little or no lactogenic infection of kittens B. a fetus in a pregnant cat can be infected but not in a dog C. a fetus in a pregnant dog can be infected but not in a cat D. skin penetration is the primary route of infection for cats but does not occur in dogs

A. the lactogenic route of infection is very important for puppies, whereas there is little or no lactogenic infection of kittens

The most important reason for not attempting to do a "slow kill" of adult Dirofilaria immitis in dogs is what? A. there is continuing development of lung pathology due to presence of adult worms for several months. B. the drug used to do a "slow kill" is toxic to dogs. C. giving monthly prophylactic drugs to a dog with circulating microfilariae is never recommended. D. only very active dogs should be treated by "slow kill" methods.

A. there is continuing development of lung pathology due to presence of adult worms for several months.

Routine treatment with anthelmintic drugs for puppies usually starts at 2-3 weeks of age, whereas for kittens it usually starts at 6 weeks of age. Why is this initial routine treatment at different ages for puppies and kittens? A. there is transuterine infection by Toxocara canis in dogs but not for Toxocara cati in cats B. both have major transmammary infection potential with Toxocara, but the prepatent time by this route in kittens is much longer C. kittens cannot tolerate treatment with anthelmintic drugs before 6 weeks of age

A. there is transuterine infection by Toxocara canis in dogs but not for Toxocara cati in cats

Routine treatment with anthelmintic drugs for puppies usually starts at 2‐3 weeks of age, whereas for kittens it usually starts at 6 weeks of age. Why is this initial routine treatment at different ages for puppies and kittens? A. there is transuterine infection by Toxocara canis in dogs but not for Toxocara cati in cats B. both have major transmammary infection potential with Toxocara, but the prepatent time by this route in kittens is much longer C. kittens cannot tolerate treatment with anthelmintic drugs before 6 weeks of age

A. there is transuterine infection by Toxocara canis in dogs but not for Toxocara cati in cats

Selective deworming based on fecal egg counts in horses, and deworming of sheep and goats based on the anemia scoring system FAMACHA are done for what purpose? A. to preserve a refugia population of nematodes and slow development of worm drug resistance. B. to determine drug efficacy levels. C. to assist breeding for nematode resistant horses and small ruminants.

A. to preserve a refugia population of nematodes and slow development of worm drug resistance.

In a cool temperate region, re-stocking calves that are due to return to pasture in the Spring are treated at the end of Fall first grazing season with Ivermectin that kills adult and arrested L4 stages of Ostertagia. What is the purpose of this treatment? A. to prevent Type II ostertagiasis and contamination of Spring pastures with eggs. B. to prevent infective L3 larvae already on Fall pasture from surviving over-winter on pasture. C. to boost immunity against Ostertagia during winter housing. D. to prevent transmission of Ostertagia infections during winter housing indoors.

A. to prevent Type II ostertagiasis and contamination of Spring pastures with eggs.

Ingestion of ova containing infective larvae in the life cycle of Toxocara canis and Toxocara cati in their respective hosts, the dog and the cat, can result in tracheal migration and somatic migration of the larval stage. Which route of migration leads without delay to establishment of adult stage worms usually in young animals? A. tracheal migration B. somatic migration

A. tracheal migration

Cats become infected with Tritrichomonas blagburni by ingesting_________________. A. trophozoites in feces B. rodents infected with tissue cysts C. cysts in feces D. sporulated oocysts in feces

A. trophozoites in feces

Ascaridia galli is an ascarid common in organically ranged-reared chickens. What pathological changes are caused by this nematode? A. young birds, under 3 months, hemorrhagic enteritis, diarrhea and intestinal blockage B. older birds, blockage of the trachea, respiratory distress C. older birds, inflammation of the cecum, concurrent protozoal infection causing necrosis of the cecum and liver.

A. young birds, under 3 months, hemorrhagic enteritis, diarrhea and intestinal blockage

Promastigote and amastigote are life stages of which vector‐transmitted flagellate? A. Trypanosoma cruzi B. Leishmania infantum D. Giardia duodenalis E. Tritrichomonas blagburni

B. Leishmania infantum

Adulticide treatment of Dirofilaria immitis should follow what protocol? A. treat cats and dogs the same. B. 2 months before giving adulticide drug, pre-treat with doxycycline and macrocyclic lactone monthly prophylaxis. C. give a single injection of the adulticide drug. D. restraint from activity is not necessary after the adulticide injection.

B. 2 months before giving adulticide drug, pre-treat with doxycycline and macrocyclic lactone monthly prophylaxis.

Piglets, 10 days old, has yellowish-gray diarrhea. You suspect Cystoisospora suis. But to confirm you take a fecal sample and incubate for 4 days, You then do a fecal float and find sporulated oocysts. You confirm that the offending protozoan is indeed Cystoisospora suis because the sporulated oocysts contain ________________. [Circle the correct answer] (2 points) A. 4 sporocysts B. 2 sporocysts

B. 2 sporocysts

What type of tick life cycle does the following describe? Rhipicephalus evertsi male & female ticks feed and mate on their cattle host. After feeding the female tick drops off the cow and lays eggs in the environment. Larvae hatch from the eggs and attack a rabbit. The larvae and nymph stages live and feed on the same rabbit. After feeding the nymph drops off the rabbit, molts, and attacks a cow host. [Circle the correct answer] (2 points) A. 1-host tick B. 2-host tick C. 3-host tick

B. 2-host tick

While killing adult fleas on the host, flea control targeting pre-adult stages off the host by use of insect growth regulators, chitinase inhibitors and juvenile hormone analogue will require a period of time to clear the environment. During this time the dog or cat is still under threat of adult flea attack. The recommendation of repeated thorough vacuuming of carpets and upholstered furniture during this time is important. How long would you expect the process of clearing the pet's environment to take? A. 2 days B. 3 months or more C. one week

B. 3 months or more

What is the prepatent time for Toxocara canis in new born puppies infected in utero? A. 10 days B. 3 weeks C. 8 weeks

B. 3 weeks

What is the prepatent time for Toxocara canis in new born puppies infected in utero? A. 10 days B. 3 weeks C. 8 weeks

B. 3 weeks

What is the prepatent time for Parascaris equorum in foals? A. 10 days B. 80 days C. 180 days D. 360 days

B. 80 days

What is the prepatent time for Parascaris equorum in foals? A. 10 days B. 80 days C. 180 days D. 360 days

B. 80 days

What is the prepatent time for Parascaris equorum in foals? Remember that it determines the timing of strategic deworming of foals. A. 10 days B. 80 days C. 200 days D. 360 days

B. 80 days

You take a job as a Large Animal Vet in California. You are called out to a cattle farm that has been having abortions. Assuming the offending parasite is Neospora caninum, how did the cows become infected? (2 points) A. Bitten by a tick vector B. Ingestion of oocysts from canine feces. C. Ingesting a cyst on aquatic vegetation D. Ingesting an oocyst from calf feces

B. Ingestion of oocysts from canine feces.

A 3‐year‐old boxer‐mixed breed presents to you because his owners claim he seems depressed and has a decreased appetite. The owners and dog live in Florida, have not traveled with the dog and adopted him 2 years ago from a rescue group that operates out of Spain. On physical examination, you note a slightly elevated temperature, lymphadenopathy, crusting around his eyes and an enlarged spleen. Based on history and clinical signs, what might you expect to see on a lymph node cytology specimen? A. Piroplasms inside erythrocytes B. Amastigotes inside macrophages C. Extracellular trypomastigotes D. Cysts full of bradyzoites E. Extracellular Promastigotes

B. Amastigotes inside macrophages

Clinical disease from Ancylostoma caninum is very common in puppies but disease caused by Ancylostoma tubaeformae in kittens is much less common. Why might this be the case? A. kittens are resistant to anemia due to their smaller size. B. Ancylostoma tubaeformae does not infect by the lactogenic route in cats. C. puppies are more likely to be infected by eating a paratenic host. D. puppies have a much lower iron reserve than kittens.

B. Ancylostoma tubaeformae does not infect by the lactogenic route in cats.

A producer of organic eggs from free-range hens had 20% of his last shipment of 2-3-month-old replacement birds die within one week of arrival at his farm. Clinical signs included bloody diarrhea. On post-mortem examination you find the small intestine full of 5 - 10 cm long, thick nematodes. What is this nematode? A. Heterakis B. Ascaridia C. Capillaria D. Syngamus

B. Ascaridia

Choose the primary mechanisms by which most pathogenic protozoa are able to damage cells of host animals. A. Sexual multiplication B. Asexual multiplication (also known as binary fission) C. DNA mutation D. Cyst formation

B. Asexual multiplication (also known as binary fission)

Sarcocystis cruzi has a typical Sarcocystis life cycle. It has a heteroxenous life cycle involving which of the following pairs of hosts? A. Felids and rodents B. Cattle and canids C. Marsupials and dogs D. Birds and cattle

B. Cattle and canids

Cryptosporidium parvum is a highly zoonotic infection that may result in severe diarrhea in people. Which of the following is most likely to be a source of infection to humans? A. Infected calves to people B. Contaminated pools (from infected people) C. Undercooked beef (from infected cattle) D. Infected pets to their owners E. Contaminated hands after handling dirty vegetables

B. Contaminated pools (from infected people)

Watery diarrhea or pale, yellow calf scours, when the calf is between 7 to 14 days old, is most likely cause by which protozoan parasite? [Circle the correct answer] (2 points) A. Eimeria bovis B. Cryptosporidium parvum C. Sarcocystis cruzi D. Tritrichomonas foetus E. Eimeria tenella

B. Cryptosporidium parvum

Which feline protozoan causes a disease that is seasonal (spring & summer), with clinical signs of febrile disease, dyspnea, jaundice, and lab diagnostics showing pancyotpenia, hyperbilirubinemia and schizont-laden macrophages on blood smear? [Circle the correct answer] (2 points) A. Toxoplasma gondii B. Cytauxzoon felis C. Babesia gibsoni D. Cystoisopora rivolta E. Tritrichomonas foetus feline

B. Cytauxzoon felis

Which feline protozoan causes a disease that is seasonal (spring & summer), with clinical signs of febrile disease, dyspnea, jaundice, and lab diagnostics showing pancytopenia, hyperbilirubinemia and schizont-laden macrophages on blood smear? (2 points) A. Toxoplasma gondii B. Cytauxzoon felis C. Babesia gibsoni D. Cystoisospora rivolta E. Tritrichomonas foetus feline

B. Cytauxzoon felis

Which feline protozoan causes a disease that is seasonal (spring & summer), with clinical signs of febrile disease, dyspnea, jaundice, and lab diagnostics showing pancyotpenia, hyperbilirubinemia and schizont-laden macrophages on blood smear? (2 points) A. Toxoplasma gondii B. Cytauxzoon felis C. Babesia gibsoni D. Cystoisospora rivolta E. Tritrichomonas foetus feline

B. Cytauxzoon felis

Which feline protozoan causes a disease that is seasonal (spring & summer), with clinical signs of febrile disease, dyspnea, jaundice, and lab diagnostics showing pancytopenia, hyperbilirubinemia and schizont-laden macrophages on blood smear? A. Toxoplasma gondii B. Cytauxzoon felis C. Babesia gibsoni D. Cystoisospora rivolta E. Tritrichomonas foetus feline

B. Cytauxzoon felis

Why is it important not to treat for Hypoderma spp. bots too long after the fly season? A. One wants to kill the bots before they move from the nasal cavity into the brain. B. Dead large bots, along with the resulting inflammation, could cause paralysis. C. Treatment targets the feeding adult flies. D. One wants to kill the bots before they cause serious damage to the stomach lining. E. Treatment targets the nits which are deposited during the fly season.

B. Dead large bots, along with the resulting inflammation, could cause paralysis.

Calves at 4 - 5 months of age were placed on a pasture in Alamance county, NC with low-lying areas that remain wet year-round. Older cattle had grazed this pasture ahead of the calves. One to two weeks after being on the pasture the young calves showed signs of coughing and increased respiratory rate that increased in severity over the following 4 weeks. What nematode would you suspect as a cause of these respiratory signs? A. Haemonchus placei B. Dictyocaulus viviparous C. Ostertagia ostertagi D. Trichostrongylus axei

B. Dictyocaulus viviparous

Why is there no Dirofilaria immitis transmission among canids, domestic or wild, in central and northern Alaska even though there are many mosquitoes? A. only one or two species of mosquitoes will transmit Dirofilaria immitis and they do not exist in Alaska B. Dirofilaria immitis larval development in the mosquito requires sustained warm temperatures to complete development before the mosquito dies C. Alaskan mosquitoes do not feed on dogs D. the thick hair coat of dogs in Alaska prevent mosquito bites

B. Dirofilaria immitis larval development in the mosquito requires sustained warm temperatures to complete development before the mosquito dies

A 4‐year‐old mixed breed dog recently moved to the US from Mexico and presents to your clinical with lymphadenopathy and fever, suggestive of an infection. A thoracic radiograph revealed an enlarged heart. You suspect a chronic Trypanosoma cruzi infection. Which is the best diagnostic test to confirm your suspicion? A. PCR test from a blood sample B. IFA serology test to detect antibodies C. Xenodiagnosis D. Cardiac biopsy with histology E. Lymph node aspirate smear and microscopic examination

B. IFA serology test to detect antibodies

You are presented with a client's beloved indoor/outdoor cat that is recumbent, dsypnic and has a fever. After stabilizing with fluids and oxygen, you run a stat blood smear and identify large, monocytes/macrophages laden with zoites along the feathered edge of the smear. What is the BEST next step? A. Along with other supportive care treatment, place a nasogastric feeding tube and start treatment with imidocarb. B. Discuss with owners that treatment (atovaquone and azithromycin) is available with ~60% success rate if started quickly and will include a week of intensive care and support. C. Discuss with owners that treatment (imidocarb) is available with ~60% success rate if started quickly and will include a week of intensive care and support. D. Along with other supportive care treatment, place a nasogastric feeding tube and start treatment with atovaquone. E. Apply tick prevention and send owners home with subcutaneous fluids to administer knowing the disease is self‐limiting and the ~60% of cats will recover with some supportive care.

B. Discuss with owners that treatment (atovaquone and azithromycin) is available with ~60% success rate if started quickly and will include a week of intensive care and support.

What is the result of Tritrichomonas foetus infections in cattle? [Circle the correct answer] (2 points) A. Watery calf scours B. Early abortions C. Bloody calf scours D. Late abortions E. Asymmetric muscle atrophy

B. Early abortions

There are many species of protozoa that cause diarrhea in cattle. Which of the following protozoa causes bloody diarrhea (bloody scours) in 21+ day old calves? A. Eimeria leuckarti B. Eimeria bovis C. Eimeria tenella D. Cryptosporidium parvum E. Cystoisospora rivolta

B. Eimeria bovis

Control measures for Fasciola hepatica may include: A. Elimination of ants and terrestrial snails B. Elimination of aquatic snails and wet areas in the pasture C. Prevent human defecation in pastures & human ingestion of raw meat D. Prevent access of canids into the pasture and prevent canid access to offal

B. Elimination of aquatic snails and wet areas in the pasture

Control measures for Fasciola hepatica may include: (2 points) A. Elimination of ants and terrestrial snails B. Elimination of aquatic snails and wet areas in the pasture C. Prevent human defecation in pastures & human ingestion of raw meat D. Prevent access of canids into the pasture and prevent canid access to offal

B. Elimination of aquatic snails and wet areas in the pasture

Control measures for Fasciola hepatica may include: [Circle the correct answer] (2 points) A. Elimination of ants and terrestrial snails B. Elimination of aquatic snails and wet areas in the pasture C. Prevent human defecation in pastures & human ingestion of raw meat D. Prevent access of canids into the pasture and prevent canid access to offal

B. Elimination of aquatic snails and wet areas in the pasture

Anoplocephala perfoliata is very easily and often diagnosed using the simple, passive fecal floatation technique. Circle the correct answer. (2 points) A. True B. False

B. False

Anoplocephala perfoliata is very easily and often diagnosed using the simple, passive fecal floatation technique. (2 points) A. True B. False

B. False

True / False: Ivermectin is a highly effective dewormer against trematodes and cestodes. A. True B. False

B. False

True or False. Because of the concern over Giardia sp. developing resistance to Metronidazole and Fenbendazole, CAPC recommends treating all patients whether they have diarrhea or not. [Circle the correct answer] (2 points) A. True B. False

B. False

Which one of the following groups do ALL the flatworms (flukes and/or tapeworms) listed result in economic loss to a cattle farmer because of condemnation of cattle meat and/or liver? [Circle the correct answer] (2 points) A. Echinococcus granulosus, Moniezia sp., Taenia pisiformis B. Fasciola hepatica, Taenia saginata, Fascioloides magna C. Moniezia sp., Dipylidium caninum, Fascioloides magna D. Taenia solium, Taenia taeniaformis, Taenia pisiformis E. Dicrocoelium dendriticum, Taenia pisiformis, Spirometra sp.

