IV dosage calculation practice test, Heparin Practice !, medsurg chapter 61 tb, Ch 55: Concepts of Care for Patients With Malnutrition: Undernutrition and, Chapter 52: concepts of care for pts with inflammatory intestinal disorders

The order is Penicillin G 1.2 million units IM daily. Available: Penicillin G 9 million units/1 ml. How many ml will you give?

0.13ml

The order is for 25 mg. The label reads 75mg/ml. How many ml(s) would you give?

0.33ml

The order is for 1.5 g The label reads 1 tablet equals 3 g. How many tablet (s) would you give?

0.5 tablet

The order is Solumedrol 3mg/kg for a child weighing 20kg. Solumedrol is available as 125 mg / 2 ml. How many ml must the nurse administer?

0.96ml

The order : KayCiel 30 mEq PO Bid pc. Available: Kay Ciel 45 mEq/15 ml. How many ml of KayCiel should you administer?

10ml

The order is for 400mcg of thyroxin. The label reads 0.2 mg tablets. How many tablets would you give?

2 tablets

Infuse 2,800 units of heparin per hour. The order is add 50,000 units heparin to 500 mL D/5/W. Calculate the flow rate in milliliters per hour.

28 mL/hr

The order is for 60mg. The label reads 60 mg/2 ml. You would give ___ml.

2ml

Convert 75 lbs into kg.

34.1 kg

The order is for 60 ml. You would give ____tablespoon(s).

4 TB

The order is for 6000 ml of IV solution to run over a 24 hour period. The drop factor of the I.V tubing is 10 gtts/ml. You would infuse _____gtts/min.

42gtt/min

Your patient weighs 75 kg and you are ordered to infuse 250 mg dobutamine in 500 ml NS at 10 mcg/kg/min. How many MILLIGRAMS of dobutamine will infuse per hour?

45mg/hr

The order is for 200 mg. The label reads 250mg /5ml. You would give ____ml(s).

4ml

According to the Spectrum Heparin Nomogram, your patient is to receive a bolus and an increase in the number of units per hour per physician order for Reduced Intensity Anticoagulation of an aPTT for a patient range of 45 to 54. Your patient weighs 143 lbs. Your patient has been receiving 12 Units/kg/hr. You have a Heparin vial labeled 1,000 units/mL. Your 1L IV bag has 50,000 Units of heparin. 1. What will you give for the Heparin Bolus? 2. What will you set your new pump rate at for continuous drip?

65 kg. 1300 units = 1.3 mL 910 units/hr = 18.2 mL/hr

The order is for 1000 ml. of I.V. solution to be infused at 125 ml/hr. You would infuse the solution for ___hours.

8hr

Your patient has an order to receive a Heparin bolus of 4,000 Units, followed by an IV drip of 14 Units/kg/hr. Your patient weighs 203 lbs. You have a Heparin vial labeled 1,000 units/mL. 1. What will you give your patient for the initial bolus? 2. What will you set your IV pump at for a continuous drip if your 1 L IV bag is labeled 40,000 Units of Heparin?

92 kg. 4 mL 1288 Units/hr = 32.2 mL/hr

A nurse assesses a client who presents with renal calculi. Which question would the nurse ask? a. "Do any of your family members have this problem?" b. "Do you drink any cranberry juice?" c. "Do you urinate after sexual intercourse?" d. "Do you experience burning with urination?"

A

A nurse obtains the health history of a client with a suspected diagnosis of bladder cancer. Which question would the nurse ask when determining this client's risk factors? a. "Do you smoke cigarettes?" b. "Do you use any alcohol?" c. "Do you use recreational drugs?" d. "Do you take any prescription drugs?"

A

A nurse teaches a young female client who is prescribed cephalexin for a urinary tract infection. Which statement would the nurse include in this client's teaching? a. "Use a second form of birth control while on this medication." b. "You will experience increased menstrual bleeding while on this drug." c. "You may experience an irregular heartbeat while on this drug." d. "Watch for blood in your urine while taking this medication."

A

After teaching a client with a history of renal calculi, the nurse assesses the client's understanding. Which statement made by the client indicates a correct understanding of the teaching? a. "I should drink at least 3 L of fluid every day." b. "I will eliminate all dairy or sources of calcium from my diet." c. "Aspirin and aspirin-containing products can lead to stones." d. "The doctor can give me antibiotics at the first sign of a stone."

