Just some ATI med surge practice q
A nurse is caring for a client who has manifestations of acute tubular necrosis (ATN) following a kidney transplantation. Which of the following interventions should the nurse anticipate for this client? (Select all that apply.) A. Hemodialysis B. Biopsy C. Immunosuppression D. Balloon angioplasty E. Surgical repair (
- ✅ A, B, C Clients who develop ATN after transplantation surgery might need dialysis until they have an adequate urine output and their BUN and creatinine levels stabilize. Because the development of ATN after transplantation surgery mimics the symptoms of rejection of the transplanted kidney, clients have to undergo a biopsy to determine the correct diagnosis. Immunosuppressive medication therapy is essential after kidney transplantation to protect the new kidney.
A nurse is teaching a client who has CAD about the difference between angina pectoris and MI. Which of the following should the nurse identify as indications of MI? SATA. a. N/V b. Diaphoresis and dizziness c. Chest and left arm pain that subsides with rest d. Anxiety and feelings of doom e. Bounding pulse and bradypnea
- ✅ A, B, D
A nurse is preparing a client for a bronchoscopy. Which of the following actions should the nurse take? (Select all that apply.) A. Explain that the client will receive sedation and will not remember the procedure. B. Verify that the client understands the purpose and nature of the procedure. C. Offer the client sips of clear liquids until 1 hr before the test. D. Obtain a pre-procedural sputum specimen. E. Instruct the client to keep his neck in a neutral position
- ✅ A. Explain that the client will receive sedation and will not remember the procedure. B. Verify that the client understands the purpose and nature of the procedure. For a bronchoscopy, clients typically receive premedication with a benzodiazepine or an opioid to ensure sedation and amnesia. The client will have signed a consent form, so the nurse should verify that the provider explained the procedure and that the client understands it.
A nurse is caring for a client who is NPO and has an NG tube to suction. When the client reports nausea, which of the following actions should the nurse take? A. Irrigate the tube with normal saline solution B. Provide oral hygiene C. Clamp the tube for 30 min D. Increase the amount of suction
- ✅ A. Irrigate the tube with normal saline solution When a client with an NG tube develops nausea, the nurse should first attempt to irrigate the tube to determine patency. If the tube is not patent, gastric pressure cannot decrease, and the steady or increasing pressure can cause nausea.
A nurse is teaching a newly licensed nurse about caring for a client who is scheduled for an esophagogastric balloon tamponade tube to treat bleeding esophageal varices. Which of the following pieces of information should the nurse include in the teaching? A. The client will be placed on mechanical ventilation prior to this procedure. B. The tube will be inserted into the client's trachea. C. The client will receive a bowel preparation with cathartics prior to this procedure. D. The tube allows
- ✅ A. The client will be placed on mechanical ventilation prior to this procedure. The client will require intubation and mechanical ventilation prior to this procedure to protect the airway.
A nurse is assessing a client with a closed head injury who has received mannitol for manifestations of increased intracranial pressure (ICP). Which of the following findings indicates that the medication is having a therapeutic effect? A. The client's serum osmolarity is 310 mOsm/L. B. The client's pupils are dilated. C. The client's heart rate is 56/min. D. The client is restless
- ✅ A. The client's serum osmolarity is 310 mOsm/L. Mannitol is an osmotic diuretic used to reduce cerebral edema by drawing water out of the brain tissue. A serum osmolarity of 310 mOsm/L is desired. A decrease in cerebral edema should result in a decrease in ICP.
A nurse is monitoring a client for reperfusion following thrombolytic therapy to treat acute myocardial infarction (MI). Which of the following indicators should the nurse identify to confirm reperfusion? A. Ventricular dysrhythmias B. Appearance of Q waves C. Elevated ST segments D. Recurrence of chest pain
- ✅ A. Ventricular dysrhythmias The appearance of ventricular dysrhythmias following thrombolytic therapy is a sign of reperfusion of the coronary artery
A nurse is caring for a client who is postprocedural following a lumbar puncture and reports a throbbing headache when sitting upright. Which of the following actions should the nurse take? SATA. a. Use the GCS scale to assess the client b. Assist the client into a supine position c. Administer an opioid analgesic d. Encourage the client to increase PO fluid intake e. Instruct the client to perform coughing and deep breathing
- ✅ B, D
A nurse is preparing a client who is scheduled to have an arthroscopy the following day. Which of the following statements indicates that the client understands the pre-procedure teaching? A. "I have to keep my leg straight throughout the whole procedure." B. "The doctor will be able to see if I have signs of rheumatoid arthritis." C. "I should expect to stay overnight until I can walk around." D. "I'll have a scar that will be about an inch long."
- ✅ B. "The doctor will be able to see if I have signs of rheumatoid arthritis." An arthroscopy helps with diagnosing musculoskeletal disorders such as rheumatoid arthritis, osteoarthritis, and internal joint injuries
A nurse is assessing a client who has peripheral vascular disease and a venous ulcer on the right ankle. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect in the client's affected extremity? A. Absent pedal pulses B. Ankle swelling C. Hair loss D. Skin atrophy
- ✅ B. Ankle swelling The nurse should identify that swelling of the ankle is a manifestation of venous insufficiency due to poor venous return. Other manifestations can include brown pigmentations and cellulitis.