B. Fasciola hepatica, Taenia saginata, Fascioloides magna

Which one of the following groups do ALL the flatworms (flukes and/or tapeworms) listed result in economic loss to a cattle farmer because of condemnation of cattle meat and/or liver? (2 points) A. Echinococcus granulosus, Moniezia sp., Taenia pisiformis B. Fasciola hepatica, Taenia saginata, Fascioloides magna C. Moniezia sp., Dipylidium caninum, Fascioloides magna D. Taenia solium, Taenia taeniaformis, Taenia pisiformis E. Dicrocoelium dendriticum, Taenia pisiformis, Spirometra sp.

B. Fasciola hepatica, Taenia saginata, Fascioloides magna

Which one of the following groups do ALL the flatworms (flukes and/or tapeworms) listed result in economic loss to a cattle farmer because of condemnation of cattle meat and/or liver? A. Echinococcus granulosus, Moniezia sp., Taenia pisiformis B. Fasciola hepatica, Taenia saginata, Fascioloides magna C. Moniezia sp., Dipylidium caninum, Fascioloides magna D. Taenia solium, Taenia taeniaformis, Taenia pisiformis E. Dicrocoelium dendriticum, Taenia pisiformis, Spirometra sp.

B. Fasciola hepatica, Taenia saginata, Fascioloides magna

Whether diarrhea from Cryptosporidium parvum or Eimeria bovis the immediate danger to a calf is dehydration. Consequently, the primary therapy a veterinarian should begin immediately is _____________. [Circle the correct answer] (2 points) A. Coccidiostats B. Fluid therapy

B. Fluid therapy

During a visit to a back-yard chicken coop you notice bloody diarrhea in some the chickens. You also notice the coop has an elevated wire-mess floor, with food & water dispensers sitting on the floor. Which most exposes the chickens to coccidian (Eimeria sp.) infections? A. Elevated wire-mesh floor B. Food & water dispensers on the floor

B. Food & water dispensers on the floor

If a dog mounts a strong cell‐meditated immune response to an infection with Leishmania infantum, then the dog will likely ___________________________. A. Have severe cutaneous form of the disease B. Have no clinical signs or a less severe form of the disease C. Have a very high antibody titer D. Die from visceral form of the disease E. Be a Foxhound breed

B. Have no clinical signs or a less severe form of the disease

Humans become infected with the adult tapeworm of Taenia saginata by: A. Ingesting tapeworm eggs from human feces B. Ingesting raw beef C. Ingesting tapeworm eggs from dog feces D. Ingesting raw frog legs E. Ingesting tapeworm eggs from cattle feces

B. Ingesting raw beef

A new pig farmer is worried about a recent outbreak of Cystoisospora suis in his piglets. Of the options below, what is the risk to his pig? A. Low Morbidity and High Mortality B. Low Mortality and High Morbidity

B. Low Mortality and High Morbidity

Leishmania infantum primarily infects which mammalian host cell? A. Erythrocyte B. Macrophage C. Enterocyte D. Cardiac muscle cells

B. Macrophage

Which of the following adult flies is an important mechanical vector for pink-eye in cattle? [Circle the correct answer] (2 points) A. Musca domestica B. Musca autumnalis C. Phaenicia sericata D. Stomoxys calcitrans E. Haematobia irritans

B. Musca autumnalis

You take a job as a Large Animal Vet in California. You are called out to a cattle farm that has been having abortions. The farmer indicated that a couple of his cows had almost come to term but had abortions relatively late. He was able to retrieve one of the aborted fetuses for necropsy, but the other aborted fetus was carried off by a pack of feral dogs that has been roaming the area. From this information, which protozoan parasite moves to the top of your list? (2 points) A. Cryptosporidium parvum B. Neospora caninum C. Fascioloides magna D. Eimeria bovis E. Tritrichomonas foetus

B. Neospora caninum

A puppy, recently purchased from an animal shelter, is brought into your clinic with diarrhea. The puppy is lethargic and seems thin. You do a fecal float and diagnose Cystoisospora canis. Should the owner be concerned about this puppy passing this coccidian to their indoor cat? [Circle the correct answer] (2 points) A. Yes B. No

B. No

A client brings in a recently adopted cat for it's first wellness exam. On first inspection you notice that the cat has alopecia along the margins of the ear pinna as well as some alopecia around the eyes. No other signs of alopecia are noticed. What should be at the top of your differential list? A. Felicola subrostratus B. Notoedres cati C. Demodex canis D. Otodectes cynotis E. Ctenocephalides felis

B. Notoedres cati

An autopsy in September of a 9 month old Holstein calf that has been grazing on the same pasture with 1.5 - 2 year old calves during April to August in central North Carolina shows 1 cm long nematodes on the surface of the abomasum. What genus of nematode is this most likely to be? A. Haemonchus B. Ostertagia C. Nematoduris D. Dictyocaulus

B. Ostertagia

Anthelmintic treatment of horses at two-month intervals starting at two months of age and continuing until 8-9 months of age is intended to prevent patent infections with what parasitic nematode? A. Strongyloides westerii B. Parascaris equorum C. Habronema D. Large strongyles

B. Parascaris equorum

Bowel obstruction and possible rupture can be the consequence of which nematode infection in horses 3 to 10 months of age. A. Dictyocaulus arnfieldi B. Parascaris equorum C. small strongyles D. Oxyuris equi

B. Parascaris equorum

The bile duct fluke of cats, _____________________, can cause a severe disease called "Lizard Poisoning". A. Paragonimus kellicotti B. Platynosomum fastosum C. Spirometra sp. D. Nanophyetus salmincola E. Heterobilharzia americana

B. Platynosomum fastosum

Which tick has the common name brown dog tick or kennel tick? A. Ixodes scapularis B. Rhipicephalus sanguineus C. Dermacenter variablis D. Amblyomma americanum

B. Rhipicephalus sanguineus

A horse presents with asymmetrical ataxia and muscle atrophy. The veterinarian suspects that the horse is infected with a systemic apicomplexan parasite. Which of the following is the most prudent course of action? A. Collect a biopsy of muscle and test for pathogen by PCR testing B. Send serum and CSF samples for serological testing to confirm the suspected pathogen and treat C. Provide supportive therapy and allow the horse to recover naturally, because the protozoal infection you suspect usually causes a self‐limiting infection in an accidental host like the horse. D. Because the protozoal infection you suspect has serious zoonotic implications, euthanize the horse, and obtain a definitive diagnosis by histology of neurological tissue. E. Treat the horse for the suspected protozoa based solely on clinical signs.

B. Send serum and CSF samples for serological testing to confirm the suspected pathogen and treat

Although grower & finisher pigs are one's market product, which is the most important reason to also treat sows with sarcoptic mange? A. Sows die more quickly from Sarcoptes scabiei. B. Sows are the contact source of infection for all other pigs, starting with the piglets. C. Feed conversion is more important in sows. D. Quick weight-gain is most important in sows.

B. Sows are the contact source of infection for all other pigs, starting with the piglets.

Which one of the following canine tapeworms does NOT shed its proglottids in the host's feces? The lack of segments in the feces requires the veterinarian to utilize fecal sedimentation to diagnose this tapeworm infection. A. Taenia pisiformis B. Spirometra sp. C. Mesocestoides corti D. Dipylidium caninum E. Taenia taeniaeformis

B. Spirometra sp.

Neighbors of a dairy complained to the farm manager that during the summer when seated outside they would frequently experience painful fly bites that they suspected were coming from his farm. The manager assured his neighbors that he was controlling flies by giving his cows an in-feed insecticide that kills developing larvae in cattle manure, and he had seen a major reduction in flies on the faces and backs of his cattle. However, the neighbors continued to experience fly bites. Which fly is likely to be the source of the neighbors' irritation? A. Musca domestica B. Stomoxys calcitrans C. Musca autumnalis D. Haematobia irritans

B. Stomoxys calcitrans

What activity creates the greatest risk for being infected by Trichinella? A. walking barefoot over areas where pigs have been raised outdoors. B. eating meat that has not been cooked. C. eating well-cooked meat from omnivore or carnivore game species. D. not being careful to wash vegetables before eating them raw.

B. eating meat that has not been cooked.

Neighbors of a dairy complained to the farm manager that during the summer, when seated outside, they would frequently experience painful fly bites that they suspected were coming from his farm. The manager assured his neighbors that he was controlling flies by giving his cows an in-feed insecticide that kills developing larvae in cattle manure, and he had seen a major reduction in flies on the faces and backs of his cattle. However, the neighbors continued to experience fly bites. Which fly is likely to be the source of the neighbors' irritation? A. Musca domestica B. Stomoxys calcitrans C. Musca autumnalis D. Haematobia irritans E. Gasterophilus nasalis

B. Stomoxys calcitrans

Neighbors of a dairy complained to the farm manager that during the summer, when seated outside, they would frequently experience painful fly bites that they suspected were coming from his farm. The manager assured his neighbors that he was controlling flies by giving his cows an in‐feed insecticide that kills developing larvae in cattle manure, and he had seen a major reduction in flies on the faces and backs of his cattle. However, the neighbors continued to experience fly bites. Which fly is likely to be the source of the neighbors' irritation? A. Musca domestica B. Stomoxys calcitrans C. Musca autumnalis D. Haematobia irritans E. Gasterophilus nasalis

B. Stomoxys calcitrans

Strongyloides species are considered to be mostly host-specific. Which species has the greatest potential for zoonotic infections? A. Strongyloides ransomi: pig and human B. Strongyloides stercoralis: dog and human C. Strongyloides westerii: horse and human D. Strongyloides papillosus: human and ruminant

B. Strongyloides stercoralis: dog and human

Which type of lice infestations can be treated with systemic insecticides? [Circle the correct answer] (2 points) A. Chewing Lice B. Sucking Lice

B. Sucking Lice

Toxoplasma gondii is a serious zoonotic disease for pregnant women, with the potential for causing fetal defects. There are 4 important points of advice for a pregnant female to do if she is concerned about becoming infected with Toxoplasma gondii. Which one of the following is NOT one of those 4 points of advice? [Circle the correct answer] (2 points) A. Know your immune status, as well as your cat's immune status B. Treat cat with coccidiostats daily for first 3 months of female's pregnancy C. No litter box duty D. No raw meat E. Sanitary kitchen (wash raw vegetables, wash meat knives & cutting boards)

B. Treat cat with coccidiostats daily for first 3 months of female's pregnancy

Successful treatment of a dog infected with Trichuris requires repeated dosage of an appropriate anthelmintic at monthly internals for 3 months even when reinfection is prevented. Why? A. Trichuris adults can be killed only by high levels of drugs sustained for 3 months. B. Trichuris has a 3-month prepatent time when developing early stage larvae are not susceptible to most drugs. C. tissue-inhabiting arrested larval stages of Trichuris repopulate the cecum with adults after each treatment until they are depleted by three treatments.

B. Trichuris has a 3-month prepatent time when developing early stage larvae are not susceptible to most drugs.

If a veterinarian performs successive cultures and wet mount microscopic examinations of preputial washings from a bull, she is probably looking for which pathogen? A. Neospora caninum B. Tritrichomonas foetus C. Toxoplasma gondii D. Sarcocystis cruzi E. Sarcocystis neurona.

B. Tritrichomonas foetus

A young cat, purchased from a breeder, is brought into your clinic with persistent smelly diarrhea. The cat is healthy, bright, and alert. The owner reports diarrhea that is waxing and waning, with the cat frequently straining but producing small amounts of diarrhea with each effort. Which feline protozoan should you most suspect ? [Circle the correct answer] (2 points) A. Cystoisospora rivolta B. Tritrichomonas foetus (feline) C. Giardia spp. Assemblage F D. Cystoisospora felis E. Toxoplasma gondii

B. Tritrichomonas foetus (feline)

Cats become infected with Tritrichomonas blagburni by ingesting_________________. A. Rodents infected with tissue cysts B. Trophozoites in feces/environment C. Cysts in feces/environment D. Attached tick vectors E. Sporulated oocysts in feces/environment

B. Trophozoites in feces/environment

The most common pathological consequence of heavy flea infestation is what? A. the threat of transmission of highly infectious blood-borne diseases. B. anemia C. skin lesions from flea bite allergy D. flea paralysis

B. anemia

What is the intermediate host for Dracunculus insignis, which mainly infects raccoons but can occur in dogs with access to ponds and streams? A. mosquito B. aquatic copepod C. dung beetle D. face fly

B. aquatic copepod

Symptoms of Dirofilaria immitis infection in cats at pre-adult worm stage, about 3-4 months after infective mosquito bite, resemble what clinical presentation? A. pneumonia B. asthma C. heart valve disease D. allergic dermatitis

B. asthma

Sarcocystis neurona: A. can cause dogs to shed oocysts B. can cause neurological disease in horses C. can cause persistent infection in calves but not cause clinical disease D. can cause severe systemic disease in cattle including death

B. can cause neurological disease in horses

The species of coccidia infecting ____________can be determined by examining lesions that develop in different regions of the gastrointestinal tract. A. sheep B. chickens C. horses D. cows

B. chickens

You are called back to Bullwinkle Dog Grooming and Boarding, LLC. Customers are now complaining about their dogs getting lice from the facility. Mr. Badenov wants you to inspect his facilities for lice. Although you don't find any lice, which of the following do you suspect is the issue? The groomer, Natasha Fatale, A. does not thoroughly clean up urine immediately. B. does not clean the grooming tools between dogs. C. does not securely cover the jar of dog snacks. D. does not thoroughly clean up feces immediately. E. keeps a flying squirrel in the grooming area.

B. does not clean the grooming tools between dogs.

Arrested development by Ostertagia larvae in the abomasum occurs at what time for calves grazing pastures in southern states with semi-arid summer pastures? A. during the Spring B. during the Summer C. during the Fall D. during the Winter

B. during the Summer

Habronema and Drashia that cause gastric and cutaneous lesions in horses require what as an intermediate host? A. snails B. flies C. rodents

B. flies

What are the pathological changes caused by Ostertagia ostertagi? A. blood loss anemia and hypoproteinemia B. gastric gland dysfunction, abomasal mucosal cell hyperplasia, increased systemic protein catabolism C. colitis caused by emergence of larvae from the mucosa of the large intestine D. ischemia and infarction of the arteries flowing to the large intestine, subsequent necrosis of the bowel.

B. gastric gland dysfunction, abomasal mucosal cell hyperplasia, increased systemic protein catabolism

The most economically important parasitic nematodes of horses are found where as adult worms? A. on pastures. B. in large intestine of horses. C. in trachea and bronchi of horses. D. in stomach of horses.

B. in large intestine of horses.

Experimentally, all mammals can be infected with Trichinella spiralis by feeding isolated infective larvae, but under most circumstances in nature infections are not found in herbivores (plant eaters). Why is that so? A. herbivore digestive tracks lack the ability to activate the infective larvae B. infective larvae are found in muscle tissue C. eggs containing Trichinella infective larvae will not hatch in herbivore digestive tracks D. plant polyphenols and tannins found in herbivore digestive tracks kill infective larvae of Trichinella.

B. infective larvae are found in muscle tissue

Experimentally all mammals can be infected with Trichinella spiralis by feeding isolated infective larvae, but under most circumstances in nature infections are not found in herbivores (plant eaters). Why is that so? A. herbivore digestive tracks lack the ability to activate the infective larvae B. infective larvae are only found in muscle tissue C. eggs containing Trichinella infective larvae will not hatch in herbivore digestive tracks D. plant polyphenols and tannins found in herbivore digestive tracks kill infective larvae of Trichinella.

B. infective larvae are only found in muscle tissue

The target for monthly prophylaxis treatment is what stage of Dirofilaria immitis development? A. infective larval stage in the mosquito. B. infective larval stage and migrating L4 stage in the host. C. young adult stage in pulmonary arteries. D. adult stage.