A

A nurse teaches a client about self-management after experiencing a urinary calculus treated by lithotripsy. Which statements would the nurse include in this client's discharge teaching? (Select all that apply.) a. "Finish the prescribed antibiotic even if you are feeling better." b. "Drink at least 3 L of fluid each day." c. "The bruising on your back may take several weeks to resolve." d. "Report any blood present in your urine." e. "It is normal to experience pain and difficulty urinating."

A, B, C

The nurse is caring for a client who is diagnosed with urinary tract infection (UTI). What common urinary signs and symptoms does the nurse expect? (Select all that apply.) a. Dysuria b. Frequency c. Burning d. Fever e. Chills f. Hematuria

A, B, C, F

After treating several young women for urinary tract infections (UTIs), the college nurse plans an educational offering on reducing the risk of getting a UTI. What information does the nurse include? (Select all that apply.) a. Void before and after each act of intercourse. b. Consider changing to spermicide from birth control pills. c. Do not douche or use scented feminine products. d. Wear loose-fitting nylon panties. e. Wipe or clean the perineum from front to back.

A, C, E

6. A nurse is caring for a client receiving enteral feedings through a Dobhoff tube. What action by the nurse is best to prevent hyperosmolarity? a. Administer free-water boluses. b. Change the clients formula. c. Dilute the clients formula. d. Slow the rate of infusion.

ANS: A Proteins and sugar molecules in the enteral feeding product contribute to dehydration due to increased osmolarity. The nurse can administer free-water boluses after consulting with the provider on the appropriate amount and timing of the boluses, or per protocol. The client may not be able to switch formulas. Diluting the formula is not appropriate. Slowing the rate of the infusion will not address the problem.

4. A client is receiving bolus feedings through a Dobhoff tube. What action by the nurse is most important? a. Auscultate lung sounds after each feeding. b. Check tube placement before each feeding. c. Check tube placement every 8 hours. d. Weigh the client daily on the same scale.

ANS: B For bolus feedings, the nurse checks placement of the tube per institutional policy prior to each feeding, which is more often than every 8 hours during the day. Auscultating lung sounds is also important, but this will indicate a complication that has already occurred. Weighing the client is important to determine if nutritional goals are being met.

4. A clients small-bore feeding tube has become occluded after the nurse administered medications. What actions by the nurse are best? (Select all that apply.) a. Attempt to dissolve the clog by instilling a cola product. b. Determine if any of the medications come in liquid form. c. Flush the tube before and after administering medications. d. Mix all medications in the formula and use a feeding pump. e. Try to flush the tube with 30 mL of water and gentle pressure.

ANS: B, C, E If the tube is obstructed, use a 50-mL syringe and gentle pressure to attempt to open the tube. Cola products should not be used unless water is not effective. To prevent future problems, determine if any of the medications can be dispensed in liquid form and flush the tube with water before and after medication administration. Do not mix medications with the formula.

5. A client having a tube feeding begins vomiting. What action by the nurse is most appropriate? a. Administer an antiemetic. b. Check the clients gastric residual. c. Hold the feeding until the nausea subsides. d. Reduce the rate of the tube feeding by half.

ANS: C The nurse should hold the feeding until the nausea and vomiting have subsided and consult with the provider on the rate at which to restart the feeding. Giving an antiemetic is not appropriate. After vomiting, a gastric residual will not be accurate. The nurse should not continue to feed the client while he or she is vomiting.

7. A nurse is caring for four clients receiving enteral tube feedings. Which client should the nurse see first? a. Client with a blood glucose level of 138 mg/dL b. Client with foul-smelling diarrhea c. Client with a potassium level of 2.6 mEq/L d. Client with a sodium level of 138 mEq/L

ANS: C The potassium is critically low, perhaps due to hyperglycemia-induced hyperosmolarity. The nurse should see this client first. The blood glucose reading is high, but not extreme. The sodium is normal. The client with the diarrhea should be seen last to avoid cross-contamination.

The patient is to receive Heparin 1500 units/hr by IV infusion. The IV contains 25,000 units of Heparin in 250 ml of D5W. At what rate should you set the IV pump (ml/hr)?