A nurse is caring for a semiconscious client who had a small-bore NG tube placed yesterday for the administration of enteral feeding. Which of the following methods should the nurse use to verify correct tube placement? (Select all that apply.) A. Auscultate injected air B. Verify the initial X-ray examination C. Measure the length of the exposed tube D. Determine the pH of aspirated fluid E. Check the aspirated fluid for glucose
- ✅ B. Verify the initial X-ray examination C. Measure the length of the exposed tube D. Determine the pH of aspirated fluid
A nurse is teaching a client who has polycythemia vera about self-care measures. Which of the following interventions should the nurse include? A. "Drink at least 1 liter of fluid each day." B. "Continuously wear support hose." C. "Elevate your legs when sitting." D. "Use dental floss daily."
- ✅ C. "Elevate your legs when sitting." Clients who have polycythemia vera should elevate their legs when seated to avoid venous pooling with subsequent clot formation.
A nurse is talking with a group of women at a community center about the current recommendations for early detection of breast cancer. The nurse should explain which of the following options? A. Begin monthly breast self-examinations at age 40 B. Have a clinical breast examination each year after age 30 C. Begin annual mammograms at age 40 D. Have breast magnetic resonance imaging every 5 years after age 50
- ✅ C. Begin annual mammograms at age 40 Women should begin performing monthly breast self-examinations at 20 years of age. From 20 to 39 years of age, women should undergo a breast examination by a health care provider every 3 years. Women older than 40 years of age should have annual breast examinations by a health care provider and an annual mammogram.
A nurse is assessing a client who has a fractured left femur and is in skeletal traction. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider? A. Ecchymosis of the thigh B. Serous drainage at the pin site C. Chest petechiae D. Muscle spasms in the left leg
- ✅ C. Chest petechiae The nurse should identify chest petechiae as an indication of fat embolism syndrome. Clients who have fractures of the long bones such as the femur are at increased risk of fat emboli. Fat emboli typically occur 12 to 48 hours after the injury when fat droplets from the marrow enter into the systemic circulation and are deposited in the lungs. The nurse should immediately notify the provider because the client could progress to acute respiratory failure.
An emergency room nurse is assessing a client who has a new traumatic brain injury. The nurse observes extension of the client's arms and legs, pronation of the arms, and plantar flexion of the feet. Which of the following actions is the nurse's priority? A. Monitor urinary output B. Administer an osmotic diuretic C. Provide supplemental oxygen D. Initiate seizure precautions
- ✅ C. Provide supplemental oxygen The first action the nurse should take when using the airway, breathing, and circulation (ABC) approach to client care is to provide supplemental oxygen. The client might require an artificial airway and mechanical ventilation because these findings indicate decerebrate positioning, which is associated with brainstem injury and can lead to brain herniation and death.
A charge nurse is observing a newly licensed nurse administer an IV medication to a client who has an implanted venous access port. Which of the following observations requires intervention by the charge nurse? A. A dressing is not applied to the port site after use. B. A 22-gauge non-coring needle is used to access the port. C. Blood return is noted prior to administering the medication. D. A solution of 5 mL heparin 1,000 units/mL has been prepared
- ✅ D. A solution of 5 mL heparin 1,000 units/mL has been prepared. Implanted ports should be flushed after each use and at least once a month when not in use. This practice is sometimes referred to as "locking" or "de-accessing." It is performed to prevent the formation of blood clots in the catheter, which would disrupt the proper functioning of the catheter. The solution of 5 mL heparin should be 100 units/mL; therefore, this action requires intervention by the charge nurse.
A nurse is planning care for a client who has AIDS and has developed stomatitis. Which of the following interventions should the nurse include in the plan of care? A. Rinse the mouth with chlorhexidine solution every 2 hr B. Limit fluid intake with meals C. Provide oral hygiene with a firm-bristled toothbrush after each meal D. Avoid salty foods
- ✅ D. Avoid salty foods Stomatitis is an inflammation of the mucosa of the mouth, usually with ulcerations. Foods that are spicy, acidic, or salty should be avoided to prevent further irritation and damage to the oral mucosa.
A nurse is caring for a client following a stroke. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first? A. Obtain coagulation laboratory studies from the client B. Apply pneumatic compression boots to the client C. Request a referral for a speech-language pathologist D. Keep the client NPO
- ✅ D. Keep the client NPO The first action the nurse should take when using the airway, breathing, and circulation (ABC) approach to client care is to keep the client NPO due to the risk of aspiration as a result of the stroke. The client should be screened for the ability to swallow and should not receive anything by mouth until this has been completed. A client who has experienced a cerebrovascular accident is at risk for dysphagia, which increases the change of life-threating aspiration.
A nurse is assessing a client who has Kaposi's sarcoma. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect? A. Nonproductive cough, fever, and shortness of breath B. Lesions on the retina that produce blurred vision C. Onset of progressive dementia D. Reddish-purple skin lesion
- ✅ D. Reddish-purple skin lesions Kaposi's sarcoma is commonly associated with AIDS and manifests as hyperpigmented multicentric lesions that can be firm, flat, raised, or nodular. Following a biopsy, the lesions are treated with radiation and/or chemotherapy.
A nurse is providing teaching to a client who has a new diagnosis of myasthenia gravis (MG). Which of the following pieces of information should the nurse include? A. Use enemas to treat constipation caused by daily medications B. Take a hot bath when muscles ache C. Eat a low-calorie diet D. Set an alarm to ensure medication dosages are taken on time
- ✅ D. Set an alarm to ensure medication dosages are taken on time The nurse should instruct the client to take medication dosages on time to maintain a therapeutic blood level. Dosages should not be missed or postponed because this can cause an exacerbation of the disease
A nurse is teaching a client how to perform range-of-motion exercises of the wrist. To perform adduction, which of the following instructions should the nurse include? A. "With your palm facing down, move your wrist sideways toward your thumb." B. "Move your palm toward the inner part of your forearm." C. "With your palm facing down, move your wrist sideways toward your little finger." D. "Bring the back of your hand as far back toward the wrist as you can."