B. infective larval stage and migrating L4 stage in the host.

How do cattle become infected with Sarcocystis cruzi? A. ingesting oocysts from racoon feces B. ingesting sporocysts from dog feces C. invertebrate tick vector D. ingesting sporocysts from opossum feces E. ingesting oocysts from cat feces

B. ingesting sporocysts from dog feces

How is Dictyocaulus (lungworm) infection acquired by cattle, sheep and horses? Hint: remember Dictyocaulus is in the trichostrongylus family of nematodes. A. skin penetration B. ingestion of infective larvae while grazing pasture C. ingestion of snail intermediate hosts

B. ingestion of infective larvae while grazing pasture

The primary therapy for calves with scours caused by coccidia __________________. A. probiotics B. intravenous fluid support C. antibiotics D. vitamins

B. intravenous fluid support

In areas of where Hypoderma bovis or H. lineatum (cattle grub or heel fly) are prevalent there is concern among large animal practitioners to not delay treatment to kill migrating larvae as soon as the adult fly season is finished. What is the basis for this concern? A. drug efficacy against late stage migrating larvae is much less than against early stage larvae. B. later stage larvae migrate through the wall of the esophagus or the spinal canal where dead larvae from delayed drug treatment cause tissue reactions leading to bloat or paralysis. C. late stage larvae secret toxins leading muscle paralysis D. late stage larvae sensitize the host to have immediate type hypersensitivity reactions even without drug treatment

B. later stage larvae migrate through the wall of the esophagus or the spinal canal where dead larvae from delayed drug treatment cause tissue reactions leading to bloat or paralysis.

Pathological lesions and clinical signs associated with most cases of Dirofilaria immitis infection in dogs involve what organ? A. heart B. lung C. liver D. kidney

B. lung

Because of the growing threat of resistance to anthelmintic drugs by small strongyles in horses it is being recommended that horses be treated on a selected individual basis rather than one deworming program for an entire herd. This approach is thought to preserve a refugia population of worms that will not be selected for resistance. What approach is used to select which horses to treat? A. measurement of anemia by FAMACHA B. measurement of fecal egg count by McMasters C. Baermann technique

B. measurement of fecal egg count by McMasters

Prior to treatment of a heartworm infected dog with the adulticide, Immiticide, it is recommended that the dog be on monthly prophylaxis for two months. Why? A. monthly prophylaxis clears highly pathogenic microfilariae B. monthly prophylaxis prevents replacement of adult worms with migrating L4 larvae that are not killed by the adulticide treatment C. monthly prophylaxis will remove enteric nematodes and reduce stress on the dog

B. monthly prophylaxis prevents replacement of adult worms with migrating L4 larvae that are not killed by the adulticide treatment

Prior to treatment of a heartworm infected dog with the adulticide Immiticide it is recommended that the dog be on monthly prophylaxis for two months. Why? A. monthly prophylaxis clears highly pathogenic microfilariae B. monthly prophylaxis prevents replacement of adult worms with migrating L4 larvae that are not killed by the adulticide treatment C. monthly prophylaxis will remove enteric nematodes and reduce stress on the dog

B. monthly prophylaxis prevents replacement of adult worms with migrating L4 larvae that are not killed by the adulticide treatment

In dogs adult Capillaria infect sites other than the intestine that present with signs characteristic for inflammation of the tissue site. Where are adult Capillaria (Eucoleus) bohmi found in the dog? A. arterial blood vessels of the lung B. nasal mucosa C. subcutaneous tissue D. liver

B. nasal mucosa

There are many species of Capillaria or Eucoleus that infect the digestive tract of birds, but in dogs adult Capillaria infect sites other than the intestine that present with signs characteristic for inflammation of the tissue site. Where are adult Capillaria (Eucoleus) bohmi found in the dog? A. arterial blood vessels of the lung B. nasal mucosa C. subcutaneous tissue D. liver

B. nasal mucosa

How would you confirm the presence of Strongyloides infection in the small intestine at post mortem exam? A. gross observation of nematodes about 50 mm long on the mucosal surface. B. observation of a nematode about 2 - 7 mm long in mucosal scraping using a microscope. C. gross observation of nodules in the submucosa containing 10 mm long nematodes and caseous exudate. D. gross observation of nematodes about 200 mm long on the mucosal surface.

B. observation of a nematode about 2 - 7 mm long in mucosal scraping using a microscope.

The effects of the pathology caused by Dicrocoelium dendriticum infections are seen in ________________________. [Circle the correct answer] (2 points) A. lambs B. older sheep

B. older sheep

The effects of the pathology caused by Dicrocoelium dendriticum infections are seen in ________________________. (2 points) A. lambs B. older sheep

B. older sheep

The geographic distribution of where Dirofilaria immitis is found to be transmitted is limited by what factor? A. presence of mosquitoes will always permit transmission. B. summer temperatures that do not stay high enough to allow infective larvae to develop during the life span of potential mosquitos vectors. C. lack of domesticated dogs. D. lack of the only mosquito that transmits Dirofilaria immitis, Aedes albopictus.

B. summer temperatures that do not stay high enough to allow infective larvae

Humans get infected with the hydatid cyst of Echinococcus granulosus when they ingest: A. a flea that contains the larval tapeworm. B. the tapeworm egg from dog feces. C. the tapeworm cysticercus from raw beef. D. the tapeworm egg from human feces. E. the tapeworm procercoid stage in a freshwater copepod.

B. the tapeworm egg from dog feces.

Strategic deworming with repeat dosing or sustained release rumen bolus of avermectin class drugs (e.g. ivermectin) of calves during their first two months on pasture is done for what purpose? A. to treat clinical disease due to adult Ostertagia infection. B. to prevent development of adult egg-shedding Ostertagia. C. to treat disease due to Dictyocaulus infection. D. to treat clinical disease due to Cooperia infection.

B. to prevent development of adult egg-shedding Ostertagia.

The attending veterinarian for a multi‐million dollar feedlot operation in Iowa where 8‐month‐old calves, after a week of vaccination and quarantine, are placed on dirt lots and fed grain out of elevated troughs is concerned about type II ostertagiasis in animals coming from Louisiana in September. He should do which one of the following? A. extend the quarantine period to prevent transmission on the feedlot B. treat with an anthelmintic drug that kills L4 larvae and adults C. don't do anything because it will be a subclinical disease without consequence

B. treat with an anthelmintic drug that kills L4 larvae and adults

Heavy infections with Ostertagia ostertagi in cattle present with what set of clinical signs? A. pale mucous membranes, intramandibular edema, dark pasty feces B. watery diarrhea, intramendibular edema, anorexia (lack of appetite) C. bloody diarrhea, loss of weight, pale mucous membranes D. constipation, loss of weight, jaundice

B. watery diarrhea, intramendibular edema, anorexia (lack of appetite)

Calf scours, occurring between 7 to 14 days old, is most likely due to which protozoan parasite? A. Eimeria bovis B. Sarcocystis cruzi C. Cryptosporidium parvum D. Tritrichomonas foetus E. Cystoisospora spp.

C. Cryptosporidium parvum

Which of the following production methods is more likely to experience a coccidian (Eimeria spp.) disease outbreak? A. 3-year old Dairy cows on a pasture B. Free-range Chickens C. 1-month old Calves on a Feedlot

C. 1-month old Calves on a Feedlot

One might reasonably suspect cryptosporidiosis in which of the following situations? Select one: A. 1 year old heifer that is still open after breeding B. 12 week old calf with scours passing numerous unsporulated oocysts C. 2 week old veal calves with watery diarrhea passing numerous small sporulated oocysts D. 6 year old asymptomatic bull E. 9 month old heifer with bloody diarrhea

C. 2 week old veal calves with watery diarrhea passing numerous small sporulated oocysts

What is the prepatent time for small strongyles in horses when not arresting? A. 10 days B. 3 weeks C. 2.5 to 3 months

C. 2.5 to 3 months

Some parasitic nematodes have larval stages in the primary host (host where adult worm is found) that are metabolically active (not in arrested development) and can be killed by anthelmintic drugs. Killing larval stages and adult stages with one treatment allows control strategies for preventing contamination of the environment to be based on the prepatent time of the parasite. What is the prepatent time for Strongylus vulgaris in horses? A. 1 month B. 2 weeks C. 6 months

C. 6 months

There are several reasons why ticks are excellent vectors. One is the biological mechanism of transstadial transmission. What is transstadial transmission? A. A pathogen is transmitted from the mother tick to her eggs. B. A pathogen is transmitted from male tick to female tick during copulation. C. A pathogen remains viable in all tick life cycle stages - from egg to larvae to nymph to adult. D. A pathogen is transmitted from female tick to male tick during copulation.

C. A pathogen remains viable in all tick life cycle stages - from egg to larvae to nymph to adult.

What is the prognosis for an untreated cat infected with Cytauxzoon felis ? [Circle the correct answer] (2 points) A. Acute but mild febrile illness, recovery within 5 days. B. Chronic disease that may cause cardiac failure years after infection. C. Acute febrile disease, with death 5 days after clinical signs.

C. Acute febrile disease, with death 5 days after clinical signs.

A breeder of toy poodles brings a 2 week old puppy to your practice with a concern that this puppy is lethargic and one of its siblings died yesterday. Your exam shows pale membranes, a PCV of 12% indicating severe anemia, and loose dark feces but no parasite ova. What is the mostly likely cause of these clinical signs? A. Toxocara canis B. Haemonchus contortus C. Ancylostoma caninum D. Uncinaria

C. Ancylostoma caninum

When are the numbers of infective larvae of trichostrongyles (Ostertagia, Haemonchus, Cooperia) usually highest on pastures grazed from April to November in cool temperate regions such western North Carolina, Ohio and Virginia? A. April and May. B. June and July. C. August, September and October.

C. August, September and October.

A canine is brought to your clinic. The dog is very lethargic & has a fever. You do a CBC and find the dog has Thrombocytopenia and Anemia, you also do a blood smear and find organisms within the Red Blood Cells, which protozoans do you suspect? (2 points) A. Neospora caninum, Sarcocystis cruzi B. Isospora canis, Isospora ohioensis, C. Babesia canis, Babesia gibsoni D. Nanophyetus salmincola, Paragonimus kellicotti

C. Babesia canis, Babesia gibsoni

A canine is brought to your clinic. The dog is very lethargic & has a fever. If the dog is an American Pit Bull Terrier and has a history of dog fighting, which protozoan parasite moves to the top of your list? (2 points) A. Babesia canis B. Neospora caninum C. Babesia gibsoni D. Isospora canis E. Leishmania infantum

C. Babesia gibsoni

Which of the following habitats does not promote flea populations? A. Domestic Short Haired cat. B. House with plush carpeting. C. Concrete dog runs. D. Dog house with blankets. E. Area of shaded thick lawn.

C. Concrete dog runs.

A dairy farm calls you out to attend to a calf with scours (diarrhea). Which diarrhea-causing protozoan of calves is a very important zoonotic pathogen that is especially dangerous for immune-compromised humans? (2 points) A. Dicrocoelium dendriticum B. Fasciola hepatica C. Cryptosporidium parvum D. Eimeria bovis E. Sarcocystis cruzi

C. Cryptosporidium parvum

A dairy farm calls you out to attend to a calf with scours (diarrhea). If the calf is 8 days old and has watery scours, which protozoan parasite moves to the top of your list? (2 points) A. Dicrocoelium dendriticum B. Fasciola hepatica C. Cryptosporidium parvum D. Eimeria bovis E. Sarcocystis cruzi

C. Cryptosporidium parvum D. Eimeria bovis

A feline comes into your clinic with diarrhea. If this feline with diarrhea: is a kitten that has just been adopted from an animal shelter, which protozoan parasite moves to the top of your list? (2 points) A. Paragonimus kellicotti B. Trypanosoma cruzi C. Cystoisospora (Isospora) felis D. Sarcocystis cruzi E. Cytauxzoon felis

C. Cystoisospora (Isospora) felis

A feline comes into your clinic with diarrhea. Which diarrhea-causing protozoan of cats can be transmitted to cats by the cat ingesting a paratenic host? (2 points) A. Tritrichomonas foetus B. Trypanosoma cruzi C. Cystoisospora (Isospora) felis D. Giardia sp. Assembly F E. Cytauxzoon felis

C. Cystoisospora (Isospora) felis

A feline comes into your clinic with diarrhea. Which diarrhea-causing protozoan of cats is an apicomplexan? (2 points) A. Tritrichomonas foetus B. Trypanosoma cruzi C. Cystoisospora (Isospora) felis D. Giardia sp. Assembly F E. Cytauxzoon felis

C. Cystoisospora (Isospora) felis

A feline comes into your clinic with diarrhea. Which list of feline protozoan parasites would be on your differential list? (2 points) A. Cytauxzoon felis, Babesia gibsoni, Toxoplasma gondii B. Leishmania infantum, Trypanosoma cruzi, Sarcocystis cruzi C. Cystoisospora (Isospora) felis, Tritrichomonas foetus, Giardia sp. Assembly F D. Platynosomum fastosum, Eurytrema procyonis, Paragonimus kellicotti

C. Cystoisospora (Isospora) felis, Tritrichomonas foetus, Giardia sp. Assembly F

A free-range swine farmer calls you out to attend to some 12 day old piglets with scours (diarrhea). You know that there are many causes of diarrhea in piglets, including viruses, bacteria, and protozoa. While trying to catch some of the piglets you slip and fall face first in some of the piglet diarrhea. You accidentally swallow some infective oocysts of Cystoisospora (Isospora) suis. You shouldn't be concerned about developing coccidiosis, because: A. Cystoisospora (Isospora) suis requires a snail intermediate host. B. Cystoisospora (Isospora) suis requires an ant intermediate host. C. Cystoisospora (Isospora) suis has very high host specificity for its swine host. D. Cystoisospora (Isospora) suis must encyst in the pig muscle to become infective to humans.

C. Cystoisospora (Isospora) suis has very high host specificity for its swine host.

Paratenic vertebrate hosts help to maintain the parasite population. Which of the parasites below can utilize paratenic hosts? A. Eimeria bovis B. Tritrichomonas foetus C. Cystoisospora canis D. Cryptosporidium parvum

C. Cystoisospora canis

At a confinement hog farm, the farmer complains that some of his hogs have red crusty patches on their skin, especially their ears and that the hogs are scratching so much that they are destroying their pens and causing themselves harm (cuts, etc.). You suspect Sarcoptes scabiei, which diagnostic test will you use to confirm? [Circle the correct answer] (2 points) A. Hair pluck B. Superficial skin scrape C. Deep Skin Scrape D. Fecal Floatation E. Fecal Sedimentation

C. Deep Skin Scrape

33. Which mite causes red mange in dogs? A. Sarcoptes scabiei B. Notoedres cati C. Demodex canis D. Otodectes cynotis E. Ornithonyssus sylviarum

C. Demodex canis

At your cat clinic, a client brings in a recently adopted cat for its first wellness exam. On first inspection you notice that the cat has open wounds at the posterior base of the ear pinna. Later during the exam, you notice the cat vigorously scratching at the same wounds. No other signs of pruritus or alopecia are noticed. What should be at the top of your differential list? A. Felicola subrostratus B. Notoedres cati C. Demodex canis D. Otodectes cynotis E. Ctenocephalides felis

C. Demodex canis

Which tick has the common name American dog tick? A. Ixodes scapularis B. Rhipicephalus sanguineus C. Dermacenter variablis D. Amblyomma americanum

C. Dermacenter variablis

Most mites that infect mammalian companion and production animals spend their entire life cycle on the host. However, the poultry mite that can cause severe anemia is often found in roosting areas, off the host. Which one of the following is that mite? A. Demodex B. Otodectes C. Dermanyssus D. Sarcoptes

C. Dermanyssus

A farmer of small free-range chicken farm complains that his birds have become unthrifty and with decreased egg production, which is threatening his weekly egg sales at the farmers market. When you arrive, you notice some birds have ruffled feathers and pale wattles & combs. Before you closely inspect the chickens or the mobile coop of nest-boxes, you suspect which of the following? A. Menopon gallinae B. Psoroptes cuniculi C. Dermanyssus gallinae D. Knemidokoptes mutans E. Linognathus vituli

C. Dermanyssus gallinae

Babesiosis pathogenesis is due to_________ and __________. A. Indirect destruction of white blood cells / inflammation B. Direct destruction of splenic cells / vascular thrombi C. Direct destruction of erythrocytes (RBCs) / Autoimmune reactions D. Direct destruction of erythrocytes (RBCs) / vascular thrombi E. Direct destruction of endothelial (cell that line vessels) / Autoimmune reactions

C. Direct destruction of erythrocytes (RBCs) / Autoimmune reactions

A dairy farm calls you out to attend to a calf with scours (diarrhea). Which list of bovine protozoan parasites would be on your differential list? (2 points) A. Taenia saginata, Dicrocoelium dendriticum B. Fasciola hepatica, Fascioloides magna C. Eimeria bovis, Cryptosporidium parvum D. Tritrichomonas foetus, Sarcocystis cruzi

C. Eimeria bovis, Cryptosporidium parvum

Calf scours in a calf that is over 21 days old is most likely caused by which protozoan parasite? A. Tritrichomonas foetus B. Cystoisospora spp. C. Eimeria zurneii D. Cryptosporidium parvum

C. Eimeria zurneii

Which of the following sources of meat is not likely to contain infectious Toxoplasma organisms? A. Pork sausage B. Lamb chops C. Fresh raw salmon D. Smoked chicken sausage

C. Fresh raw salmon

Shrek calls you to the Swamp to examine his noble steed, Donkey; who has fainted, because large reddish‐brown bots were seen in Donkey's feces. What is the bot? A. Cuterebra emasculator B. Oestrus ovis C. Gasterophilus intestinalis D. Hypoderma bovis E. Cochliomyia hominivorax

C. Gasterophilus intestinalis

Which is NOT a tick-associated pathology? [Circle the correct answer] (2 points) A. Tick worry (decreased grazing, weight loss) B. Wound production (potential bacterial and/or screw-worm invasion) C. Generalized erythema and hyperkeratosis D. Blood loss E. Disease transmission

C. Generalized erythema and hyperkeratosis

Which flagellate can form cysts? A. Trypanosoma cruzi B. Leishmania infantum C. Giardia sp. D. Tritrichomonas blagburni E. Toxoplasma gondii

C. Giardia sp.

Multi-drug resistance indicated by post-treatment failure of fecal egg count reduction in small ruminants is due to what nematode? A. Ostertagia B. Trichostrongylus C. Haemonchus D. cyathostomes

C. Haemonchus

Which of the following is not a reason that ticks are excellent vectors for disease transmission? A. Persistent Feeders B. Slow Feeders C. High Host Specificity D. Transovarian Transmission E. Transstadial Transmission

C. High Host Specificity

Giardia infection may result in maldigestion and malabsorption due to which of the following? A. Inflammatory disease in the colon B. Direct destruction due to intracellular expansion inside epithelial cells and intestinal villi C. Indirect destruction due to damage to the epithelial cells and blunted intestinal villi D. Initiating an autoimmune response in the small intestines

C. Indirect destruction due to damage to the epithelial cells

When treating for lice, why should one treat twice at 7 to 14 day intervals? A. Lice show very low host specificity. B. Lice populations increase significantly in the summer C. Insecticides do not kill nits. D. Only 20 percent of the lice population is found on the host.