Answer: 15 ml/hr 25,000 units : 250 ml = 1500 units : x ml Note: remember a pump setting is always ml/hour

A nurse assesses a client who is recovering from extracorporeal shock-wave lithotripsy for renal calculi. The nurse notes an ecchymotic area on the client's right lower back. What action would the nurse take? a. Administer fresh-frozen plasma. b. Apply an ice pack to the site. c. Place the client in the prone position. d. Obtain serum coagulation test results.

B

A nurse cares for a postmenopausal client who has had two episodes of bacterial urethritis in the last 6 months. The client asks, "I never have urinary tract infections. Why is this happening now?" How would the nurse respond? a. "Your immune system becomes less effective as you age." b. "Low estrogen levels can make the tissue more susceptible to infection." c. "You should be more careful with your personal hygiene in this area." d. "It is likely that you have an untreated sexually transmitted disease."

B

A nurse reviews the laboratory findings of a client with a urinary tract infection (bacterial cystitis). The laboratory report notes a "shift to the left" in the client's white blood cell count. What action would the nurse take? a. Request that the laboratory perform a differential analysis on the white blood cells. b. Notify the primary health care provider and start an intravenous line for parenteral antibiotics. c. Ask assistive personnel (AP) to strain the client's urine for renal calculi. d. Assess the client for a potential allergic reaction and anaphylactic shock.

B

A nurse teaches a client who is starting urinary bladder training. Which statement would the nurse include in this client's teaching? a. "Use the toilet when you first feel the urge, rather than at specific intervals." b. "Initially try to use the toilet at least every half hour for the first 24 hours." c. "Try to consciously hold your urine until the scheduled toileting time." d. "The toileting interval can be increased once you have been continent for a week."

C

After teaching a client with bacterial cystitis who is prescribed phenazopyridine, the nurse assesses the client's understanding. Which statement made by the client indicates a correct understanding of the teaching? a. "I will not take this drug with food or milk." b. "I will have my partners tested for STIs." c. "An orange color in my urine should not alarm me." d. "I will drink two glasses of cranberry juice daily."

C

A nurse cares for a client who has kidney stones from gout ricemia. Which medication does the nurse anticipate administering? a. Phenazopyridine b. Doxycyline c. Tolterodine d. Allopurinol

D

Your patient has an order for a Heparin bolus of 10,000 Units, followed by an IV drip of 18 Units/kg/hr. Your patient weighs 167 lbs. You have a Heparin vial labeled 5,000 Units/mL. 1. What will you give your patient for the initial bolus? 2. What will you set your IV pump at for a continuous drip if your 1 L IV bag has a total of 50,000 Units of Heparin?

Pts'. Weight 76 kg. 2 mL bolus 1368 Units/hr. = 27.4 mL/hr

A nurse reviews the electronic health record of a client who has Crohn disease and a draining fistula. Which documentation would alert the nurse to urgently contact the primary health care provider for additional prescriptions? a. Serum potassium of 2.6 mEq/L (2.6 mmol/L) b. Client ate 20% of breakfast meal c. White blood cell count of 8200/mm3 (8.2 × 109 /L) d. Client's weight decreased by 3 lb (1.4 kg)

a Fistulas place the patient with Crohn disease at risk for hypokalemia which can lead to serious dysrhythmias. This potassium level is low and would cause the nurse to intervene. The white blood cell count is normal. The other two findings are abnormal and also warrant intervention, but the potassium level takes priority.

The nurse assesses a patient who is recovering from an ileostomy placement. Which assessment finding would alert the nurse to immediately contact the primary health care provider? a. Pale and bluish stoma b. Liquid stool c. Ostomy pouch intact d. Blood-tinged output

a The nurse would assess the stoma for color and contact the primary health care provider if the stoma is pale, bluish, or dark because these changes indicate possible lack of perfusion. The nurse would expect the client to have an intact ostomy pouch with dark green liquid stool that may contain some blood.