- ✅ a. "With your palm facing down, move your wrist sideways toward your thumb." This motion describes adducting the wrist. The client should be able to move her wrist 30º to 50º with this motion.
A nurse is caring for a client who experienced a traumatic head injury and has an intraventricular catheter (Ventriculostomy) for ICP monitoring. The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following complications related to the ventriculostomy?: a. Headache b. Infection c. Aphasia d. Hypertension
- ✅ b. Infection Monitor for infection and use strict asepsis to avoid life-threatening meningitis.
A nurse is preparing an in-service program about the stages of acute kidney injury. Which of the following pieces of info should the nurse include about prerenal azotemia? a. Prerenal azotemia begins prior to the onset of symptoms b. Interference with renal perfusion causes renal azotemia c. Prerenal azotemia is irreversible, even in early stages d. Infections and tumors cause prerenal azotemia
- ✅ b. Interference with renal perfusion causes prerenal azotemia. Prerenal = interference with renal perfusion, such as from heart failure or hypovolemic shock
32. The nurse in a cardiac stepdown unit has received a hand-off shift report for these clients. Which client should be assess first? A. a client who has just returned from a coronary artierogram with placement of an intracoronary stent. B. A client who is in heart failure and has gained 2 pnds in the last 24 hours. C. a client with endocarditis who has temperature elevation of 100F and P 100 beats/min D. A client who was cardioverted from atrial fib 24 hours ago and has had 3 atrial premature
A
1. A nurse in a burn treatment center is caring for a client who is admitted with severe burns to both lower extremities and is pending an escharotomy. The client's spouse asks the nurse what the procedure entails. Which of the following nursing statements is appropriate? a."large incisions will be made in the eschar to improve circulation" b. " I can call the doctor back here if you want me to" c. "a piece of skin will be removed and grafted over the burned area" d. "dead tissue
a
18. The nurse is caring for a client who is receiving a blood transfusion. The transfusion started 30 minutes ago at a rate of 100 mL/hr. The client begins to complain of low back pain and headache and is increasingly restless. What is the first nursing action? a. Stop the transfusion, disconnect the blood tubing, and begin a primary infusion of normal saline solution b. Slow the infusion and evaluate the vital signs and the client's history of tranfusion reactions c. Slow the infusion of bloo
a
19. A client with a diagnosis of disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC) has the following assessment findings: blood pressure of 76/56, temperature 102.6 degrees, resp. 24 breath/min., with complaints of severe neck and back pain. Which nursing action should the nurse implement first? a.Administer acetaminophen (Tylenol) PO. b. Administer ibuprofen (Motrin) PO. c. Draw coagulation study blood work in the AM d. Give morphine sulfate IV
a
20. The nurse administering albuterol (Proventil) via a metered-dose inhaler (MDI) to a client who has a history of coronary artery disease is now in congestive heart failure. What side effects will be particularly important to observe for when the client takes the medication? a.Tremors and central nervous system stimulation b. Tachycardia and chest discomfort c. Development of oral candidiasis d. An increase in blood pressure
a
21. The nurse is assessing a client who is on a ventilator and has an endotracheal tube in place. What data confirms that the tube has migrated too far into the trachea? a.Decreased breath sounds are heard over the left side of the chest b. Increased rhonchi are present at the lung bases bilaterally c. Ventilator pressure alarm continues to sound d. Client is able to speak and coughs excessively
a
22. What is the desired action of dopamine (Intropin) when administered in the treatment of shock? a.It increases myocardial contractility b. It is associated with fewer severe allergic reactions c. It causes rapid vasodilation of the vascular bed d. It supports renal perfusion by dilation of the renal arteries
a
25. The client returns to his room after a thoracotomy. What will the nursing assessment reveal if hypovolemia from excessive blood loss is present? a. CVP of 3 cm H20 and urine output of 20 mL/hr b. Jugular vein distention with the head elevated 45 degrees c. Chest tube drainage of 50 mL/hr in the first 2 hours d. Persistent increased BP and increased pulse pressure
a
28) The V/S of a client with Cardiac disease are as follows: BP 102/76 mm/hg, Pulse 52, RR 16. Atropine is administered IV push. What nursing assessment indicates a therapeutic response to the medication? A. Pulse rate has increased to 70 beats/min B. systolic BP has increased by 20 C. pupils are dilated D. oral secretions have decreased
a
29) An older adult client comes into ER stating that he has no appetite, is nauseated, his heart feels funny and has noticed a haziness in his vision. The client states that he has been taking an antihypertensive drug and digitalis for more than a year. Based on the presenting symptoms, what would be the priority nursing action? A. Obtain an order for an EKG and serum potassium and digitalis levels B. Perform a neurological assessment to determine whether he has one side weakness. C. Assess lung
a
