IT B.4 Certification Practice Exam

Which of the following IP address ranges is reserved for Automatic Private IP Addressing? A. 192.168.0.1 - 192.168.254.255 B. 169.254.0.1 - 169.254.255.254 C. 169.192.0.0 - 169.192.254.255 D. 169.168.0.1 - 169.168.255.255 E. 192.168.0.0 - 192.168.255.254

B. 169.254.0.1 - 169.254.255.254 The Internet Assigned Numbers Authority (IANA) has reserved 169.254.0.1 through 169.254.255.254 for Automatic Private IP Addressing (APIPA). APIPA also sets the subnet mask on the network to 255.255.0.0.

Which Blu-ray standard defines rewritable disks? A. BD-R B. BD-RE C. BD-ROM D. BD-R/RW

B. BD-RE BD-RE is the Blu-ray standard that defines rewritable disks. BD-ROM is the read-only standard, and BD-R is the recordable standard. R/RW is used to designate rewritable CD and DVD discs, not Blu-ray discs.

Which of the following is the MOST likely symptom of a dirty drum or roller in a laser printer? A. A vertical black or white stripe on the print job. B. Lines or splotches repeated at regular intervals on the print job. C. Smudges on the print job. D. A faint image on the print job.

B. Lines or splotches repeated at regular intervals on the print job. A dirty drum or roller can create lines or splotches at regular intervals on the print job.

Which printer permission would you assign to a user so that she can pause the printer? A. Manage documents B. Manage this printer C. Pause printers D. Prin

B. Manage this printer Users with the Manage this printer permission can pause the printer and edit the printer properties, but cannot manage any documents waiting to be printed. Users with the Manage documents permission can manage all documents in the queue (pause, resume, delete, or rearrange the order). Users with the Print permission can print using the printer. The Pause printers permission does not exist.

Which of the following protocols do email clients use to download messages from a remote mail server? A. FTP B. POP3 C. SMTP D. SNMP

B. POP3 The POP3 protocol is part of the IP protocol suite and used to retrieve email from a remote server to a local client over a network connection. SNMP is a protocol used to monitor network traffic. SMTP is an IP protocol used to send email. FTP is used to transfer files.

You want to be able to monitor and filter VM-to-VM traffic within a virtual network. What should you do? A. Implement a virtual firewall within the hypervisor. B. Define VLAN memberships on each VM. C. Route VM-to-VM traffic through a physical firewall and back to the virtual network. D. Create a virtual router with VRF technology.

C. Route VM-to-VM traffic through a physical firewall and back to the virtual network. Virtualized hosts are susceptible to the same network exploits as physical network hosts and need to be protected by a firewall. By implementing a virtual firewall within the hypervisor itself, you can monitor and filter traffic on the virtual network as it flows between virtual machines. While routing VM-to-VM traffic through a physical firewall would work, it is very inefficient. A virtual router with VRF is used to create multiple networks from a single router interface. Configuring VLAN membership would not allow you to monitor and filter traffic.

Which of the following statements accurately describes how a modem works? (Select TWO.) A. It communicates over a telephone network using digital signals. B. It modulates digital data from a telephone network into analog data that a PC can use. C. It transmits digital signals over ordinary telephone copper wiring at a rate up to 128 Kbps. D. It demodulates analog PC data into digital data that can be transmitted through a telephone network. E. It demodulates analog data from a telephone network into digital PC data. F. It modulates digital data from the PC into analog data and transmits it on a telephone network.

E. It demodulates analog data from a telephone network into digital PC data. F. It modulates digital data from the PC into analog data and transmits it on a telephone network. Modem is shorthand for modulator/demodulator. Its job is to convert (or modulate) digital data from a PC into analog telephone signals and transmit them through a telephone network. It also receives analog data from the telephone network and converts (or demodulates) it into digital PC data.

You are configuring a network firewall to allow SMTP outbound email traffic and POP3 inbound email traffic. Which of the following IP ports should you open on the firewall? (Select TWO). A. 25 B. 143 C. 443 D. 110 E. 21

A. 25 D. 110 The Simple Mail Transfer Protocol (SMTP) uses IP port 25. The Post Office Protocol version 3 (POP3) uses IP port 110. The File Transfer Protocol (FTP) uses IP Ports 20 and 21. The Internet Message Access Protocol (IMAP) uses IP port 143. IP port 443 is used by the Secure Sockets Layer (SSL) protocol.

Which of the following are not valid IP addresses? (Select THREE.) A. 45.22.156.256 B. 145.8.260.7 C. 257.0.122.55 D. 1.55.254.3 E. 132.64.32.8 F. 116.0.0.116 G. 122.0.0.0

A. 45.22.156.256 B. 145.8.260.7 C. 257.0.122.55 IP addresses have a value between 0 and 255 within each octet. In this list, 45.22.156.256, 145.8.260.7, and 257.0.122.55 are not valid IP addresses.

While making an online bank transaction, a customer checks to see that the web browser is displaying a lock icon that indicates that an encrypted TCP/IP suite protocol is being used. Which of the following TCP/IP port numbers does this protocol typically use when the browser encrypts its communications with the bank's web server? A. 25 B. 80 C. 143 D. 443

D. 443 The TCP/IP suite protocol web browsers use for encrypted communications is HTTPS. HTTPS typically uses port 443. HTTP uses port 80. SMTP uses port 25. The IMAP email protocol uses port 143.

You have been tasked with designing a workstation that will run VMware Workstation virtualization software. It will be used by a software engineer to run virtual machines for application development and testing. Which criteria should be included in your design for this system? (Select TWO.) A. 64-bit processor with eight cores B. RAID 5 disk array C. HTPC form factor D. Video card with HDMI output E. RAM configured to run in quad-channel mode

A. 64-bit processor with eight cores E. RAM configured to run in quad-channel mode Virtual machines place a very heavy load on the host system's RAM and CPU. Therefore, the most important criteria to be included in the design for this workstation would be: RAM configured to run in quad-channel mode 64-bit processor with 8 cores A video card with HDMI output and an HTPC form factor would be more appropriate for a home theater system. A RAID 5 disk array would be appropriate for a virtualization workstation, but is less important than the choice of processor and RAM.

Which of the following is the best definition for a LAN? A. A network in a small geographic area, like in an office. B. The interconnection of components, such as laptops, printers, keyboards, and other wireless devices within a personal range (typically 10 meters or less). C. A network whose computers and servers are separated geographically, but still connected. D. An extension of a private network over a shared or public network, such as the internet.

A. A network in a small geographic area, like in an office. A LAN is a network in a small geographic area, like in an office. A WAN is a network whose computers and servers are geographically far apart, but still connected. A PAN (personal area network) is the interconnection of components, such as laptops, mobile devices, printers, mice, keyboards, and other Bluetooth equipped devices, using some form of wireless technology within a personal range (typically 10 meters or less). A VPN is the extension of a private network over a shared or public network, such as the internet.

While investigating a network connectivity issue, a technician finds that the link light on a workstation is not lit, and there is no connectivity after replacing the patch cable both between the workstation and the wall jack and between the patch panel and the switch with cables that are known to be good. If the wall jack and patch panel ports are labeled correctly, which of the following tools would the technician MOST likely use next? A. Cable tester B. Tone generator C. Punchdown tool D. Crimper

A. Cable tester A cable tester is the BEST choice for determining whether there are problems in the cable between the wall jack and the patch panel. A tone generator is not needed, since the port on the patch panel that connects to the wall jack is already identified. After you determine whether the cable is bad between the wall jack and the patch panel, you may need a punchdown tool to repair or replace the cable connectors. A crimper is used to attach an RJ45 or RJ11 end to a twisted pair cable.

The 802.11ac wireless networking standard provides increased bandwidth and communication speeds by using which of the following technologies? (Select TWO). A. Channel bonding to combine more channels in the 5 GHz band to allow for up to 160-MHz-wide channels. B. Dual band transmission to allow data to be transmitted at two frequencies at the same time. C. OFDM modulation to allow several parallel data channels to stream data. D. MU-MIMO to allow multiple users to use the same channel. E. Peer-to-peer mode to allow each host to communicate directly with other hosts.

A. Channel bonding to combine more channels in the 5 GHz band to allow for up to 160-MHz-wide channels. D. MU-MIMO to allow multiple users to use the same channel. The 802.11ac wireless network standard increases bandwidth and communication speeds using the following technologies: MU-MIMO is an enhancement to MIMO that allows multiple users to use the same channel. In addition to adding MU-MIMO, 802.11ac doubled the number of MIMO radio streams from four to eight. Channel bonding is used to combine even more channels in the 5-GHz band, allowing up to 160-MHz wide channels. (Even though 160-MHz-wide channels are supported, most 802.11ac networks use 80-MHz-wide channels.)

A user hibernates a laptop after giving a video presentation. Now, when it resumes, the display flickers for a moment, but remains blank. A technician suspects a bad graphics processing unit (GPU). Which of the following troubleshooting steps should be completed? (Select TWO). A. Connect an external display device. B. Connect an external USB hard drive. C. Replace the battery. D. Toggle the dual display function key. E. Connect an external keyboard and mouse.

