KIN 223 - Final Exam

The type of exocrine gland in which the entire cell disintegrates, liberating any accumulated products, is the __________ gland. a. apocrine b. merocrine c. goblet cell d. holocrine e. None of the choices is correct.

holocrine

Classify each of the following characteristics according to the structure (DNA or RNA) it describes.

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Classify the exocrine glands based on their mode of secretion.

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Classify the formulas as being examples of either molecular formulas or structural formulas.

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Classify the muscles of the thigh into their appropriate compartments.

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What type of contraction is represented by each of the following events?

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Classify each description with the appropriate layer of the epidermis.

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Put the organ labels into the correct body cavity category.

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What is the letter associated with the dark bands in a sarcomere? a. I b. A c. Z d. M e. H

A

These receptors detect changes in the color, intensity, and movement of light. a. Photoreceptors b. Chemoreceptors c. Thermoreceptors d. Baroreceptors e. Mechanoreceptors

Photoreceptors

ligamentum teres a. glenohumeral joint b. coxal joint

coxal joint

Neurolemmocytes produce myelin in the _____ nervous system. a. central b. peripheral

peripheral

Correctly label the following anatomical parts of a flat bone.

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Correctly label the following areas on a slide of areolar connective tissue.

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Correctly label the following areas on a slide of nervous tissue.

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Correctly label the following areas on a slide of simple columnar epithelium.

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Correctly label the following functional regions of the cerebral cortex.

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Correctly label the following meninges and associated structures.

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Which is false about synovial joints? a. Synovial fluid is secreted by the synovial membrane. b. Synovial joints are enclosed by fibrous articular capsules. c. All articulating bone surfaces are covered with articular cartilage. d. Ligaments strengthen and reinforce joints. e. Blood circulates within the joint cavity to nourish the articular cartilage.

Blood circulates within the joint cavity to nourish the articular cartilage.

What type of muscle contains intercalated discs? a. Smooth b. Skeletal c. Cardiac

Cardiac

Which of the five cerebral lobes is the one not visible on the surface of the brain? a. Frontal b. Occipital c. Parietal d. Insula e. Temporal

Insula

Which of the five cerebral lobes is the one not visible on the surface of the brain? a. Insula b. Frontal c. Parietal d. Occipital e. Temporal

Insula

Which system is responsible for providing protection, regulating body temperature, and being the site of cutaneous receptors? a. Urinary b. Muscular c. Respiratory d. Integumentary e. Nervous

Integumentary

Which functional class of neurons lies entirely within the central nervous system? a. Motor neurons b. Bipolar neurons c. Interneurons d. Unipolar neurons e. Sensory neurons

Interneurons

Which of the following is not a type of hair? a. Lanugo b. Vellus c. Keratin d. Terminal e. All of these choices are correct.

Keratin

What type of epithelium is found in the epidermis? a. Transitional b. Nonkeratinized stratified squamous c. Keratinized stratified cuboidal d. Nonkeratinized stratitified cuboidal e. Keratinized stratified squamous

Keratinized stratified squamous

The spinal nerves that give rise to the sacral plexus are a. S4-C2. b. T11-Co1. c. L4-S4. d. L2-S1.

L4-S4.

Which of the following choices describes three general functions cells must perform? a. Grow until dividing, store complex carbohydrates, generate antibodies b. Take up oxygen, prevent water entry, undergo mitosis frequently c. Maintain shape, obtain nutrients, and dispose of wastes d. Respond to all hormones, maintain a waterproof barrier, give rise to gametes

Maintain shape, obtain nutrients, and dispose of wastes

Which of the following is not an example of homeostasis? a. Maintaining body temperature by putting on a hoodie b. Maintaining blood glucose levels by releasing insulin c. Maintaining body temperature by sweating d. Maintaining blood pH by hyperventilating

Maintaining body temperature by putting on a hoodie

This figure shows a lateral view of the muscles of facial expression. What muscle does number 1 indicate? a. Temporalis b. Masseter c. Buccinator d. Sternocleidomastoid e. Platysma

Masseter

All of these muscles, except one, have their proximal attachment on the scapula. Select the exception. a. Pectoralis major b. Infraspinatus c. Triceps brachii d. Subscapularis e. Coracobrachialis

Pectoralis major

has complete capsule around joint a. glenohumeral joint b. coxal joint

coxal joint

has deep bony socket a. glenohumeral joint b. coxal joint

coxal joint

has intracarpsular ligaments for reinforcement a. glenohumeral joint b. coxal joint

coxal joint

Fructose and galactose are isomers of a. glucose. b. sucrose. c. lactose. d. maltose.

glucose

Fructose and galactose are isomers of a. maltose. b. sucrose. c. glucose. d. lactose.

glucose.

While a runner is in a marathon, his or her liver will have to free some stored energy to keep blood sugar levels adequate; the liver will liberate this energy by way of a process called a. dehydration synthesis b. glycogensis c. dialysis d. polysaccharide synthesis e. glycogenolysis

glycogenolysis

Radioisotopes are unstable because they contain an excess number of a. neutrons. b. protons. c. electrons. d. electron shells.

neutrons

The contractile unit of a myofibril is called the a. sarcoplasm. b. sarcomere. c. M line. d. sarcolemma. e. sarcoplasmic reticulum.

sarcomere.

Our calf muscles contract to cause plantar flexion, resembling the lever system of a wheelbarrow. Therefore, it is a _______ -class lever. a. first b. third c. second

second

The cervical and lumbar curvatures are ________ curves, and they arch ________. a. primary; posteriorly b. secondary; posteriorly c. primary; anteriorly d. secondary; anteriorly

secondary; anteriorly

The primary role of epithelial tissue in the stomach is a. regulation of contraction. b. housing blood vessels and nerves. c. secretion of substances for chemical digestion. d. mixing and propulsion of foodstuffs.

secretion of substances for chemical digestion.

The most numerous type of receptor in the body is the a. nociceptor. b. chemoreceptor. c. photoreceptor. d. tactile receptor. e. thermoreceptor.

tactile receptor.

The primary gustatory cortex processes information about ________ and is located in the ______. a. taste, frontal lobe b. sound, cerebellum c. taste, insula d. smell, parietal lobe e. smell, temporal lobe

taste, insula

Select the way in which sweat glands function in homeostasis. a. Temperature regulation b. Sensory perception c. Protection d. Production of vitamin D3

temperature regulation

Parathyroid hormone and calcitriol a. stimulate osteoclasts to move calcium from the blood and into the bone. b. stimulate osteoclasts to resorb bone and release calcium into the blood. c. stimulate osteoblasts to deposit bone by producing calcified matrix. d. stimulate osteoblasts to resorb bone and lower blood calcium levels.

stimulate osteoclasts to resorb bone and release calcium into the blood.

The middle and inner ear are housed within the _____ bone. a. maxillary b. occipital c. sphenoid d. frontal e. temporal

temporal

The anatomic term for the calf is a. popliteal. b. tarsal. c. sural. d. carpal. e. crural.

sural

The narrow space that separates the motor neuron and the skeletal muscle fiber in a neuromuscular junction is called the a. synaptic knob. b. synaptic vesicle. c. motor end plate. d. synaptic cleft.

synaptic cleft.

Functionally, a gomphosis is categorized as a a. diarthrosis. b. synovial joint. c. cartilagenous joint. d. synarthrosis.

synarthrosis.

The interosseous membrane between the radius and the ulna is an example of a a. syndesmosis. b. suture. c. synchondrosis. d. synostosis. e. synarthrosis.

syndesmosis.

The type of membrane that lines many of the body's joints is a _________ membrane. a. metastatic b. cutaneous c. synovial d. serous e. mucous

synovial

An articular capsule is present in a. fibrous joints. b. all joints. c. synovial joints. d. fibrous joints and cartilaginous joints. e. fibrous joints and synovial joints.

synovial joints.