C. Insecticides do not kill nits.

Lutzomyia spp. sandflies are the vectors for which parasite? Select one: A. Sarcocystis spp. B. Trypanosoma cruzi C. Leishmania spp. D. Babesia spp. E. Cytauxzoon felis

C. Leishmania spp.

A farmer consults with you because he is seeing successive groups of his dairy calves come down with scours. You recommend several management changes, one of which includes: A. Make sure rodents and opossums cannot get into the barn to expose the cattle to oocysts in feces B. Make sure cats are not allowed near the calves, especially during weaning, to prevent fecaloral contamination with infective oocysts. C. Make sure calves are separated by age groups and treat the entire herd with coccidiostats. D. Makes sure dogs are not eating offal around the farm and exposing the calves to infective oocyst in their feces. E. Scrub and disinfect the barn and feeding containers with 10% bleach solution

C. Make sure calves are separated by age groups and treat the entire herd with coccidiostats.

Which fly is a mechanical vector for pinkeye (Morexella bovis) in cattle? A. Musca domestica B. Stomoxys calcitrans C. Musca autumnalis D. Haematobia irritans E. Gasterophilus nasalis

C. Musca autumnalis

Which fly is a mechanical vector for pinkeye (Morexella bovis) in cattle? A. Musca domestica B. Stomoxys calcitrans C. Musca autumnalis D. Haematobia irritans E. Gasterophilus nasalis

C. Musca autumnalis

The small intestinal fluke _____________________, can be a carrier of the bacterium Neorickettsia helminthoeca, which in turn can cause a severe disease called "Salmon Poisoning" in canids. (2 points) A. Paragonimus kellicotti B. Platynosomum fastosum C. Nanophyetus salmincola D. Heterobilharzia americana E. Spirometra sp.

C. Nanophyetus salmincola

The small intestinal fluke _____________________, can be a carrier of the bacterium Neorickettsia helminthoeca, which in turn can cause a severe disease called "Salmon Poisoning" in canids. [Circle the correct answer] (2 points) A. Paragonimus kellicotti B. Platynosomum fastosum C. Nanophyetus salmincola D. Heterobilharzia americana E. Spirometra sp.

C. Nanophyetus salmincola

Of the following protozoa, which is not known to be zoonotic? A. Giardia duodenalis B. Cryptosporidium parvum C. Neospora caninum D. Toxoplasma gondii

C. Neospora caninum

Which apicomplexan can cause abortions in cattle and neurological disease in puppies? A. Sarcocystis neurona B. Toxoplasma gondii C. Neospora caninum D. Sarcocystis cruzi

C. Neospora caninum

Mr. Boris Badenov, owner of Bullwinkle Pet Grooming and Boarding, LLC. complains to you that many owners have complained that their boarded dogs were sent home with ticks. Mr. Badenov insists that the dogs cannot be getting the ticks from his facility as his facility is only indoor boarding. Is Mr. Badenov correct? A. Yes, all ticks require outdoor habitats to thrive. B. No, Dermacentor variabilis, the American Dog tick, is strictly an indoor tick. C. No, Rhipicephalus sanguineous, the Brown Dog tick, proliferates in indoor habitats.

C. No, Rhipicephalus sanguineous, the Brown Dog tick, proliferates in indoor habitats.

A stray female cat is brought into your rescue clinic with much alopecia and scaly hyperkeratosis of the head and ear margins. The skin of the forehead is thickened into ridges. The cat scratches often and seems depressed. What is most likely the cause of this condition? A. Psoroptes cuniculi B. Ctenocephalides felis C. Notoedres felis D. Otodectes cynotis E. Haematobia irritans

C. Notoedres felis

A client adopted a stray cat from the animal shelter. The cat scratches at its ears and shakes its head vigorously. You examine the cat's external ear canal with an otoscope, what parasite do you suspect? [Circle the correct answer] (2 points) A. Notoedres cati B. Felicola subrostratus C. Otodectes cynotis D. Demodex felis E. Sarcoptes scabiei

C. Otodectes cynotis

As a Small Animal Veterinarian, one of your first cases, is a very emaciated rescue dog that has a strong smell of necrosis. When you take off his very large leather collar you find a very neglected wound that has many fly larvae infesting the necrotic wound. Which fly larvae are these? [Circle the correct answer] (2 points) A. Oestrus sp. B. Musca autumnalis C. Phormia regina (blow fly) D. Stomoxys calcitrans E. Cuterebra sp.

C. Phormia regina (blow fly)

Which protozoan parasite is rare in the US and causes chronic heart disease in dogs? [Circle the correct answer] (2 points) A. Leishmania infantum B. Cystoisospora canis C. Trypanosoma cruzi D. Sarcocystis cruzi E. Neospora caninum

C. Trypanosoma cruzi

A woman owns 3 cats and has just found out she is pregnant. Her doctor advises her to consult her veterinarian to determine her risk of parasite- associated complications. What should you do? A. Request a stool sample from both the cats and the woman. And do a fecal exam to try to find Toxoplasma gondii oocysts. B. Recommend serological testing for only the cats for Toxoplasma gondii. C. Recommend serological testing against Toxoplasma gondii for the cats for and recommend she ask her doctor that she also be serologically tested for Toxoplasma gondii.

C. Recommend serological testing against Toxoplasma gondii for the cats for and recommend she ask her doctor that she also be serologically tested for Toxoplasma gondii.

Although neurotoxic with a narrow safety margin, what is the recommended treatment for cats with Tritrichomonas foetus (feline)? [Circle the correct answer] (2 points) A. Metranidozole B. Ivermectin C. Rodinazole D. Monensin E. Fenbendazole

C. Rodinazole

The main pathology caused by adult Taenia pisiformis & Dipylidium caninum is A. Brain damage B. Liver Necrosis C. Segments in feces, client worry, aesthetics D. Lung inflammation

C. Segments in feces, client worry, aesthetics

The main pathology caused by adult Taenia pisiformis and Dipylidium caninum? A. Brain damage B. Liver Necrosis C. Segments in feces, client worry, aesthetics D. Lung inflammation

C. Segments in feces, client worry, aesthetics

What is the intermediate host for Habronema in horses? A. mosquito B. Gasterophilus C. Stomoxys or Musca D. Cochliomyia

C. Stomoxys or Musca

Which one of the following is a good general statement about how all protozoan parasites are able to overcome host defenses and cause pathology? (2 points) A. The infective stage utilizes insect vectors. B. The infective cyst stage is highly resistant. C. The ability to asexually reproduce and produce large populations. D. Protozoa always hide in red blood cells. E. Protozoa infect the epithelial cells of the small intestine of the definitive host.

C. The ability to asexually reproduce and produce large populations.

Visceral larval migrans leading to pathological changes in the eye or brain of humans is most often caused by ingestion of infective larvae of what nematode? A. Ancylostoma B. Strongyloides C. Toxocara D. Capillaria

C. Toxocara

Visceral larval migrans leading to pathological changes in the eye or brain of humans is most often caused by ingestion of infective larva/infective ova of what nematode? A. Ancylostoma B. Strongyloides C. Toxocara D. Capillaria

C. Toxocara

Visceral larval migrans leading to pathological changes in the eye or brain of humans is most often caused by ingestion of infective larvae of what nematode? A. Ancylostoma B. Stongyloides C. Toxocara D. Capillaria

C. Toxocara

Of the ascarids listed below which one is of major public health concern with regard to zoonotic infection of humans? A. Parascaris equorum B. Ascaris suum C. Toxocara canis D. Ascaridia galli

C. Toxocara canis

Which ascarid below can arrest as a larva in host tissues and infect pre-natal or newborn offspring by transuterine or lactogenic routes? A. Ascaris suum B. Parascaris equorum C. Toxocara canis D. all of the above

C. Toxocara canis

A shepherd complains of lamb abortions. Once you arrive at the farm the shepherd informs you also that 2 sheep were put down due showing signs of neurologic deficits, specifically they had developed a circling behavior. During your visit to the farm you notice many "barn cats" roaming around. Which apicomplexan parasite do you suspect? [Circle the correct answer] (2 points) A. Haemonchus contortus B. Cryptosporidium parvum C. Toxoplasma gondii D. Tritrichomonas foetus E. Eimeria ovinoidalis

C. Toxoplasma gondii

Which 2 apicomplexans are of serious zoonotic concern, especially for immunodeficient people? [Circle the correct answer] (2 points) A. Sarcocystis neurona & Sarcocystis cruzi B. Eimeria zuernii & Cystoisopora rivolta C. Toxoplasma gondii & Cryptosporidium parvum D. Neospora caninum & Tritichomonas foetus E. Cystoisospora ohioensis & Babesia gibsoni

C. Toxoplasma gondii & Cryptosporidium parvum

This nematode is unique among parasites of warm-blooded animal in that there are no ova, larval or adult forms that occur outside of the host. What nematode is it? A. Strongyloides B. Oesophagostomum C. Trichinella D. Capillaria

C. Trichinella

Most trichostrongyles are host specific. An important exception is a trichostrongyle that infects the stomach of cattle, small ruminants and horses. It can cause disease in horses co-grazed with sheep that can tolerate higher levels of infection than horses. What trichostrongyle is this? A. Haemonchus contortus B. Ostertagia ostertagi C. Trichostrongylus axei D. Cooperia oncophora

C. Trichostrongylus axei

30. Which one of the following genera of adult nematodes causes hemorrhagic colitis in dogs and pigs? A. Oesophagostomum B. Strongyloides C. Trichuris D. Trichostrongylus

C. Trichuris

Knowing that a parasitic nematode belongs to the order Spirurida informs you that the nematode life cycle requires an arthropod intermediate host. This information is important in how you proceed to prevent further infection. Which one of the following is NOT in the order Spirurida? A. Physaloptera B. Habronema C. Trichuris D. Dracunculus

C. Trichuris

You take a job as a Large Animal Vet in California. You are called out to a cattle farm that has been having abortions. Which list of bovine protozoan parasites would be on your differential list? (2 points) A. Eimeria bovis, Cryptosporidium parvum B. Taenia saginata, Dicrocoelium dendriticum C. Tritrichomonas foetus, Neospora caninum D. Fasciola hepatica, Fascioloides magna

C. Tritrichomonas foetus, Neospora caninum

Chronic infection with which of the following parasite can cause cardiac disease by infecting and destroying myocardial cells? A. Babesia vogeli B. Leishmania infantum C. Trypanosoma cruzi D. Cytauxzoon felis

C. Trypanosoma cruzi

Toxoplasma gondii is a serious zoonotic disease for pregnant women, with the potential for causing fetal defects. Which of the following is NOT a potential threat for human infection? A. Oocyst from cat feces B. Uncooked pork C. Uncooked salmon D. Uncooked free-range chicken E. Raw, unwashed garden vegetables

C. Uncooked salmon

What control measures are most appropriate for controlling Tritrichomonas foetus infections in cattle? [Circle the correct answer] (2 points) A. Elimination of Stray Canids, Don't feed offal / scraps to dogs B. Fecal sanitation, Coccidiostats C. Use Sanitary Artificial Insemination, Surveillance of Bulls D. Elimination of Stray Felids, Eliminate Rodent paratenic hosts E. Keep Opossums out of feed bins, Eliminate fruit trees in pastures

C. Use Sanitary Artificial Insemination, Surveillance of Bulls

You take a job as a Large Animal Vet in California. You are called out to a cattle farm that has been having abortions. Assuming the offending parasite is Tritrichomonas foetus, what would be the best way to prevent infection? (2 points) A. Use sanitary hutches on a hill-side. B. Eliminate stray canids C. Use sanitary artificial insemination. D. Eliminate sandfly vectors

C. Use sanitary artificial insemination.

The primary screwworm fly, Cochliomyia hominivorax, is an important parasite whose maggots invade and eat away living tissue of warm-blooded animals. It has been effectively eradicated from the USA, but persists in Mexico and countries of Latin America and South America. Eradication was accomplished by release of sterilized male fly pupae over large areas of southern states in the USA. Female flies that mate with sterile males produce sterile offspring. What one aspect of the screwworm life cycle allowed this eradication strategy to work so well? A. a very short life span of the adult female fly B. the maggot stage has a very long life span C. adult female flies copulate only once D. sterile male flies can not fly

C. adult female flies copulate only once

Strongyloides sp. are exceptional among the parasitic nematodes covered in this course. What makes this genera of parasitic nematodes exceptional? A. the parasitic adult female worm is found in the small intestine B. infective larvae can infect by skin penetration C. adult male and female free-living (non-parasitic) worms mate and produce offspring outside of the host D. infective larvae can pass from mother to babies by lactogenic route of infection

C. adult male and female free-living (non-parasitic) worms mate and produce offspring outside of the host

All the genera of ascarid nematodes discussed in this course, such as Toxocara, Ascaris, Parascaris, have a common feature that makes their control very difficult. What is common to these genera of ascarids? A. all have 3 large lips at their anterior end. B. all have free-living infective larvae. C. all have long-lived infective larvae in ova that are highly resistant to environmental elements and even to chemical disinfectants. D. all have infective larvae that can infect offspring by transuterine or trans mammary routes.

C. all have long-lived infective larvae in ova that are highly resistant to environmental elements and even to chemical disinfectants.

Eimeria species: A. are able to infect dogs and cats B. are not very host specific C. are common coccidians of hooved stock and poultry D. are able to form cysts in tissues of paratenic hosts

C. are common coccidians of hooved stock and poultry

Larval and adult stages of small strongyles (cyathostomes) in horses are found where? A. both in the small intestine B. adults are found in the large intestine, larvae in the small intestine C. both are found in the large intestine D. adults area found in the small intestine and larvae are found in muscle tissue

C. both are found in the large intestine

Neospora caninum: A. can have many different paratenic hosts B. can cause neurological disease in horses C. can cause persistent infection in calves but not cause clinical disease D. can cause severe systemic disease in cattle including death

C. can cause persistent infection in calves but not cause clinical disease

Grazing pastures is the only route of infection for the trichostrongyle nematodes that infect small ruminants and cattle, and the large and small strongyles that infect horses. What are the environmental parameters that influence the development of ova to infective larvae outside of the host? A. trees or small bushes at the edge of the pasture B. constantly wet, standing water, somewhere in the pasture C. climate providing warmth and moisture sufficient for larval development and movement on herbage D. heavily thatched pastures that support large populations of plant mites

C. climate providing warmth and moisture sufficient for larval development and movement on herbage

What are the pathological changes caused by small strongyles (cyathostomes) in horses? A. blood loss anemia and hypoproteinemia B. gastric gland dysfunction, abomasal mucosal cell hyperplasia, increased systemic protein catabolism C. colitis caused by emergence of larvae from the mucosa of the large intestine D. thromboembolism causing ischemia and infarction of the arteries flowing to the large intestine, subsequent necrosis of the bowel .