A nurse cares for an older adult who is admitted to the hospital with complications of diverticulitis. Which actions would the nurse include in the client's plan of care? (Select all that apply.) a. Administer pain medications as prescribed. b. Palpate the abdomen for distention. c. Assess for sudden changes in mental status. d. Provide the client with a high-fiber diet. e. Evaluate stools for occult blood

a b c e When caring for an older adult who has diverticulitis, the nurse would administer analgesics as prescribed, palpate the abdomen for distention and tenderness, assess for confusion and sudden changes in mental status, and check stools for occult or frank bleeding. A low-fiber/residue diet would be provided when symptoms are present and a high-fiber diet when inflammation resolves.

The nurse assesses a client with ulcerative colitis. Which complications are paired correctly with their physiologic processes? (Select all that apply.) a. Lower gastrointestinal bleeding—erosion of the bowel wall b. Abscess formation—localized pockets of infection develop in the ulcerated bowel lining c. Toxic megacolon—transmural inflammation resulting in pyuria and fecaluria d. Nonmechanical bowel obstruction—paralysis of colon resulting from colorectal cancer e. Fistula—dilation and colonic ileus caused by paralysis of the colon

a b d Lower GI bleeding can lead to erosion of the bowel wall. Abscesses are localized pockets of infection that develop in the ulcerated bowel lining. Nonmechanical bowel obstruction is paralysis of the colon that results from colorectal cancer. When the inflammation is transmural, fistulas can occur between the bowel and bladder resulting in pyuria and fecaluria. Paralysis of the colon causing dilation and subsequent colonic ileus is known as a toxic megacolon.

After teaching a patient who has a permanent ileostomy, a nurse assesses the client's understanding. Which dietary items chosen for dinner indicate that the client needs further teaching? (Select all that apply.) a. Corn b. String beans c. Carrots d. Wheat rice e. Squash

a b d Clients with an ileostomy should be cautious of high-fiber and high-cellulose foods including corn, string beans, and rice. Carrots and squash are low-fiber items.

A client is preparing to have a laparoscopic restorative proctocolectomy with ileo pouch-anal anastomosis (RCA-IPAA). Which preoperative health teaching would the nurse include? a. "You will have to wear an appliance for your permanent ileostomy." b. "You should be able to have better bowel continence after healing occurs." c. "You will have a large abdominal incision that will require irrigation." d. "This procedure can be performed under general or regional anesthesia."

b A RCA-IPAA can improve bowel continence although leakage may still occur for some clients. The procedure is a 2-step process performed under general anesthesia using a laparoscope which does not require an abdominal incision or permanent ileostomy.

After teaching a client who is prescribed adalimumab for severe ulcerative colitis (UC), the nurse assesses the client's understanding. Which statement made by the client indicates a need for further teaching? a. "I will avoid large crowds and people who are sick." b. "I will take this medication with my breakfast each morning." c. "Nausea and vomiting are common side effects of this drug." d. "I should wash my hands after I play with my dog."

b Adalimumab is an immune modulator that is given via subcutaneous injection. It does not need to be given with food or milk. Nausea and vomiting are two common side effects. Adalimumab can cause immune suppression, so clients receiving the medication should avoid large crowds and people who are sick, and should practice good handwashing.

The nurse plans care for a client with Crohn disease who has a heavily draining fistula. Which intervention would be the nurse's priority action? a. Low-fiber diet b. Skin protection c. Antibiotic administration d. Intravenous glucocorticoids

b Protecting the client's skin is the priority action for a patient who has a heavily draining fistula. Intestinal fluid enzymes are caustic and can cause skin breakdown or fungal infections if the skin is not protected. The plan of care for a client who has Crohn disease also includes adequate nutrition focused on high-calorie, high-protein, high-vitamin, and low-fiber meals, antibiotic administration, and glucocorticoids.

A nurse cares for a client with a new ileostomy. The client states, "I don't think my friends will accept me with this ostomy." How would the nurse respond? a. "Your friends will be happy that you are alive." b. "Tell me more about your concerns." c. "A therapist can help you resolve your concerns." d. "With time you will accept your new body."

b Social anxiety and apprehension are common in clients with a new ileostomy. The nurse would encourage the client to discuss concerns by restating them in an open-ended manner. The nurse would not minimize the client's concerns or provide false reassurance.

