ITIL Foundation Multiple Choice

C

24. Which of the following do Service Metrics measure? A. Processes and functions B. Maturity and cost C. The end to end service D. Infrastructure availability

D

23. Which of the following activities are carried out in the "Where do we want to be?" step of the Continual Service Improvement (CSI) Model? A. Implementing service and process improvements B. Reviewing measurable improvements C. Creating a baseline D. Defining measurable targets

D

1.What are the three types of metrics that an organization should collect to support Continual Service Improvement (CSI)? A. Return On Investment (ROI), Value On Investment (VOI), quality B. Strategic, tactical and operational C. Critical Success Factors (CSFs), Key Performance Indicators (KPIs), activities D. Technology, process and service

B

10. "Service Management is a set of specialized organizational capabilities for providing value to customers in the form of services". These specialized organizational capabilities include which of the following? A. Applications and Infrastructure B. Functions and Processes C. Service Pipeline and Service Catalogue D. Markets and Customers

B

100. Which of the following is concerned with fairness and transparency? A. Capacity Management B. Governance C. Service Design D. Service Level Management

D

11. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of a process? A. It is measurable B. Delivers specific results C. Responds to specific events D. A method of structuring an organization

B

12. Which of the following statements is CORRECT for every process? 1. It delivers its primary results to a customer or stakeholder 2. It defines activities that are executed by a single function A. Both of the above B. 1 only C. Neither of the above D. 2 only

B

13. Which of the following is NOT a purpose of Service Transition? A. To ensure that a service can be managed, operated and supported B. To provide training and certification in project management C. To provide quality knowledge of Change, Release and Deployment Management D. To plan and manage the capacity and resource requirements to manage a release

D

14. What is the BEST description of the purpose of Service Operation? A. To decide how IT will engage with suppliers during the Service Management Lifecycle B. To proactively prevent all outages to IT Services C. To design and build processes that will meet business needs D. To deliver and manage IT Services at agreed levels to business users and customers

B

15. When can a Known Error record be raised? 1. At any time it would be useful to do so 2. After the permanent solution has been implemented A. 2 only B. 1 only C. Neither of the above D. Both of the above

A

16. What is the BEST description of an Operational Level Agreement (OLA)? A. An agreement between the service provider and another part of the same organization B. An agreement between the service provider and an external organization C. A document that describes to a customer how services will be operated on a day-to-day basis D. A document that describes business services to operational staff

D

17. Which of the following is the CORRECT definition of a Release Unit? A. A measurement of cost B. A function described within Service Transition C. The team of people responsible for implementing a release D. The portion of a service or IT infrastructure that is normally released together

B

18. The BEST description of an Incident is: A. An unplanned disruption of service unless there is a backup to that service B. An unplanned interruption to service or a reduction in the quality of service C. Any disruption to service whether planned or unplanned D. Any disruption to service that is reported to the Service Desk, regardless of whether the service is impacted or not

D

19. Which of the following BEST describes a Problem? A. A Known Error for which the cause and resolution are not yet known B. The cause of two or more Incidents C. A serious Incident which has a critical impact to the business D. The cause of one or more Incidents

C

2.Event Management, Problem Management, Access Management and Request Fulfilment are part of which stage of the Service Lifecycle? A. Service Strategy B. Service Transition C. Service Operation D. Continual Service Improvement

C

20. Implementation of ITIL Service Management requires preparing and planning the effective and efficient use of: A. People, Process, Partners, Suppliers B. People, Process, Products, Technology C. People, Process, Products, Partners D. People, Products, Technology, Partners

C

21. What would be the next step in the Continual Service Improvement (CSI) Model after: 1. What is the vision? 2. Where are we now? 3. Where do we want to be? 4. How do we get there? 5. Did we get there? 6. ? A. What is the Return On Investment (ROI)? B. How much did it cost? C. How do we keep the momentum going? D. What is the Value On Investment (VOI)?