A. Connect an external display device. D. Toggle the dual display function key. Depending on the display settings, the laptop may be sending a video signal to the external display port instead of the internal laptop display. Connecting a monitor will confirm this. The dual displays settings may be causing the laptop to only use the external display. Toggling the dual display function key will change these settings to use the internal display as well. Replacing the battery will interrupt processing and may cause data loss. Connecting an external hard drive is not likely to affect the display. Connecting an external keyboard and mouse is not likely to affect the display.

As the IT technician for your company, you need to ensure that IP addresses are automatically assigned to hosts while at the same time preventing the same address from being assigned twice. Which of the following services would be BEST to use? A. DHCP B. ICMP C. TCP D. IGMP

A. DHCP You can use the Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) to set up a DHCP server that will assign IP addresses to network hosts automatically. DHCP servers will not assign the same IP address to two different hosts. ICMP is chiefly used by networked computers' operating systems to send error messages. The Transmission Control Protocol (TCP) is one of the core protocols of the internet protocol suite. The Internet Group Management Protocol (IGMP) is a communications protocol used to manage the membership of Internet Protocol multicast groups.

You have just connected a new computer to your network. The network uses static IP addressing. You find that the computer can communicate with hosts on the same subnet, but not with hosts on a different subnet. No other computers are having a problem. Which of the configuration values would you most likely need to change? A. Default gateway B. DNS server C. IP address D. Subnet mask

A. Default gateway Check the default gateway setting on the computer. The default gateway value is used to send packets to other subnets. If the value is incorrect, then the packets will not be sent to the correct router. In this scenario, the host can communicate with other hosts on the same subnet, meaning that the IP address and subnet mask are correctly configured. The DNS server address probably isn't the problem, as name resolution is not mentioned in the scenario. In addition, if name resolution were a problem, it could affect access to both local and remote hosts.

After several new computers are connected to a network device, every computer connected to the device begins to experience slow transfer speeds. Which of the following is the FIRST step in troubleshooting this problem? A. Determine whether the network device is a hub or a switch. B. Use a cable tester to determine whether all cables between each computer and the device are good. C. Use a loopback plug to determine whether each port on the network device is good. D. Use a loopback plug to determine whether the NIC in each computer is good.

A. Determine whether the network device is a hub or a switch. The problem is, most likely, caused by network contention. The root cause could be too many collisions or a chattering NIC. Most likely, the device is a hub, and the added computers are causing too many collisions and overwhelming the hub. If the device is a switch, it will have monitoring tools to help determine whether one computer has a bad NIC. The problem is unlikely to be a bad port on the network device, which would only affect one computer. If the problem is a bad NIC, already knowing whether the network device is a hub or switch would help isolate the problem. A bad cable would only affect the computer that it was connected to, but all computers are experiencing slow transfer speeds.

Which type of VHD file allocates additional physical disk space in the file as virtual disk storage is used? A. Dynamically expanding B. Fixed size C. Thick provisioned D. VHDX

A. Dynamically expanding A dynamically expanding disk allocates physical disk space in the VHD file as virtual disk storage is used by the system. The size of the VHD file grows as more disk space is used. This disk type makes the most efficient use of hard disk space. However, be aware that it is possible for the physical disk to run out of space as the VHD file size grows. A fixed disk occupies a set amount of hard disk space. Thick provisioning is, essentially, the same technology as fixed disk; however, this terminology is not commonly used when working with VHD files. VHDX is an improved version of the traditional VHD file format used by newer versions of Hyper-V.

Rachel, an employee in the support department, wants to run a virtual machine on her computer from which she can troubleshoot customer issues. Which of the following must you complete before virtualization will work on her computer? A. Enable virtualization support in the BIOS settings. B. Install the extra hard disk from the new virtual machine will run on. C. Install additional memory. D. Flash the computer's BIOS to add virtualization support.

A. Enable virtualization support in the BIOS settings. For virtualization to work on Rachel's PC, you must ensure that the virtualization support is enabled in the BIOS settings. Some CPUs will have Virtualization Support turned on by default, and others will not. Although additional memory will increase performance of a computer using virtualization, it may not be required depending on the amount of memory currently installed. Likewise, an additional hard disk may be advantages in storing or running virtual machines, but they are not a requirement. Most modern CPUs support virtualization and do not require the BIOS to be flashed.

You have a virtual machine and have installed the Windows 10 operating system on it. You want this machine to be able to communicate with the physical network using a bridged connection over the physical host's network adapter. Which of the following connection types will you use when configuring the virtual switch in Hyper-V Manager? A. External network B. Physical network C. Private network D. Internal network

A. External network You must use the external network connection type when you configure the virtual switch in Hyper-V Manager. This connection type allows the virtual machine to communicate with the physical network using a bridged connection over the physical host's network adapter. An internal network connection only allows the virtual machine to communicate with the host machine and other virtual machines running on the same host. A private network connection allows virtual machines running on the same host to communicate with each other, but not with the host.

You are using a crimper to attach an RJ45 connector to a Cat 6 UTP cable. You need to use the T568A standard to connect the individual wires to the connector. Which wire should be connected to pin 1? A. Green with white B. Orange with white C. Blue D. Green

A. Green with white According to the T568A standard, the green with white wire should be connected to pin 1 in the RJ45 connector.

Google Cloud, Amazon Web Services, and Microsoft Azure are some of the most widely used cloud storage solutions for enterprises. Which of the following factors prompt companies to take advantage of cloud storage? (Select TWO.) A. Growing demand for storage B. Need to bring costs down C. Need for a platform as a service for developing applications D. Need for a storage provider to manage access control E. Need for a software as a service for managing enterprise applications

A. Growing demand for storage B. Need to bring costs down Some of the most widely used cloud storage for enterprises are Google Cloud, Amazon Web Services, and Microsoft Azure. Because of the growing demand for storage and desire to bring costs down, many companies have been taking advantage of cloud storage.

A technician wants to connect a computer to a high-definition television (HDTV). The technician has attached an HDMI cable from the video card to the television, however, the video card is only sending a video signal over the cable. The technician decides to use the audio pass-through technique to deliver audio to the television. An audio output cable is connected to the video card and television. Which of the following options was used for the audio pass-through? A. HDMI out B. DirectX/OpenGL C. HDCP D. Multi-GPU

A. HDMI out With audio pass-through, an audio output cable is connected to the video card. The video card combines the audio signal with the video signal for HDMI output. This option is often called HDTV out. Multi-GPU links video cards together to share the graphic processing load between the two GPUs. DirectX is a collection of application program interfaces (APIs) that improves graphic, animation, and multimedia creations. OpenGL is an alternative standard to DirectX that is used by some applications. Most video cards support both DirectX and OpenGL. HDCP is a method for protecting digital media.

You have installed a new computer with a quad-core 64-bit processor, 6 GB of memory, and a PCIe video card with 512 MB of memory. After installing the operating system, you see less than 4 GB of memory showing as available in Windows. Which of the following actions would MOST likely rectify this issue? A. Install a 64-bit version of the operating system. B. Flash the BIOS. C. Disable the AGP aperture in the BIOS. D. Update the memory controller driver in Device Manager.

A. Install a 64-bit version of the operating system. In this scenario, the most likely cause is the operating system being a 32-bit operating system. You must use a 64-bit operating system to use memory above 4 GB. The AGP aperture is a method for sharing system memory with an AGP video card instead of PCIe. With shared memory, some of the memory is used by the video card and is not available for the system. You do not update memory controller drivers.

You have just finished upgrading the 250 W power supply in your desktop computer to a 450 W power supply. Now the BIOS doesn't recognize one of the hard disk drives in the system during POST. Which of the following troubleshooting steps is the BEST to try first? A. Make sure that the hard disk is connected to the power supply. B. Replace the power supply. C. Reconfigure the hard disk to use the higher-wattage power supply using jumpers on the drive. D. Use the switch on the power supply to switch from 110 volts to 220 volts. E. Manually enter the hard disk parameters in the BIOS.

A. Make sure that the hard disk is connected to the power supply. Because you have just made a system change, you should check items related to the change you have made. In this case, check to make sure that power connectors are plugged in.

A portable computer connected to a printer with an infrared interface works fine inside your office. However, when you go outside, it works sporadically. Which of the following would BEST resolve this issue? (Select TWO). A. Move the printer closer to the computer. B. Set the environment setting to outdoor mode in the BIOS. C. Install a Gamma Ray Spectrometer (GRS) to shield the interface. D. Install Ferrite shielding on both the PC and printer power cords. E. Block direct and reflected sunlight from the pathway between the PC and the printer.

A. Move the printer closer to the computer. E. Block direct and reflected sunlight from the pathway between the PC and the printer. Infrared light is light that is near visible light in the electromagnetic spectrum. Therefore, very bright lights and, in particular, sunlight may cause interference with infrared interfaces. The best way to manage this interference is to minimize the distance between the connected devices and minimize interfering sunlight. There is no outdoor mode in BIOS settings. A GRS measures gamma radiation, not infrared. Adding ferrite shielding to power cords does nothing to reduce infrared interference.