36) The nurse is caring for a client with chronic hep B. What will the teaching plan for this client include? A. use a condom for sexual intercourse B. Report any clay- colored stools. C. Eat a high protein diet D. Perform daily urine bilirubin checks
a
38. A patient with septic shock has a urine output of 20 mL/hr for the past 3 hours. The pulse rate is 120 and the central venous and pulmonary artery wedge pressure are 4. Which of these orders by the health care provider will the nurse question? a.Give furosemide (Lasix) 40 mg IV b. increase normal saline infusion to 150 mL/hr c. Administer hydrocortisone (SoluCortef) 100 mg IV d. Prepare to give drotrecogin alpha (Xigris) 24 mcg/kg/hr
a
10. A client comes into the ED reporting nausea and vomiting that worsens when lying down and without relief from antacids. The provider suspects acute pancreatitis. Which of the following lab test results should the nurse expect to see if the client has acute pancreatitis? a. Decreased WBC b. Increased serum amylase c. Decreased serum lipase d. Increased serum calcium
b
11. A nurse in the ICU is caring for a client who has acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS) and is receiving mechanical via an endotracheal tube. The provider plans to extubate her within the next 24 hour. Which of the following is an important criterion for extubating the client? a. Ability to cough effectively b. Adequate tidal volume without manually assisted breaths c. No indication of infection d. No need for supplemental oxygen
b
12. A nurse is caring for a client following a CT scan with dye who suffered from an anaphylactic reaction. Which of the following conditions requires a priority nursing response? a. urticaria b. stridor c. tachypnea d. angioedema
b
13. A nurse is caring for a female client who came in to the ED reporting SOB and pain in the lung area. Her heart rate is 110/min, resp. rate 40/min, and blood pressure 140/80 m8juiimHg. Her arterial blood gases are: pH 7.5, PaCO2 29 mmHg, PaO2 60 mm Hg, HCO3 20 mEq/L, and SaO2 86%. Which of the following is the priority intervention? a. Prepare for mechanical ventilation b. Administer oxygen via face mask c. Prepare to administer a sedative d. Monitor for pulmonary embolism
b
15. A group of college students was attending a weekend football rally when one of the students stumbled and fell into the bonfire. Although several friends quickly intervened, the client sustained partial-thickness burns to both lower legs, chest, and both forearms. Which of the following is priority nursing action when the client is brought to the ED? a. cover the burned area with sterile gauze b. inspect mouth for signs of inhalation c. administer intravenous pain medication d. draw blood for
b
23. The nurse is monitoring an IV infusion of sodium nitroprusside (Nirpride). Fifteen minutes after the infusion is started, the client's BP goes from 190/120 mm Hg to 120/90 mm Hg. What is the priority nursing action? a. Recheck the BP and call the doctor b. Decrease the infusion rate and recheck the blood pressure in 5 minutes c. Stop the medication and keep the IV open with D5W. d. Assess the client's tolerance of the current level of BP
b
27. The nurse applies a Nitro-Dur patch on a client who has undergone cardiac surgery. What nursing observation indicates that a Nitro-Dur patch is achieving the desired effect? a. Chest pain is completely relieved b. Client performs activities of daily living without chest pain c. Pain is controlled with frequent changes of patch d. Client tolerates increased activity without pain
b
30) the nurse is administering alteplase to a client who has been diagnosed with acute coronary syndrome. What are important nursing implications for this medication? A. Monitor the ECG for dysrthymias B. Place the client on bleeding precautions C. monitor urine output hourly D. Monitor for activity tolerance
b
40. Which of these findings is the best indicators that the fluid resuscitation for a patient with hypovolemic shock has been successful? a. hemoglobin is within normal limits b. Urine output is 60 mL over the last hour c. Pulmonary artery wedge pressure (PAWP) is 10 mmHg d. Mean arterial pressure (MAP) is 55 mm Hg
b
9. A nurse in a cardiac care unit is caring for a client with acute heart failure. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect? a. Decreased brain natriuretic peptide (BNP) b. Elevated central venous pressure (CVP) c. Decreased pulmonary pressure d. Increases urinary output
b
14. A nurse is monitoring a client who has just had a thoracentesis to remove pleural fluid. Which of the following clinical manifestations indicate a complication that requires notifying the provider immediately? a. Serosanguineous drainage from the puncture site b. Discomfort at the puncture site c. Increased heart rate d. Decreased temperature
c
3. A nurse is caring for a client who has full-thickness burns all over 75% of his body. Which of the following methods is appropriate to accurately monitor the cardiovascular system? a. auscultate cuff blood pressure b. palpate pulse pressure c. obtain a central venous pressure d. monitor the pulmonary artery pressure
c
31) The nurse is caring for a client who underwent cardiac catheterization 1 hour ago. What is an important nursing measure at this time? A. Measure urinary output hourly and maintain continuous cardiac monitoring B. Encourage client to perform slow pressure exercise of the affected side to promote circulation. C. Maintain pressure over catheter insertion site and determine distal circulation status. D. Evaluate apical pulse and determine presence of pulse deficit.