At the ends of muscles, the connective tissues merge to form a __________, which attaches the muscle to other structures. a. ligament b. sheath c. superficial fascia d. tendon

tendon

The smallest structural unit that exhibits the characteristics of living things is a. a system. b. an individual. c. a cell. d. an organ. e. tissue.

a cell.

The frontal belly of the occipitofrontalis muscle causes what action? a. Sneering b. Frowning c. Smiling d. Wrinkling the brow (forehead) e. Flaring the nostrils

Wrinkling the brow (forehead)

Cranial nerve ____ innervates structures in the head, neck, and the thoracic and abdominal cavities. a. V (trigeminal) b. X (vagus) c. XII (hypoglossal) d. III (oculomotor)

X (vagus)

A technician is asked to make up a solution of physiological saline and is told that it should be a 0.9% NaCl solution using the mass/volume percent measurement of concentration. If the technician is making 100 milliliters of solution, how much NaCl should be included? 0.9 grams 90 grams 9 grams 9 micrograms 9 kilograms

0.9 grams

Which bone bears the mandibular fossa? a. Mandible b. Zygomatic c. Maxilla d. Temporal e. Frontal

Temporal

Which bone is not a facial bone? a. Temporal b. Maxilla c. Zygomatic d. Mandible e. Nasal

Temporal

Which of the following is not one of the rotator cuff muscles? a. Supraspinatus b. Teres major c. Infraspinatus d. Teres minor e. Subscapularis

Teres major

How would an anatomist describe the bladder? a. The main function of the bladder is to store urine. b. The muscular wall of the bladder contracts to help void urine. c. The bladder wall contains a transitional epithelium and several layers of smooth muscle. d. The internal folds and transitional epithelium allow the bladder to stretch without risking rupture of its wall.

The bladder wall contains a transitional epithelium and several layers of smooth muscle.

Which of the following statements accurately describes electrons? a. They are found inside the nucleus and have a negative charge. b. They are in orbitals outside the nucleus and have a negative charge. c. They are found inside the nucleus and have a positive charge. d. They are in orbitals outside the nucleus and have a positive charge.

They are in orbitals outside the nucleus and have a negative charge.

What do all glial cells have in common? a. They absorb extra blood and cerebrospinal fluid. b. They all attack pathogens. c. They transfer blood to the various neurons. d. They help to transmit the nerve signals. e. They assist neurons in their respective functions.

They assist neurons in their respective functions.

Which statement accurately describes the articulations between ribs and vertebrae? a. Two cervical, two lumbar and eight thoracic vertebrae articulate with the ribs. b. Two lumbar and ten thoracic vertebrae articulate with the ribs. c. Twelve thoracic vertebrae articulate with the ribs. d. Three of the cervical and ten of the thoracic vertebrae articulate with ribs. e. Nine thoracic and three lumbar vertebrae articulate with the ribs.

Twelve thoracic vertebrae articulate with the ribs.

The head of the femur articulates with the a. auricular surface. b. ischial spine. c. tibial tuberosity. d. acetabulum.

acetabulum

To neutralize a base, a(n) ________ must be added. a. hydroxide ion b. acid c. buffer d. weak base

acid

This initial energy is called the energy of ____. a. energy b. activation c. production d. result e. lower f. catalyst g. increase h. chemicals

activation

To maintain a resting membrane potential, the sodium-potassium pump a. passively transports 3 potassium ions out of the cell and 2 sodium ions into the cell. b. actively transports 3 sodium ions out of the cell and 2 potassium ions into the cell. c. actively transports 3 potassium ions out of the cell and 2 sodium ions into the cell. d. passively transports 3 sodium ions out of the cell and 2 potassium ions into the cell.

actively transports 3 sodium ions out of the cell and 2 potassium ions into the cell.

ATP is a nucleotide that is composed of a. adipose, thymine, and three phosphate groups linked by ionic bonds. b. adenine, ribose, and three covalently bonded phosphate groups. c. adenosine, deoxyribose, and three phosphorous atoms. d. adenine, thymine, and three covalently bonded phosphate groups. e. arginine, thymidine and three phosphorous atoms.

adenine, ribose, and three covalently bonded phosphate groups.

The presence of mitochondria and myoglobin facilitate _________ respiration in muscle cells. a. aerobic b. anaerobic

aerobic

Pain receptors in the skin send signals to the CNS for processing. These pain receptors are an example of ____________ neurons. a. multipolar b. efferent c. afferent d. association

afferent

Saturation occurs when a. enzymes become fatigued and can no longer catalyze changes in the substrate. b. all enzymes are busy and further increases in substrate concentration will not increase reaction rate. c. there is so much enzyme present that the reaction rate decreases if more is added. d. the substrate is denatured and the enzyme cannot catalyze any changes in its structure. e. intramolecular interactions are disrupted in the enzyme, decreasing its efficiency and decreasing reaction rate.

all enzymes are busy and further increases in substrate concentration will not increase reaction rate.

The term "metabolism" refers to a. digestive system reactions that are either catabolic or exchange reactions. b. reactions involving the breakdown of complex molecules into simpler ones. c. reactions involving the synthesis of complex molecules from simpler ones. d. all the chemical reactions in the body. e. reactions involving the breakdown of complex molecules or the exchange of atoms between similarly sized reactants.

all the chemical reactions in the body.

The organelles responsible for organizing microtubules that are part of the mitotic spindle are called a. nucleoli b. centrioles c. microvilli d. cilia e. vesicles

centrioles

Lobes of the brain are named for the bones that protect them, and these lobes are part of the a. metencephalon. b. diencephalon. c. cerebellum. d. cerebrum.

cerebrum.

The location of conscious thought processes and the origin of all complex intellectual functions is the a. corpus callosum. b. cerebrum. c. hypothalamus. d. cerebellum. e. pons.

cerebrum.

The plexuses that lie on either side of the neck are the _____ plexuses. a. branchial b. radial c. cervical d. mandibular e. lumbar

cervical

The spinal cord part with the largest diameter is the ___________ part. a. lumbar b. cervical c. thoracic d. coccygeal e. sacral

cervical

Transverse foramina are found in _____ vertebrae. a. thoracic b. lumbar c. cervical d. sacral e. all

cervical

The breaking of old chemical bonds and forming of new ones is called a a. chemical reaction. b. reactant. c. chemical substrate. d. product.

chemical reaction.

The lipid that stabilizes the membrane at extreme temperatures and is found in the hydrophobic regions of the bilayer is a. cholesterol. b. the polar head. c. glycolipid. d. glycocalyx. e. the nonpolar tails.

cholesterol

Cerebrospinal fluid is formed by the a. choroid plexus. b. septum pellucidum. c. mesencephalic aqueduct. d. arachnoid villi. e. arachnoid granulation.

choroid plexus.

Mucus is moved along the lining of the trachea by extensions from cell membranes known as a. microvilli. b. cilia. c. stereovilli. d. flagella.

cilia.

Laterally bracing the lateral femoral condyle to the fibular head, the ___ resists lateral separation of the knee due to medially applied loads. a. tibial collateral ligament b. menisci c. transverse ligament d. patellar ligament e. fibular collateral ligament f. PCL g. tibiofibular h. ACL i. tibiofemoral joint

collateral ligament

Blood plasma contains water mixed with proteins. Therefore, it is considered a a. solution b. suspension c. colloid

colloid

The shaft of a long bone is called the __________, while the expanded, knobby region at each end is called the __________. a. metaphysis; epiphyseal line. b. proximal epiphysis; distal epiphysis. c. diaphysis; metaphysis. d. diaphysis; epiphysis.

diaphysis; epiphysis.

Movement of a substance from an area of higher concentration to one where it is less concentrated is known as a. facilitation. b. equilibrium. c. active transport. d. selective transport. e. diffusion.

diffusion

Movement of a substance from an area of higher concentration to one where it is less concentrated is known as a. facilitation. b. equilibrium. c. diffusion. d. selective transport. e. active transport.

diffusion.