What key advantage does a virtual router have over a physical router? A. Multiple networks can be connected to a single interface. B. Faster routing performance. C. Routing protocols are not needed to route data between networks. D. Allows the Virtual Router Redundancy Protocol (VRRP) to be used.

A. Multiple networks can be connected to a single interface. The key advantage of a virtual router is it can support multiple networks on a single router interface. It does this by using a different routing table for each network. Physical routers are limited to a single network on each interface. Like physical routers, virtual routers use routing protocols to route data between networks. The Virtual Router Redundancy Protocol is used by physical routers to specify backup routers in the case of a failure. Virtual routers do not offer significant performance increases.

Which of the following is an error detection technique that can detect errors with only one bit? A. Parity B. ECC C. Non-parity D. EDO

A. Parity Parity error detection can only detect errors with only one bit, while Error Correcting Code (ECC) can detect errors with more than one bit. EDO is not a type of error correction, it is a type of memory that can start a new access cycle while keeping the data output of the previous cycle active.

Which printer management components would you use to view the port a printer uses? (Select TWO.) A. Print server properties B. Print queue properties C. Print queue D. Printer properties E. Print spooling service

A. Print server properties D. Printer properties Use the print server properties or the printer properties to view the port used by a printer. Print server properties displays printer ports used on the computer. The printer properties displays the port for the individual printer, as well as all printer ports for the computer. The Print Spooling service is a software process that captures print jobs from applications, places them in the print queue, and then sends each print job to the print device. The print queue is a location on the hard disk that holds print jobs waiting to be processed.

You are configuring an ADSL connection. Which of the following will be part of the configuration? (Select TWO.) A. RJ11 connectors B. An RG6 cable C. Analog modem D. F-type connectors E. Filters or splitters

A. RJ11 connectors E. Filters or splitters To connect to the internet through a DSL connection: Install an internal DSL card in a single computer or connect a DSL router to the phone line. Use a phone cable with an RJ11 connector to connect the DSL card or router to the phone line. For ADSL, place filters (splitters) on the line everywhere that an analog phone is used. Do not install a filter on the line connected to the DSL router. Analog modems are used for dial-up internet access. F-type connectors and RG-6 cable are used for cable internet access.

A company has subscribed to a cloud service that offers cloud applications and storage space. Through acquisition, the number of company employees quickly doubled. The cloud service vendor was able to add cloud services to these additional employees without requiring hardware changes. Which of the following cloud concepts does this represent? A. Rapid elasticity B. Measured service C. On-demand D. Resource pooling

A. Rapid elasticity Rapid elasticity describes the cloud provider's ability to increase or decrease service levels to meet customer needs without requiring hardware changes. Measured service refers to the way cloud services are measured or metered for billing purposes or according to a service level agreement. An on-demand cloud service is available to user at any time. Cloud services providers use resource pooling to supply services to multiple customers using shared physical resources.

You are building one of your customers a home theater PC (HTPC) to connect to an HDTV and high-definition audio system. The customer is going to be playing mostly Blu-ray movies on the system. Which of the following features should the sound card include? (Select TWO). A. S/PDIF output B. Line-level in port C. Dolby Digital, DTS support, or SDDS support D. IEEE 1394 port E. MIDI support

A. S/PDIF output C. Dolby Digital, DTS support, or SDDS support Because the customer is using the computer as an HTPC, the sound card should include support for high-quality sound output, such as Dolby Digital, DTS, or SDDS support. In addition, the sound card should support a digital output, such as S/PDIF. Line-level in (line in) ports are used to receive analog audio signals from musical instruments or CD players, which is not necessary for this computer. IEEE 1394 ports are used to connect FireWire devices. MIDI support, which allows digital synthesizer recording, is also unnecessary for this particular computer.

Which of the following protocols can be enabled so email is encrypted on a mobile device? A. SSL B. SMTP C. IMAP D. POP3

A. SSL SSL, or Secure Socket Layer, can be enabled so email is encrypted on a mobile device. IMAP and POP3 are email retrieval protocols. SMTP is the protocol used to route email through the internetwork.

Occasionally, Rachel works from another Mac in her office, rather than her own, and needs to be able to access her Mac while she is away from her desk. Which option can Rachel use to access her MAC? A. Screen Sharing B. SSH C. Telnet D. Remote Desktop Protocol

A. Screen Sharing You can use screen sharing to access your Mac while you're away, solve a problem on someone else's Mac, or collaborate with others on a project such as a website or presentation. Remote Desktop Protocol is a Windows solution. SSH is used to establish a secure terminal connection over a network. Telnet is used to establish an unsecure connection over a network.

Which of the following are benefits UEFI provides that BIOS does not? (Select three.) A. Supports 64-bit firmware device drivers. B. Faster startup times. C. Does not need to be flashed as frequently. D. Provides non-volatile storage of system startup information. E. Allows individual bytes to be erased and reprogrammed. F. Supports drives larger than 2.2 TB.

A. Supports 64-bit firmware device drivers. B. Faster startup times. F. Supports drives larger than 2.2 TB. Unlike BIOS, UEFI provides the following benefits: Faster startup times. Supports drives larger than 2.2 terabytes. Supports 64-bit firmware device drivers. Provides better security to protect against bootkit (malware attacks on the boot process) attacks. Similar to BIOS, UEFI does need to be flashed when updates are available to make new features available on the computer. EEPROM is the technology that provides non-volatile memory and allows individual bytes to be erased and reprogrammed.

A technician is tasked with replacing an internal laptop hard drive. Which of the following hard drive standards would be of MOST concern when selecting a replacement? A. The hard drive's form factor B. The hard drive's storage capacity C. The hard drive's minimum voltage requirements D. The hard drive's read and write speeds

A. The hard drive's form factor For laptops, the hard drive's form factor is very important. Most laptop's use either the 1.8 inch or 2.5 inch form factor standard. Most hard drives have the same voltage requirements. The storage capacity may drive the cost of a hard drive, but the capacity doesn't usually change whether the hard drive is compatible with a laptop. The read and write speeds may drive the cost of a hard drive, but they don't usually change whether the hard drive is compatible with a laptop.

For several years, the monitor on your laptop has worked perfectly. However, shortly after turning on your laptop today, you noticed a definite dimness. Which of the following is the MOST likely cause? (Select TWO). A. The power adapter was accidently unplugged. B. The monitor's hertz rate is set too high. C. The monitor's inverter has gone bad. D. The brightness level was automatically reset to the default settings. E. The monitor's resolution was automatically reset to the default settings.

A. The power adapter was accidently unplugged. C. The monitor's inverter has gone bad. A dim image on an LCD monitor is usually caused by a misconfigured brightness setting, an automatic power saving mode for laptops, or a malfunctioning backlight. If your laptop suddenly dims, first, check to verify that the power adapter hasn't been accidently disconnected. Most laptops automatically dim the screen brightness when they run on battery to minimize power usage. Since you know you haven't changed the brightness settings, it is very unlikely that these settings would be changed automatically. Therefore, the dimness is most likely caused by a failed compact fluorescent light (CLF) or inverter. These two items provide the backlight required for LCD monitors. If you are tech-savvy, you may be able to replace the bad device. Otherwise, you will need to get a professional to fix the monitor or replace the monitor.

You are installing a satellite connection so your home office can connect to the internet. Which of the following statements is true? A. The satellite dish must be pointed in the correct direction for communicating with the satellite. B. The connection to your computer from the satellite modem may be RJ11 or F-type. C. The connection between the satellite modem and dish uses a USB cable and connector. D. You must have at the least one available phone line for data uploads.

A. The satellite dish must be pointed in the correct direction for communicating with the satellite. During installation, the satellite dish must be pointed in the correct direction to communicate with the satellite. With a single-line satellite installation, the satellite connection is used for downloads, and a phone line with a modem is used for uploads. Connect a satellite modem/router to the satellite disk using coaxial cable (RG-6) and an F-type connector. Connect the modem/router to your computer using a USB or Ethernet connection.

You are in the process of purchasing several new computers to replace broken or outdated computers. After much research, you have determined to purchase computers that use AMD sockets. Which of the following BEST describes an AMD and why you would select this option? (Select TWO). A. Typically, AMD chips are less expensive. B. Typically, an AMD uses numbers to represent the number of pins on the socket. C. Typically, an AMD has a larger market share. D. Typically, an AMD uses a land grid array (LGA) socket type. E. Typically, an AMD uses a Pin Grid Array (PGA) socket type.

A. Typically, AMD chips are less expensive. E. Typically, an AMD uses a Pin Grid Array (PGA) socket type. Generally speaking, CPUs manufactured by AMD tend to be less expensive than those manufactured by Intel, but they also don't perform quite as well as Intel CPUs. AMD chips typically use a pin grid array (PGA) socket type and do not include a number in their name to represent the pins used on the chip.