c
33) What ECG changes would reflect myocardial ischemia in a client who has been admitted for observation after experiencing an episode of chest pain? A. Prolonged PR interval B. Wide QRS complex C. ST- Segment elevation or depression D. Tall, peak T-waves
c
34) A new employee at a facility needs a hepatitis vaccine. Which statement reflects accurate understanding of the immunization? A. I need to get 6 shots of hep C B. Once I receive the Hep vaccine I will always been immune C. I will receive 3 injections over a period of months, which should protect me from hep B D. Hep vaccine is an oral vaccine with live attenuated Virus
c
35) While talking with a client with a diagnosis of end stage liver disease. The nurse notices the client is unable to stay awake and seems to fall asleep in the middle of a sentence. The nurse recognizes these symptoms to be indicative of what condition? A. Hyperglycemia B. Increased Bile production C. Increased blood ammonia levels D. Hypocalcaemia
c
37. A patient with massive trauma and possible spinal cord injury is admitted to the emergency department (ED). Which finding by the nurse will help confirm a diagnosis of neurogenic shock? a. cool clammy skin b. inspiratory crackles c. apical heart rate of 48 beats/min d. temperature 101.2* F
c
41. Which interventions will the nurse include in the plan of the care for a patient who has cardiogenic shock? a. Avoid elevating head of bed b. Check temperature every 2 hours c. Monitor breath sounds frequently d. Assess skin for flushing and itching
c
6. A nurse is caring for a client who came the emergency dept reporting chest pain. The provider suspects a myocardial infarction. While waiting for the laboratory to report the client's troponin levels, the client asks what this blood test will show. The nurse should explain that troponin is a. An enzyme that indicates damage to brain, heart, and skeletal muscle tissues b. A protein whose levels reflect the risk for coronary artery disease c. A heart muscle protein that appears in the bloodst
c
16. A triage nurse in an emergency dept is caring for a client who has gunshot wound to the right side of chest. The nurse notices thick dressing on the chest and sucking noise coming from the wound. The client has a blood pressure of 100/60 mm Hg, a weak pulse rate of 118/min, and a respiratory rate of 40/min. Which of the following actions should the nurse take initially? a. Raise the foot of the bed to a 90 degree angle b. Remove the dressing to inspect the wound c. Prepare to insert a centra
d
17. A nurse is suctioning the endotracheal tube of a client who is on a ventilator. The client's heart rate increases from 86/min to 110/min and becomes irregular. The nurse should know that the client requires which of the following? a. A cardiology consult b. Less frequent suctioning c. An antidysrhythmic medication d. Pre-oxygenation prior to suctioning
d
2. A nurse is monitoring the fluid replacement of a client who has sustained burns. Which of the following fluids is used in the first 24 hours following a burn injury? a. 5% dextrose in water b. 5% dextrose in normal saline c. normal saline d. lactated ringers
d
24. Norepinephrine (Levophed) has been ordered for a client in hypovolemic shock. Before administering the drug, the nurse should make sure that the client has: a. A heart rate of less than 120 beats/min b. Urine output of at least 30 mL/hr. c. Received adequate anticoagulation d. Been receiving adequate IV fluid replacement
d
26. The nurse is performing an assessment and finds the client has cold, clammy skin, pulse of 130 beats/min and weak, blood pressure of 84/56 mm Hg, and urinary of 20 mL for the past hour. The nurse would interpret these findings as suggestive of which pathophysiology? a. Reduction of circulation to the coronary arteries, this increasing the preload b. Decreased glomeruli filtration rate, resulting in volume overload c. Stimulation of the sympathetic nervous system, causing severe vasoconstrict
d
39. After receiving 1000 mL of normal saline, the central venous pressure for a patient who has septic shock is 10 mm Hg, but the blood pressure is still 82/40 mm Hg. The nurse will anticipate the administration of which of the following? a. Nitroglycerin (Tridil) b. Sodium nitroprusside (Nipride) c. Drotrecogin alpha (Xigris) d. Norepinephrine (Levophed)
d
4. A nurse is assessing the depth and extent of a client who has severe burns to the face, neck, and upper extremities. Which of the following factors is the first priority when assessing the severity of the burn? a. Age of the client b. Associated medical history c. Location of the burn d. Cause of the burn
d
5. A client arrives at the emergency dept following an explosion at the chemical plant. He has deep partial and full-thickness chemical burns over more than 25 % of his body surface area. What is the nurse's priority intervention? a. Initiate fluid resuscitation b. Medication for pain c. Administer antibiotics d. Maintain a patent airway
d
7. A nurse is assessing a client who has disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC). Which of the following should the nurse expect in the findings? a. Excessive thrombosis and bleeding b. Progressive increase in platelet production c. Immediate sodium and fluid retention d. Increased clotting factors
d
8. A nurse is about to administer warfarin (Coumadin) to a client who has atrial fibrillation. When the client asks what his medication will do, which of the following is an appropriate nursing response? a. It helps convert atrial fibrillation to sinus rhythm b. Is dissolves clots in the bloodstream c. It slows the response of the ventricles to the fast atrial impulses d. It prevents strokes in clients who have atrial fibrillation
d
A nurse is providing discharge teaching to a client who has a new permanent pacemaker. Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching? A. "I should check my heart rate at the same time each day." B. "I don't have to take my antihypertensive medications now that I have a pacemaker." C. "I should keep a pressure dressing over the generator until the incision is healed." D. "I cannot stand in front of our new microwave oven when it is on."
✅ A. "I should check my heart rate at the same time each day." The nurse should instruct the client to check the heart rate at the same time each day and to document the rate in a log for reporting to the provider.
A nurse is assessing a client who has cholecystitis. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect? A. Blumberg's sign B. Ascites C. Gastrointestinal bleeding D. Kehr's sign
✅ A. Blumberg's sign The nurse should expect to find rebound tenderness (Blumberg's sign) in a client who has cholecystitis. This response can be an indication of peritoneal inflammation.
A nurse is examining the ECG of a client who has hyperkalemia. Which of the following ECG changes should the nurse expect? A. Elevated ST segments B. Absent P waves C. Depressed ST segments D. Varying PP intervals
✅ A. Elevated ST segments Elevated ST segments can indicate hyperkalemia and pericarditis.