C. colitis caused by emergence of larvae from the mucosa of the large intestine

What are the pathological changes caused by small strongyles in horses? A. blood loss anemia and hypoproteinemia B. gastric gland dysfunction, abomasal mucosal cell hyperplasia, increased systemic protein catabolism C. colitis caused by emergence of larvae from the mucosa of the large intestine D. thromboembolism causing ischemia and infarction of the arteries flowing to the large intestine, subsequent necrosis of the bowel.

C. colitis caused by emergence of larvae from the mucosa of the large intestine

Cystoisospora species are: A. able to infect hooved stock and poultry B. not very host specific C. common coccidian of carnivores D. not able to form cysts in tissues of paratenic hosts

C. common coccidian of carnivores

Clinical presentation of diarrhea in a foal at 2 weeks of age suggests infection with Strongyloides westerii. What question below is not relevant to a presentation of Strongyloides? A. did a previous new-borne from this mare present with diarrhea? B. is the stall kept clean and with dry bedding? C. did a fecal exam of this foal show strongyle-type ova?

C. did a fecal exam of this foal show strongyle-type ova?

You are presented with a two week old puppy showing signs of very severe anemia. You suspect infection with Ancylostoma caninum but fecal exam shows no hookworm ova. What is your first action? A. begin bottle feeding the puppy to avoid further infection B. move the litter of puppies to a new litter box to avoid further infection C. immediately treat the puppy with an anthelmintic drug such as pyrantel D. check the mother's feces for hookworm ova

C. immediately treat the puppy with an anthelmintic drug such as pyrantel

Clinical signs of Ostertagia infection in calves appear toward the end of their first year of grazing on a pasture (no rotation of pastures). Why do clinical signs appear at the end of the grazing season? A. nutritional value of pastures at the end of the season is greatly decreased and causes lower resistance to infection in calves at this time B. shorter grass length causes calves to graze closer to the ground C. infective larval numbers on pastures increase during the grazing season due to increasing adult worm burdens producing more ova to contaminate the pasture D. many infective larva are present on pasture early in the grazing season but grass growth is inadequate for transmission

C. infective larval numbers on pastures increase during the grazing season due to increasing adult worm burdens producing more ova to contaminate the pasture

What is the route of infection by trichostrongyles for ruminants? A. skin‐penetration by L3 found around watering sites and in feed lots. B. ingestion of larvated ova contaminating water sources. C. ingestion of L3 while grazing pastures. D. ingestion of L3 deposited by flies around the mouth and eyes

C. ingestion of L3 while grazing pastures.

Trichuris infection occurs by what route? A. ingestion of free-living infective larvae. B. ingestion of infective larvae contained in the required beetle intermediate host. C. ingestion of the infective larva contained in the long-lived, environmentally resistant ova. D. skin penetration by first stage larvae in soil.

C. ingestion of the infective larva contained in the long-lived, environmentally resistant ova.

Sarcoptes scabei infects many different mammalian hosts as species specific varieties or subspecies. These mites borrow deep into the dermis where all of their life stages can be found. What one, predominant, clinical sign is associated with scabies mite infections? A. anemia B. erythema or red skin C. itching, signs of self trauma from scratching D. large pustules in the skin

C. itching, signs of self trauma from scratching

Oesophagostomum has species that specifically infect ruminants and pigs. Why is it called the "nodular worm"? A. the adult male worm has an expanded cuticular nodule in the copulatory bursa. B. adult worms are surrounded by nodular cysts in the skin of infected hosts. C. larvae are found in cystic nodules in the intestine of the infected hosts. D. the adult female worm has an expanded cuticular nodule at the vulvar opening.

C. larvae are found in cystic nodules in the intestine of the infected hosts.

Which life stage of the small strongyles (cyathostomes) causes the most important pathological lesions? A. larvae migrating in host tissues. B. adult worm. C. larvae emerging from large intestinal submucosa. D. arrested, hypobiotic larvae.

C. larvae emerging from large intestinal submucosa

The pathology and clinical signs associated with Dirofilaria immitis in cats is associated most often with which organ? A. heart B. liver C. lungs D. kidneys

C. lungs

The pathology and clinical signs associated with Dirofilaria immitis in dogs is associated most often with which organ? A. heart B. liver C. lungs D. kidneys

C. lungs

Texas cattle fever caused by the protozoa, Babesia bigemina, has been nearly eradicated (except for a narrow area in Texas bordering on Mexico) in the USA. B. bigemina is transmitted by the one host tick Rhipicephalus annulatus. The success of this eradication has not been repeated with the numerous protozoal, rickettsial and bacterial diseases transmitted by three host ticks. What is the best reason for success in eradication of the one host tick but not three host ticks? A. the larval and nymph stages of most three host ticks are resistant to current drugs used for killing ticks. B. one host ticks feed on only one host in the adult stage, but are off the host during larval and nymph stages. C. one host ticks feed on only one host during all of their life stages, making it possible to kill almost all stages with one treatment of the host D. all developmental stages and adult stages of most three host ticks are resistant to current drugs used for killing ticks.

C. one host ticks feed on only one host during all of their life stages, making it possible to kill almost all stages with one treatment of the host

Many of the mammals of veterinary importance, including both companion and production animals, are infected by species specific ascarid nematodes. The life cycles can differ markedly with regard to routes of infection and larval migration depending on the host. However all ascarids infecting mammals covered in this course and of primary veterinary importance have the adult stage in what organ? A. large intestine B. lungs C. small intestine D. liver

C. small intestine

One of the pasture management approaches to minimize exposure of grazing ruminants to trichostrongyle infective larvae is to move animals to new pastures (not previously grazed for 2 months) at less than 3-day intervals. What lifecycle feature supports the 3-day interval? A. the prepatent time for the adult worms in the host. B. the number of eggs in the feces prior to moving. C. the time for eggs to develop to infective larvae on pasture.

C. the time for eggs to develop to infective larvae on pasture.

When working with dog breeders or anyone raising a litter of puppies most veterinarians routinely recommend starting anthelmintic treatment of puppies at 2 weeks of age and repeating treatments twice at 2-week intervals. What is the justification for this recommendation? A. to prevent patent Trichuris vulpis infections. B. to treat clinical disease from adult Toxocara canis. C. to prevent patent Ancylostoma caninum infections. D. to kill arrested L4 Ancylostoma caninum.

C. to prevent patent Ancylostoma caninum infections

Most cats diagnosed with heartworm infection are treated by which one of the following approaches? A. immiticide adulticide drug treatment using the same protocol as dogs B. immiticide adulticide drug treatment as two single injections spaced one month apart C. treat with corticosteroid in reducing doses during episodes of clinical signs, do not give immiticide, there is no safe immediate-kill drug treatment for heartworm in cats D. do not treat with any drug, stop monthly prophylaxis treatments.

C. treat with corticosteroid in reducing doses during episodes of clinical signs, do not give immiticide, there is no safe immediate-kill drug treatment for heartworm in cats

What is the minimum number of flea bites that will cause Flea Bite Dermatitis in an allergic pet? A. 200 B. 8 C. 27 D. 1 E. 50

D. 1

Which tick has the common name lone star tick? A. Ixodes scapularis B. Rhipicephalus sanguineus C. Dermacenter variablis D. Amblyomma americanum

D. Amblyomma americanum

Especially in puppies and kittens, what is the most serious pathology caused by a heavy infestation of fleas. [Circle the correct answer] (2 points) A. Flea bite dermatitis allergy B. Disease transmission of the flea tapeworm C. Wound production D. Blood loss -> anemia

D. Blood loss -> anemia

Sarcocystis cruzi has a heteroxenous life cycle involving which of the following pairs of hosts? A. Felids and rodents B. Opossums and horses C. Canids and small mammals D. Canids and cattle

D. Canids and cattle

A dog presents to you with diarrhea. Based on the clinical presentation and history, you are highly suspicious of Giardia. What are the best next steps to confirm diagnosis? A. Antigen ELISA detection test B. Direct microscopic fecal analysis C. Fecal PCR test D. Combine options A and B

D. Combine options A and B

A client has an outdoor cat that has been diagnosed with flea bit allergy. Which of the following is NOT recommended? [Circle the correct answer] (2 points) A. Keep cat and other pets on flea preventative. B. Clean pet beds often C. Vacuum house frequently. D. Continue to allow the cat to go outdoors

D. Continue to allow the cat to go outdoors

Which bovine protozoan invades the microvilli of intestinal epithelial cells ? [Circle the correct answer] (2 points) A. Eimeria bovis B. Tritrichomonas foetus C. Neospora caninum D. Cryptosporidium parvum E. Eimeria zuernii

D. Cryptosporidium parvum

Which of the following protozoa infects the microvilli of intestinal cells, causing intestinal cell dysfunction? A. Eimeria leuckarti B. Eimeria bovis C. Eimeria tenella D. Cryptosporidium parvum E. Cystoisospora rivolta

D. Cryptosporidium parvum

Many insect genera, but not all, have complete metamorphosis where the larval stages that hatch from eggs are very different from the adult stage. Recognition of these larval stages is important because in some cases they are a direct cause of disease. Which one of the following genera has a disease-causing parasitic larval stage? A. Ctenocephalides B. Musca C. Stomoxys D. Cuterebra

D. Cuterebra

A client brings you a one year old cat that has been mainly outdoors this past summer. The cat has a subcutaneous swelling on the left lateral side of the neck. Close examination reveals a hole to that swelling in the skin and a pair of dark spots on the end of what appears to be a cattle grub in the cyst. What is this likely to be? A. Hypoderma bovis, cattle grub B. Gasterophilus intestinalis, horse bot C. Oestrus ovis, sheep bot D. Cuterebra emasculator, rodent bot

D. Cuterebra emasculator, rodent bot

Which one of the following does the adult female fly NOT come in contact with the host, and thus does NOT deposit its nits or larvae directly in or on the host. A. Hypoderma bovis, cattle grub B. Gasterophilus intestinalis, horse bot C. Oestrus ovis, sheep bot D. Cuterebra emasculator, rodent bot

D. Cuterebra emasculator, rodent bot

Puppies infected with this coccidian parasite may break with diarrhea due to stressful situations, like being in an animal shelter or after a plane trip or other shipping stress. [Circle the correct answer] (2 points) A. Sarcocystis neurona B. Toxoplasma gondii C. Eimeria zuernii D. Cystoisospora canis E. Sarcocystis cruzi

D. Cystoisospora canis

Which protozoa infection is transmitted by Amblyomma americanum and often results in high fever, dyspnea, jaundice, pancytopenia, hyperbilirubinemia, and death if not treated? A. Toxoplasma gondii B. Leishmania infantum C. Babesia vogeli D. Cytauxzoon felis

D. Cytauxzoon felis

Whether Cryptosporidium parvum, an Eimerian coccidian or an Isosporan coccidian that is causing diarrhea, the primary concern is ____________________ . A. Anemia B. Paralysis C. Colitis D. Dehydration E. Respiratory distress

D. Dehydration

A5‐year‐old NM Black Lab comes into your clinic with fever, anorexia, lymphadenopathy, coughing, abdominal pain, vomiting and diarrhea. You also note edema of the extremities. The blood work indicates a thrombocytopenia and leukopenia. Serum biochemistry indicate hypoproteinemia, hypoalbuminemia, and increased liver enzyme activities. A lymph node aspirate reveals rickettsial organisms; you suspect Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever (Rickettsia rickettsii). Which of the following would be the primary suspect vector for RMSF? A. Amblyomma americanum B. Ixodes scapularis C. Trichodectes canis D. Dermacentor variabilis E. Rhipicephalus sanguineous

D. Dermacentor variabilis

Which nematode does not have the ability to undergo arrested larval development in a hypobiotic state in its host? A. Ostertagia ostertagi B. Toxocara canis C. Ancylostoma caninum D. Dirofilaria immitis

D. Dirofilaria immitis

A dairy farm calls you out to attend to a calf with scours (diarrhea). If the calf is 23 days old and has bloody scours, which protozoan parasite moves to the top of your list? (2 points) A. Dicrocoelium dendriticum B. Fasciola hepatica C. Cryptosporidium parvum D. Eimeria bovis E. Sarcocystis cruzi

D. Eimeria bovis

Which one of the following potential paratenic hosts are important sources of human Toxoplasma gondii infections. A. Free‐range cattle B. Pigs raised in factory farm C. Poultry raised in a factory farm D. Free‐range pigs E. Unpasteurized milk from dairy cattle

D. Free‐range pigs

A feline comes into your clinic with diarrhea. If this feline with diarrhea: is an adult cat that has been loosing weight and lethargic, which protozoan parasite moves to the top of your list? (2 points) A. Tritrichomonas foetus B. Trypanosoma cruzi C. Sarcocystis cruzi D. Giardia sp. Assembly F E. Cytauxzoon felis

D. Giardia sp. Assembly F

Kittens infected with Cystoisospora felis often suffer from diarrhea. What tissue is this coccidian infecting? [Circle the correct answer] (2 points) A. Cardiac Muscle B. Red Blood Cells C. Macrophages D. Intestinal Epithelium E. Neural Tissue

D. Intestinal Epithelium

What measures are most appropriate for controlling Sarcocystis neurona? A. Elimination of stray canids, don't feed offal to dogs B. Fecal sanitation, coccidiostats C. Use sanitary artificial insemination, surveillance of bulls D. Keep opossums out of feed bins, eliminate fruit trees in pastures

D. Keep opossums out of feed bins, eliminate fruit trees in pastures

Which fly can be controlled with in‐feed insecticides? A. Bovicola bovis B. Stomoxys calcitrans C. Gasterophilus nasalis D. Musca autumnalis E. Phormia regina

D. Musca autumnalis

The systemic / abortion apicomplexan, _____________________, can be transmitted from female dog to puppies via transplacental transmission and often causes Flaccid Hind-limb Syndrome in puppies. [Circle the correct answer] (2 points) A. Sarcocystis neurona B. Toxoplasma gondii C. Cystoisospora canis D. Neospora caninum E. Sarcocystis cruzi

D. Neospora caninum

Which Systemic Apicomplexan of canids is a double threat by causing neurologic issues in dogs as well as late term abortions in cattle? [Circle the correct answer] (2 points) A. Trypanosoma cruzi B. Cystoisospora canis C. Sarcocystis cruzi D. Neospora caninum E. Leishmania infantum

D. Neospora caninum

Which Systemic Apicomplexan of canids not only causes late term abortions in cattle, but may also pass via transuterine transmission to successive cattle generations (transgenerational), resulting in the potential need to cull infected cattle? [Circle the correct answer] (2 points) A. Trypanosoma cruzi B. Cystoisospora canis C. Sarcocystis cruzi D. Neospora caninum E. Leishmania infantum

D. Neospora caninum

Which apicomplexan can cause abortions in cattle and neurological disease in puppies. A. Sarcocystis neurona B. Toxoplasma gondii C. Cystoisospora canis D. Neospora caninum E. Sarcocystis cruzi

D. Neospora caninum

Which protozoa has an Obligate Indirect Life Cycle where canids are definitive hosts that become infected after ingesting aborted cattle fetuses? A. Cystoisospora felis B. Toxoplasma gondii C. Sarcocystis cruzi D. Neospora caninum E. Sarcocystis neurona

D. Neospora caninum

A feral cat is brought into your clinic. It shakes its heads frequently and scratches at the base of its ears. Which mite do you suspect? A. Sarcoptes scabiei B. Notoedres cati C. Demodex canis D. Otodectes cynotis E. Ornithonyssus sylviarum

D. Otodectes cynotis

A client brings you a large (10 cm or ~ 4 inches) white worm with a long tapering tail that she found in the feces of her 3 year old horse. What is the nematode that most likely fits this description and how it was found? A. Stongylus vulgaris B. small strongyle C. Parascaris equorum D. Oxyuris equi

D. Oxyuris equi

Which is the best, most reliable diagnostic test to determine the infective Babesia species? A. Blood smear and microscopy B. Lymph node aspirate and microscopy C. Serology D. PCR test E. Western Blot

D. PCR test

Which is the best, most reliable diagnostic test to determine the infective Babesia species? A. Blood smear and microscopy B. Lymph node aspirate and microscopy C. Serology D. PCR test

D. PCR test

This lung fluke often cause respiratory signs like cough, but in rare cases it can cause acute pneumothorax and death. A. Heterobilharzia americana B. Nanophyetus salmincola C. Dicrocoelium dendriticum D. Paragonimus kellicotti E. Platynosomum fastosum

D. Paragonimus kellicotti

This lung fluke often causes respiratory signs like cough, but in rare cases it can cause acute pneumothorax and death. A. Heterobilharzia americana B. Nanophyetus salmincola C. Dicrocoelium dendriticum D. Paragonimus kellicotti E. Platynosomum fastosum

D. Paragonimus kellicotti

Which adult parasitic nematode infection of dogs and cats is readily diagnosed by endoscopic exam of the stomach? A. Toxocara B. Ancylostoma C. Trichuris D. Physaloptera

D. Physaloptera

Which adult parasitic nematode infection of dogs and cats is readily diagnosed by endoscopic exam of the stomach? A. Toxocara B. Ancylostoma C. Trichuris D. Physaloptera

D. Physaloptera

Which adult parasitic nematode infection of dogs and cats is readily diagnosed by endoscopic exam of the stomach? A. Toxocara B. Ancylostoma C. Trichuris D. Physaloptera

D. Physaloptera

Both cats and dogs can be infected with Giardia. The potential for transmission between these two hosts and/or their human owners is_________________. A. Unknown B. Relatively high as it only takes a single organism to infect a susceptible host C. Relatively high as there is little host specificity D. Relatively low as each of these hosts is usually infected with a host‐specific assemblage E. Relatively low because Giardia is not very infective once it is in the environment.