Your computer currently uses a 5,400 RPM hard disk. You want to improve your computer's overall performance by optimizing your hard disk performance. Which of the following would be the MOST effective means for optimizing your hard disk performance? (Select TWO). A. Upgrade to a 10,000 RPM hard disk. B. Upgrade to a 7,200 RPM hard disk. C. Upgrade your hard disk interface to SATA 2. D. Upgrade your hard disk interface to SATA 3. E. Upgrade your hard disk interface to eSATAp. F. Implement RAID 0 on the current hard disk.

A. Upgrade to a 10,000 RPM hard disk. D. Upgrade your hard disk interface to SATA 3. Upgrading to a 10,000 RPM hard disk and upgrading to a SATA 3 disk interface are the two most effective steps you can take to improve your computer's overall performance. The 7,200 RPM hard disk is not the fastest hard disk option. At 600 Mbps, the SATA 3 disk interface is twice as fast as the SATA 2 interface. Although hard disk drives are not capable of sending data at the full 600 Mbps, they can go faster than the SATA 2 interface allows. Implementing RAID 0 does improve hard disk performance, but it requires a minimum of two disks. Adding another hard disk while keeping your current 5,400 RPM disk would not improve your hard disk performance as much as upgrading to 10,000 RPM hard disk with a SATA 3 disk interface.

The servers for the company are all virtual machines and hosted on the same hypervisor. You need to keep users in all other departments from accessing the virtual servers used by the finance department. Which of the following technologies should you use to logically isolate the network? A. VLANs B. Subnetting C. MAC filtering D. NIC teaming

A. VLANs A virtual LAN (VLAN) uses switch ports to define a broadcast domain. When you define a VLAN, you assign devices on different switch ports to a separate logical (or virtual) LAN. NIC teaming is used to combine two or more physical connections into one logical connection and does not isolate networks. While MAC filtering could be used to control access, it is easily bypassed by MAC spoofing. Subnetting is used to divide large networks into smaller networks. Subnetting can be used to isolate sensitive systems, but it is not as secure as using VLANs.

The servers for the company are all virtual machines and hosted on the same hypervisor. You need to keep users in all other departments from accessing the virtual servers used by the finance department. Which of the following technologies should you use to logically isolate the network? A. VLANs B. Subnetting C. NIC teaming D. MAC filtering

A. VLANs A virtual LAN (VLAN) uses switch ports to define a broadcast domain. When you define a VLAN, you assign devices on different switch ports to a separate logical (or virtual) LAN. NIC teaming is used to combine two or more physical connections into one logical connection and does not isolate networks. While MAC filtering could be used to control access, it is easily bypassed by MAC spoofing. Subnetting is used to divide large networks into smaller networks. Subnetting can be used to isolate sensitive systems, but it is not as secure as using VLANs.

You need to provide DHCP and file share services to a physical network. These services should be deployed using virtualization. Which type of virtualization should you implement? A. Virtual servers B. Network as a Service (NaaS) C. Virtual networks D. Virtual desktops

A. Virtual servers Server virtualization runs multiple instances of a server operating system on a single physical computer. With server virtualization, you can migrate servers on older hardware to newer computers, or add virtual servers to computers with extra unused hardware resources. Virtual desktops do not provide DHCP services. Virtual networks allow virtual servers and desktops to communicate with each other, and they can also allow communication (via the host operating system) to network devices out on the physical network. Network as a Service (NaaS) servers and desktops that are all virtualized and managed by a contracted third party.

You want a storage device that has the ability to: Integrate data and device power into a single cable. Use a connector and port that is neither L-shaped nor rectangular. Which of the following SATA devices is the BEST to use? A. eSATAp B. SATA C. SATA3 D. eSATA F. SATA2

A. eSATAp eSATAp (also known as Power over eSATA or Power eSATA) is meant to replace eSATA. It combines the functionality of eSATA and USB ports with a source of power in a single connector. It integrates data and device power into a single cable, and the connector and port are neither L-shaped nor rectangular. SATA1 is the original SATA standard. It provided 1.5 Gbps (150 MBps) data transfer. SATA2 supports up to 3 Gbps (300 MBps). SATA3 supports up to 6 Gbps (600 MBps). It mainly addresses solid state drives with SATA (hard disk drives are not capable of sending data at this rate). eSATA is a subset of other standards specifically for externally connected devices.

You've just installed the DNS service on a Windows server. Which port must be opened in the server's firewall to allow clients to access the service? A. 123 B. 110 C. 143 D. 53

D. 53 The DNS service runs on port 53 by default. Port 110 is used by the POP3 protocol. Port 143 is used by the IMAP protocol. Port 123 is used by the NTP protocol.

While investigating a network connectivity issue, a technician finds that the link light on a workstation is not lit, and there is no connectivity after replacing the patch cable both between the workstation and the wall jack and between the patch panel and the switch with cables that are known to be good. If the wall jack and patch panel ports are labeled correctly, which of the following tools would the technician MOST likely use next? A. Tone generator B. Cable tester C. Crimper D. Punchdown tool

B. Cable tester A cable tester is the BEST choice for determining whether there are problems in the cable between the wall jack and the patch panel. A tone generator is not needed, since the port on the patch panel that connects to the wall jack is already identified. After you determine whether the cable is bad between the wall jack and the patch panel, you may need a punchdown tool to repair or replace the cable connectors. A crimper is used to attach an RJ45 or RJ11 end to a twisted pair cable.

After several new computers are connected to a network device, every computer connected to the device begins to experience slow transfer speeds. Which of the following is the FIRST step in troubleshooting this problem? A. Use a cable tester to determine whether all cables between each computer and the device are good. B. Determine whether the network device is a hub or a switch. C. Use a loopback plug to determine whether the NIC in each computer is good. D. Use a loopback plug to determine whether each port on the network device is good.

B. Determine whether the network device is a hub or a switch. The problem is, most likely, caused by network contention. The root cause could be too many collisions or a chattering NIC. Most likely, the device is a hub, and the added computers are causing too many collisions and overwhelming the hub. If the device is a switch, it will have monitoring tools to help determine whether one computer has a bad NIC. The problem is unlikely to be a bad port on the network device, which would only affect one computer. If the problem is a bad NIC, already knowing whether the network device is a hub or switch would help isolate the problem. A bad cable would only affect the computer that it was connected to, but all computers are experiencing slow transfer speeds.

When you print from your laser printer, the paper contains faint images from previous printouts. Which of the following components is MOST likely the cause? (Select TWO). A. Transfer roller B. Fluorescent lamp C. Secondary corona wire D. Rubber scraper E. Primary corona wire

B. Fluorescent lamp D. Rubber scraper After a page is printed, a rubber scraper removes any remaining toner from the OPC drum. A fluorescent lamp removes any remaining electrical charge. If images from previous print jobs show up on the page, check these two components. The primary corona charges the drum prior to writing the image. The secondary corona charges the paper to attract the toner. If these two components are faulty, the current image might have streaks or missing parts. If the toner is not sticking to the paper, check the transfer roller.

One of the employees in your company calls and complains that text printed on the laser printer smudges easily and is staining hands and cloths. Which of the following, if adjusted or replaced, would BEST fix the printer? A. Laser B. Fuser unit C. Toner hopper D. OPC drum E. Photoreceptor drum

B. Fuser unit After the toner has been applied to the paper, the pater passes through two heated rollers known as the fuser, or fuser unit. The heat and pressure from the rollers fuse the toner particles into the fibers of the paper. If the toner on the finished printed paper is smudging, the most likely issue is that the fuser unit is malfunctioning in some way. Since the text is being printed, the toner hopper is dispensing toner. The photoreceptor and the environmentally friendly version known as the organic photo conductor drums (OPC drums )received the charge from the corona wire. If these parts were not working, the text would not be transferred to the paper. Likewise, if the laser were not working, the image of the text would not be drawn on the photoreceptor drum, and the paper would come out blank.

After arriving in a new city today, a traveling sales team member calls you stating that his wireless connection no longer works. He has checked the wireless configuration, and he knows it to be correct because it was working yesterday. What should you do first? A. Have him purchase a USB wireless card to use until you can check the problem yourself. B. Have him verify that the wireless card's hardware switch is in the On position. C. Have him manually configure the wireless card to use only 802.11b. D. Have him update the drivers for the wireless card.

B. Have him verify that the wireless card's hardware switch is in the On position. Have the user verify that the wireless card's hardware switch is in the On position. Many built-in wireless cards can be turned off and on through a switch on the laptop case. Because this is a likely problem and easy to check, you should verify the switch's placement before trying other solutions.

After arriving in a new city today, a traveling sales team member calls you stating that his wireless connection no longer works. He has checked the wireless configuration, and he knows it to be correct because it was working yesterday. What should you do first? A. Have him update the drivers for the wireless card. B. Have him verify that the wireless card's hardware switch is in the On position. C. Have him purchase a USB wireless card to use until you can check the problem yourself. D. Have him manually configure the wireless card to use only 802.11b.

B. Have him verify that the wireless card's hardware switch is in the On position. Have the user verify that the wireless card's hardware switch is in the On position. Many built-in wireless cards can be turned off and on through a switch on the laptop case. Because this is a likely problem and easy to check, you should verify the switch's placement before trying other solutions.