When a strong acid is placed in water, it a. dissolves and dissociates. b. dissolves but does not dissociate. c. does not dissolve or dissociate. d. dissociates, but does not dissolve.

dissolves and dissociates.

The knobby region of a long bone at the end that is farthest from the trunk is the a. proximal epiphysis. b. distal epiphysis. c. superior diaphysis d. distal diaphysis.

distal epiphysis.

The type of neuronal circuit that spreads information from one presynaptic neuron to several postsynaptic neurons is a _____________ circuit. a. converging b. diverging c. reverberating d. parallel-after-discharge e. None of the choices is correct.

diverging

When a muscle is isometrically contracted, its length _______ change. a. does b. does not

does not

The uptake of material through the plasma membrane by the formation of a vesicle is _______, whereas the fusion of a vesicle with the plasma membrane and the release of its contents outside of the cell is called __________. a. endocytosis; exocytosis b. endocytosis; pinocytosis c. pinocytosis; endocytosis d. exocytosis; pinocytosis

endocytosis; exocytosis

Every reaction has a certain amount of ____ needed to begin. a. energy b. activation c. production d. result e. lower f. catalyst g. increase h. chemicals

energy

Nails are a scalelike modification of the stratum corneum layer of the ___. a. epidermis b. stratum corneum c. dermis d. dorsal e. ventral

epidermis

The secondary ossification center in a long bone is located in the a. diaphysis. b. periosteum. c. metaphysis. e. epiphysis.

epiphysis.

Reactions that release energy are called a. endergonic reactions. b. exergonic reactions. c. endothermic reactions. d. exothermic reactions.

exergonic reactions.

If a gland secretes its products through a duct to the surface of the small intestine epithelium, it must be an a. endocrine glands. b. exocrine glands.

exocrine gland.

The function of the biceps femoris is to a. flex the thigh and extend the leg. b. adduct the thigh and extend the knee. c. flex the hip and ankle. d. extend the thigh and flex the leg. e. flex the thigh (with no action at the leg).

extend the thigh and flex the leg.

When the left and right splenius capitis contract together, the resulting movement is a. flexion of the neck. b. extension of the neck. c. wrinkling of the brow. d. pulling of the scalp anteriorly. e. elevation of the larynx.

extension of the neck.

After being funneled by the auricle, sound waves pass (in sequence) through the a. external acoustic meatus, oval window, ossicles, and cochlea. b. internal acoustic meatus, tympanic membrane, ossicles, and round window. c. external acoustic meatus, tympanic membrane, ossicles, and oval window. d. internal acoustic meatus, tympanic membrane, oval window, and ossicles. e. external acoustic meatus, tympanic membrane, internal acoustic meatus, and oval window.

external acoustic meatus, tympanic membrane, ossicles, and oval window.

Channel-mediated diffusion is a subtype of a. simple diffusion. b. facilitated diffusion. c. active transport. d. carrier-mediated diffusion. e. endocytosis.

facilitated diffusion.

The movement of glucose across a plasma membrane is achieved by a. ion pumps. b. facilitated diffusion. c. receptor-mediated exocytosis. d. phagocytosis. e. osmosis.

facilitated diffusion.

When a cell surrounds a large particle with pseudopodia and then engulfs it, the process is called a. phagocytosis. b. exocytosis. c. secondary active transport. d. pinocytosis. e. receptor-mediated endopinocytosis.

phagocytosis

An example of an amphipathic molecule is a _____molecule. a. glucose b. polar c. phospholipid d. only polar e. polar and nonpolar

phospholipid

The word _____ implies an imaginary flat surface passing through the body. a. figure b. tangent c. section d. direction e. plane

plane

Calcaneal is to heel as _____ is to sole of the foot. a. plantar b. dorsum c. crural d. palmar

plantar

Forms the outer barrier of the cell a. cytoplasm b. plasma membrane c. nucleus

plasma membrane

The _______ is responsible for forming the outer, limiting barrier of a cell. a. mitochondrion b. ribosome c. peroxisome d. centrosome e. plasma membrane

plasma membrane

The fluid-filled area between the pleural layers is the pleural cavity. a. parietal pleura. b. thoracic pleura. c. visceral pleura. d. intrapleural fluid.

pleural cavity

The ____ region of an amphipathic molecule is attracted to water. a. glucose b. polar c. phospholipid d. only polar e. polar and nonpolar

polar

Amphipathic molecules contain ______ components. a. glucose b. polar c. phospholipid d. only polar e. polar and nonpolar

polar and nonpolar

For every atom of carbon in a carbohydrate a. there are approximately three atoms of hydrogen. b. there are approximately two atoms of hydrogen. c. there are approximately four atoms of hydrogen d. there is approximately one atom of hydrogen.

there are approximately two atoms of hydrogen.

Certain odors can initiate behavioral and emotional reactions because a. there are widespread olfactory associations within the hypothalamus and limbic system. b. olfactory sensations are interpreted at the prefrontal cortex. c. the olfactory pathway is connected directly to the medulla oblongata. d. the olfactory pathway is connected directly to the occipital lobe. e. the sense of olfaction occurs immediately at the olfactory epithelium.

there are widespread olfactory associations within the hypothalamus and limbic system.

Compared to a young adult, an older individual has ________ skin. a. thinner b. thicker

thinner

The _____ pericardium forms the heart's external surface. a. visceral b. parietal c. pleural d. peritoneal

visceral

The heart is confined within a double-walled serous membrane sac. The part of the membrane that is in contact with the heart is the _____ layer. a. visceral b. serous c. synovial d. parietal e. mesothelial

visceral

Action potentials are generated by the opening of ________ gated channels and they occur on the ________. a. chemically, dendrite b. voltage-, dendrite c. chemically, axon d. voltage-, axon

voltage-, axon

Osmosis is the diffusion of a. solutes within the inside of a cell. b. water across a membrane. c. solutes across a membrane. d. water within the inside of a cell.

water across a membrane.

An individual hydrogen bond in a sample of water would be described as a. strong and intramolecular. b. weak and intermolecular. c. strong and intermolecular. d. weak and intramolecular.

weak and intermolecular.

The large surface area of the inside of the small intestine means that this structure is a. anatomically complex but physiologically simple. b. well adapted for its physiological role in absorption. c. derived from an embryological structure that served a different function. d. maladaptive in that it harbors bacteria.

well adapted for its physiological role in absorption.

An inhibitory postsynaptic potential (IPSP) a. will cause the postsynaptic membrane potential to become more positive. b. may result from positively charged ions entering the postsynaptic cell. c. is the result of voltage-gated sodium channels opening on the postsynaptic membrane. d. will make it more difficult for the postsynpatic neuron to reach threshold.

will make it more difficult for the postsynpatic neuron to reach threshold.

Typically, the resting membrane potential of a neuron is a. −7 V. b. 700 mV. c. 0 mV. d. 7 V. e. −70 mV.

−70 mV.

Assign each characteristic to the appropriate type of muscle fiber.

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Classify the following images of bone into the correct category they represent.

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Classify the situations into the correct boxes according to whether they would result in constriction of the dermal blood vessels (vasoconstriction) or dilation of the dermal blood vessels (vasodilation).

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Classify the type of pennate muscle with its description. Not all labels will be used.

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Compare and contrast DNA and RNA by indicating which statement applies to which molecule.

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Correctly identify and label the dermatome(s) represented by the statement(s) associated with them.

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Correctly identify the following anatomical parts of the temporomandibular joint.

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Correctly label the following anatomical features of the neuroglia.

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Identify the cerebral lobes on the left side of the figure. Label the additional cerebral structures on the right side of the figure.

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Identify the components of the brainstem.

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Identify the components of the plasma membrane.