A

22. Order the following Continual Service Improvement (CSI) implementation steps into the correct sequence in alignment with the Plan, Do, Check, Act (PDCA) model. 1. Allocate roles and responsibilities to work on CSI initiatives 2. Measure and review that the CSI plan is executed and its objectives are being achieved 3. Identify the scope, objectives and requirements for CSI 4. Decision on implementation of further enhancements A. 3-1-2-4 B. 3-4-2-1 C. 1-3-2-4 D. 2-3-4-1

D

25. Understanding customer usage of services and how this varies over time is part of which process? A. Service Portfolio Management B. Service Level Management C. Component Capacity Management D. Demand Management

D

26. The MAIN objective of Service Level Management is: A. To carry out the Service Operations activities needed to support current IT services B. To ensure that sufficient capacity is provided to deliver the agreed performance of services C. To create and populate a Service Catalogue D. To ensure that an agreed level of IT service is provided for all current IT services

A

27. Which processes review Underpinning Contracts on a regular basis? A. Supplier Management and Service Level Management B. Supplier Management and Demand Management C. Demand Management and Service Level Management D. Supplier Management, Demand Management and Service Level Management

C

28. Which of the following statements about the Service Portfolio and Service Catalogue is the MOST CORRECT? A. The Service Catalogue only has information about services that are live, or being prepared for deployment; the Service Portfolio only has information about services which are being considered for future development B. The Service Catalogue has information about all services; the Service Portfolio only has information about services which are being considered for future development C. The Service Portfolio has information about all services; the Service Catalogue only has information about services which are live, or being prepared for deployment D. Service Catalogue and Service Portfolio are different names for the same thin

B

29. Which role or function is responsible for monitoring activities and events in the IT Infrastructure? A. Service Level Management B. IT Operations Management C. Capacity Management D. Incident Management

C

3.Reliability is a measure of: A. The availability of a service or component B. The level of risk that could impact a service or process C. How long a service or component can perform its function without failing D. A measure of how quickly a service or component can be restored to normal working

D

30. Consider the following list: 1. Change Authority 2. Change Manager 3. Change Advisory Board (CAB) What are these BEST described as? A. Job descriptions B. Functions C. Teams D. Roles, people or group

A

31. Service Transition contains detailed descriptions of which processes? A. Change Management, Service Asset and Configuration Management, Release and Deployment Management B. Change Management, Capacity Management Event Management, Service Request Management C. Service Level Management, Service Portfolio Management, Service Asset and Configuration Management D. Service Asset and Configuration Management, Release and Deployment Management, Request Fulfilment

C

32. Which of the following statements is CORRECT? A. The Configuration Management System is part of the Known Error Data Base B. The Service Knowledge Management System is part of the Configuration Management System C. The Configuration Management System is part of the Service Knowledge Management system D. The Configuration Management System is part of the Configuration Management Database

C

33. Which of the following are included within Release and Deployment Models? 1. Roles and responsibilities 2. Template release and deployment schedules 3. Supporting systems, tools and procedures 4. Handover activities and responsibilities A. 1, 2 and 4 only B. 2, 3 and 4 only C. All of the above D. 1 and 4 only

A

34. Major Incidents require: A. Separate procedures B. Less urgency C. Longer timescales D. Less documentation

B

35. Which of the following statements about Incident reporting and logging is CORRECT? A. Incidents can only be reported by users, since they are the only people who know when a service has been disrupted B. Incidents can be reported by anyone who detects a disruption or potential disruption to normal service. This includes technical staff C. All calls to the Service Desk must be logged as Incidents to assist in reporting Service Desk activity D. Incidents reported by technical staff must be logged as Problems because technical staff manage infrastructure devices not services

D

36. What is the BEST description of a Major Incident? A. An Incident that is so complex that it requires root cause analysis before a workaround can be found B. An Incident which requires a large number of people to resolve C. An Incident logged by a senior manager D. An Incident which has a high priority or high impact on the business