Which term describes the layer of software that resides between the virtual operating system and the physical hardware it is running on in a virtualization environment? A. Virtual machine B. Hypervisor C. Workload management D. Virtual hard disk

B. Hypervisor A hypervisor is a thin layer of software that resides between the virtual operating system(s) and the hardware. A hypervisor allows virtual machines to interact with the hardware without going through the host operating system. A hypervisor manages access to system resources such as: CPU Storage RAM A virtual machine is a software implementation of a computer system that executes programs like a physical machine. A Virtual Hard Disk is a disk file used by a virtual machine. Workload management relates to the portability of virtual machines.

Which of the following tools is specifically designed to test the DC voltage on a hard disk drive power connector? A. Cable tester B. Power supply tester C. Loopback plug D. Multimeter

B. Power supply tester A power supply tester is specifically designed to test DC voltage on most connectors coming from a PC power supply. A multimeter measures electrical properties such as voltage, amps, and resistance. A multimeter can also be used to test DC voltage on a Molex connector; however, it isn't a tool dedicated to this purpose. A cable tester verifies that a network can carry a signal from one end to the other and that all wires within the connector are in their correct positions. A loopback plug lets you test a port for proper functionality. The loopback plug crosses the receive and transmit wires. Essentially, this lets the computer send a signal to itself.

The fan in a 450-Watt power supply is malfunctioning. What action should you take? A. Open the power supply and oil the fan. B. Remove and replace the power supply. C. Do not service the computer until the CPU fan also fails. D. Open the power supply and replace the defective fan unit.

B. Remove and replace the power supply. Dangerous voltages can remain inside power supplies, even when they are unplugged. Do not attempt any repairs on a power supply except completely replacing the power supply unit.

You work for a company based in Phoenix, Arizona, which is a very hot and dry area. Several people in the research department have reported that even though their files are printing to their laser printer correctly, a much lighter copy of the same text also prints within 2 to 3 cm of the original text. Which of the following would MOST likely fix this type of ghosting image? A. Vacuum the fuser assembly to clean off excessive ink toner. B. Replace the imaging drum, as it is probably at end of life. C. Remove the toner container and gently shake it to loosen clumped image toner. D. Use a heavier weight paper to avoid paper shift.

B. Replace the imaging drum, as it is probably at end of life. When ghost images are within 2 to 3 cm of the original image, this is an indication that the ghosting is caused by the imaging drum. When a drum unit comes to the end of its useable life cycle, it may not discharge properly, leaving behind faint traces of the previous printing job. An imaging drum can also become defective and discharge incorrectly between print runs, also causing ghosting to occur. In either case, the best solution it to replace the imaging drum. Using heavier weight paper will not fix ghosting images. If the drum is bad, the ghosting will still be present regardless of the weight of paper. Heavier weight paper can actually cause ghosting to occur if the ghosting issue is the result of a faulty fuser unit. If this printer was in a high-humidity environment, it is possible that the toner may clump together inside the cartridge. When this happens, the toner powder does not get distributed evenly when printing, which can lead to ghost images on the page. However, Arizona is a very dry environment, so this probably isn't the issue.

A user on your network has been moved to another office down the hall. After the move, she calls you to complain that she has only occasional network access through her wireless connection. Which of the following is MOST likely the cause of the problem? A. The client has incorrect WPA2 settings. B. The client system has moved too far away from the access point. C. An SSID mismatch between the client and the server. The encryption level has been erroneously set back to the default setting. D. An SSID mismatch between the client and the WAP.

B. The client system has moved too far away from the access point. In this case, the wireless client system has had no problems accessing the wireless access point until the move to the new office. In some cases, moving a system will cause signal loss either from the increased distance away from the WAP or from unexpected interference by such things as concrete walls or steel doors. There are several ways to correct the problem, including reducing the physical distance to the client, using a wireless amplifier, upgrading the antennas on the wireless devices, or adding another WAP to the infrastructure. Because the client could previously access the WAP and still has occasional access, it is likely that the move was the cause of the problem, rather than any configuration setting on the client system.

You are a software developer, and you are creating a multimedia streaming application. Data will be streamed from your streaming server to streaming clients over IP networks. Which transport protocol should your application use to send data between the clients and the server? A. SNMP B. UDP C. ICMP D. TCP

B. UDP The User Datagram Protocol (UDP) protocol can be used with the IP protocol to create unacknowledged connections between the server application and its clients. Because the packets are sent unacknowledged, latency will be dramatically reduced, providing better streaming performance. The Transmission Control Protocol (TCP) uses acknowledged connections, which would introduce considerable latency and reduce streaming performance. The Simple Network Management Protocol (SNMP) is used to monitor and manage network devices. The Internet Control Message Protocol is used to send and receive error messages on an IP network.

Which of the following (1 BEST describes the technology designed to replace the BIOS and (2 is a firmware solution for controlling the startup process and loading the computer operating system into memory? A. CMOS B. UEFI C. EEPROM D. BIOS 2

B. UEFI UEFI was designed to replace the BIOS and is a firmware solution for controlling the startup process and loading the computer operating system into memory. CMOS is a legacy computer chip technology that was used to store system information prior to the introduction of EEPROM. EEPROM is a non-volatile memory chip that stores the system startup information configured through UEFI. BIOS 2 does not exist.

Aubrey, an employee in the marketing department, has told you that when she prints to her laser printer, faint ghost-like images are being printed on her new page. As an IT administrator, you check with other employees who use the same printer and find that they are not experiencing the same problem. Which of the following would be the BEST fix for this issue? A. Replace the imaging drum, as it is probably at end of life. B. Use preprinted paper that has been printed with laser-compatible printer toner. C. Using 97 % isopropyl alcohol and a soft cloth, gently clean the imaging drum. D. Remove the toner container and gently shake it to loosen clumped image toner.

B. Use preprinted paper that has been printed with laser-compatible printer toner. Aubrey is printing on preprinted paper, whereas the other employees are not. The heat and pressure used in laser printing causes the preprinted image to be transferred during the fusing process unless the preprinted paper was printed using laser printer compatible printer ink. Since the ghosting is only occurring for Aubrey, it is unlikely that the printer drum or the toner is the issue.

Which of the following are true concerning the Virtual Desktop Infrastructure (VDI)? (Select TWO) A. User desktop environments are provided by individual desktop systems instead of by remote servers. B. User desktop environments are centrally hosted on servers instead of on individual desktop systems. C. In the event of a widespread malware infection, the administrator can reimage user desktops by pushing an image out to each user desktop system over the network. D. In the event of a widespread malware infection, the administrator can quickly reimage all user desktops on a few central servers. E. Roaming profiles must be configured to allow mobile users to keep their same desktop environment across systems.

B. User desktop environments are centrally hosted on servers instead of on individual desktop systems. D. In the event of a widespread malware infection, the administrator can quickly reimage all user desktops on a few central servers. Virtual Desktop Infrastructure (VDI) is a service that hosts user desktop environments on centralized servers. Users access their desktops from low-end systems over a network connection using a remote display protocol such as Remote Desktop or VNC. This allows users to access their desktop environment with their applications and data from any location and from any client device. Roaming profiles are not needed. VDI provides administrators with a centralized client environment that is easier and more efficient to manage. For example, if a widespread malware infection hits multiple user desktops, the affected systems can be quickly reimaged on the VDI server. There is no need to push large images down to client systems over the network.

You have a Windows system with two SATA hard drives, one used for the operating system and the other used for storing data. You have traced recent problems to a fault in the system motherboard. You replaced the motherboard and reconnected all the hardware. When you started the computer, the system showed the startup information screen, but then returned an error that an operating system could not be found. What should you do? (Select TWO. Each option is part of the complete solution.) A. Boot into the recovery console and run the bootrec /rebuildbcd command. B. Verify the operating system SATA drive is configured as the boot drive in the UEFI configuration. C. Press F6 during startup and load the SATA drivers. D. Boot into Safe Mode and import the disks in Disk Management. E. Change the boot order in the UEFI configuration.

B. Verify the operating system SATA drive is configured as the boot drive in the UEFI configuration. E. Change the boot order in the UEFI configuration. The most likely cause is that the boot configuration in the UEFI firmware of the new motherboard needs to be modified. First, you should specify that the SATA hard disk with the operating system installed is the hard disk to boot from. Then set the boot order to boot from the hard disk first. When you replace the motherboard, the UEFI chips are replaced and previous boot configuration is lost.

Which of the following statements about virtual NICs are true? (Select TWO.) A. Virtual NICs can communicate only with other virtual NICs. B. Virtual NICs need the appropriate driver installed to function. C. Virtual NICs don't have a MAC address. D. Multiple virtual NICs can be added to a virtual machine. E. The type of NIC installed in the physical machine determines the type of virtual NIC that is emulated.

