IS 1-6

The complement activation pathway that is referred to as the main effector mechanism of adaptive humoral immunity is: a. Lectin pathway b. Alternative pathway c. classical pathway d. all of the choices

c. classical pathway

A male student contracted a bacterial infection from his Microbiology laboratory class. His wound got in contact with the bacterial sample he was using, a few days after local inflammation was noted on his wounded right thumb which is swollen, and red. He complained of pain. Granting that the bacterium implicated is extracellular, what possible effector cells can we exclude as the primary responders of this inflammatory state? neutrophils monocytes B lymphocytes T cells

T cells

Which of the following situations best exemplifies a setting wherein there is a failure of the immune system to properly function primarily in the case when the helper T cell function is severely impaired? a patient experiencing an asthmatic attack a teen was suffering the flares of SLE a 1-month-old baby with hemolytic disease of the newborn a 20-year-old male diagnosed with AIDS

a 20-year-old male diagnosed with AIDS

Pick the choice that best illustrates the wiping out of the effects of the normal flora of the body. gram (+) microorganisms are killed by the lysozymes present in tears and saliva because of the production of lactic acid in the female genital tract, the vaginal pH is kept at ~ 5 sebaceous glands synthesize fatty acids that maintain the skin at a pH of approximately 5.6 a diabetic patient taking more than the regular dose of antibiotics and consuming much sugar to keep his immune system healthy

a diabetic patient taking more than the regular dose of antibiotics and consuming much sugar to keep his immune system healthy

Host defense against helminthic parasites is offered by what CD4+ helper T cells subset? a. TH2 cell b. TH17 cell c. TH1 cell d. TH34 cell

a. TH2 cell

The following are biological functions of the complement except a. The proteolytic complement fragments C2, C1, and C3 induce acute inflammation by activating mast cells and neutrophils. b. MAC mediates the complement-mediated lysis of foreign microbes. c. promotes the solubilization of Ag-Ab complexes and their clearance by phagocytes d. Binding of C3b (or C4b) to microbe (opsonization)

a. The proteolytic complement fragments C2, C1, and C3 induce acute inflammation by activating mast cells and neutrophils.

Dengue virus genomic viral RNA translation and particle assembly takes place in the cytosol. The evolution of the immune system equipped it with pattern recognition receptors that can detect cell damage and infection in the cytoplasm. Of the PRRs given below, which one cannot detect PAMPs and DAMPs in the cytosol? a. Toll-like receptors b. RIG-like receptors c. NOD-like receptors d. cytosolic DNA sensors

a. Toll-like receptors

If the site of peptide loading of MHC takes place in the endoplasmic reticulum, then the pathway of antigen processing and presentation involved here is? a. class I MHC pathway b. classical pathway c. alternative pathway d. class II MHC pathway

a. class I MHC pathway

1. All of the following sentences are true regarding IgG, except a. is known as the primary response antibody (because it is the first to appear after antigenic stimulation) b. can neutralizing toxins and viruses c. has the most prolonged half-life of any Ig class (~ 23 to 25 days) d. activates the classical pathway

a. is known as the primary response antibody (because it is the first to appear after antigenic stimulation)

One of the following is not correctly matched a. regulatory T lymphocyte - the activation (proliferation and differentiation) of T and B lymphocytes b. natural killer (NK) cell - the killing of infected cells c. B lymphocyte - the neutralization of microbe, phagocytosis, complement activation d. Cytotoxic T lymphocyte (CTL) - the killing of infected cells

a. regulatory T lymphocyte - the activation (proliferation and differentiation) of T and B lymphocytes

The best immunogen among the choices would be? a. tropomyosin: molecular weight around 65-70 kilodalton b. glycogen: molecular weight between 106 and 107 daltons c. Teflon synthetic polymer d. C12H25NO11: molecular weight; 359.33 g/mol

a. tropomyosin: molecular weight around 65-70 kilodalton

Murphy is turning 12 months next month, his mom is thinking of bringing him to the pediatrician for him to receive his first dose of the MMR (measles-mumps-rubella) vaccine. According to the CDC, one dose of MMR vaccine is 93% effective against measles, 78% effective against mumps, and 97% effective against rubella. What type of acquired immunity could be involved in this scenario? active natural immunity active artificial immunity passive natural immunity passive artificial immunity