A nurse is teaching a female client with a new diagnosis of systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) about factors that can trigger an exacerbation of SLE. The nurse should determine that the client requires further teaching if she identifies which of the following as an exacerbation factor? A. Exercise B. Pregnancy C. Infection D. Sunlight
✅ A. Exercise SLE is a chronic autoimmune disease that develops when the immune system becomes hyperactive and attacks healthy body tissue. This attack results in generalized inflammation and creates manifestations associated with the specific involved tissues. Most clients who have SLE can follow an exercise program to increase their cellular aerobic capacity and improve immune function, and the client should follow a program with her provider's assistance. This client needs additional teaching about the importance of exercise to keep her muscles and joints active
A nurse is caring for a client who had a cerebrovascular accident (CVA). The client appears alert and engaged during a visit but does not respond verbally to questions. The nurse should document this as which of the following alterations? A. Expressive aphasia B. Dysarthria C. Receptive aphasia D. Dysphagia
✅ A. Expressive aphasia A client who has expressive aphasia understands speech but has difficulty speaking and writing. This typically occurs as a result of a lesion at Broca's area of the frontal lobe
A nurse is monitoring a newly licensed nurse who is caring for a client. The client has active pulmonary tuberculosis, was placed on airborne precautions, and is scheduled for a chest X-ray. The nurse should instruct the newly licensed nurse to take which of the following actions? A. Have the client wear a surgical mask. B. Wear a gown for protection from the client's infection. C. Ask the radiology staff to perform a portable chest X-ray in the client's room. D. Place an N-95 respirator on the
✅ A. Have the client wear a surgical mask.
A nurse is providing discharge instructions to a client who is postoperative following surgical excision of a basal cell carcinoma. Which of the following findings should the nurse include as an indication of a mole's potential malignancy? A. Ulceration B. Blanching of surrounding skin C. Dimpling D. Fading of color
✅ A. Ulceration Ulceration, bleeding, and exudation are indications of a mole's potential malignancy. Increasing size is also a warning sign. The nurse should emphasize the importance of lifetime follow-up evaluations and the proper techniques for self-examination of the skin every month.
A nurse is assessing for disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC) in a client who has septic shock secondary to an untreated foot wound. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect? (Select all that apply.) A. Bradycardia B. Bleeding at the venipuncture site C. Petechiae on the chest and arms D. Flushed, dry skin E. Abdominal distension
✅ B C E The formation of large amounts of microemboli in the circulation depletes the body's platelets and clotting factors. As a result, uncontrollable bleeding can occur, as manifested by bleeding at the venipuncture site, petechiae on the chest and arms, and bleeding in the abdominal cavity resulting in abdominal distension due to internal bleeding.
A nurse is teaching a client who has persistent cancer pain about the adverse effects of opioids. Which of the following statements should the nurse include in the teaching? A. "Opioids do not relieve pain without causing severe adverse effects." B. "Physical dependence is not the same as addiction." C. "Tolerance typically means that the medication will no longer be effective." D. "The most common adverse effect is respiratory depression with prolonged use."
✅ B. "Physical dependence is not the same as addiction." The nurse should explain that physical dependence can occur in all clients who take opioids, and the client may develop abstinence syndrome if the opioid is abruptly withdrawn. Physical dependence is not the same as addiction, but it can result in addiction. Addiction results when the opioid is continued despite physical or psychological harm.
A nurse is implementing cold therapy for a client who has an ankle sprain. Which of the following actions should the nurse take? A. Apply a cold pack to the edematous area B. Check capillary refill before applying an ice pack to the affected area C. Half-fill an ice pack with crushed ice D. Apply an ice pack for 60 min intervals
✅ B. Check capillary refill before applying an ice pack to the affected area The nurse should check the affected area for adequate circulation by assessing pulses and capillary refill because a cold pack applied to an area of impaired circulation can further decrease the blood supply to the area
A nurse in an emergency department is assessing a client who sustained a fall off of a roof. Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as an indication of a basilar skull fracture? A. Depressed fracture of the forehead B. Clear fluid coming from the nares C. Motor loss on one side of the body D. Bleeding from the top of the scalp
✅ B. Clear fluid coming from the nares Cerebrospinal fluid manifests as a clear fluid coming from the nares or ears, indicating a basilar skull fracture.
A nurse is teaching a client who is postoperative how to use a flow-oriented incentive spirometer. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include? A. Blow into the spirometer to elevate the balls in the device B. Cough deeply after each use C. Clean the mouthpiece with an alcohol swab after each use D. Use the spirometer every 8 hr
✅ B. Cough deeply after each use Proper use of the incentive spirometer loosens secretions in the client's lungs. The client should cough deeply to facilitate the removal of secretions from his lungs.
A nurse is caring for a client who has type 1 diabetes mellitus and a capillary blood glucose reading of 48 mg/dL. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect? A. Kussmaul respirations B. Diaphoresis C. Decreased skin turgor D. Ketonuria
✅ B. Diaphoresis A client who has a blood glucose level below 70 mg/dL will exhibit manifestations of hypoglycemia. Expected findings associated with hypoglycemia include weakness, hunger, diaphoresis, nausea, shakiness, and confusion.