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Identify the facial bones in the figure. Not all labels will be used.

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Identify the functional classification of the neurons in the figure, based on the direction the nerve impulse is traveling relative to the CNS.

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Indicate whether the given structure is located in the outer, middle, or inner ear.

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Indicate which type of contraction each figure represents.

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Label each type of intercellular junction.

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Label the body cavities in the figure

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Label the body parts with the proper regional term. Not all labels will be used.

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Label the body parts with the proper regional terms. Not all labels will be used.

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Label the bone markings on the pelvis.

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Label the bones of the pelvis.

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Label the cellular respiration overview figure using the terms provided.

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Label the components of skeletal muscle.

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Label the different types of cartilaginous joint and their respective structures.

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Label the different types of neuronal pools in the figure.

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Label the erector spinae muscle groups in the figure.

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Label the figure below to assess your knowledge of the action of enzymes in biological cells.

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Label the figure with the items provided.

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Label the figure with the items provided. Labels may be used more than once.

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Label the image using the correct directional terms.

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Label the muscles in a lateral view of the leg.

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Label the muscles of mastication in the figure.

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Label the olfactory receptors and pathways.

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Label the skeletal system components in the figure with the terms provided.

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Label the spinal cord meninges and spaces.

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Label the structures of a nerve.

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Label the structures of the integument.

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Label the structures of the middle ear.

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Label the structures of the shoulder (glenohumeral) joint.

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Label the structures of the spinal cord.

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Label the sutures in the figure. Not every label will be used.

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Label the type of tactile receptors in the image.

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Match the anatomic body plane with its description.

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Match the part of a long bone with its description.

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Name the level of organization in the human body that each figure represents.

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Place each component of a muscle name into the appropriate category.

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Place each of the terms or statements in the proper category to identify the proper stage of mitosis.

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Place the events that occur during wound healing into the correct order, using the images as a guide.

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Place the following terms or examples with the correct category.

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Place the following terms or examples within the correct category.

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This figure shows the knee joint. Which number indicates the tibial collateral ligament? a. 6 b. 5 c. 3 d. 1 e. 2

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One turn of the citric acid cycle results in the formation of a. 2 ATP, 2 NADH+, and 3 FADH. b. 2 citrates, 4 ATP, and 3 FADH2. c. 1 ATP, 3 NADH, and 1 FADH2. d. 2 pyruvates and 2 ATP.

1 ATP, 3 NADH, and 1 FADH2.

Match these cells and fibers found in connective tissues to their functions 1. Fibers that are flexible but resist stretching: _________ 2. Fibers that branch to form a supporting network: __________ 3. Fibers that can recoil to their original shape: ___________

1. Collagen fibers 2. Reticular fibers 3. Elastic fibers

Match the description of the vertebrae with their associated region. Cervical vertebrae: ______________________ Thoracic vertebrae: ______________________ Lumbar vertebrae: ________________________

1. Contain transverse foramina 2. Costal facets articulate ribs 3. Largest vertebrae

Explore the properties of matter and elements by completing each sentence. Not all terms will be used. 1. An atom is the smallest particle that exhibits the chemical properties of a(n) _______. 2. Element are arranged by ___________ in consecutive rows in the periodic table. 3. The atomic number of an element reflects the number of _________ in each atom of that element. 4. The _____________ of an element reflects the number of protons and neutrons in each atom of that element, and it reflects the heaviness of that element's atoms. 5. Any object that takes up space and has mass in considered to be _______.

1. Element 2. Atomic number 3. Protons 4. Average atomic mass 5. Matter

Match the type of reflex with its description. 1. The simplest reflex; muscles contract in response to a stretch: 2. Prevents contracting muscles from applying tension to tendons: 3. Removes a body part from a painful stimulus 4. Response to a withdrawal reflex; causes extension of the opposite limb:

1. Stretch reflex 2. Golgi tendon reflex 3. Withdrawal reflex 4. Crossed-extensor reflex

Match the selected cranial nerves with their function. 1. Conducts impulses for equilibrium and hearing: 2. Vision: 3. Innervates visceral smooth muscle and cardiac muscle: 4. Innervates pharynx & secretion of parotid salivary gland: 5. Innervates muscles of mastication: 6. Innervates intrinsic and extrinsic tongue muscles: 7. Innervates the facial muscles:

1. Vestibulocochlear nerve 2. Optic nerve 3. Vagus nerve 4. Glossopharyngeal 5. Trigeminal nerve 6. Hypoglossal nerve 7. Facial nerve

Click and drag the correct terms to complete the following sentences. 1. Molecules are broken down in _______ reactions. 2. Molecules are synthesized in _____ reactions. 3. Anabolic reactions _________ energy input. 4. Catabolic reactions _____ energy when bonds are broken.

1. catabolic 2. anabolic 3. require 4. release

Complete each sentence by dragging the proper word or phrase into the appropriate position. Not all terms will be used. 1. The _____________ or shoulder joint, sacrifices stability for mobility and therefore requires active stabilization from muscles and passive stabilization from ligamentous structures. 2. Lining the rim of the glenoid fossa is a ring of fibrocartilage called the ____________, which serves to deepen the extremely shallow articulating surface of the glenoid. 3. A major dynamic stabilizer of anterior displacement of the humerus is the ______________, which lies in the intertubercular groove and attaches to the superior aspect of the glenoid rim. 4. The four muscles of the ______________ all originate on the scapula and produce forces that keep the humeral head in contact with the glenoid during movements powered by the larger musculature (e.g., latissimus dorsi, deltoid, pectoralis major) crossing the joint. 5. Spanning the intertubercular groove of the proximal humerus, the ________________ ligament works to keep the biceps tendon in place during contractions of the biceps muscle.

1. glenohumeral 2. glenoid labrum 3. biceps brachii tendon 4. rotator cuff 5. transverse humeral

Insert the words into the correct sentences regarding the relationship of DNA, chromatin, and genes. 1. DNA is a nucleic acid biomolecule composed of __________. 2. Within the structure of DNA, adenine pairs with __________ and guanine pairs with _________. 3. When a cell is not dividing, DNA and its associated proteins are in the form of _________. 4. If using a microscope during cell division, we can see tightly coiled __________.

1. nucleotides 2. thymine, cytosine 3. chromatin 4. chromosomes

Complete each of the sentences with the correct word or words regarding the function and structure of nails. Not all terms will be used. 1. Nails are a scalelike modification of the _____ layer of the ______. 2. Nails form on the _____ edges of the fingers and the toes. 3. Fingernails __ protect the digits from damage.

1. stratum corneum; epidermis 2. dorsal 3. do

Test your understanding of the dissociation of water molecules by completing each sentence. Not all terms will be used. 1. A molecule of ______ consists of one oxygen atom and two hydrogen atoms. 2. When water breaks apart, it releases positively charged _________ ions and negatively charged _______ ions. 3. Water dissociates into an equal number of hydrogen and hydroxide ions, which creates a _______ pH value.