B. Virtual NICs need the appropriate driver installed to function. D. Multiple virtual NICs can be added to a virtual machine. Within each virtual machine, you can configure one or more virtual network interfaces, which function in much the same manner as physical network interfaces. Virtual interfaces use Ethernet standards to transmit and receive frames on the network. The operating system within the virtual machine must have the appropriate driver installed to support the virtual network interface, just as with a physical network interface. When you configure a virtual network interface within a virtual machine's configuration, you can specify: The type of physical network interface to emulate. This allows for the best possible driver support by the operating system within the virtual machine. A MAC address. Most hypervisors automatically assign a MAC address to each virtual network interface. However, some hypervisors allow you to use a custom MAC address, if needed. The network to connect to. Most hypervisors allow you to define many different virtual networks. When you configure a virtual network interface, you will select which virtual network you want it to be connected to.

You've just installed the DNS service on a Windows server. Which port must be opened in the server's firewall to allow clients to access the service? A. 143 B. 123 C. 53 D. 110

C. 53 The DNS service runs on port 53 by default. Port 110 is used by the POP3 protocol. Port 143 is used by the IMAP protocol. Port 123 is used by the NTP protocol.

A manufacturing company has customized a computer application that supervisors will use to track line worker efficiency. Supervisors will interact with the application while walking within and between work areas and will also use the laptop while sitting at their desks. Which of the following laptop features would BEST minimize the awkward movement of carrying a bulky laptop with a hinged display while providing the flexibility to use the device at a desk? A. A touchscreen display B. Special function keys C. A rotating or removable screen D. A laptop docking station

C. A rotating or removable screen A laptop with a removable or rotating screen gives the user the flexibility of a notepad or tablet computer, especially if stylus functionality is included. When removed from a docking station, a hinged laptop is still awkward to carry in an opened position. Special function keys do not make a hinged laptop less awkward to use. A touchscreen display is usually incorporated into a laptop with a removable or rotating screen, but is also available for hinged laptops. This feature would not make the device less awkward to carry.

You have purchased a 1600 x 1200 LCD monitor and connected it to the DVI-I port on your computer using a DVI-D cable. You configure the screen resolution at 1280 x 1024 with 24-bit color. The display output seems to be fuzzy and stretched. Which of the following BEST describes the action you should take to correct the problem? A. Replace the DVI-D cable with a DVI-I cable. B. Increase the color depth to 32-bit. C. Change the screen resolution to the native resolution of the monitor. D. Replace the DVI-I cable with a DVI-A cable.

C. Change the screen resolution to the native resolution of the monitor. LCD monitors have a native display resolution. The native display of this monitor is 1600 x 1200. While it might be possible to set the resolution lower than the native display, you should use the native display setting for the clearest picture. Using a DVI-D cable is the same as using a DVI-I cable; both will give you digital output. Using a DVI-A cable could result in lower quality images, as you will be using an analog signal. Increasing the color depth increases the number of colors that the monitor displays.

As the IT technician for your company, you need to ensure that IP addresses are automatically assigned to hosts while at the same time preventing the same address from being assigned twice. Which of the following services would be BEST to use? A. ICMP B. IGMP C. DHCP D. TCP

C. DHCP You can use the Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) to set up a DHCP server that will assign IP addresses to network hosts automatically. DHCP servers will not assign the same IP address to two different hosts. ICMP is chiefly used by networked computers' operating systems to send error messages. The Transmission Control Protocol (TCP) is one of the core protocols of the internet protocol suite. The Internet Group Management Protocol (IGMP) is a communications protocol used to manage the membership of Internet Protocol multicast groups.

To fix a problem you are having with your PC, you have determined that you must flash the computer's BIOS. Which of the following would MOST likely need to be completed prior to flashing the BIOS? (Select TWO). A. Locate the flash utility or tool that was shipped with your PC. B. Test the memory to ensure that it is functioning properly. C. Download the flash utility or tool from the manufacturer's website. D. Create a backup of the hard disk in the event of a failure. E. Properly identify the motherboard.

C. Download the flash utility or tool from the manufacturer's website. E. Properly identify the motherboard. To successfully flash your BIOS, it is critical that you research and know the exact make, model, and revision of your motherboard to ensure that the correct flash file is used. Using the wrong flash file will probably cause errors. Although your computer may have shipped with a tool to perform a BIOS flash, it is best to download the latest tool to ensure that the flash is performed correctly. Testing the memory and creating a hard backup will not aid you while flashing a PC's BIOS.

What are the main types of cloud services? A. Platform cloud services B. Software cloud services C. External cloud services D. Internal cloud services E. Infrastructure cloud services

C. External cloud services D. Internal cloud services The two main types of cloud services are: Internal cloud services, which are located within the private network of an organization. External cloud services, which are located outside an organization's private network.

A user reports that he can't browse to a specific website on the internet. From his computer, you find that a ping test to the Web server succeeds. A traceroute test shows 17 hops to the destination web server. What is the most likely cause of the problem? A. Incorrect subnet mask value B. Incorrect default gateway address C. Incorrect DNS server address D. Duplicate IP addresses

C. Incorrect DNS server address In this scenario, a ping test to the website succeeds, while accessing the website through the browser does not work. Users type hostnames in the browser to go to websites, and hostnames must be translated to IP addresses by a DNS server. Either the workstation is using the wrong address for the DNS server, the DNS server is not available, or the DNS server does not have an entry for the website. Because the ping and traceroute tests work, you know that the IP address, subnet mask, and default gateway values are correct.

You manage a network that has multiple internal subnets. You connect a workstation to the 192.168.1.0 subnet using the default subnet mask. This workstation can communicate with some hosts on the private network, but not with other hosts. You run ipconfig /all and see the following: Ethernet adapter Local Area Connection: Connection-specific DNS Suffix . : mydomain.local Description . . . . . . . : Broadcom network adapter Physical Address. . . . . . : 00-AA-BB-CC-74-EF DHCP Enabled . . . . . . . : No Autoconfiguration Enabled. . . : Yes IPv4 Address . . . . . . . : 192.168.1.102(Preferred) Subnet Mask . . . . . . . : 255.255.255.0 Default Gateway. . . . . . . . . : 192.168.2.1 DNS Servers. . . . . . . . . . . : 192.168.2.20 Which of the following is the MOST likely cause of the problem? A. Incorrect IP address B. Incorrect subnet mask C. Incorrect default gateway D. Incorrect DNS server address

C. Incorrect default gateway In this example, the default gateway address is incorrect. The default gateway address must be on the same subnet as the IP address for the host. The host address is on the 192.168.1.0/24 subnet, but the default gateway address is on the 192.168.2.0 subnet.

You have just finished installing a new SATA hard disk in your computer. Now your SATA DVD drive won't work. Which of the following troubleshooting steps is the BEST to try first? (Select TWO). A. Set the DVD drive to Slave and the hard disk to Master. B. Replace the DVD drive. C. Make sure that the DVD power cable is connected. D. Try the DVD drive in another system. E. Remove the hard disk. F. Make sure that the DVD SATA cable is connected.

C. Make sure that the DVD power cable is connected. D. Try the DVD drive in another system. The first thing to check is the simple and obvious. Make sure that the cable connecting the DVD drive is secure. It is possible that the cable came loose during the hard disk installation. All of the other choices would involve significantly more work. Master and Slave settings are not used on SATA devices. Moving the DVD drive to another system might make it start working, but you should verify the current configuration before trying that. You should only replace the DVD drive after you verify that it is not working correctly.

Which feature allows a tablet to recognize multiple finger touches at the same time? A. Resistive touchscreen B. Gyroscope C. Multi-touch D. Accelerometer

C. Multi-touch Most tablet devices use a capacitive touchscreen interface, meaning that they require conductive material, such as your finger tip, for input. Capacitive touchscreens provide multi-touch capabilities, which allow the tablet to recognize multiple finger touches at the same time. Gyroscopes and accelerometers are used to detect acceleration of the device. Most modern tablets do not use resistive touchscreens, which don't provide multi-touch capabilities.

Which network component connects a device to the transmission media and allows it to send and receive messages? A. Protocol B. Bridge C. Network interface card D. Switch

C. Network interface card The network interface card (NIC) allows a device to send and receive messages over the transmission media.

Which port must be opened in the firewall of a Windows system so that a Remote Desktop connection can be established? A. 123 B. 23 C. 22 D. 3389

D. 3389 The firewall on a Windows system must be configured to allow Remote Desktop traffic through. This is done by opening TCP port 3389 (by default). This port is opened automatically on the Remote Desktop host when remote connections are enabled. Port 22 is used by the SSH protocol. Port 23 is used by the Telnet protocol. Port 123 is used by the Network Time Protocol.

You're troubleshooting a malfunctioning notebook computer. Nothing appears on the LCD display when the system is powered on. When you connect an external monitor to the system, the Windows desktop is displayed on the monitor properly. Which of the following is MOST likely causing this problem? (Select TWO). A. A new driver for the video board needs to be installed. B. The built-in video card is malfunctioning. C. The LCD assembly is malfunctioning. D. The BIOS needs to be updated. E. The display output has been redirected to the external monitor port using an Fn key.