D. Relatively low as each of these hosts is usually infected with a host‐specific assemblage

Cats become infected with the tapeworm, Taenia taeniaformis, when they ingest a _________________, that contains a strobilocercus larval stage. A. Pasture Mite B. Bird C. Flea D. Rodent E. Rabbit

D. Rodent

A 4‐month‐old kitten presents to you for diarrhea. You ask the owner questions about the duration, consistency and frequency of the diarrhea; however, they do not know any answers to your questions and cannot describe the diarrhea. On a fresh wet‐mount, you see many spindle‐shaped, forward moving organisms with vigorous motility and are highly suspicious of a certain gastrointestinal protozoal pathogen. To be certain, you send a sample out for PCR and your initial suspicions are confirmed. From the options below, how will you treat this cat? A. Metronidazole B. Clindamycin C. Atovaquone and Azithromycin D. Ronidazole E. Probiotics and a raw diet

D. Ronidazole

Which apicomplexan causes severe systemic disease in cattle by direct destruction of vascular endothelial cells and muscle cells? A. Neospora caninum B. Cytauxzoon felis C. Toxoplasma gondii D. Sarcocystis cruzi E. Sarcocystis neurona.

D. Sarcocystis cruzi

You are presented with pit bull breed dog that has several old bite wounds. The dog is febrile and has an enlarged spleen. Evaluation of a stained blood smear revealed small piroplasms inside erythrocytes. You perform blood work. What is the most common blood abnormality typically seen with this type of protozoal infection? A. Neutrophilia (elevated neutrophils) B. Lymphocytosis (elevated lymphocytes) C. Hypoproteinemia (low protein) D. Thrombocytopenia (low platelets)

D. Thrombocytopenia (low platelets)

A free-range swine farmer calls you out to attend to some 12 day old piglets with scours (diarrhea). You know that there are many causes of diarrhea in piglets, including viruses, bacteria, and protozoa. During your visit to the swine farm you notice many feral "barn cats" roaming around the farm. Which feline protozoan can infest the muscles of the pigs, and be a serious zoonotic issue for pregnant women that ingest raw pork? A. Isospora felis B. Tritrichomonas foetus C. Cytauxzoon felis D. Toxoplasma gondii

D. Toxoplasma gondii

Co-grazing horses with sheep increases the risk of catarrhal gastritis and/or nodular hyperplasia in the stomach of horses by infection with what nematode? A. Strongyloides westerii B. Ostertagia ostertagi C. Haemonchus contortus D. Trichostrongylus axei

D. Trichostrongylus axei

Your client in Raleigh has a 4 year old spayed female boxer dog and has purchased a house with a sunny (no shaded areas) backyard that the previous owner fenced for his dogs. The previous owner raised two litters from a female dog that he did not have on monthly prophylaxis, and complained about having "worms" in the puppies and the female dog having bouts of bloody diarrhea. Your client would like her dog to have access to the backyard but is concerned about her dog getting infected with "worms". The house has been vacant for 3 months over the summer. What nematode presents the highest risk for establishing a patent infection with adult worms in your client's dog from being in the backyard? A. Ancylostoma B. Toxocara C. Strongyloides D. Trichuris

D. Trichuris

Your client in Raleigh has a 4 year old spayed female boxer dog and has purchased a house with a sunny backyard that the previous owner fenced for her dogs. The previous owner raised two litters from a female dog that he did not have on monthly prophylaxis, and complained about having "worms" in the puppies. Your client would like her dog to have access to the backyard but is concerned about her dog getting infected with "worms". The house has been vacant for 3 months over the summer. What nematode presents the highest risk for establishing adult worms in your client's dog from being in the backyard? A. Ancylostoma B. Toxocara C. Strongyloides D. Trichuris

D. Trichuris

A farmer from Nevada is complaining about having too many open cows (his cows are not getting pregnant). The farmer has 1 bull that is about 5 years old. If you can only test for 1 of the organisms listed below, which one should you test for? A. Neospora caninum B. Sarcocystis cruzi C. Toxoplasma gondii D. Tritrichomonas foetus E. Trypanosoma cruzi

D. Tritrichomonas foetus

Which parasite is endemic in South and Central America and is often transmitted by Triatomid (Reduviid) bugs by Stercorarian transmission? [Circle the correct answer] (2 points) A. Leishmania infantum B. Cystoisospora canis C. Sarcocystis cruzi D. Trypanosoma cruzi E. Neospora caninum

D. Trypanosoma cruzi

Which of the following control measures provides the most immediate efficacy for decreasing the over-all flea population in a house environment? A. Treatment of pets with an Adulticide. B. Treatment of pets with a Larvicide C. Treatment of pets with a Larvicide and an Adulticide. D. Vacuum carpets and upholstery

D. Vacuum carpets and upholstery

Which of the following control measures provides the most immediate efficacy for decreasing the over‐ all flea population in a house environment? A. Treatment of pets with an Adulticide. B. Treatment of pets with a Larvicide C. Treatment of pets with a Larvicide and an Adulticide. D. Vacuum carpets and upholstery

D. Vacuum carpets and upholstery

Which of the following control measures provides the most immediate efficacy of decreasing the flea population in a house? [Circle the correct answer] (2 points) A. Treatment of pets with an Adulticide B. Treatment of pets with a Larvacide C. Treatment of pets with a Larvacide and an adulticide. D. Vacuum carpets and upholstery

D. Vacuum carpets and upholstery

The antibiotic doxycycline is given to a heartworm infected dog before adulticide therapy to reduce lung inflammatory reactions by killing what organism? A. E. coli B. Rickettsia C. Mycoplasma D. Wolbachia

D. Wolbachia

A horse owner that maintains her 5-year-old horse in stable, and trains on a paddock so it is rarely on pasture. She has her horse on a selective deworming program where consistently low fecal egg counts allow her to deworm only at 6- month intervals. Five months after the last deworming she collected a large white nematode passed by her horse and is afraid her horse is infected with the large strongyle, Strongylus vulgaris. She presents you with the nematode she collected. Based on what you see you recognize Oxyuris equi. What did you see? A. well developed buccal capsule with teeth. B. three fleshy lips at the anterior end. C. large copulatory burse. D. a long tapering posterior end (tail).

D. a long tapering posterior end (tail).

A two year old dog was adopted from a shelter three weeks after entering the shelter. It has no history of monthly prophylaxis treatment for heartworm but the shelter deworms all dogs for enteric nematodes when they enter. The shelter is well maintained and runs are cleaned daily. The new owner brings the dog to your clinic two days after bringing the dog home and fecal flotation shows hookworm ova. What is the most likely explanation for this finding? A. the dog was re-infected by ingestion of fresh feces from a dog in the same run B. anthelmintic drug resistant strains of hookworm are common and this dog was infected with one C. infective larvae of hookworm are passed in fresh feces and these re-infected the adopted dog by skin penetration even though the runs were cleaned daily D. arrested hypobiotic larvae replaced adult worms removed by the initial deworming

D. arrested hypobiotic larvae replaced adult worms removed by the initial deworming

Equine Protozoal Myeloencephalitis (EPM) ____________ A. can be completely cured using antiprotozoal drugs. B. will always resolve on its own. C. can be treated using a short course of anti‐inflammatory drugs. D. can be treated using antiprotozoal drugs leading to clinical remission, but the horse will likely never be completely cleared of the organism.

D. can be treated using antiprotozoal drugs leading to clinical remission, but the horse will likely never be completely cleared of the organism.

Sarcocystis cruzi: A. can have many different paratenic host possibilities B. can cause neurological disease in horses C. can cause persistent infection in calves but not cause clinical disease D. can cause severe systemic disease in cattle including death

D. can cause severe systemic disease in cattle including death

The most important potential consequence of tick infections considering production and companion animals is which one of the following? A. tick paralysis B. anemia C. wounds caused by feeding tick D. diseases transmitted by ticks

D. diseases transmitted by ticks

The most economically important parasitic nematodes of cattle and small ruminants are found whereas adult worms? A. on pastures. B. in large intestine of ruminants. C. in trachea and bronchi of ruminants. D. in abomasum of ruminants.

D. in abomasum of ruminants.

How do cattle become infected with Sarcocystis cruzi? A. ingesting oocysts from racoon feces B. ingesting sporocysts from opossum feces C. invertebrate tick vector D. ingesting sporocysts from dog feces

D. ingesting sporocysts from dog feces

A horse becomes infected with Sarcocystis neurona by _________________ . [Circle the correct answer] (2 points) A. ingesting sporocysts from dog feces B. being bitten by an infected Amblyomma americana C. being bitten by an infected Lutzomyia Sandfly D. ingesting sporocysts from opossum feces E. ingesting oocysts from cat feces

D. ingesting sporocysts from opossum feces

Of the options below, how can an animal become infected with Sarcocystis neurona? A. ingesting sporulated oocysts from raccoon feces B. ingesting sporulated oocysts from dog feces C. ingesting cattle afterbirth D. ingesting sporocysts from opossum feces

D. ingesting sporocysts from opossum feces

A 5-year-old gelding presents with ataxia and incoordination in all four limbs. A CSF tap reveals antibodies to Sarcocystis neurona. How did the horse most likely acquire this infection? A. ingestion of sarcocysts in the muscle tissue of an infected opossum B. accidental ingestion of caddisflies from the pasture creek C. transmission of sporozoites via the bite of a tabanid fly D. ingestion of sporocysts from opossum feces in contaminated feed or water E. direct contact or interaction with an infected horse

D. ingestion of sporocysts from opossum feces in contaminated feed or water

When treating cattle for Hypoderma spp. infestations, one should follow recommended treatment fly dates. So that one does not treat the cattle too late. Why? [Circle the correct answer] (2 points) A. drug efficacy against late stage migrating larvae is much less than against early stage larvae. B. late stage larvae secret toxins leading to muscle paralysis C. late stage larvae sensitize the host to have immediate type hypersensitivity reactions even without drug treatment D. late stage larvae migrate through the wall of the esophagus or the spinal canal where dead larvae from delayed drug treatment cause tissue reactions leading to bloat or paralysis.

D. late stage larvae migrate through the wall of the esophagus or the spinal canal where dead larvae from delayed drug treatment cause tissue reactions leading to bloat or paralysis.

Arrested, hypobiotic larvae of Ancylostoma in the tissues of an intact (not neutered) female dog are not killed by deworming drugs. What are the 2 most important risks from these larvae when they reactivate? A. migration to brain tissue and cause encephalitis, and tracheal migration causing lung inflammation. B. migration to the kidney and to the liver causing fibrous tracts in these tissues. C. stimulate inflammation in the tissue where they are located and generate fibrous nodules. D. migration to mammary tissue to be a source of infection to nursing puppies, and migration to the small intestine to become adult worms replacing a previous population of adults.

D. migration to mammary tissue to be a source of infection to nursing puppies, and migration to the small intestine to become adult worms replacing a previous population of adults.

Why is diagnosis of Dirofilaria immitis infections in cats much more difficult than in dogs? A. most cats lack an antibody response to Dirofilaria immitis. B. most cats show no radiographic changes in the lungs during Dirofilaria immitis infection. C. most cats show no clinical signs during Dirofilaria immitis infection. D. most cats lack consistent presence of detectable Dirofilaria immitis antigen in serum during Dirofilaria immitis.

D. most cats lack consistent presence of detectable Dirofilaria immitis antigen in serum during Dirofilaria immitis.

Which nematode parasite of cattle has demonstrated zoonotic disease potential for infection of humans? A. Ostertagia ostertagi B. Haemonchus placei C. Habronema D. none of the above

D. none of the above

Which nematode parasite of horses has demonstrated zoonotic disease potential for infection in humans? A. Oxyuris equi B. small strongyles C. Dictyocaulus arnfeldi D. none of the above

D. none of the above

How does a horse become infected with the tapeworm Anoplocephala perfoliata? While ingesting grass (grazing), a horse inadvertently ingests a ______________________, which is infected with a cysticercoid larval stage. A. flea B. caddis fly C. rodent D. pasture mite E. copepod

D. pasture mite

Although the life cycles of the ascarids of the genus Toxocara and the genera Ascaris and Parascaris are different with regard to routes of infection, the clinical disease presentations can be very similar. What signs are most common to ascarid infections in horses, pigs, dogs and humans? A. anorexia and itchy, red lesions on the skin. B. anorexia and watery diarrhea. C. potbellied conformation and itchy, red lesions on the skin. D. potbellied conformation and fetid, mucoid diarrhea.

D. potbellied conformation and fetid, mucoid diarrhea.

Late in the summer grazing season (August) in Ohio after a month without much rain the weather changes and thunderstorms bring rain to pastures where mature ewes are grazed. One week after the storms the shepherd finds 3 ewes that are in good body condition but are down on pasture and unable to get up, showing labored breathing, dark pasty feces but no diarrhea, and very pale mucous membranes. You suspect Haemonchus contortus infection but a fecal exam shows less than 100 eggs per gram of feces. What is likely the source of the clinical signs of anemia? A. toxic plants in the pasture. B. massive mite infection. C. coccidiosis. D. prepatent Haemonchus contortus infection.

D. prepatent Haemonchus contortus infection.

Many of the blow flies or bottle flies (family Calliphoridae) that are easily recognized as adults by their shinning metallic coloration are very common and do not usually cause disease. What circumstances and stage of the fly are most often encountered by a veterinarian in practice? A. cattle or sheep owner complaints about fly bother due to adult fly behavior B. need for treatment of horses due to presence of stomach bots C. treatment to remove bot from subcutaneous cyst on outdoor cat. D. presence of maggots under matted hair or wool, usually associated with a debilitated animal with necrotic tissue

D. presence of maggots under matted hair or wool, usually associated with a debilitated animal with necrotic tissue

What is an important aid in diagnosing Trichinella spiralis infection in humans (and dogs)? A. presence of bipolar ova in feces B. presence of biopolar ova in sputum C. clinical signs of anemia D. serum with antibody titers specific for Trichinella

D. serum with antibody titers specific for Trichinella

On a farm call your client draws your attention to her horse showing skin inflammation localized to the ventral midline that is very itchy. You suspect infection with Onchocerca cervicalis. How would you confirm this diagnosis? A. fecal flotation will show small, narrow embryonated ova. B. Baermann will show larvae with a terminal spine. C. skin snip biopsy of the lesion will show fly larvae. D. skin snip biopsy or the lesion will show microfilariae.