1. water 2. hydrogen; hydroxide 3. neutral

Place the correct word into each sentence about the flow of energy in living things. Not all terms will be used. 1. Energy is the capacity to do _______. Energy comes in two forms: kinetic and potential energy. 2. Kinetic energy is the energy of _______. 3. Potential energy is _________ energy. 4. Plants convert solar energy to _________ energy (a potential energy source). 5. Chemical energy is used to do work in cells because the bonds in molecules contain _________ energy. 6. Eventually, all solar energy absorbed by plants dissipates as _________

1. work 2. motion 3. stored 4. chemical 5. potential 6. heat

A pollex has ______ phalanges. a. 3 b. 10 c. 2 d. 14 e. 7

2

In a water molecule, each oxygen can form up to _____ hydrogen bonds with other water molecules. a. 4 b. 2 c. 5 d. 3

2

What is the net number of ATP molecules that can be produced from the oxidation of a glucose molecule under anaerobic conditions? a. 4 b. 32 c. 2 d. 36

2

How many osmoles are in a solution of 1M NaOH? a. 2 osm b. 1 osm c. 3 osm d. 4 osm

2 osm

How many osmoles are in a solution of 1M NaOH? a. 2 osm b. 4 osm c. 1 osm d. 3 osm

2 osm

During electron transport, how many ATP can be generated from the energy contributed by a molecule of NADH? a. 1 b. 36 c. 30 d. 3 e. 2

3

How many ATP are produced using the energy from each NADH? a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d. 4

3

This figure shows the knee joint. Which number indicates the tibial collateral ligament? a. 3 b. 2 c. 6 d. 1 e. 5

3

How many osmoles are present in a solution of 1 M MgCl2? a. 3 osm b. 1 osm c. 2 osm d. 4 osm

3 osm

The optimal pH range for most human enzymes is a. 8-10. b. 1-2. c. 13-14. d. 4-6. e. 6-8.

6-8.

The skull consists of _____ cranial bones and _____ facial bones. a. 5, 7 b. 8, 14 c. 7, 12 d. 9, 11 e. 10, 12

8, 14

The stomach acid that enters the small intestine must be neutralized for digestion to continue properly. What will accomplish this and how will the pH change? a. An acid; pH will decrease b. An acid; pH will increase c. A base; pH will decrease d. A base; pH will increase

A base; pH will increase

What is a retinaculum? a. A thickened fibrous band of fascia b. A flat band of muscle c. A wide aponeurosis d. A sliding tendon e. An area where several muscles converge

A thickened fibrous band of fascia

If the sequence of DNA nucleotides being read is TTACTG, then transcription results in the formation of the sequence a. TTACTG. b. GTCATT. c. AAUGAC. d. TTUGUC. e. AAAGGG.

AAUGAC

Running medially and anteriorly from the lateral condyle of the femur, the ___ attaches to the tibia anteriorly to the intercondylar eminence. a. tibial collateral ligament b. menisci c. transverse ligament d. patellar ligament e. fibular collateral ligament f. PCL g. tibiofibular h. ACL i. tibiofemoral joint

ACL

Three molecules that are important energy storage locations in the body are a. ATP, glycogen, and triglyceride. b. ADP, DNA, and mRNA. c. glucose, glucagon, and glycogen. d. DNA, tRNA, and rRNA. e. glucagon, insulin, and protein.

ATP, glycogen, and triglyceride.

Which occurs first? a. Absolute refractory period b. Relative refractory period

Absolute refractory period

If you severely injured your adductor pollicis, which movement might be affected? a. Adduction of the wrist b. Adduction of fingers 2-5 c. Adduction of the pinky finger (finger 5) d. Adduction of the thumb

Adduction of the thumb

What type of stimulus is detected by the sensory receptors of the skin? a. Heat b. Cold c. Pressure d. Vibration e. All of the choices are correct.

All of the choices are correct.

Which affects osteoblast and osteoclast activity? a. Gravity b. Mechanical stress c. Calcitonin and parathyroid hormone levels d. Blood calcium level e. All of the choices are correct.

All of the choices are correct.

Which may occur as a result of muscle atrophy? a. Reduction in muscle size b. Fibers become weaker c. Muscle loses tone d. Fibers waste away and die e. All of the choices are correct.

All of the choices are correct.

Which of the following factors influence cell membrane permeability? a. Phospholipid composition of the membrane b. Ionic charge along the membrane c. Presence or absence of transport proteins d. Molecule size e. All of the choices are correct.

All of the choices are correct.

Which statement accurately describes the effects of substrate and enzyme concentrations on reaction rate? a. An increase in either substrate or enzyme concentration will decrease the reaction rate. b. An increase in substrate concentration or a decrease in enzyme concentration will increase the reaction rate. c. An increase in substrate concentration increases the reaction rate, but enzyme concentration has no effect. d. An increase in either substrate or enzyme concentration will increase the reaction rate. e. A decrease in substrate concentration or an increase in enzyme concentration increases the reaction rate.

An increase in either substrate or enzyme concentration will increase the reaction rate.

What is the composition of the subcutaneous layer? a. Areolar connective tissue and dense irregular connective tissue b. Areolar connective tissue c. Dense irregular connective tissue d. Adipose connective tissue e. Areolar connective tissue and adipose connective tissue

Areolar connective tissue and adipose connective tissue

What is the most abundant glial cell in the CNS? a. Astrocyte b. Oligodendrocyte c. Ependymal cell d. Microglial cell e. Neurolemmocyte

Astrocyte

Where would you find olfactory hairs? a. Scattered among the lamina propria b. Buried within the olfactory glands c. At the apical surface of olfactory neurons d. At the surface of supporting cells e. Concentrated along basal cells

At the apical surface of olfactory neurons

What is the function of the nuchal lines? a. Attachment for dura mater b. Passageway for jugular vein c. Attachment for muscles and ligaments d. Grooves for dural sinuses e. Passageway for cranial nerves

Attachment for muscles and ligaments

Which joint is multiaxial? a. Condylar b. Hinge c. Plane d. Pivot e. Ball and socket

Ball and socket

From deep to superficial, the order of the strata of the epidermis is a. Corneum - granulosum - lucidum - spinosum - basale b. Basale - granulosum - spinosum - lucidum - corneum c. Corneum - lucidum - granulosum - spinosum - basale d. Spinosum - granulosum - basale - lucidum - corneum e. Basale - spinosum - granulosum - lucidum - corneum

Basale - spinosum - granulosum - lucidum - corneum

Besides the supinator, which other muscle is a powerful supinator of the forearm? a. Biceps brachii b. Pronator quadratus c. Triceps brachii d. Pronator teres e. Brachialis

Biceps brachii

There are five basic taste sensations. Select the one mismatched with its stimulating agent. a. Salty; metal ions such as potassium or sodium b. Bitter; acids such as those in toxins or poisons c. Sour; hydrogen ions from acids such as those in lemons d. Umami; amino acids such as glutamate or aspartate found in chicken soup e. Sweet; organic compounds such as sugar

Bitter; acids such as those in toxins or poisons

Which cervical vertebra is also known as the vertebra prominens? a. C7 b. C1 c. C2 d. C5 e. C4

C7

As you are reading these words on the screen, what part of your brain is allowing you to perform the complex, conscious intellectual task of reading and comprehension? a. Cerebellum b. Diencephalon c. Mesencephalon d. Cerebrum

Cerebrum

These receptors detect specific molecules in our external and internal environments. a. Mechanoreceptors b. Chemoreceptors c. Photoreceptors d. Baroreceptors e. Thermoreceptors

Chemoreceptors

Which of the following is not a component of the cytoplasm? a. Cytosol b. Chromatin c. Inclusions d. Organelles

Chromatin

Ligaments are very strong but resistant to stretch. Which protein fiber probably predominates? a. Elastic b. Adipose c. Collagen d. Reticular

Collagen

What gives bone its flexibility? a. Trabeculae b. Elastic fibers c. Yellow bone marrow d. Inorganic salts e. Collagen fibers

Collagen fibers

A large, smooth, rounded articulating oval structure is called what? a. Foramen b. Tubercle c. Sulcus d. Condyle

Condyle

Which primary tissue type would be represented by blood, body fat, ligaments and tendons, dermis of the skin, and the cartilage of some joints? a. Epithelial tissue b. Connective tissue c. Nervous tissue d. Muscle tissue e. None of the choices is correct.