D

37. Which of the following statements correctly states the relationship between urgency, priority and impact? A. Impact, priority and urgency are independent of each other B. Urgency should be based on impact and priority C. Impact should be based on urgency and priority D. Priority should be based on impact and urgency

A

38. Hierarchic escalation is best described as? A. Notifying more senior levels of management about an Incident B. Passing an Incident to people with a greater level of technical skill C. Using more senior specialists than necessary to resolve an Incident to maintain customer satisfaction D. Failing to meet the Incident resolution times specified in a Service Level Agreement

D

39. Which of the following is NOT an objective of Problem Management? A. Minimizing the impact of Incidents that cannot be prevented B. Preventing Problems and resulting Incidents from happening C. Eliminating recurring Incidents D. Restoring normal service operation as quickly as possible and minimizing adverse impact on the business

B

4.A single Release unit, or a structured set of Release units can be defined within: A. The RACI Model B. A Release Package C. A Request Model D. The Plan, Do, Check, Act (PDCA) cycle

A

40. Which of the following BEST describes a Service Request? A. A request from a User for information, advice or for a Standard Change B. Anything that the customer wants and is prepared to pay for C. Any request or demand that is entered by a user via a Self-Help web-based interface D. Any Request for Change (RFC) that is low risk and can be approved by the Change Manager without a Change Advisory Board (CAB) meeting

C

41. Which of the following is NOT a valid objective of Problem Management? A. To prevent Problems and their resultant Incidents B. To manage Problems throughout their lifecycle C. To restore service to a user D. To eliminate recurring Incidents

A

42. Which of the following are Service Desk organizational structures? 1. Local Service Desk 2. Virtual Service Desk 3. IT Help Desk 4. Follow the Sun A. 1, 2 and 4 only B. 2, 3 and 4 only C. 1, 3 and 4 only D. 1, 2 and 3 only

C

43. Which Functions are included in IT Operations Management? A. Network Management and Application Management B. Technical Management and Change Management C. IT Operations Control and Facilities Management D. Facilities Management and Release Management

C

44. Which of the following CANNOT be provided by a tool? A. Knowledge B. Information C. Wisdom D. Data

D

45. Which of the following areas would technology help to support during the Service Lifecycle? 1. Data mining and workflow 2. Measurement and reporting 3. Release and deployment 4. Process Design A. 2, 3 and 4 only B. 1, 3 and 4 only C. 1, 2 and 3 only D. All of the above

B

46. Within Service Design, what is the key output handed over to Service Transition? A. Measurement, methods and metrics B. Service Design Package C. Service Portfolio Design D. Process definitions

D

47. What are the three Service Provider business models? A. Internal Service provider, Outsourced 3rd party and Off-shore party B. Internal Service Operations provider, External Service Operations provider, Shared Service Unit C. Internal Service provider, External Service provider, Outsourced 3rd Party D. Internal Service provider, External Service provider, Shared Service Provider

A

48. What is the Service Pipeline? A. All services that are at a conceptual or development stage B. All services except those that have been retired C. All services that are contained within the Service Level Agreement (SLA) D. All complex multi-user services

A

49. What are the key processes within Service Operation? A. Event Management, Incident Management, Problem Management, Request Fulfilment and Access Management B. Event Management, Incident Management, Request Fulfilment and Access Management C. Incident Management, Problem Management, Service Desk, Request Fulfilment and Event Management D. Incident Management, Service Desk, Request Fulfilment, Access Management and Event Management

D

5.What is a RACI model used for? A. Performance analysis B. Recording Configuration Items C. Monitoring services D. Defining roles and responsibilities

A

50. Which of the following BEST describes 'Partners' in the phrase "People, Processes, Products and Partners"? A. Suppliers, manufacturers and vendors B. Customers C. Internal departments D. The Facilities Management function

A

51. At which stage of the Service Lifecycle should the processes needed to operate a new service be defined? A. Service Design: Design the processes B. Service Strategy: Develop the offerings C. Service Transition: Plan and prepare for deployment D. Service Operation: IT Operations Management