The nurse is caring for a client who is prescribed sulfasalazine. Which question would the nurse ask the client before starting this drug? a. "Are you taking Vitamin C or B? b. "Do you have any allergy to sulfa drugs?" c. "Can you swallow pills pretty easily?" d. "Do you have insurance to cover this drug?"

b Sulfasalazine is a sulfa drug given for clients who have ulcerative colitis. However, it should not be given to those who have an allergy to sulfa and sulfa drugs to prevent a hypersensitivity reaction.

A nurse assesses a client who has ulcerative colitis and severe diarrhea. Which assessment would the nurse complete first? a. Inspection of oral mucosa b. Recent dietary intake c. Heart rate and rhythm d. Percussion of abdomen

c Although the client with severe diarrhea may experience skin irritation and hypovolemia, the client is most at risk for cardiac dysrhythmias secondary to potassium and magnesium loss from severe diarrhea. The client would have her or his electrolyte levels monitored, and electrolyte replacement may be necessary. Oral mucosa inspection, recent dietary intake, and abdominal percussion are important parts of physical assessment but are lower priority for this patient than heart rate and rhythm.

After teaching a client who has diverticulitis, a nurse assesses the client's understanding. Which statement made by the client indicates a need for further teaching? a. "I'll ride my bike or take a long walk at least three times a week." b. "I must try to include at least 25 g of fiber in my diet every day." c. "I will take a laxative nightly at bedtime to avoid becoming constipated." d. "I should use my legs rather than my back muscles when I lift heavy objects."

c Laxatives are not recommended for patients with diverticulitis because they can increase pressure in the bowel, causing additional outpouching of the lumen. Exercise and a high-fiber diet are recommended for clients with diverticulitis because they promote regular bowel function. Using the leg muscles rather than the back for lifting prevents abdominal straining.

The nurse assesses a client who is hospitalized with an exacerbation of Crohn disease. Which assessment finding would the nurse expect? a. Positive Murphy sign with rebound tenderness to palpitation b. Dull, hypoactive bowel sounds in the lower abdominal quadrants c. High-pitched, rushing bowel sounds in the right lower quadrant d. Reports of abdominal cramping that is worse at night

c The nurse expects high-pitched, rushing bowel sounds due to narrowing of the bowel lumen in Crohn disease. A positive Murphy sign is indicative of gallbladder disease, and rebound tenderness often indicates peritonitis. Dullness in the lower abdominal quadrants and hypoactive bowel sounds is not commonly found with Crohn disease. Nightly worsening of abdominal cramping is not consistent with Crohn disease.

A nurse cares for a young client with a new ileostomy. The client states, "I cannot go to prom with an ostomy." How would the nurse respond? a. "Sure you can. Purchase a prom dress one size larger to hide the ostomy appliance." b. "The pouch won't be as noticeable if you avoid broccoli and carbonated drinks prior to the prom." c. "Let's talk to the ostomy nurse about options for ostomy supplies and dress styles." d. "You can remove the pouch from your ostomy appliance when you are at the prom so that it is less noticeable."

c The ostomy nurse is a valuable resource for patients, providing suggestions for supplies and methods to manage the ostomy. A larger dress size will not necessarily help hide the ostomy appliance. Avoiding broccoli and carbonated drinks does not offer reassurance for the client. Ileostomies have an almost constant liquid effluent, so pouch removal during the prom is not feasible.

After teaching a patient with diverticular disease, a nurse assesses the client's understanding. Which menu selection indicates the client correctly understood the teaching? a. Roasted chicken with rice pilaf and a cup of coffee with cream b. Spaghetti with meat sauce, a fresh fruit cup, and hot tea c. Garden salad with a cup of bean soup and a glass of low-fat milk d. Baked fish with steamed carrots and a glass of apple juice

d Clients who have diverticular disease are prescribed a low-residue diet. Whole grains (rice pilaf), uncooked fruits and vegetables (salad, fresh fruit cup), and high-fiber foods (cup [240 mL] of bean soup) would be avoided with a low-residue diet. Canned or cooked vegetables are appropriate. Apple juice does not contain fiber and is acceptable for a low-residue diet

The order is 500 mg of Rocephin to be taken by a 15.4 lb infant every 8 hours. The medication label shows that 75-150 mg/kg per day is the appropriate dosage range. How much will the patient receive per day? Is this within the normal range?

minimum = 525mg maximum = 1050mg The doctor prescribed 500 x3= 1500mg per day; this is not within the safe range