Connective tissue

Where in the body would you expect to find a perichondrium? a. Covering cartilage b. Covering bones c. Inside of the brain d. Lining kidney tubules e. Covering the heart

Covering cartilage

What are the white matter tracts that connect the cerebral hemispheres? a. Corpus striatum b. Septum pellucidum c. Corpus callosum d. Reticular formation

Corpus callosum

Which features are found only on thoracic vertebrae? a. Laminae b. Transverse foramina c. Spinous processes d. Vertebral foramina e. Costal facets and demifacets

Costal facets and demifacets

The function of the nucleolus is to make a. the secretions that will be packaged by the Golgi apparatus. b. histones. c. DNA molecules. d. the deoxyribose sugar. e. the subunits of ribosomes.

DNA molecules

The glenohumeral and hip joints are both ball-and-socket. Which feature of the hip joint makes it more stable than the glenohumeral joint? a. Thin, loose articular capsule b. Presence of a synovial cavity c. Presence of supporting ligaments and tendons d. Deeper joint socket

Deeper joint socket

Which feature is unique to the axis? a. Superior articular facet b. Bifid spinous process c. Vertebral foramen d. Transverse foramen e. Dens

Dens

Which type of connective tissue predominates in the deep portion of the dermis, where it lends strength to the skin? a. Dense regular b. Cartilage c. Dense irregular d. Areolar e. Adipose

Dense irregular

Which of the cranial meninges consists of dense irregular connective tissue in two layers (the periosteal layer and the meningeal layer)? a. Pia mater b. Subdural layer c. Dura mater d. Subarachnoid layer e. Arachnoid

Dura mater

Which statement accurately describes spinal nerves? a. Each spinal nerve is mixed in that it contains some sensory axons and some motor axons. b. Odd-numbered spinal nerves are sensory and even-numbered spinal nerves are motor. c. Spinal nerves are central axons contained within the vertebral canal. d. Most spinal nerves are motor nerves. e. All spinal nerves are sensory nerves.

Each spinal nerve is mixed in that it contains some sensory axons and some motor axons.

Which statement accurately describes how pH is related to denaturation? a. A large decrease but not a large increase in pH can lead to denaturation. b. A large increase but not a large decrease in pH can lead to denaturation. c. Neither a large increase nor a large decrease in pH can lead to denaturation. d. Either a large increase or a large decrease in pH can lead to denaturation.

Either a large increase or a large decrease in pH can lead to denaturation.

Of the two types of synapses, based on mode of communication, which is less common but allows faster signal transmission? a. Magnetic synapse b. Mechanical synapse c. Electrical synapse d. Physical synapse e. Chemical synapse

Electrical synapse

What is the incomplete layer of cells that covers all internal surfaces of the bone within the medullary cavity? a. Periosteum b. Trabecula c. Endosteum d. Diaphysis e. Epiphysis

Endosteum

Before beginning orthodontic treatment, a patient may have her wrist and hand x-rayed to determine her stage of growth. What feature of the long bones will the orthodontist use to assess this? a. Osteon b. Epiphyseal plate c. Periosteum d. Spongy bone e. Compact bone

Epiphyseal plate

Which tissue type covers body surfaces and lines the inside of organs and body cavities? a. Muscle b. Connective c. Epithelial d. Nervous e. None of the choices is correct.

Epithelial

Which is avascular (lacks blood vessels)? a. Epithelial tissue b. Muscle tissue c. Nervous tissue d. Connective tissue e. All of the choices are correct.

Epithelial tissue

Which of these skull bones cannot be easily palpated? a. Parietal b. Temporal c. Occipital d. Frontal e. Ethmoid

Ethmoid

Which of the abdominal muscles has its fibers running in an inferomedial direction? a. Rectus abdominis b. Transversus abdominis c. Internal oblique d. External oblique e. None of these choices is correct.

External oblique

Bell palsy is a condition characterized by paralysis of facial muscles, eyelid droop, and sagging at the corners of the mouth. What nerve is affected in this condition? a. Accessory b. Facial c. Olfactory d. Hypoglossal e. Trigeminal

Facial

Suppose that you were involved in an automobile accident and suffered a back injury. When examined by your physician you are told that you have a slipped disc in the lower back. What type of tissue is involved? a. Bone b. Fibrocartilage c. Elastic cartilage d. Adipose tissue e. Dense regular connective tissue

Fibrocartilage

Which of the following describes a meniscus? a. Found only at the temporomandibular joint b. Attach one bone to another at a joint c. Flat, fluid-filled sacs d. Fibrous cartilage pads e. Attach muscles to bones

Fibrous cartilage pads

What is the action of the biceps brachii muscle? a. Extension of forearm b. Flexion of forearm c. Abduction of arm d. Adduction of arm e. Depression of arm

Flexion of forearm

Damage to which lobe of the brain (that normally plans appropriate behavior) has been most frequently associated with personality abnormalities? a. Parietal b. Occipital c. Insula d. Temporal e. Frontal

Frontal

These two muscles are known as the triceps surae and together are the most powerful plantar flexors of all of the leg muscles. a. Tibialis anterior and extensor digitorum longus b. Flexor digitorum longus and flexor hallucis longus c. Extensor hallucis longus and fibularis longus d. Tibialis posterior and popliteus e. Gastrocnemius and soleus

Gastrocnemius and soleus

Which of the following joints is the least stable? a. Glenohumeral (shoulder) joint b. Skull suture c. Radioulnar joint d. Costochondral joint

Glenohumeral (shoulder) joint

Which is one of the largest muscles in the body and the one most responsible for extending and laterally rotating the thigh? a. Sartorius b. Gluteus maximus c. Gracilis d. Pectineus e. Tensor fasciae latae

Gluteus maximus

Which of the following choices lists the order of stages of cellular respiration in proper order? a. Glycolysis, intermediate stage, electron transport system, and the citric acid cycle b. Glycolysis, intermediate stage, citric acid cycle, and the electron transport system c. Glycolysis, citric acid cycle, intermediate stage, and the electron transport system d. Citric acid cycle, electron transport chain, intermediate stage, and glycolysis e. Citric acid cycle, glycolysis, intermediate stage, and the electron transport system

Glycolysis, intermediate stage, citric acid cycle, and the electron transport system

Which letter is associated with a zone (in a relaxed muscle) that is a little more lightly shaded because only thick filaments are present? a. M b. A c. I d. Z e. H

H

The breakdown of H2CO3 into CO2 and H2O is catalyzed by an enzyme called carbonic anhydrase. Which of the following is a reactant in this reaction? a. Carbonic anhydrase b. H2CO3 c. H2O

H2CO3

Which is a form of energy that is generally unavailable to do any work? a. Radiant energy b. Mechanical energy c. Kinetic energy d. Heat e. Sound energy

Heat

Which branch of microscopic anatomy is the study of tissues? a. Developmental anatomy b. Cytology c. Histology d. Embryology e. Surgical anatomy

Histology

Which is not a function of bone? a. Hemopoiesis b. Hormone synthesis c. Protection d. Body movement e. Mineral storage

Hormone synthesis

The urinary bladder is found in which abdominopelvic region? a. Right lumbar b. Left iliac c. Left lumbar d. Hypochondriac e. Hypogastric

Hypogastric

Where would you find the protein crystallin? a. In the lens b. In the retina c. In the ciliary body d. In the optic nerve e. In the choroids

In the lens

What explains the dramatic acceleration in lengthwise bone growth at puberty? a. Increased physical activity causes lengthwise growth in response to bone stress. b. Increased absorption of dietary vitamins and minerals strengthens the matrix. c. Increased rate of calcium deposition occurs due to high blood calcium levels. d. Increased secretion of sex hormones promotes epiphyseal plate growth. e. Increased activity of osteoclasts occurs in response to parathyroid hormone stimulation.

Increased secretion of sex hormones promotes epiphyseal plate growth.