D. skin snip biopsy or the lesion will show microfilariae.

An autopsy in September of a 3 year old mare that has been grazing on the same pasture during April to August with many horses of various ages shows 1 - 1.5 cm long nematodes on the mucosal surface of the large intestine. The horses were treated with the anthelmintic Panacur twice a year (March and September before this autopsy). Several horses, including the one at autopsy, had fecal egg counts of strongyle-type ova greater than 1000 eggs per gram. What genus or group of nematodes is this most likely to be? A. Strongylus B. Trichostrongylus C. Parascaris D. small strongyles such as Cyathostomum and Cylicocyclus

D. small strongyles such as Cyathostomum and Cylicocyclus

Spread of infestation with most lice is dependent on close contact between animals such as occurs during winter housing. What aspect of the louse life cycle is a cause of this dependence? A. lice nits are tightly cemented to hairs or feathers B. nymph stages require about 3 weeks to become adult lice C. adult lice feed on skin debris or blood D. the entire life cycle is spent on the host

D. the entire life cycle is spent on the host

For all dogs having the possibility of patent infection with Dirofilaria the Heartworm Guidelines state that "all dogs should be tested for microfilariae". Which one below is NOT a valid reason to do microfilaria tests? A. microfilaremia validates antigenemia serological results B. microfilaremia identifies the patient as a reservoir infection C. microfilaremia alerts you to a high microfilaria burden that may precipitate a severe reaction following administration of a microfilaricidal preventative D. the number of microfilariae is highly correlated with lung pathology

D. the number of microfilariae is highly correlated with lung pathology

For all dogs having the possibility of patent infection with Dirofilaria, the American Heartworm Society Guidelines state that "all dogs should be tested for microfilariae". Which one below is not a valid reason to do microfilaria testing? A. microfilaremia validates antigenemia serological results. B. microfilaremia identifies the patient as a reservoir infection. C. microfilaremia alerts you to a high microfilaria burden that my precipitate a severe reaction following administration of a microfilaricidal monthly preventative. D. the number of microfilariae is highly correlated with lung pathology.

D. the number of microfilariae is highly correlated with lung pathology.

What types of diseases are transmitted by ticks? [Circle the correct answer] (2 points) A. Protozoal diseases B. Bacterial diseases C. Viral diseases D. Rickettsial diseases E. All the above

E. All the above

There are many species of protozoa that cause diarrhea in cattle. Which of the following protozoa causes watery diarrhea (calf scours) in 7 to 14 day old calves? A. Eimeria leuckarti B. Eimeria tenella C. Eimeria bovis D. Cystoisospora rivolta E. Cryptosporidium parvum

E. Cryptosporidium parvum

Which feline protozoa infection can result severe disease, often including high fever, dyspnea, jaundice, pancytopenia, and hyperbilirubinemia? A. Toxoplasma gondii B. Babesia gibsoni C. Cystoisospora felis D. Leishmania mexicana E. Cytauxzoon felis

E. Cytauxzoon felis

A neglected dog comes into your rescue clinic with much alopecia, much erythema, and some hyperkeratosis. While examining the dog you notice an extra foul smell, also the dog scratches quite frequently. Regarding the neglected dog above: you do a deep skin scrape and a trichogram. You find many elongated organisms with 8 stumpy legs. What is your diagnosis? A. Sarcoptes scabiei B. Ctenocephalides felis C. Otodectes cynotis D. Trichodectes canis E. Demodex canis

E. Demodex canis

Mr. & Mrs. Tweedy run a back‐yard chicken farm. They call you out because they are very concerned that their chickens are very unthrifty, even anemic ‐‐ especially Ginger and Rocky. If you cannot help them with this problem; then Mrs. Tweedy has threatened to convert their barn into an automated pie machine in order to turn the chickens into pies. You first suspect fowl mites, but do not find any on the chickens. Still thinking the problem is mites, you look at the cracks and crevices of the chicken shed. For which mite are you looking? A. Ornithonyssus sylviarum B. Sarcoptes scabiei C. Menopon gallinae D. Amblyomma americana E. Dermanyssus gallinae

E. Dermanyssus gallinae

Bloody calf scours, when the calf is over 21 days old, is most likely cause by which protozoan parasite ? [Circle the correct answer] (2 points) A. Cystoisospora rivolta B. Cryptosporidium parvum C. Sarcocystis cruzi D. Tritrichomonas foetus E. Eimeria bovis

E. Eimeria bovis

Which mucoflagellate infects the small intestines causing malabsorption and persistent diarrhea? Select one: A. Cystoisospora canis B. Tritrichomonas blagburni C. Cystoisospora suis D. Eimeria zuerneii E. Giardia sp.

E. Giardia sp.

An organic dairy farm near Elon NC has recently invested in a Fly Vac. Whenever, the cows return to the milking parlor, they walk under the vacuum, which removes large numbers of flies that are almost always found on the backs of cows. Which fly is the Fly Vac most likely targeting? [Circle the correct answer] (2 points) A. Musca domestica B. Musca autumnalis C. Calliphora vomitoria D. Stomoxys calcitrans E. Haematobia irritans

E. Haematobia irritans

How might one control Sarcocystis neurona? A. Elimination of stray canids, don't feed offal / scraps to dogs B. Fecal sanitation, coccidiostats C. Use sanitary artificial insemination, surveillance of bulls D. Elimination of stray felids, eliminate rodent paratenic hosts E. Keep opossums out of feed bins, eliminate fruit trees in pastures.

E. Keep opossums out of feed bins, eliminate fruit trees in pastures.

A canine is brought to your clinic. The dog is very lethargic & has a fever. If the dog is a foxhound and has developed skin lesions, which protozoan parasite moves to the top of your list? (2 points) A. Babesia canis B. Neospora caninum C. Babesia gibsoni D. Isospora canis E. Leishmania infantum

E. Leishmania infantum

Although this parasite is often associated with travel to Southern Europe & the Mediterranean, autochthonous infections have also been reported from US Foxhounds. What is this protozoan parasite? [Circle the correct answer] (2 points) A. Neospora caninum B. Cystoisospora canis C. Sarcocystis cruzi D. Trypanosoma cruzi E. Leishmania infantum

E. Leishmania infantum

If we start an apicomplexan life cycle with a sporozoite infecting a host cell, put the following steps in the correct order, according to a general Apicomplexa life cycle. Start: Sporozoite infects a cell. What happens next? A. Merogony, Sporogony, Fertilization, Gametogony B. Sporogony, Fertilization, Gametogony, Merogony C. Fertilization, Sporogony, Merogony, Gametogony D. Gametogony, Sporogony, Fertilization, Merogony E. Merogony, Gametogony, Fertilization, Sporogony

E. Merogony, Gametogony, Fertilization, Sporogony

On a routine fecal exam (fresh wet‐mount, with light microscopy) from a healthy canine patient, you identify some protozoal organisms that look like Giardia. You perform a Giardia antigen, rapid in‐house test and it is positive. What is the recommended treatment for this dog? A. Ronidazole B. Metronidazole C. Clindamycin D. Doxycycline E. No treatment needed

E. No treatment needed

It is late September and you are called out to a horse barn because very recently the horses have developed small erythemic, pruritic bumps on various parts of the body. Some of the barn hands have also complained of the same small erythemic, pruritic bumps. As you enter the barn you notice much guano on the barn rafters. Also higher up in the rafters you notice the characteristic mud/twig nests of Barn Swallows. But you also notice that the nests appear to be recently unoccupied. From all this information, what should you suspect to be the cause of the red, itchy bumps? A. Bovicola equi B. Oxyuris equi C. Habronema musca D. Musca autumnalis E. Ornithonyssus sylviarum

E. Ornithonyssus sylviarum

Which one of the following canine tapeworms does NOT shed its proglottids in the host's feces? The lack of segments in the feces requires the veterinarian to utilize fecal sedimentation to diagnose this tapeworm infection. [Circle the correct answer] (2 points) A. Taenia pisiformis B. Mesocestoides corti C. Dipylidium caninum D. Taenia taeniaeformis E. Spirometra sp.

E. Spirometra sp.

Which one of the following canine tapeworms does NOT shed its proglottids in the host's feces? The lack of segments in the feces requires the veterinarian to utilize fecal sedimentation to diagnose this tapeworm infection. (2 points) A. Taenia pisiformis B. Mesocestoides corti C. Dipylidium caninum D. Taenia taeniaeformis E. Spirometra sp.

E. Spirometra sp.

Which one of the following groups do ALL the tapeworms listed have larval stages in humans that can cause important human diseases? A. Taenia pisiformis, Taenia solium, Taenia saginata B. Dipylidium caninum, Echinococcus granulosus, Spirometra sp. C. Taenia solium, Dipylidium caninum, Taenia saginata D. Dipylidium caninum, Taenia taeniaformis, Taenia pisiformis E. Taenia solium, Echinococcus granulosus, Spirometra sp.

E. Taenia solium, Echinococcus granulosus, Spirometra sp.

Which one of the following is a good general statement about the life cycle of cestodes? (2 points) A. A snail intermediate host is required. B. The intermediate host is always a vertebrate. C. There is always an aquatic larval stage, such as the coracidium. D. Cestodes always require 3 hosts to complete their life cycles. E. The infective larval stage has to be ingested: either via the predator / prey interaction or due to accidental ingestion of the intermediate host.

E. The infective larval stage has to be ingested: either via the predator / prey interaction or due to accidental ingestion of the intermediate host.

Which one of the following is a good general statement about the life cycle of cestodes? A. A snail intermediate host is required. B. The intermediate host is always a vertebrate. C. There is always an aquatic larval stage, such as the coracidium. D. Cestodes always require 3 hosts to complete their life cycles. E. The infective larval stage must be ingested: either via the predator / prey interaction or due to accidental ingestion of the intermediate host.

E. The infective larval stage must be ingested: either via the predator / prey interaction or due to accidental ingestion of the intermediate host.

Based on molecular typing of Giardia from various hosts, the following is generally true concerning this infection in immunocompetent hosts. Select one: A. Ingestion of the trophozoite form passed in loose stools may easily infect a new host. B. Most isolates of Giardia are highly zoonotic C. Dogs and cats in the same household can easily pass Giardia between each other. D. Giardia cysts passed from one dog to another dog are not infective E. There is a relatively high degree of host species specificity

E. There is a relatively high degree of host species specificity

Dogs may be infected with the blood fluke, Heterobilharzia americana. What is the 2nd intermediate host of Heterobilharzia americana? A. Crayfish B. Aquatic Vegetation C. Salmon D. Ants E. This fluke does not use a 2nd intermediate host

E. This fluke does not use a 2nd intermediate host

A goat cheese producer consults with you on several goats that were put down due to neurologic deficits; specifically they had developed a circling behavior. He was also concerned because several of his goats recently aborted. You notice a few cats hanging around the property. Which apicomplexan parasite do you suspect? A. Cytauxzoon felis B. Sarcocystis neurona C. Tritrichomonas foetus D. Eimeria ovinoidalis E. Toxoplasma gondii

E. Toxoplasma gondii

Which 2 apicomplexans are of serious zoonotic concern, especially for immunocompromised people? [Circle the correct answer] (2 points) A. Sarcocystis neurona & Sarcocystis cruzi B. Eimeria zuernii & Cystoisopora rivolta C. Neospora caninum & Tritichomonas foetus D. Cystoisopora ohioensis & Babesia gibsoni E. Toxoplasma gondii & Cryptosporidium parvum

E. Toxoplasma gondii & Cryptosporidium parvum

You take a job as a Large Animal Vet in California. You are called out to a cattle farm that has been having abortions. If the farmer complains of early abortions, which protozoan parasite moves to the top of your list? (2 points) A. Cryptosporidium parvum B. Neospora caninum C. Fascioloides magna D. Eimeria bovis E. Tritrichomonas foetus

E. Tritrichomonas foetus

You take a job as a Large Animal Vet in California. You are called out to a cattle farm that has been having abortions. Which abortion-causing protozoan of cattle is a flagellate? (2 points) A. Cryptosporidium parvum B. Neospora caninum C. Fascioloides magna D. Eimeria bovis E. Tritrichomonas foetus

E. Tritrichomonas foetus

You take a job as a Large Animal Vet in California. You are called out to a cattle farm that has been having abortions. You do prepuce washings on the farm's bull. Which abortion-causing protozoan do you suspect? (2 points) A. Cryptosporidium parvum B. Neospora caninum C. Fascioloides magna D. Eimeria bovis E. Tritrichomonas foetus

E. Tritrichomonas foetus

Which parasite is transmitted to people through stercorarian transmission but often transmitted to dogs by contact with the oral mucosa? A. Leishmania infantum B. Babesia vogeli C. Sarcocystis cruzi D. Neospora caninum E. Trypanosoma cruzi

E. Trypanosoma cruzi

Sarcocystis neurona causes neurologic disease in horses. What is the best diagnostic test for diagnosing S. neurona ? [Circle the correct answer] (2 points) A. Fecal Floatation B. Gram-stained blood smear C. Fecal Sedimentation D. Baermann Test E. Western Blot assay of spinal fluid

E. Western Blot assay of spinal fluid

Ivermectin is a highly effective drug against tapeworms. Select one: True False

False

12. Large numbers of trichostrongyle infective larvae on pasture is due to what? A. large numbers of adult worms in grazing hosts B. replication of infective stage larvae in fecal pats C. adult stage worms outside of the host

17. Strongylus vulgaris (large strongyle) can cause severe pathology in horses and historically it was a major, common cause of potential lethal disease. Since the advent of modern anthelmintics this is no longer the case. Why? A. Strongylus vulgaris has a long prepatent time (6 months) requiring only one treatment every 6 months B. Strongylus vulgaris has a short prepatent time (1 - 2 months), but almost all horses are treated every two month at all ages C. Strongylus vulgaris has evolved to a form that does not migrate in the host D. current drugs have a residual killing effect on larva outside the host

23. Only about 20% of horses in a herd are the source for 80% of the cyathostoma ova deposited on pasture. This supports what approach to deworming horses? A. selective deworming on a more frequent basis of high ova shedders based on McMasters test B. deworming all in the herd every 2 months during grazing season C. deworming all in the herd 4 times a year D. deworming based on age of the horse on pasture

26. On post mortem exam of a 6-week-old puppy that showed signs of severe anemia before death you find nematodes about 15mm long attached to the mucosa of the small intestine. What nematode is this likely to be? A. Ancylostoma caninum B. Ancylostoma tubaeformae C. Toxocara canis D. Toxocara cati

28. Recently it is being reported that mature Greyhounds retired/rescued from racing tracks continue to pass Ancyclostoma ova after treatment with several different anthelmintic drugs. These dogs are often kept indoors and walked on a leash. What is the most likely source of these ova? A. reactivation after deworming of arrested larvae in tissues that repopulate the small intestine with adult worms B. skin penetration by infective larvae that do tracheal migration to populate the small intestine with adult worms C. drug failure to kill adults due to nematode resistance to three different classes of anthelmintics D. transuterine route of infection

3. An important route of infection for Strongyloides is by skin penetration by infective stage larvae. What unique feature (not found in other nematodes covered in this course) of the Strongyloides life cycle facilitates this route of infection? A. there are free-living adult stage male and female worms outside of the host that mate and produce infective larvae (ova to L3) which are present in the soil or bedding contacting the host. B. larvae passed in large numbers in feces of the mature female host can penetrate skin immediately. C. larvated ova are highly resistant in the environment and hatch when in contact with a warm body.