active artificial immunity

Papain digestion allows separation of these two fragments except a. Fab fragments b. F(ab′)2 c. Fc fragments d. none of the choices

b. F(ab′)2

A 37-year-old male was suffering from a chronic infection with the hepatitis C virus. His liver functions showed that his liver is severely damaged beyond the body's capacity to regenerate it. Thus he was advised to undergo a liver transplant. With regards to the roles of MHC molecules in transplantation, which of the following is false? a. Liver transplantation can be performed with reasonable safety across major HLA incompatibilities. b. HLA-DP, HLA-DQ, and HLA-DR molecules are low or undetectable on liver hepatocytes. c. Class I MHC molecules are found on all nucleated cells in the body. d. The hepatocytes do not express class I MHC molecules.

b. HLA-DP, HLA-DQ, and HLA-DR molecules are low or undetectable on liver hepatocytes.

Is the most important cytokine produced by T cells early after activation, often within 2 to 4 hours after Ag recognition and costimulation a. IL6 b. IL2 c. IL1 d. IL8 e. IL17

b. IL2

A primigravida patient was in her OB-GYN clinic for a pre-natal check-up. She will be due for the next month. She was discussing breastfeeding with the physician. The patient wondered why breastfeeding is essential and what is the link it has on the immunity for her baby. Which of the given sentences must not be advised/said by her OB-GYN? a. breast milk delivers the first source of antibody-mediated immune protection in the intestinal tract of suckling infants b. IgE is the predominant immunoglobulin in human milk c. long-term benefits of early exposure to secretory IgA included maintenance of healthy gut microbiota and regulation of gene expression in intestinal epithelial cells d. an essential immunoglobulin

b. IgE is the predominant immunoglobulin in human milk

A medical technologist cancer researcher wanted to investigate the role of inflammation in malignancies he was planning to perform an assay on anti-inflammatory cytokines, granting he wanted to detect about 100 cytokines in one reaction then it is best for him to use which of the following? a. Multiplexed ELISA b. New microbead assays c. EliSpot ELISA d. CH50 test e. nephelometry

b. New microbead assays

Splenic and lymph node marginal zone B cells and B1 B cells are distinct B cell subsets that mediate a common type of antibody response as demonstrated by which one of the following: a. T-dependent, isotype-switched, high-affinity antibodies; long-lived plasma cells b. T-independent, mainly IgM; short-lived plasma cells c. T-dependent, isotype-switched, low-affinity antibodies; short-lived plasma cells d. T-independent, mainly IgG; long-lived plasma cells

b. T-independent, mainly IgM; short-lived plasma cells

The mode of the alternative pathway of activation occurs only on the surfaces of microbial cells and NOT on mammalian cells. a. False b. True

b. True

it is the terminology used to designate the unique variations within the constant regions of the γ and α heavy chains and kappa light chains in different individuals a. isotype b. allotype c. haplotype d. idiotype

b. allotype

The proper sequence of the phases of T cell responses is: a. lymphocyte activation, differentiation, clonal expansion, antigen recognition, effector functions b. antigen recognition, lymphocyte activation, clonal expansion, differentiation, effector functions c. lymphocyte activation, clonal expansion, antigen recognition, effector functions, differentiation d. effector functions, antigen recognition, lymphocyte recognition, differentiation, clonal expansion

b. antigen recognition, lymphocyte activation, clonal expansion, differentiation, effector functions

A 65-year-old woman presented with painful swelling in his feet, and right wrist 13 days after a throat infection. Then the patient developed angina pectoris, followed by a febrile episode (38.9°C). Antistreptolysin O titers were raised at >800units/ml (<200), anti-DNAse B 3840 units/ml (<240), and these subsequently fell indicating evidence of recent group A streptococcus infection. So in his case of rheumatic fever, the group A streptococcal cell wall Abs cross-react with human cardiolipin antigens and thus damage the patient's myocardial tissues. Here we can classify the group A betahemolytic streptococci (Streptococcus pyogenes) Ags and the human myocardium Ags as? a. autoantigens b. heterophile antigens c. alloantigens d. none of the choices

b. heterophile antigens

As macrophages and neutrophils are activated, they kill phagocytosed microbes by the action of microbicidal molecules like ROS, nitric oxide, and lysosomal enzymes in structures known as ____________. a. endosome b. phagolysosome c. phagosome d. inflammasome