A nurse is preparing an in-service presentation about the management of myocardial infarction (MI). Death following MI is often a result of which of the following complications? A. Cardiogenic shock B. Dysrhythmias C. Heart failure D. Pulmonary edema
✅ B. Dysrhythmias According to evidence-based practice, dysrhythmias (specifically ventricular fibrillation) are the most common cause of death following MI. Therefore, nurses should monitor clients' ECGs carefully for dysrhythmias and report and treat them immediately.
A nurse is caring for a client who is 2 days postoperative. Which of the following findings indicates that the client is developing an infection? A. Temperature 37.8°C (100°F) B. Erythema at the incision site C. WBC count 9,000/mm^3 D. Pain reported as 6 on a scale of 0 to 10
✅ B. Erythema at the incision site Redness at the incision site is an initial sign of a wound infection and requires intervention by the nurse.
A nurse is caring for a client who is taking streptomycin. Which of the following medications increases the client's risk of developing ototoxicity when taken with streptomycin? A. Cefoxitin B. Furosemide C. Naproxen D. Amphotericin B
✅ B. Furosemide Furosemide, a high-ceiling (loop) diuretic, increases the risk of developing ototoxicity when taken with streptomycin, an aminoglycoside.
A nurse is assessing a client who is 12 hr postoperative following an open cholecystectomy. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider? A. Hypoactive bowel sounds B. Indwelling urinary catheter output of 25 mL/hr C. Heart rate of 96/min D. Serous drainage at the surgical incision site
✅ B. Indwelling urinary catheter output of 25 mL/hr The nurse should report a urinary output of <30 mL/hr to the provider, as this can indicate hypovolemia or renal complication.
A nurse is planning care for a client who has thrombocytopenia. Which of the following interventions should the nurse include in the plan of care? A. Restrict fluids to 1,000 mL per day B. Measure the client's abdominal girth daily C. Check IV sites every 4 hr for bleeding D. Administer an enema as needed for constipation
✅ B. Measure the client's abdominal girth daily The nurse should measure the client's abdominal girth daily to monitor for manifestations of internal bleeding. A client who has a reduced platelet count is at risk of bleeding due to delayed clotting.
A nurse is examining the ECG of a client who has frequent premature ventricular contractions (PVCs). Which of the following QRS changes should the nurse expect to see on the client's ECG? A. Narrower than usual QRS complexes B. Much greater amplitude than the usual QRS complexes C. Same polarity as the usual QRS complexes D. Immediate resumption of the usual rhythm
✅ B. Much greater amplitude than the usual QRS complexes The QRS complexes unusually have greater amplitude in height and depth in clients with PVCs.
A nurse is caring for a client who is experiencing autonomic dysreflexia due to a C5 spinal cord injury. After checking the client's vital signs, which of the following actions should the nurse perform next? A. Administer nifedipine B. Place the client in a high-Fowler's position C. Check for urinary retention D. Check for a fecal impaction
✅ B. Place the client in a high-Fowler's position According to evidence-based practice, the nurse should first place the client in a high-Fowler's position to decrease the client's blood pressure and reduce the risk of end-organ damage from the sudden rise in blood pressure.
A nurse is caring for a client who has a percutaneous endoscopic gastrostomy (PEG) tube and is receiving intermittent feedings. Prior to initiating the feeding, which of the following actions should the nurse take first? A. Flush the tube with water B. Place the client in the semi-Fowler's position C. Cleanse the skin around the tube site D. Aspirate the tube for residual contents
✅ B. Place the client in the semi-Fowler's position The nurse should apply the ABC priority-setting framework, which emphasizes the basic core of human functioning: having an open airway, being able to breathe in adequate amounts of oxygen, and circulating oxygen to the body's organs via the blood. An alteration in any of these areas can indicate a threat to life and is the nurse's priority concern. When applying the ABC priority-setting framework, airway is always the highest priority because the airway must be clear for oxygen exchange to occur. Breathing is the second priority because adequate ventilatory effort is essential for oxygen exchange to occur. Circulation is the third priority because the delivery of oxygen to critical organs only occurs if the heart and blood vessels are capable of efficiently carrying oxygen to them.
A nurse is preparing to administer an IM injection for a client. Which of the following factors should the nurse identify as a potential contraindication to administering the medication via the IM route? A. The medication is a depot preparation. B. The client is taking an anticoagulant. C. The medication is a particulate suspension. D. The client has been vomiting
✅ B. The client is taking an anticoagulant. Because of the risk of bleeding from the injection site, anticoagulant therapy (e.g. warfarin) is a contraindication to receiving medications via the IM route
A nurse is caring for a client who has a major burn injury and is experiencing third spacing. Which of the following fluid or electrolyte imbalances should the nurse expect? A. Hypokalemia B. Hypernatremia C. Elevated Hct D. Decreased Hgb
✅ C. Elevated Hct The nurse should expect a client who is experiencing third spacing resulting from a major burn to have an elevated hematocrit level as blood volume is reduced by vascular dehydration.
A nurse is caring for a client who had a left lower lobectomy to treat lung cancer. Which of the following factors will have a significant impact on the plan of care for this client? A. The client will need intensive smoking-cessation education. B. After surgery, the prognosis for clients with lung cancer is usually good. C. Lung cancer usually has metastasized before the client presents with symptoms. D. Oxygen therapy is ineffective following a lobectomy
✅ C. Lung cancer usually has metastasized before the client presents with symptoms. The nurse should be aware that lung cancer is usually at an advanced stage before the client has any manifestations. This has implications for both short-term and long-term care options for the client.