D

52. Which Service Design process makes the most use of data supplied by Demand Management? A. Service Catalogue Management B. Service Level Management C. IT Service Continuity Management D. Capacity Management

A

53. Which of the following are objectives of Service Level Management? 1: Defining, documenting and agreeing the level of IT Services to be provided 2: Monitoring, measuring and reporting the actual level of services provided 3: Monitoring and improving customer satisfaction 4: Identifying possible future markets that the Service Provider could operate in A. 1, 2 and 3 only B. 1 and 2 only C. 1, 2 and 4 only D. All of the above

C

54. Which process is responsible for discussing reports with customers showing whether services have met their targets? A. Continual Service Improvement B. Business Relationship Management C. Service Level Management D. Availability Management

A

55. Availability Management is directly responsible for the availability of which of the following? A. IT Services and Components B. IT Services and Business Processes C. Components and Business Processes D. IT Services, Components and Business Processes

B

56. Which of the following does the Availability Management process include? 1. Ensuring services are able to meet availability targets 2. Monitoring and reporting actual availability 3. Improvement activities, to ensure that services continue to meet or exceed their availability goals A. 1 only B. All of the above C. 1 and 2 only D. 1 and 3 only

C

57. Which process is responsible for managing relationships with vendors? A. Change Management B. Service Portfolio Management C. Supplier Management D. Continual Service Improvement

D

58. Where should performance information that supports the Capacity Management process be stored? A. A configuration management database (CMDB) B. A capacity management database (CMDB) C. A configuration management system (CMS) D. A capacity management information system (CMIS)

A

59. Which process contains the Business, Service and Component sub-processes? A. Capacity Management B. Incident Management C. Service Level Management D. Financial Management

A

6.Why are public frameworks, such as ITIL, attractive when compared to proprietary knowledge? A. Proprietary Knowledge may be difficult to adopt, replicate or transfer since it is often undocumented B. Public standards are always cheaper to adopt C. Public frameworks are prescriptive and tell you exactly what to do D. Proprietary knowledge has been tested in a wide range of environments

C

60. IT Service Continuity strategy should be based on: 1. Design of the service metrics 2. Business continuity strategy 3. Business Impact Analysis 4. Risk assessment A. 1, 2 and 4 only B. 1, 2 and 3 only C. 2, 3 and 4 only D. 1, 3 and 4 only

A

61. Which of these should a change model include? l. The steps that should be taken to handle the change 2. Responsibilities; who should do what, including escalation 3. Timescales and thresholds for completion of the actions 4. Complaints procedures A. 1,2 and 3 only B. All of the above C. 1 and 2 only D. 2 and 4 only

C

62. Which of the following BEST describes a Change Authority? A. The Change Advisory Board B. A person that provides formal authorisation for a particular type of change. C. A role, person or a group of people that provides formal authorisation for a particular type of change. D. The Change Manager who provides formal authorisation for each change

B

63. The group that reviews Changes that must be installed faster than the normal Change process is called the: A. Technical Management (TM) B. Emergency Change Advisory Board (ECAB) C. Urgent Change Board (UCB) D. Urgent Change Authority (UCA)

D

64. Which of these would fall outside the scope of a typical service change management process? A. A change to a contract with a supplier B. A firmware upgrade to a server that is only used for IT Service Continuity purposes C. An urgent need to replace a CPU to restore a service during an incident D. A change to a business process

A

65. Which of the following statements BEST describes the aims of Release and Deployment Management? A. To build, test and deliver the capability to provide the services specified by Service Design B. To ensure that each Release package specified by Service Design consists of a set of related assets and service components C. To ensure that all changes can be tracked, tested and verified if appropriate D. To record and manage deviations, risks and issues related to the new or changed service