b. phagolysosome

Which of the following is a normal immune reaction that can become a source of inconvenience in the context of modern medicine? inflammation phagocytosis blood transfusion reaction the cytotoxic cell-mediated killing of target cells

blood transfusion reaction

MM, a 30-year old male was admitted for the second time in the SWU-Medical Center with a chief complaint of dysuria and purulent urethral discharge. One week prior to his admission, he experienced itching in his private area. Cultures are taken, and gram-negative diplococci were seen on gram staining. During his previous admission, he was diagnosed with Neisserial infection. A genetic workup revealed a deficiency in one of the components of MAC. Which of the following components of complement proteins would most likely be defective? a. C2 b. C3 c. C6 d. C7

c. C6

A case of salmonellosis was suspected of a 12-year old boy who presented with a high-grade fever, diarrhea, and abdominal cramps upon ER admission. The good thing he did not progress to develop septic shock. These signs and symptoms we have observed can be attributed to what cytokine of the innate immune response? a. TNF-alpha b. IL 6 c. IL 1 d. TGF-beta

c. IL 1

Ig heavy chain isotype switching results to different Ig isotypes, which mediate distinct principal effector functions. a. IgM: complement activation b. IgE: immunity against helminths Mast cell degranulation (immediate hypersensitivity) c. IgD: mucosal immunity (transport through epithelia) d. IgG subclasses (IgG1, IgG3): Fc receptor-dependent phagocyte responses; complement activation; neonatal immunity (placental transfer)

c. IgD: mucosal immunity (transport through epithelia)

While hiking on a rain forest trail, a 32-year-old male was severely stung with fire ants on his ankles. He developed intense pruritus on the bitten sites and immediately progressed to manifest diaphoresis, shortness of breath, tightness of the chest, and hives. Upon arrival at the nearest ER, the patient was found to be unresponsive and cyanotic. What putative immunoglobulin is at play in this scenario? a. IgA b. IgG c. IgE d. IgM e. IgD

c. IgE

If one is pertaining to the structures of the MHC molecules, which of the given choices is incorrect? a. Both MHC class, I, and II molecules possess a peptide binding cleft. b. β2- microglobulin is associated with the MHC class I structure. c. The class II MHC peptide-binding cleft can accommodate antigenic peptides of 8-11 residues. d. The binding site for the T cell coreceptor in class II MHC is the β2 region.

c. The class II MHC peptide-binding cleft can accommodate antigenic peptides of 8-11 residues.

C3b, C4b, and C1q are complement components that are vital in bacterial recognition. The following statements are true except one. a. The above-mentioned complement components can act as opsonins. b. C3 deficiency, in particular, is always associated with repeated severe bacterial infections. c. The deficiency of these complement components will least likely affect the phagocytic response of the immune cells. d. These complement components can sensitize a bacterium by covalent binding.

c. The deficiency of these complement components will least likely affect the phagocytic response of the immune cells.

Of the factors that influence the immune response, which one of the following sentences is false? a. A sexually active HIV patient with a CD4 count of 97 is very less likely to mount a productive immune response. b. upon HLA testing, it was found out that Podrick bears the HLA B27 Ag thus his chance of developing either Reiter's syndrome or Ankylosing spondylitis is high c. a 13-day old infant has a robust well-developed immune system to fight infantile diseases d. because of reduced production of B and T cells in the bone marrow and thymus and diminished function of mature lymphocytes in secondary lymphoid tissues; as a result, elderly individuals do not respond to the immune challenge as robustly as the young e. none of the choices is false e. none of the choices is false

c. a 13-day old infant has a robust well-developed immune system to fight infantile diseases

The purpose of the HAT medium in the generation of monoclonal antibodies is; a. it allows fusion of the murine spleen cells that have been immunized with a known Ag or a mixture of Ags with an enzyme-deficient partner myeloma cell line b. provides preservation of the morphology of the splenic cells that will be used c. permits the survival of the immortalized hybrids d. enables the growth of the mutant myeloma cell line even they do not produce Abs

c. permits the survival of the immortalized hybrids

T cell survival, proliferation, and differentiation occur when: a. the APCs are deficient with costimulators b. the APCs are resting and express costimulators c. the activated APCs have an increased expression of costimulators and cytokine secretion d. the APCs are activated by microbes and do not express costimulators

c. the activated APCs have an increased expression of costimulators and cytokine secretion