C. The LCD assembly is malfunctioning. E. The display output has been redirected to the external monitor port using an Fn key. If the display appears on an external monitor but not the built-in display, the problem could be a malfunctioning LCD assembly, or it could be due to the display output being redirected to the external monitor port using an Fn key. You know that the video card is working properly if the video shows on an external monitor.

When a presenter at a conference connects a laptop to a projector, the projector mirrors the laptop's display. The presenter would like it to extend the laptop's desktop instead. Which of the following options is the QUICKEST way to make the change? A. Disconnect and reconnect the laptop to the projector. B. Change the dual display settings in the operating system's control panel. C. Toggle the dual display function key on the laptop. D. Select the proper video source from the projector's settings menu.

C. Toggle the dual display function key on the laptop. The quickest way to change the dual display settings is to press the laptop's dual display function key on the laptop. This may require the Function key to be pressed at the same time. Often, the action will change the display from mirroring the desktop to extending the desktop to disabling the display in a round-robin order. The laptop will most likely react the same way each time the projector is disconnected and reconnected, giving the mirrored desktop. Changing the projector's video source will not affect the video display generated by the laptop. Changing the dual display settings in the operating system's control panel will make the proper change to the display, but is not as fast as toggling the dual display function key.

Your organization employs a group of traveling salespeople who need to access the corporate home network through the internet while they are on the road. You want to funnel remote access to the internal network through a single server. Which of the following solutions would be BEST to implement? A. Host-to-host VPN B. DMZ C. VPN concentrator D. Site-to-site VPN

C. VPN concentrator With a remote access VPN, a server on the edge of a network (called a VPN concentrator) is configured to accept VPN connections from individual hosts. Hosts that are allowed to connect using the VPN connection are granted access to resources on the VPN server or the private network. A demilitarized zone (DMZ), also called a screened subnet, is a buffer network (or subnet) that sits between the private network and an untrusted network (such as the internet). With a host-to-host VPN, two hosts establish a secure channel and communicate directly with each other. With a site-to-site VPN, the routers on the edge of each site establish a VPN connection with the router at the other location.

You are the network administrator of a branch office of your company. The branch office network is part of a WAN that covers most of the United States. Users have been complaining that they are unable to access resources over the WAN at the main headquarters. You suspect that one of the routers between your office and the main headquarters is not working properly. To troubleshoot the routers, which of the following TCP/IP utilities would be BEST to use? A. nbtstat B. netstat C. tracert D. nslookup

C. tracert tracert shows you the series of routers that are used between the source and destination computers. If a router is not functioning, tracert can help you find which router is not working by showing you the last router it was able to contact. netstat is a command line tool that displays network connections (both incoming and outgoing), routing tables, and a number of network interface statistics. Use nbtstat to help troubleshoot NetBIOS name resolution problems. Use nslookup to find the IP addresses of a particular computer using DNS lookup.

A technician is replacing a SOHO router and has configured DHCP to assign private IP addresses to hosts on the local network. These hosts can communicate with each other, but users can't browse the internet. Which of the following changes to the SOHO router is MOST likely to restore internet connectivity? A. Remove any QoS settings that give low priority to HTTP traffic. B. Update the firmware on the SOHO router. C. Disable DHCP and configure the hosts with static IP addresses. D. Configure the SOHO router for NAT.

D. Configure the SOHO router for NAT. Configuring NAT to translate the private IP addresses on the local network to public IP addresses on the internet will most likely restore internet connectivity. QoS settings may cause HTTP traffic to be slower, but would not completely interrupt it. Static IP addresses will not restore internet connectivity. Updating the firmware is not likely to restore internet connectivity.

Which of the following are benefits UEFI provides that BIOS does not? (Select three.) A. Allows individual bytes to be erased and reprogrammed. B. Does not need to be flashed as frequently. C. Provides non-volatile storage of system startup information. D. Faster startup times. E. Supports 64-bit firmware device drivers. F. Supports drives larger than 2.2 TB.

D. Faster startup times. E. Supports 64-bit firmware device drivers. F. Supports drives larger than 2.2 TB. Unlike BIOS, UEFI provides the following benefits: Faster startup times. Supports drives larger than 2.2 terabytes. Supports 64-bit firmware device drivers. Provides better security to protect against bootkit (malware attacks on the boot process) attacks. Similar to BIOS, UEFI does need to be flashed when updates are available to make new features available on the computer. EEPROM is the technology that provides non-volatile memory and allows individual bytes to be erased and reprogrammed.

When using Intel chips, which of the following features BEST allows a single processor to run two threads in parallel instead of processing single threads linearly? A. Overclocking B. Dual core C. Multi-processing D. Hyper-threading

D. Hyper-threading Hyper-threading allows a single processor to run threads in parallel, as opposed to processing threads linearly. Multi-processing is an operating system's ability to use multiple CPUs. Overclocking causes the processor to operate at a higher speed. Dual Core is a type of processor that offers better performance by combining two or more independent processors into a single integrated chip.

You manage a network that has multiple internal subnets. You connect a workstation to the 192.168.1.0 subnet, which uses the default subnet mask. This workstation can communicate with some hosts on the private network, but not with other hosts. You run ipconfig /all and see the following: Ethernet adapter Local Area Connection: Connection-specific DNS Suffix . : mydomain.local Description . . . . . . . : Broadcom network adapter Physical Address. . . . . . : 00-AA-BB-CC-74-EF DHCP Enabled . . . . . . . : No Autoconfiguration Enabled. . . : Yes IPv4 Address . . . . . . . : 192.168.1.102(Preferred) Subnet Mask. . . . . . . . : 255.255.0.0 Default Gateway . . . . . . : 192.168.1.1 DNS Servers . . . . . . . : 192.168.1.20 192.168.1.27 Which of the following is the MOST likely cause of the problem? A. Incorrect DNS server address B. Incorrect IP address C. Incorrect default gateway D. Incorrect subnet mask

D. Incorrect subnet mask In this example, the network is using a mask of 255.255.255.0 (24-bits), but the workstation is configured to use a mask of 255.255.0.0.

You manage a network that has multiple internal subnets. You connect a workstation to the 192.168.1.0 subnet, which uses the default subnet mask. This workstation can communicate with some hosts on the private network, but not with other hosts. You run ipconfig /all and see the following: Ethernet adapter Local Area Connection: Connection-specific DNS Suffix . : mydomain.local Description . . . . . . . : Broadcom network adapter Physical Address. . . . . . : 00-AA-BB-CC-74-EF DHCP Enabled . . . . . . . : No Autoconfiguration Enabled. . . : Yes IPv4 Address . . . . . . . : 192.168.1.102(Preferred) Subnet Mask. . . . . . . . : 255.255.0.0 Default Gateway . . . . . . : 192.168.1.1 DNS Servers . . . . . . . : 192.168.1.20 192.168.1.27 Which of the following is the MOST likely cause of the problem? A. Incorrect default gateway B. Incorrect DNS server address C. Incorrect IP address D. Incorrect subnet mask

D. Incorrect subnet mask In this example, the network is using a mask of 255.255.255.0 (24-bits), but the workstation is configured to use a mask of 255.255.0.0.

You have installed a new computer with a quad-core 64-bit processor, 6 GB of memory, and a PCIe video card with 512 MB of memory. After installing the operating system, you see less than 4 GB of memory showing as available in Windows. Which of the following actions would MOST likely rectify this issue? A. Update the memory controller driver in Device Manager. B. Flash the BIOS. C. Disable the AGP aperture in the BIOS. D. Install a 64-bit version of the operating system.

D. Install a 64-bit version of the operating system. In this scenario, the most likely cause is the operating system being a 32-bit operating system. You must use a 64-bit operating system to use memory above 4 GB. The AGP aperture is a method for sharing system memory with an AGP video card instead of PCIe. With shared memory, some of the memory is used by the video card and is not available for the system. You do not update memory controller drivers.

A technician must press a cable connector's retaining tab to remove a faulty fiber optic network cable. Which of the following connectors does the cable use? A. RJ45 B. RJ11 C. ST D. LC

D. LC The LC connector is used with fiber optic cabling. It has a retaining tab that locks the connector in place. The ST connector is used with fiber optic cabling. It is locked in place using a push and twist action. The RJ11 connector is used with twisted pair cabling. It supports up to two pairs of wires. It has a retaining tab that locks the connector in place. The RJ45 connector is used with twisted pair cabling. It supports up to four pairs of wires. It has a retaining tab that locks the connector in place.

You are putting together a gaming system and need to make sure you get a display that meets your needs. The display needs to have a very good response time, and you would prefer that it be affordable and power-efficient. Which of the following types of displays will MOST likely meet these needs? A. OLED display with wide-angle viewing B. Plasma display with no motion blur C. LCD display with IPS panel D. LCD display with TN panel

D. LCD display with TN panel LCD displays with TN panels are the most common technology used by LCDs. TN panels have very good response times (1-5 ms) and refresh rates (60-144 Hz), so they are great for PC gaming. They are more affordable and have faster response times than LCDs with IPS panels, use far less power than a plasma display, and are far more affordable than OLED displays.