B

66. Which of these activities would you expect to be performed by a Service Desk? 1. Logging details of Incidents and Service Requests 2. Providing first-line investigation and diagnosis 3. Restoring service 4. Diagnosing the root-cause of Problems A. All of the above B. 1, 2 and 3 only C. 1, 2 and 4 only D. 2, 3 and 4 only

D

67. Which of the following functions would be responsible for management of a data centre? A. Technical Management B. Service Desk C. Applications Management D. Facilities Management

B

68. Which of the following is a PRIMARY concern of IT Governance? A. Measuring and improving the efficiency and effectiveness of processes B. Ensuring that processes and procedures are correctly followed C. Reducing the total cost of providing services D. Ensuring that agreed Service Level Requirements are met

D

69. Which of the following is the BEST definition of a Risk? A. Something that will not happen B. Something that will happen C. Something that has happened D. Something that might happen

D

7. Which of the following is an objective of Release and Deployment Management? A. To standardize methods and procedures used for efficient and prompt handling of all changes B. To ensure all changes to Service Assets and Configuration Items (CIs) are recorded in the Configuration Management System (CMS) C. To ensure that overall business risk of change is optimized D. To define and agree release and deployment plans with customers and stakeholders

D

70. A Service Level Agreement (SLA) is: A. The part of a contract that specifies responsibilities of each party B. An agreement between the Service Provider and an internal organization C. An agreement between a Service Provider and an external supplier D. An agreement between the Service Provider and their customer

B

71. What are underpinning contracts used to document? A. The provision of IT services or business services by a Service Provider B. The provision of goods and services by Suppliers C. Service Levels that have been agreed between the Service Provider and their Customer D. Metrics and Critical Success Factors (CSFs) in an external agreement

D

72. The Definitive Media Library and Definitive Spares are the responsibility of: A. Facilities Management B. Access Management C. Request Fulfilment D. Service Asset and Configuration Management

C

73.Which process is responsible for dealing with complaints, comments, and general enquiries from users? A. Service Level Management B. Service Portfolio Management C. Request Fulfilment D. Demand Management

D

74. What are Request Models used for? A. Assessing changes to understand their potential impact B. Modeling arrival rates and performance characteristics of service requests C. Comparing the advantages and disadvantages of different Service Desk approaches such as local or remote D. Defining how frequently received user requests should be handled

D

75. What is the objective of Access Management? A. To provide security staff for Data Centers and other buildings B. To manage access to computer rooms and other secure locations C. To manage access to the Service Desk D. To manage the right to use a service or group of services

B

76. A configuration model can be used to help 1. Assess the impact and cause of incidents and problems 2. Assess the impact of proposed changes 3. Plan and design new or changed services 4. Plan technology refresh and software upgrades A. 1, 2, and 3 only B. All of the above C. 1, 2 and 4 only D. 3 and 4 only

A

77. Which of these is the BEST description of a release unit? A. The portion of a service or IT infrastructure that is normally released together B. The smallest part of a service or IT infrastructure that can be independently changed C. The portion of a service or IT infrastructure that is changed by a particular release D. A metric for measuring the effectiveness of the Release and Deployment Management process

B

78. Which process is responsible for monitoring an IT Service and detecting when the performance drops below acceptable limits? A. Service Asset and Configuration Management B. Event Management C. Service Catalogue Management D. Performance Management

C

79. Which of the following can include steps that will help to resolve an Incident? 1. Incident Model 2. Known Error Record A. 1 only B. 2 only C. Both of the above D. Neither of the above

D

8. In which document would you expect to see an overview of actual service achievements against targets? A. Operational Level Agreement (OLA) B. Capacity Plan C. Service Level Agreement (SLA) D. SLA Monitoring Chart (SLAM)

D

80. Which process is responsible for low risk, frequently occurring, low cost changes? A. Demand Management B. Incident Management C. Release and Deployment Management D. Request Fulfilment

A

81. Who is responsible for defining Key Performance Indicators (KPIs) for Change Management? A. The Change Management Process Owner B. The Change Advisory Board (CAB) C. The Service Owner D. The Continual Service Improvement Manager