Which one of the following sentences is untrue regarding the complement system. a. the endpoint is the lysis of the microbe b. activation happens in the cell surfaces c. the classical pathway is phylogenetically older than the alternative d. the three pathways lead to the formation of C3b

c. the classical pathway is phylogenetically older than the alternative

one of the following is improperly matched a. is the most heat-labile of all Igs: IgE b. is principally seen in secretions at mucosal surfaces: IgA c. the most efficient complement activator: IgG d. it is incapable of crossing the placenta: IgD

c. the most efficient complement activator: IgG

An in vivo human study employed an experimental strategy of knocking-out the genes responsible for MHC class I expression. What possible consequence can happen from this scenario? helper T cells can no longer recognize antigens CD4+ T cells possibly can increase their effector functions cytototoxic lymphocytes will no longer be able to perform antigen recognition CD8+ T cells still will be able to recognize fully the antigenic peptides displayed

cytototoxic lymphocytes will no longer be able to perform antigen recognition

Secondary humoral immune responses are characterized by the following, except a. Induced by only protein antigens b. Ab isotype: Relative increase in IgG and, under certain situations, in IgA or IgE c. has a larger peak response d. Ab isotype: usually IgM > IgG

d. Ab isotype: usually IgM > IgG

Is considered as the most serious of all the complement deficiencies a. C1INH deficiency b. DAF deficiency c. C2 deficiency d. C3 deficiency e. C5 deficiency

d. C3 deficiency

The participation of these cells is needed for the full activation of naive CD8+ T cells and their differentiation into functional CTLs and memory cells a. B lymphocytes b. Dendritic cells c. NK T cells d. CD4+ helper T cells

d. CD4+ helper T cells

T-Independent antigens are indicated by the following except; a. majority of them are multivalent, comprised of repeated identical antigenic epitopes b. cannot be recognized by CD4+ helper T cells because they cannot be processed and presented in association with MHC molecules c. the most prominent examples are glycolipids, polysaccharides, and nucleic acids d. cellular immunity is the primary mechanism of host defense against these Ags (e.g., encapsulated bacteria) e. none of the above

d. cellular immunity is the primary mechanism of host defense against these Ags (e.g., encapsulated bacteria)

An antigenic fragment presented in association with class I MHC is recognized by what T lymphocyte population? a. CD4+ cytotoxic T cells b. CD8- cytototoxic T lymphocytes c. CD8+ helper T cells d. cytotoxic T lymphocytes

d. cytotoxic T lymphocytes

The complement can induce harm in the following situations, except a. A patient who tested positive for the presence of autoantibodies directed against antigens on the surface of the patient's own erythrocytes cold autoimmune hemolytic anemia. b. A hypertensive 76-year-old man who sought medical care at the hospital due to severe chest pain. Without any prior symptoms, he started to have severe chest pain and sought emergency medical care after about 24 hours, due to pain persistence. After a battery of tests, the patient was diagnosed with acute myocardial infarction. c. A 58-year old woman undergoing immunosuppressive treatment (cancer chemotherapy) presented with an acute alteration in mental status, organ dysfunction, hypotension, lactic acidosis, and oliguria. Bacterial culture of the patient's stool confirmed the presence of E. coli bacteria d. none of the above

d. none of the above

Forms of the class II molecules comprise the following except; a. HLA-DP b. HLA-DQ c. HLA-DR d. none of the choices

d. none of the choices

Of the Ag-Ab interactions, which of the following choices can we consider as secondary interactions? a. ionic bond reactions b. hydrogen bond reactions c. interactions with Van der Waals forces d. none of the choices

d. none of the choices

The T cell effector functions implicated in class I MHC-associated presentation of cytosolic antigen to helper T lymphocytes is? a. the macrophage activation: the destruction of phagocytosed antigen b. the killing of the antigen-expressing target cell c. the B cell antibody-mediated secretion: antibody binding to antigen d. none of the choices

d. none of the choices

Biologic actions of type I interferons are represented by the following except; a. viral RNA degradation b. inhibition of viral protein synthesis c. inhibition of viral gene expression and virion assembly d. suppression of other lymphocytes

d. suppression of other lymphocytes

If a given HLA nomenclature appears like this, HLA-DRB1*1301N; then it can signify that a. this allele contains a mutation outside the coding region b. this allele has a mutation previously shown to have a significant effect on cell surface expression, but where this has not been confirmed, and its expression remains questionable c. this allele encodes a protein with a significantly reduced or low cell surface expression d. this allele is an example of a null allele