Calcitonin _________ osteoclast activity, which will _________ blood calcium levels. a. stimulates; decrease b. stimulates; increase c. inhibits; decrease d. inhibits; increase

Inhibits; decrease

Which contraction occurs when you try (unsuccessfully) to move a wall? a. Isotonic b. Isometric

Isometric

Which is false regarding bone remodeling? a. It can occur in response to stress on a bone. b. It occurs throughout life. c. It occurs only at articular surfaces. d. It assists in the maintenance of calcium and phosphate levels in the body. e. It occurs at both the endosteal and periosteal surfaces of the bone.

It occurs only at articular surfaces.

Which are not spinal nerve branches? a. Lateral rami b. Rami communicantes c. Anterior rami d. Posterior rami

Lateral rami

There are three anterior thoracic muscles. Select the exception. a. Levator scapulae b. Subclavius c. Serratus anterior d. Pectoralis minor

Levator scapulae

These receptors respond to touch, pressure, vibration, and stretch. a. Mechanoreceptors b. Chemoreceptors c. Photoreceptors d. Baroreceptors e. Thermoreceptors

Mechanoreceptors

Which region of a growing bone contains the epiphyseal plate? a. Diaphysis b. Periphysis c. Metaphysis d. Distal epiphysis e. Proximal epiphysis

Metaphysis

Which of the following structures function in holding organelles in place, maintaining cell shape and rigidity, and directing organelle movement? a. Cilia b. Centrioles c. Flagella d. Microtubules e. Golgi apparatus

Microtubules

Which of the following serve to increase the surface area of a cell for absorption and secretion? a. Cilia and microvilli b. Cilia c. Flagella d. Cilia and flagella e. Microvilli

Microvilli

Which of the following serve to increase the surface area of a cell for absorption and secretion? a. Microvilli b. Cilia and microvilli c. Cilia d. Flagella e. Cilia and flagella

Microvilli

Which muscles arise from the skull and often attach to the skin? a. Muscles of facial expression b. Extrinsic eye muscles c. Muscles of mastication d. Muscles that move the tongue e. Muscles of the pharynx

Muscles of facial expression

Which is not a protein found in thin filaments? a. Myosin b. Troponin c. Tropomyosin d. No exceptions; all are found in thin filaments e. Actin

Myosin

Which protein makes up the thick filaments? a. Troponin b. Actin c. Myopathy d. Tropomyosin e. Myosin

Myosin

Pyruvate undergoes oxidation when it loses electrons to a. NADH. b. NAD+. c. glucose. d. carbon dioxide. e. acetyl-CoA.

NAD+

The coenzymes that will provide the electrons needed for the electron transport system are a. FAD and decarboxylase. b. NAD and FAD+. c. NADH and FADH2. d. acetyl CoA and citrate. e. pyruvate and NADH.

NADH and FADH2.

Which is the actively growing part of the nail? a. Nail root b. Free edge c. Nail folds d. Nail bed e. Nail matrix

Nail matrix

Suppose you cut your finger only slightly in what is known as a "paper cut." You observe that the cut hurts but it doesn't bleed. How would you interpret your observation? a. The paper had some factor that prevented the release of blood but not the sensation of pain. b. You probably have some unknown condition related to blood clotting. c. The paper severed the skin, missing blood vessels, but hitting nerve endings. d. Nerve endings occur in epithelium but blood vessels do not. e. Very thin cuts never draw blood but do sever nerves.

Nerve endings occur in epithelium but blood vessels do not.

Which is not a function of the integument? a. Water loss prevention b. Protection c. No exceptions; all are functions of the integument d. Temperature regulation e. Synthesis of cholecalciferol (vitamin D precursor)

No exceptions; all are functions of the integument

Which of the following is not a function of epithelial tissue? a. No exceptions; these are all functions of epithelial tissue b. Physical protection c. Secretion d. Sensation em Selective permeability

No exceptions; these are all functions of epithelial tissue

What is the inner, gelatinous region of each intervertebral disc called? a. Annulus fibrosus b. Nucleus pulposus c. Lamella d. Articular ring e. Chondral ring

Nucleus pulposus

Which best defines "superficial"? a. On the outside b. On the inside c. At the head end d. Close to the attachment of the appendage to the trunk e. Toward the end of an appendage

On the outside

Which is the "kiss muscle" used for puckering the lips? a. Depressor labii inferioris b. Depressor anguli oris c. Procerus d. Orbicularis oculi e. Orbicularis oris

Orbicularis oris

Which of the following statements accurately describes the organization of structures? a. Organisms are made up of tissues, which are made up of organ systems, which are made up of DNA. b. Organ systems are made up of cells, which are made up of tissues, which are made up of organelles. c. Organs are made up of tissues, which are made up of cells, which are made up of organelles and molecules. d. Organs are made up of cells, which are made up of atoms, which are made up of molecules. e. Tissues are made up of organs, which are made up of cells, which are made up of individual atoms.

Organs are made up of tissues, which are made up of cells, which are made up of organelles and molecules.

Which type of cell produces new bone tissue by secreting matrix? a. Osteoprogenitor cells b. Osteoprogenitor cells c. Osteoblasts d. Osteocytes e. Osteoclasts

Osteoblasts

Which is not a function of the vertebral column? a. Maintaining upright body position b. Passageway for spinal nerves c. Supporting the weight of the head d. Protecting the spinal cord e. Passageway for cranial nerves

Passageway for cranial nerves

The ___ resists posterior and lateral movement of the tibia due to the orientation of its fibers from the superior and medial origin on the femur to its lateral and posterior attachment on the tibia. a. tibial collateral ligament b. menisci c. transverse ligament d. patellar ligament e. fibular collateral ligament f. PCL g. tibiofibular h. ACL i. tibiofemoral joint

PCL

This figure shows the muscles of the anterior trunk. What muscle does number 1 indicate? a. Biceps brachii b. Deltoid c. Latissimus dorsi d. Pectoralis minor e. Pectoralis major

Pectoralis major

This figure shows the muscles of facial expression. What muscle does number 1 indicate? a. Orbicularis oculi b. Platysma c. Nasalis d. Epicranius e. Procerus

Platysma

Where will the memory of a motor skill likely be stored? a. Thalamus b. Primary motor cortex c. Premotor cortex d. Visual association cortex

Premotor cortex

Which of the following shows the correct sequence of mitosis? a. Metaphase - prophase - anaphase - telophase b. Telophase - metaphase - prophase - anaphase c. Prophase - anaphase - metaphase - telophase d. Metaphase - telophase - anaphase - prophase e. Prophase - metaphase - anaphase - telophase

Prophase - metaphase - anaphase - telophase

Which term best describes receptors that detect body and limb movements, skeletal muscle contraction and stretch, and joint capsule structure? a. Nociceptors b. Exteroceptors c. Proprioceptors d. Interceptors e. Thermoreceptors

Proprioceptors

With three seconds left on the clock, Mia breaks free and scores the winning goal in her soccer game. Of the muscles listed, select the one with the primary action in extending the leg for kicking. a. Semimembranosus b. Tensor fasciae latae c. Quadriceps femoris d. Sartorius e. Biceps femoris

Quadriceps femoris

This figure shows the muscles of the abdominal wall. What muscle or feature does number 2 indicate? a. Linea alba b. Rectus abdominis c. Transversus abdominis d. External oblique e. Internal oblique

Rectus abdominis

Which muscle extends the leg? a. Rectus femoris b. Gracilis c. Semimembranosus d. Biceps femoris

Rectus femoris

Which type of connective tissue protein fiber forms a meshlike framework that provides structural support within many organs (within the spleen, for example)? a. Reticular fibers b. Elastic fibers c. Cartilaginous fibers d. Collagen fibers e. Mucoid fibers

Reticular fibers

The replication of a DNA molecule during interphase occurs during the a. metaphase. b. S phase. c. generation "gap" phase. d. first "gap" phase. e. second "gap" phase.