Which of the following is true of modern LCD monitors regarding backlighting? A. Red, green, and blue light provide the least expensive type of backlighting technology. B. LCD monitors have small cells containing electrically-charged ionized gas that don't need backlighting. C. Cold cathode florescent (CCFL) are used for backlighting. D. LEDs are used to backlight the screen.

D. LEDs are used to backlight the screen. Modern LCDs use LEDs (light-emitting diodes) to backlight the screen. Older LCD monitors use cold cathode fluorescent lamps (CCFLs) for backlighting. Plasma displays use millions of small cells that contain electrically charged ionized gases and don't need backlighting. RGB-LED displays are available on modern LCD displays; they have an array of special LEDs that are able to emit red, green, and blue light, resulting in superior color accuracy, but are the most expensive type of backlighting technology.

You have just finished upgrading the 250 W power supply in your desktop computer to a 450 W power supply. Now the BIOS doesn't recognize one of the hard disk drives in the system during POST. Which of the following troubleshooting steps is the BEST to try first? A. Manually enter the hard disk parameters in the BIOS. B. Use the switch on the power supply to switch from 110 volts to 220 volts. C. Reconfigure the hard disk to use the higher-wattage power supply using jumpers on the drive. D. Make sure that the hard disk is connected to the power supply. E. Replace the power supply.

D. Make sure that the hard disk is connected to the power supply. Because you have just made a system change, you should check items related to the change you have made. In this case, check to make sure that power connectors are plugged in.

You have a workstation running Windows 10, 64-bit edition. A local printer connected to a USB port is shared so that other users can print to that printer. Users running 32-bit versions of Windows report that they can't install the driver for the shared printer. Users running a 64-bit version of Windows do not have any problems. Which of the following actions will MOST likely fix this problem? (Select TWO). A. Configure one computer running a 32-bit operating system with the correct driver. Share the network printer and have all 32-bit computers connect to that computer. B. Move the printer to a computer running a 32-bit operating system and share the printer. C. Configure the printer to run in 32-bit emulation mode. D. On your computer, add the x86 drivers. E. Manually install the correct driver on each computer that is having a problem.

D. On your computer, add the x86 drivers. E. Manually install the correct driver on each computer that is having a problem. Each network host that wants to use the printer must have the correct printer driver installed. When you share a printer in Windows, the current printer driver is automatically delivered to clients that connect to the shared printer. If the client computers run a different version of Windows, you can add the necessary printer drivers to the printer object. Manually adding drivers to every client is also an option, but is not efficient, as the drivers can be delivered automatically when the computers connect to the shared printer. Sharing the printer on a 32-bit operating system would require adding the drivers for 64-bit clients. There's no such thing as 32-bit emulation mode on printers.

Which of the following protocols can your portable computer use to connect to your company's network via a virtual tunnel through the internet? (Select TWO). A. PPPoE B. VNC C. Remote Desktop Protocol (RDP) D. PPTP E. L2TP

D. PPTP E. L2TP PPTP (Point-to-Point Tunneling Protocol) and L2TP (Layer Two Tunneling Protocol) are two VPN (Virtual Private Networking) protocols that let you access your company's network through a public network, such as the internet. PPPoE is used for connecting to the internet through an Ethernet connection to include authentication and accounting. VNC and RDP are remote desktop protocols used for remote administration or remote device access.

You have a computer system with a dual-core processor. You would like to upgrade to a quad-core processor, but you don't want to replace the motherboard. Which of the following steps SHOULD you perform first? A. Install the processor. B. Configure jumpers on the motherboard to allow four CPU cores. C. Edit the BIOS to allow quad-core CPUs. D. Read the motherboard documentation to identify which processors are supported. E. Replace the VRM.

D. Read the motherboard documentation to identify which processors are supported. The first thing you need to do before purchasing and installing a new processor is use the motherboard documentation to verify that the new processor is supported by your existing motherboard. After you have determined that the new processor is supported by the motherboard, you can take additional steps, such as installing the processor, editing the CMOS, configuring jumpers, and replacing the VRM if necessary.

Your computer has one single core processor installed. The motherboard supports processors with up to four cores. You want to upgrade your computer to a quad-core system. Which of the following will be part of your configuration? A. Remove the terminating resistor from slots where the new processor will be installed. B. Add a second processor that matches the speed of the first processor. C. Configure the system to use dual channel memory. D. Replace the existing processor.

D. Replace the existing processor. A multi-core system supports processors that have multiple processors on a single processor die. Multi-core systems have a single processor slot. To upgrade this system, you need to remove the existing processor and replace it with one that has four cores. Multi-processor systems have multiple processor slots on the motherboard. All processors in the system should be of the same speed. Unused slots are filled with a terminating resistor. Dual-channel memory does not affect using dual processors or dual core processors.

Which of the following components is a special hardware chip included on the computer motherboard that contains software in firmware that generates and stores cryptographic keys? A. BIOS/UEFI B. USB device C. BitLocker partition D. Trusted Platform Module (TPM)

D. Trusted Platform Module (TPM) A Trusted Platform Module (TPM) is a special hardware chip included on the computer motherboard that contains software in firmware that generates and stores cryptographic keys. The TPM chip must be enabled in the BIOS/UEFI. A USB device is used to save the BitLocker key on a system that does not have a TPM chip. Implementing BitLocker requires two NTFS partitions.

You work for a small company as the human resources specialist. Since the company is fairly small, you are maintaining all of the employee information on your desktop computer, which is running Windows 10. This computer has two high-capacity hard disks. You want to ensure that this information is protected from a hard disk failure, so you want to set up a Windows software RAID system. Which of the following would be your BEST solution? A. Use RAID 5 volumes. B. Use spanned volumes. C. Use striped volumes. D. Use mirrored volumes

D. Use mirrored volumes A Windows software RAID system can be configured in Windows 10 using the Windows Disk Management tool. Of the available options from within Disk Management, you would need to configure a mirrored volume to protect your data from a disk failure. Disk mirroring requires two available drives with sufficient storage. Once configured, the data written to a mirrored volume is duplicated to both drives. This duplication, or mirroring, means that if one of the mirrored drives fails, all of the data can still be retrieved from the remaining good drive. A spanned volume is a dynamic volume consisting of disk space on more than one physical disk. This method does not duplicate the data. If a spanned volume drive fails, the data is lost. A striped volume uses the free space on more than one physical hard disk to create a bigger volume similar to a spanned volume. However, a striped volume writes across all volumes in the stripe in small blocks, distributing the load across the disks in the volume. In other words, when a single file is written, some of the file will be on one disk, and the rest of the file will be on another disk. This makes writing files faster as the data to all of the disks in the strip at the same time. It does not, however, protect the data in the event of a disk failure. RAID 5 requires more than two disks.

You are the network administrator of a branch office of your company. The branch office network is part of a WAN that covers most of the United States. Users have been complaining that they are unable to access resources over the WAN at the main headquarters. You suspect that one of the routers between your office and the main headquarters is not working properly. To troubleshoot the routers, which of the following TCP/IP utilities would be BEST to use? A. nslookup B. nbtstat C. netstat D. tracert

D. tracert tracert shows you the series of routers that are used between the source and destination computers. If a router is not functioning, tracert can help you find which router is not working by showing you the last router it was able to contact. netstat is a command line tool that displays network connections (both incoming and outgoing), routing tables, and a number of network interface statistics. Use nbtstat to help troubleshoot NetBIOS name resolution problems. Use nslookup to find the IP addresses of a particular computer using DNS lookup.

You have a computer system with a dual-core processor. You would like to upgrade to a quad-core processor, but you don't want to replace the motherboard. Which of the following steps SHOULD you perform first? A. Configure jumpers on the motherboard to allow four CPU cores. B. Replace the VRM. C. Edit the BIOS to allow quad-core CPUs. D. Install the processor. E. Read the motherboard documentation to identify which processors are supported.

E. Read the motherboard documentation to identify which processors are supported. The first thing you need to do before purchasing and installing a new processor is use the motherboard documentation to verify that the new processor is supported by your existing motherboard. After you have determined that the new processor is supported by the motherboard, you can take additional steps, such as installing the processor, editing the CMOS, configuring jumpers, and replacing the VRM if necessary.

A user has called to complain that her computer won't boot. It stops on the system startup screen right after the memory has been tested and displays a 301 keyboard error. Which of the following troubleshooting steps is the BEST to try first? A. Download and install the latest keyboard driver from the manufacturer's website. B. Have the user remove all memory modules and replace them one at a time until the error reoccurs. C. Install a new keyboard on the computer. D. Check your keyboard settings in Control Panel. E. Verify that the latest UEFI firmware updates have been applied. F. Verify that no keys are being pressed down during POST.

F. Verify that no keys are being pressed down during POST. You should have the user verify that no keyboard keys are being pressed during POST. With any error, you should always check the obvious first. This error is almost always caused by a stuck key on the keyboard or something resting on a keyboard key. On rare occasions, you may need to install a new keyboard; however, you should look for these obvious problems first.