B

82. Who is responsible for ensuring that the Request Fulfilment process is being performed according to the agreed and documented process? A. The IT Director B. The Process Owner C. The Service Owner D. The Customer

C

83. Access Management is closely related to which other process? A. Capacity Management only B. 3rd line support C. Information Security Management D. Change Management

C

84. Which of the following is NOT one of the five individual aspects of Service Design? A. The design of the Service Portfolio, including the Service Catalogue B. The design of new or changed services C. The design of Market Spaces D. The design of the technology architecture and management systems

D

85. Which of the following activities is NOT a part of the Deming Cycle? A. Act B. Plan C. Do D. Coordinate

C

86. A Process Owner is responsible for which of the following? 1. Documenting the process 2. Defining process Key Performance Indicators (KPIs) 3. Improving the process 4. Performing all activities involved in a process A. 1, 3 and 4 only B. All of the above C. 1, 2 and 3 only D. 1, 2 and 4 only

A

87. Which of the following statements about the Service Owner is INCORRECT? A. Is responsible for the day-to-day monitoring and operation of the service they own B. Is responsible for contributing to continual improvement affecting the service they own C. Is a primary stakeholder in all of the underlying IT processes which support the service they own D. Is accountable for a specific service within an organization

C

88. A Process Owner has been identified with an "I" in a RACI matrix. Which of the following would be expected of them? A. Tell others about the progress of an activity B. Perform an activity C. Be kept up to date on the progress of an activity D. Manage an activity

A

89. Which of the following models would be most useful in helping to define an organizational structure? A. RACI Model B. Service Model C. Continual Service Improvement (CSI) Model D. Plan, Do, Check, Act (PDCA) Model

A

9. Which of the following is the BEST definition of the term Service Management? A. A set of specialized organizational capabilities for providing value to customers in the form of services B. A group of interacting, interrelated, or independent components that form a unified whole, operating together for a common purpose C. The management of functions within an organization to perform certain activities D. Units of organizations with roles to perform certain activities

B

90. Which of the following is NOT the responsibility of Service Catalogue Management? A. Ensuring that information in the Service Catalogue is accurate B. Ensuring that information within the Service Pipeline is accurate C. Ensuring that information in the Service Catalogue is consistent with information in the Service Portfolio D. Ensuring that all operational services are recorded in the Service Catalogue

C

91. Which process would you MOST expect to be involved in the management of Underpinning Contracts? A. Change Management B. Service Catalogue Management C. Supplier Management D. Release and Deployment Management

C

92. Which of the following are valid parts of the Service Portfolio? 1. Service Pipeline 2. Service Knowledge Management System (SKMS) 3. Service Catalogue A. 1 and 2 only B. 3 only C. 1 and 3 only D. All of the above

C

93. Which of the following provides the primary guidance on what protection Information Security Management should provide for each asset? A. The IT Executive B. The ISO27001 Standard C. The Business D. The Service Level Manager

D

94. Which process will perform risk analysis and review of all suppliers and contracts on a regular basis? A. The Service Level Management B. The IT Service Continuity Management C. The Service Catalogue Management D. The Supplier Management

C

95. What does a service always deliver to customers? A. Applications B. Infrastructure C. Value D. Resources

A

96. Who owns the specific costs and risks associated with providing a service? A. The Service Provider B. The Service Level Manager C. The Customer D. The Finance department

C

97. Which stage of the Service Lifecycle is MOST concerned with defining policies and objectives? A. Service Design B. Service Transition C. Service Strategy D. Service Operation

D

98. Which of the following is MOST concerned with the design of new or changed services? A. Change Management B. Service Transition C. Service Strategy D. Service Design

C

99. Which of the following are benefits that implementing Service Transition could provide to the business? 1. Ability to adapt quickly to new requirements 2. Reduced cost to design new services 3. Improved success in implementing changes A. 1 and 2 only B. 2 and 3 only C. 1 and 3 only D. All of the above