d. this allele is an example of a null allele

Which of the following best characterize the adaptive immune system? I. the first line of defense III. has a long-lasting memory II. has a high level of specificity IV. is also known as natural immunity a. I, II, III, IV b. I, II c. I, II, III d. I, II, IV e. II, III

e. II, III

Antibodies can be described by the following, except a. show the most exceptional ability to discriminate between different Ags, and bind Ags with the the greatest strength as compared to MHC molecules and T cell Ag receptors b. are the products generated when B lymphocytes differentiate into plasma cells c. have the ability to recognize foreign molecular structures in a specific manner d. can be separated by serum electrophoresis e. are the primary mediators of cellular immunity against all classes of microbes

e. are the primary mediators of cellular immunity against all classes of microbes

When the immune system recovers from one response so that it can effectively respond to newly encountered antigens, this is known as? a. diversity b. memory c. clonal expansion d. specificity e. contraction and hemostasis

e. contraction and hemostasis

A hapten can be best described as? a. a molecular with a molecular weight greater than 100,000 daltons b. already retains antigenicity even without the presence of a carrier c. has the inert ability in joining antibody-mediated reactions d. multiple antigenic determinants are present on its surface e. none of the above

e. none of the above

As a complement regulator, C1 inhibitor (C1INH) can be described as? a. the primary soluble regulator of the alternative pathway b. a soluble control protein that acts at a deeper level of the activation of complement c. a receptor that responds to inhibit MAC formation d. a glycoprotein that blocks the activation at the initial stages of the lectin pathway the only e. none of the above

e. none of the above

Which does not best define the coding process for immunoglobulin molecules? a. a rearrangement process employing special recombinase enzymes is required so that the genes coding for Abs can be transcribed and translated into functional Ab molecules b. permanent changes happen to the DNA of the particular lymphocyte once gene rearrangement occurs c. human Ig genes are found in three unlinked clusters on chromosomes 14, 2, and 22 d. the three groups of genes that code for the variable region include: VH, D, and J e. none of the above

e. none of the above

Is the site wherein Ags entering the circulation that are captured by DCs are filtered: a. thymus b. lymph nodes c. renal epithelium d. neutrophil extracellular traps (NETs) e. spleen

e. spleen

Which of the following given sentences is true with regards to vaccination? the toxins and or pathogens are made innocuous without losing pathogenicity the antigenic material is designed to be harmless and no longer antigenic the toxin or the whole organism involved is recognized by the T cells once it is injected into the human body it is based on the principles of specificity and memory

it is based on the principles of specificity and memory

The following belong to the second line of defense/internal defense, except one: fever natural killer (NK) cells complement system lysozyme

lysozyme

Waking up late, Shaun was late for the class. He was running as fast as he could when suddenly a stray dog bit his knee on his way to school. In the emergency clinic, a full dose of rabies immunoglobulin was administered into and around the wound site. This post-exposure prophylaxis done to the patient demonstrates what type of adaptive immunity? active natural immunity active artificial immunity passive natural immunity passive artificial immunity

passive artificial immunity

Which of the following is not classified as a peripheral/secondary lymphoid organ? spleen lymph nodes red bone marrow appendix

red bone marrow

Miggy was doing experimental research that involved laboratory animals; in his case, he was using AG129 mice for his dengue antiviral study. In his study design, he was planning to remove the thymus of each mouse pup right after delivery from their mothers. The following features can be manifested by the mice pups: they will have an increase in leukocyte numbers susceptibility to infection is greater increased ability to reject grafts is possible an uncompromised immune system can be observed

susceptibility to infection is greater

The following can happen during an inflammatory response, except one: endothelial cells retract, causing an increased capillary permeability the infected area receives an increase of blood supply leukocytes migrate out of the venules into the surrounding tissues the primary cells to arrive at the site of inflammation are the monocytes

the primary cells to arrive at the site of inflammation are the monocytes

Cell-mediated immunity can be associated with the following sentences, except; this type of immunity functions in the elimination of extracellular microbes to kill phagocytosed microbes, macrophages are activated eliminates the reservoir of infection and kills infected cells responding lymphocytes include the helper and cytotoxic T cells

this type of immunity functions in the elimination of extracellular microbes