A nurse is caring for a client who has diabetes insipidus. For which of the following findings should the nurse monitor? A. Proteinuria B. Oliguria C. Polyuria D. Glycosuria
✅ C. Polyuria
A nurse is caring for a client with Clostridium difficile who has contact-isolation precautions in place. Which of the following actions should the nurse perform? A. Instruct visitors to maintain a distance of at least 1 m (3 ft) from the client. B . Wash hands with antimicrobial soap after leaving the client's room. C. Use dedicated equipment for the client. D. Keep the doors to the client's room closed at all times.
✅ C. Use dedicated equipment for the client. The nurse should use dedicated equipment that is left in the room for a client who has contact-isolation precautions in place.
A nurse is providing teaching to a client who is scheduled for a sigmoid colon resection with colostomy. Which of the following statements by the client indicates a need for further teaching? A. "Because most of my colon is still intact and functioning, my stool will be formed." B. "My stoma will appear large at first, but it will shrink over the next several weeks." C. "My colostomy will begin to function in 2 to 6 days after surgery." D. "I'll have to consume a soft diet after surgery."
✅ D. "I'll have to consume a soft diet after surgery." The nurse should identify that this statement requires further teaching. After surgery, the client quickly returns to a regular diet, and there are no food restrictions unless the client chooses to decrease the intake of foods that increase gas or odor.
A nurse is completing an assessment for a client who has a history of unstable angina. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect? A. Chest pain is relieved soon after resting. B. Nitroglycerin relieves chest pain. C. Physical exertion does not precipitate chest pain. D. Chest pain lasts for longer than 15 min
✅ D. Chest pain lasts for longer than 15 min. A client who has unstable angina will have chest pain lasting longer than 15 minutes. This is due to reduced blood flow in a coronary artery from atherosclerotic plaque and thrombus formation causing partial arterial obstruction or from an artery spasm.
A nurse is teaching a client who has a new diagnosis of primary open-angle glaucoma (POAG). Which of the following pieces of information should the nurse include in the teaching? (Select all that apply.) A. Lost vision can improve with eye drops. B. Administer eye drops as needed for vision loss. C. Glasses will be necessary to correct the accompanying presbyopia. D. Driving can be dangerous due to the loss of peripheral vision. E. Laser surgery can help reestablish the flow of aqueous humor.
✅ D. Driving can be dangerous due to the loss of peripheral vision.
A nurse is assessing a client who sustained superficial partial-thickness and deep partial-thickness burns 72 hr ago. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider? A. Edema in the burned extremities B. Severe pain at the burn sites C. Urine output of 30 mL/hr D. Temperature of 39.1°C (102.4°F)
✅ D. Temperature of 39.1°C (102.4°F) An elevated temperature is an indication of infection, and the nurse should report this finding to the provider. Sepsis is a critical finding following a major burn injury. Initially, burn wounds are relatively . On approximately the third day following the injury, early colonization of the wound surface by gram-negative organisms changes to predominantly gram-positive opportunistic organisms.
A client is being discharged home with oxygen therapy delivered through a nasal cannula. Which of the following instructions should the nurse provide to the client and family members? A. Use battery-operated equipment for personal care. B. Apply mineral oil to protect the facial skin from irritation. C. Remove the television set from the client's bedroom. D. Wear cotton clothing to avoid static electricity
✅ D. Wear cotton clothing to avoid static electricity. The use of cotton clothing will limit the buildup of static electricity. Oxygen is a highly combustible gas. The use of oxygen in high concentrations has great combustion potential and readily fuels fire. Although it will not spontaneously burn or cause an explosion, it can easily cause a fire in a client's room if it contacts a spark.
A nurse is monitoring the ECG of a client who has hypocalcemia. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect? a. Flattened T waves b. Prolonged QT intervals c. Shortened QT intervals d Widened QRS complexes
✅ b. Prolonged QT intervals Manifestations of hypocalcemia include tingling, numbness, tetany, seizures, prolonged QT intervals, and laryngospasm
A nurse is providing education to a client who is to undergo an EEG the next day. Which of the following info should the nurse include in the teaching? a. "Do not wash your hair the morning of the procedure." b. "Try and stay awake most of the night prior to the procedure." c. "The procedure will take approximately 15 mins." d. "You will need to lie flat for 4 hours after the procedure."
✅ b. "Try and stay awake most of the night prior to the procedure." Tell the client to remain awake to provide cranial stress and increase the possibility of abnormal electrical activity
A nurse is reviewing the lab results of a lumbar puncture for a client who has manifestations of bacterial meningitis. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect? a. Elevated glucose b. Elevated protein c. Presence of RBCs d. Presence of D-dime
✅ b. Elevated protein Manifestations of bacterial meningitis include increase protein in the CSF, decreased glucose. RBCs can indicate bleeding, however, WBCs are what indicates bacterial meningitis
A nurse is preparing a client who has a brain tumor for a CT scan. Which of the following factors affects the manner in which the nurse will prepare the client for the scan? a. No food or fluids consumed for 4 hours b. Difficulty recalling recent events c. Development of hives while eating shrimp d. Paresthesia in both hands
✅ c. Development of hives while eating shrimp Shellfish allergy is contraindication of use of contrast media during a CT scan.
A nurse is caring for a client who has continuous bladder irrigation following a transurethral resection of the prostate (TURP). Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider? a Output equal to the instilled irrigate b. Client reports bladder spasms c. Viscous urinary output with clots d. Reports of strong urge to urinate
✅ c. Viscous urinary output with clots Urine that is bright red with clots is an indication of arterial bleeding.