31. In puppies less than 2 weeks old showing signs of anemia you suspect per acute Ancyclostoma infection. How should you treat these puppies? A. treat with anthelmintic drug immediately even without seeing ova in feces B. wait until you see ova in feces about 1 week later to confirm diagnosis before treating C. treat with iron supplement and wait for positive fecal ova exam before giving anthelmintic drug D. anthelmintic drugs will not be effective, consider euthanasia

33. A 5 year old male hound that you have seen in your clinic since its adoption from a shelter almost a year ago presents with a large subcutaneous swelling under a skin ulcer on the lower front leg. Prior to being in the shelter the dog was kept in a coon- hunting pack. What parasitic nematode would be on your differential list for this case? A. Dracunculus insignus B. Onchocerca cervicalis C. Physaloptera D. Habronema

35. Trichuris vulpis infections are often difficult to treat because of what two factors? A. reinfection from long-lived ova in the environment, and a long prepatent time with larvae in the host that are not easily killed B. female worms produce large numbers of ova continuously, and a long prepatent time with larvae in the host that are not easily killed C. reinfection from long-lived ova in the environment, and a very rapid development with 2 - 3 days of infective larvae in ova D. adult stage Trichuris has developed resistance to most current anthelmintic drugs, and infective larvae in the soil can infect by skin penetration

37. Dracunculus, Physaloptera, Habronema and Dirofilaria are classified in the Order Spirurida. What do they have in common? A. all require arthropods as intermediate hosts B. all adult females produce microfilariae instead of ova C. all adults live outside the digestive tract D. all use mosquitoes as intermediate hosts

38. Cutaneous habronemiasis in horses, caused by Habronema, presents as an eosinophil containing granulomatous lesion of the skin. What control measure would be most effective for preventing this infection? A. use fly repellant on abrasions and control flies indoors B. take horses off pastures at dawn and dusk C. remove Gastrophilus fly nits from horses' legs and face D. do McMasters fecal egg count and treat high egg shedders

4. Most hosts of Strongyloides pass larvated ova in their feces except which two that pass first stage larvae in feces? A. humans and dogs B. humans and pigs C. pigs and horses D. dogs and horses

45. A farm dog with the habit of eating freshly passed horse feces might be mistakenly diagnosed by fecal flotation with what parasitic nematode if the horse was infected with small strongyles? A. hookworm (Ancyclostoma or Uncinaria) B. Toxocara canis C. Trichuris vulpis D. Dirofilaria immitis

46. A client brings in a nematode passed by her 2-year-old cat that roams outside at night. The worm is about 4 inches long. You examine it carefully and see that the anterior end looks like an arrowhead or cobra's head with a hood. What is the nematode? A. Toxocara cati B. Ancylostoma tubaeformae C. Physaloptera nana D. Aeleurostrongylus abstrusus

49. Which nematode parasite of dogs has demonstrated zoonotic disease potential for infection of humans? A. Toxocara canis B. Trichuris vulpis C. Uncinaria stenocephala D. none of the above

7. Climate and even daily weather can have an important impact on pasture transmission of trichostrongyles such as Haemonchus and Ostertagia. Why? A. because ova to infective larva development is dependent on moisture, oxygen and temperature B. because grass on pasture must be less than 3 inches in height for transmission to occur C. soil must remain below 50F for larvae to survive D. too many cloudy days will not allow stimulation of ova to infective larva development

8. Which parasitic nematode infection is associated with clinical signs of anorexia and diarrhea in grazing cattle? A. Ostertagia in first-grazing season calves B. Ostertagia in mature cows C. Haemonchus in first-grazing season calves D. Haemonchus in mature cows

9. Heavy infecctions with Haemonchus may occur acutely after rain disperses infective larvae that have developed in feces during dry weather on pasture. What clinical sign is most likely associated with a heavy prepatent infection with immature adult worms? A. anemia (pale mucous membranes) B. watery diarrhea C. poor body condition D. poor hair coat

For a severe case of Flea Allergy Dermatitis, what supplemental treatment should be considered? Select one: a. Steroids b. Heartworm Prevention c. Fluid Therapy d. Radiation treatment

a. Steroids

How many adult stage small strongyle nematodes can develop from the ingestion of a single L3 in a horse? a. one b. 10 - 100 c. 100 - 1,000

a. one

Infections within the first 2 weeks of life of a puppy with Ancylostoma caninum are primarily by what route? a. transmammary route of infection. b. ingestion of highly resistant infective ova. c. transuterine route of infection. d. skin penetration from infective larvae that developed from the ova passed by the same puppy.

a. transmammary route of infection.

13. Calves grazed in Louisiana or Mississippi (southern states with dry, hot summers) in the fall, winter and spring and then shipped as long yearlings to northern (Iowa) feedlots in early Fall often develop clinical signs of diarrhea and anorexia. The feedlots are dirt with no ability to transmit trichostrongyle infection. What is the probable cause of these clinical signs? A. Type I ostertagiasis B. Type II ostertagiasis C. haemonchosis D. Trichostrongylus axei infection

14. Arrested development by Ostertagia larvae in the abomasum occur at what time for calves grazing winter - spring pastures in southern states with semi-arid summer pastures? A. during the Spring B. during the Summer C. during the Fall D. during the Winter

18.Strongylus vulgaris (large strongyle) causes what major pathological lesions before adult worms are present in the intestinal lumen and the infection is patent? A. respiratory disease due to larval migration B. thrombo-embolism and vascular damage to the large intestine due to ischemia and infarction C. peritonitis and septicemia from blockage and rupture of the intestine D. spinal cord nerve damage due to larval migration

19. Why is it difficult to control cyathostome (small strongyle) infections in horses? A. horses can aquire infection from dirt paddocks B. atleast one class of drugs and elevated dosage of other drugs are effective against adult worms but arrested larval stages are often not efficiently killed C. cyathostomes can infect by skin penetration D. foals can be infected by the lactogenic route of infection

2. All general of nematodes covered in this course reproduce sexually, requiring male and female adults, except one genus where parasitic adult females can produce offspring (ova) without fertilization. Which genus is that? A. Strongylus B. Strongyloides C. Toxocara D. Tichuris

21. Pathology and clinical signs are most often associated with what stage of cyathostomes in horses? A. adult worms in the small intestine B. larvae emerging from the large intestinal submucosa C. larvae migrating in the cranial mesenteric artery D. adult worms in the large intestine

24. Why is Oesophagostomum in ruminants and pigs called "nodular worm"? A. the anterior end of the adult has a nodular appearance B. the host reaction to the larfal stage in the wall of the intestine creates a nodular calcified or pus-filled nodule C. migration of the larfal stage into the liver leaves a white mark D. adult male worms have a nodular-like copulatory bursa

27. Fecal flotation survey of samples from 20 - 40% of shelter dogs show adult dogs as well as puppies passing Ancyclostoma ova. How does this compare with Toxocara canis ova presence in shelter dogs? A. older dogs (>2 years) will have many more Toxocara ova than Ancyclostoma ova B. older dogs will show little or no Toxocara ova C. puppies less than 8 weeks of age show no Toxocara ova D. puppies less than 8 weeks of age show no Ancyclostoma ova

29. The lactogenic route of transmission by Ancyclostoma occurs in which host? A. cat B. dog C. ferrets D. guinea pigs

43. Heatworm associated respiratory disease (HARD) is a syndrome in which host? A. dogs B. cats C. ferrets D. coyotes

6. Which one of the parasites below has the correct description of the pathology it causes? A. Haemonchus causes severe granulomatous reactions in the colon B. Ostertagia causes dedifferentiation of gastric gland cells and focal mucosal proliferation in the abomasum C. Cyathostomins (small strongyles) cause chronic enteritis in the small intestine D. Ancylostoma causes modular cysts in the mucosa of the colon

Which one of the following is a good general statement about the life cycle of digenetic trematodes ? a. The miracidial stage is always aquatic: hatching from the ova and swimming to its next host. b. A snail intermediate host is required. c. The infective (metacercarial) stage always encysts on aquatic vegetation. d. The adult fluke is always found in the small intestine of the definitive host. e. The second intermediate host is always a vertebrate

b. A snail intermediate host is required.

What is the relationship between the definitive host and the intermediate host of cestodes? a. Intermediate host ingests the definitive host b. Definitive host ingests the intermediate host c. Intermediate host penetrates the skin of the definitive host d. Intermediate host feeds on the blood of the definitive host.

b. Definitive host ingests the intermediate host

Which Bot infects the stomach of Horses? a. Oestrus sp. b. Gasterophilus sp. c. Cuterebra sp. d. Dermatobia sp. e. Hypoderma sp.

b. Gasterophilus sp.

The primary clinical signs of infection with Ostertagia are what? a. respiratory signs such as coughing b. diarrhea and anorexia c. signs of anemia d. neurological signs

b. diarrhea and anorexia

A three-week-old nursing foal presents with clinical signs of Strongyloides infection and fecal exam shows embryonated ova. The breeding farm is immaculate and stalls are cleaned daily. How was this foal most likely infected? a. feces from the mother contained infective larvae b. the nursing foal ingested infective larvae that were in the mother's milk c. infective larvae were in the straw used for bedding d. feces from the mother contained many embryonated ova

b. the nursing foal ingested infective larvae that were in the mother's milk

10. Most trichostrongyles are host specific. An important exception is a trichostrongyle that infects the stomach of cattle, small ruminants and horses. It can cause disease in horses co-grazed with sheep that can tolerate higher levels of infection than horses. What trichostrongyle is this? A. Haemonchus contortus B. Ostertagia ostertagi C. Trichostrongylus axei D. Cooperia oncophora

15. Strong age resistance to pasture-borne trichostrongyle or strongyle infections is found in what host? A. horses B. sheep C. cattle D. goats

16. Unlike other trichostrongyle infections, Dictyocaulus infections in cattle, small ruminants and horses are not commonly found even in grazing animals. What pasture conditions are associated with these infections? A. dry, well-drained pastures B. tropical locations C. low lying, wet pastures D. clover pastures

20. Larval and adult stages of cyathostomes in horses are found where? A. both are in the small intestine B. adults are found in the large intestine, larvae in the small intestine C. both are found in the large intestine D. adults are found in the small intestine and larvae are found in muscle tissue

30. Skin penetration by the infective larvae of Ancyclostoma is a common route of infection for mature dogs. What conditions for a backyard facilitate transmission of these infective larvae where feces are not removed. A. cold weather B. hot and dry weather C. warm and moist conditions D. warm and dry conditions

36. Trichuris vulpis and Capillaria (Eucoleus) bohmi have a very similar appearing appearing ova, but the adult worms are located at different sites in the dog and cause different clinical signs. What are these signs? A. Trichuris vulpis - diarrhea with and without blood; Capillaria bohmi - signs of gastritis, vomiting B. Trichuris vulpis - signs of gastritis, vomiting; Capillaria bohmi - rhinitis, itching nose like nasal allergy C. Trichuris vulpis - diarrhea with and without blood; Capillaria bohmi - rhinitis, itching nose like nasal allergy

44. Diagnosis of heartworm disease in cats relies most often on which of the following? A. detecting microfilariae by blood drop on slide B. detecting antigenemia by an antigen test C. history, clinical signs and thoracic radiographs D. detecting antibodies against Dirofilaria

5. Which two superfamilies of the order Strongylida have essentially the same type of development and ecological requirements outside the host? A. metastrongyloidea (Metastrongylus and Aelurostrongylus) and trichostrongyloidea (Ostertagia and Haemonchus) B. ancylostomoidea (Ancylostoma) and strongyloidea (small strongyles of horses) C. trichostrongyloidea (Ostertagia and Haemonchus) and strongyloidea (small strongyles of horses) D. ancylostomoidea (Ancylostoma) and trichostrongyloidea (Ostertagia and Haemonchus)

Which is the standard diagnostic technique when trematode parasites are suspect? a. McMasters b. FAMACHA c. Fecal Sedimentation d. Fecal Float Centrifugation e. Passive Fecal Float

c. Fecal Sedimentation

Which is NOT a clinical sign of an Otodectes cynotis infection? a. Intense head shaking b. Otitis c. Miliary dermatitis on the base of the tail d. Copious cerumen production e. Self-trauma, excoriations at the base of the ear

c. Miliary dermatitis on the base of the tail

There are two different pathological changes caused by Habronema in horses, one is gastritis and the other is most often which one of the following? a. colitis b. loss of hair over the tail head c. granulomatous skin lesions d. ulcers on the cornea of the eye

c. granulomatous skin lesions

The most common clinical signs associated with ascarid infections in dogs, cats, horses, and pigs are due to adult worms in what organ? a. stomach b. heart c. small intestine d. large intestine

c. small intestine

What do nematodes of the superfamilies trichostrongyles in ruminants and strongyles in equids have in common? a. they all cause diarrhea in the host b. they all have well developed buccal capsules c. they all infect their hosts only by ingestion of infective larvae while grazing d. they all have an adult stage found in the stomach or abomasum of the host

c. they all infect their hosts only by ingestion of infective larvae while grazing

11. Clinical signs of anorexia, poor weight gain, diarrhea and edema in calves on pasture toward the end of their first grazing season are most likely due to which parasitic nematode? A. Cooperia oncophora B. Haemonchus placei C. Dictyocaulus viviparous D. Ostertagia ostertagi

22. What age horse can be a source of pasture contamination by high cyathostome ova numbers in feces? A. only 6 to 12 month olds B. older than 10 years C. only 1 to 5 month olds D. all ages grazing pasture

25. A five-year-old neutered male indoor/outdoor cat is presented to your clinic with respiratory signs of a chronic cough, anorexia and wasting (poor body condition). Thoracic radiographs show areas of density in the parenchyma of the lungs. If you suspected Aelurostrongylus abstrusus infection how would you confirm this suspicion? A. find double-operculated ova on fecal flotation B. do a serum antibody test for Aelurostrongylus C. find larvated ova on fecal flotation D. find larvae with a "s"-shaped spine at the posterior end in sputum or feces

32. Oxyuris equi infection in horses is usually diagnosed unambiguously by what circumstances? A. flotation of fecal sample collected from the rectum B. seeing clinical signs of poor body condition C. seeing clinical signs of colic D. owner presenting large white worm with tapered posterior end collected from feces

34. What is an important aid in diagnosing Trichinella spiralis infection in humans (and dogs)? A. presence of bipolar ova in feces B. presence of biopolar ova in sputum C. clinical signs of anemia D. serum with antibody titers specific for Trichinella

39. Prophylaxis treatments to prevent Dirofilaria immitis in dogs and cats use a variety of drugs that target what stage(s) of this parasite? A. microfilariae only B. adults and immature adults C. larval stage two in the mosquito D. infective larvae in the skin and migrating fourth stage larvae

40. For all dogs having the possibility of patent infection with Dirofilaria the Heartworm Guidelines state that "all dogs should be testing for microfilariae". Which one below is NOT a valid reason to do microfilaria tests? A. microfilaremia validates antigenemia serological results B. microfilaremia identifies the patient as a reservoir infection C. microfilaremia alerts you to a high microfilaria burden that may precipitate a severe reaction following administration of a microfilaricidal preventative D. the number of microfilariae is high correlated with lung pathology

47. Which nematode parasite of horses has demonstrated zoonotic disease potential for infection in humans? A. Oxyuris equi B. small strongyles C. Dictyocaulus arnfeldi D. none of the above

48. Which nematode parasite of cattle has demonstrated zoonotic disease potential for infection of humans? A. Ostertagia ostertagi B. Haemonchus placei C. Habronema D. none of the above

50 The time required for the development of the infective larva in an ascarid ovum (example Toxocara canis) in the environment is how long? A. 24 hours B. about 3 days C. less than 1 week D. about 4 weeks

Flea control requires a very large investment in environmental control. Do lice similarly require a large investment in environmental control? Select one: a. Yes, with their wings, lice will fly from the host and rest on barn walls. b. Yes, lice attack the host from thick vegetation. c. Yes, after feeding, lice leave the host and rest in the crevices and cracks of the host's environment. d. No, all stages occur and remain on the host.

d. No, all stages occur and remain on the host.

A 2-year-old female spayed Greyhound comes into your clinic with fever and thrombocytopenia. You suspect babesiois because you identified large piroplasms in red blood blood cells on a smear. Which tick transmitted the Babesia spp. to your patient? a. Dermacentor variabilis b. Ixodes scapularis c. Amblyomma americanum d. Rhipicephalus sanguineus

d. Rhipicephalus sanguineus

Trichuris infection occurs by what route? a. ingestion of free-living infective larvae. b. skin penetration by first stage larvae in soil. c. ingestion of infective larvae contained in the required beetle intermediate host. d. ingestion of the infective larva contained in the long-lived, environmentally resistant ova.

d. ingestion of the infective larva contained in the long-lived, environmentally resistant ova.

The primary clinical signs of infection with Haemonchus are what? a. neurological signs b. diarrhea and anorexia c. respiratory signs such as coughing d. signs of anemia

d. signs of anemia

At what age is routine deworming typically started in horses and why? a. two months of age to prevent patent infections with Strongyloides westerii. b. four months of age to prevent patent infections with small strongyles in grazing foals. c. six months of age to prevent patent infections with Strongylus vulgaris. d. two months of age to prevent patent infections with Parascaris equorum.

d. two months of age to prevent patent infections with Parascaris equorum.

How do humans become infected with the hydatid cyst of Echinococcus granulosus? a. Ingest tapeworm egg from human feces b. Ingest larval tapeworm from raw beef c. Ingest larval tapeworm from raw pork d. Ingest larval tapeworm in copepod e. Ingest tapeworm egg from dog feces

e. Ingest tapeworm egg from dog feces

Paratenic hosts are of concern for controlling parasites as they are important for the continuation of the parasite life cycle and population. Which list for parasites can utilize paratenic hosts to transport them to the host? [Circle the correct answer] (2 points) A. Cystoisospora spp., Toxoplasma gondii B. Eimeria bovis, Sacrocystis cruzi C. Giardia spp., Tritrichomonas foetus D. Cryptosporidium parvum, Eimeria zeurnii E. Babesia canis, Cytauxzoon felis

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