S phase

Which bone does not belong to the appendicular skeleton? a. Sacrum b. Clavicle c. Calcaneus d. Ulna e. Femur

Sacrum

Which is the longest muscle of the body? a. Biceps brachii b. Gracilis c. Quadriceps femoris d. Sartorius e. Brachioradialis

Sartorius

Which of the following muscles is the longest muscle in the body and is nicknamed the "tailor's muscle" because it flexes and laterally rotates the thigh while also flexing and medially rotating the leg (helping us to sit cross-legged, as tailors used to do)? a. Vastus lateralis b. Gracilis c. Sartorius d. Rectus femoris

Sartorius

Which bones comprise each pectoral girdle? a. Sternum and clavicle b. Scapula, clavicle, and humerus c. Scapula, clavicle, and sternum d. Scapula, clavicle, sternum, and humerus e. Scapula and clavicle

Scapula and clavicle

This figure shows a posterior view of the right thigh. What muscle does number 2 indicate? a. Semimembranosus b. Gluteus maximus c. Biceps femoris d. Adductor magnus e. Semitendinosus

Semitendinosus

________ pathways have peripheral primary neurons and central secondary and tertiary neurons. a. Sensory b. Motor

Sensory

Which accurately describes sensory and motor pathways? a. Sensory pathways terminate at effectors and motor pathways terminate in the brain. b. Both sensory and motor pathways terminate in the PNS. c. Sensory pathways terminate in the brain, and motor pathways terminate at effectors. d. Both sensory and motor pathways terminate in the brain.

Sensory pathways terminate in the brain, and motor pathways terminate at effectors.

What is the function of cartilage located in the epiphyseal plates? a. Site of bone elongation and growth b. Provides flexibility for bending c. Supports soft tissues d. Forms articular surface e. Supports soft tissues

Site of bone elongation and growth

Which fibers dominate many of the back and calf muscles that contract almost continually to maintain posture? a. Intermediate b. Fast-twitch c. Slow-twitch

Slow-twitch

Which of the following is not lined by nonkeratinized stratified squamous epithelium? a. Esophagus b. Oral cavity c. Small intestine d. Vagina e. Pharynx

Small intestine

What structure is attached to the oval window and transfers vibration of the tympanic membrane to the inner ear? a. Stapes b. Pinna c. Malleus d. Incus

Stapes

This figure shows the muscles of the anterior neck. What muscle does number 3 indicate? a. Trapezius b. Geniohyoid c. Sternohyoid d. Sternocleidomastoid e. Sternothyroid

Sternocleidomastoid

Which type of epithelium is composed of multiple layers, including an apical layer containing tall, slender cells? a. Stratified squamous b. Pseudostratified squamous c. Stratified columnar d. Simple columnar e. Simple squamous

Stratified columnar

Which space associated with the spinal cord meninges contains cerebrospinal fluid? a. Subdural space b. Epiarachnoid space c. Subarachnoid space d. Subpial space e. Epidural space

Subarachnoid space

The pronator teres and pronator quadratus cause pronation of the forearm. What muscle opposes this movement? a. Pectoralis major b. Biceps brachii c. Triceps brachii d. Subscapularis e. Supinator

Supinator

______ anatomy examines both superficial anatomic markings and internal body structures as they relate to the skin covering them. a. Systemic b. Regional c. Surgical d. Surface e. Radiographic

Surface

Which is not a correct pairing of a bone and its common name? a. Talus - heel b. Tibia - shin c. Patella - knee cap d. Clavicle - collar bone e. Scapula - shoulder blade

Talus - heel

Which part of a neuron contains calcium pumps and channels? a. Soma b. Synaptic bulbs c. Axon d. Dendrites

Synaptic bulbs

The fibrous tunic of the eye is composed of two parts. What are they? a. The sclera and the retina b. The sclera and the uvea c. The conjunctiva and the cornea d. The conjunctiva and the sclera e. The cornea and the sclera

The cornea and the sclera

What feature of your ear accounts for its ability to regain its shape after it has been deformed or compressed? a. The ear's built-in memory based upon its overall size and shape b. The abundance of reticular fibers forming a dense meshwork c. The elastic fibers in the ear's skin that contract after being stretched d. The elastic fibers present in the ear's cartilage e. The elastic fibers present in the ear's muscles

The elastic fibers present in the ear's cartilage

Which of the following characteristics of action potentials can vary? a. The frequency of action potentials b. The amplitude (change in voltage) c. The segment of the neuron they are propagated down d. The direction they travel down the conductive segment

The frequency of action potentials

Which statement accurately compares the hand and the foot? a. Each hand has 15 phalanges, but each foot has 14 phalanges. b. Each hand has 14 phalanges, but each foot has 15 phalanges. c. The hand and the foot each have 15 phalanges. d. The hand and the foot each have 14 phalanges.

The hand and the foot each have 14 phalanges.

Which is a physiological description rather than an anatomical one? a. The walls of blood capillaries are composed of a thin epithelium. b. The esophageal wall includes a middle layer of dense irregular connective tissue. c. There are fenestrations (openings) in the epithelial cells of capillary walls. d. The muscles of the thigh are composed of skeletal muscle tissue. e. The muscles of the intestinal wall contract slowly and involuntarily.

The muscles of the intestinal wall contract slowly and involuntarily.

Which of the rami is much smaller than the other? a. The anterior ramus b. The posterior ramus

The posterior ramus

Within which zone of the epiphyseal plate do cartilage cells undergo mitosis? a. The zone closest to the medullary cavity b. The zone closest to the epiphysis c. The second closest zone to the epiphysis d. The second closest bone to the medullary cavity

The second closest zone to the epiphysis

Of the following factors, which one does not contribute to skin aging? a. Beginning in middle age, reduced stem cell activity in the epidermis results in thinner skin that is less likely to protect against abrasive, mechanical trauma. b. Chronic overexposure to UV rays can damage the DNA in epidermal cells and accelerate aging as well as increase the risk of skin cancer. c. As individuals get older, collagen fibers in the dermis decrease in number and organization, and elastic fibers lose elasticity. d. The skin increases the number and efficiency of epidermal dendritic cells, causing an increase in immune responsiveness.

The skin increases the number and efficiency of epidermal dendritic cells, causing an increase in immune responsiveness.

In DNA, which nitrogenous base pairs with adenine? a. Uracil b. Thymine c. Guanine d. Cytosine

Thymine

Which muscle is the primary dorsiflexor of the foot at the ankle? a. Extensor digitorum longus b. Gracilis c. Tibialis anterior d. Fibularis brevis e. Extensor hallucis longus

Tibialis anterior

Which muscle is the primary dorsiflexor of the foot at the ankle? a. Fibularis brevis b. Tibialis anterior c. Extensor digitorum longus d. Extensor hallucis longus e. Gracilis

Tibialis anterior

What is the function of the auditory tube? a. To provide an airway between the middle and inner ear. b. To prevent the invasion of microorganisms into the inner ear. c. To equalize air pressure between the atmosphere and the middle ear. d. To transmit sound waves to the inner ear. e. To provide a passageway for fluid from the middle to the inner ear.

To equalize air pressure between the atmosphere and the middle ear.

This figure shows the muscles of the posterior trunk. What muscle does number 1 indicate? a. Trapezius b. Infraspinatus c. Supraspinatus d. Latissimus dorsi e. Rhomboid major

Trapezius

Which muscle is the prime extensor of the elbow joint? a. Triceps brachii b. Deltoid muscle c. Brachialis d. Biceps brachii e. Brachioradialis

Triceps brachii

Both anatomists and physiologists are aware that form and function are interrelated. a. True b. False

True

For better retention of material, it is better to break up study sessions into multiple smaller chunks (e.g. 30 minutes each) rather than fewer, longer sessions (e.g. several hours each). a. True b. False

True

If your body temperature starts to decline, your body responds by exciting skeletal muscles so that you shiver and your temperature returns to normal. This is an example of negative feedback. a. True b. False

True

Lateral rotation is also known as external rotation. a. True b. False

True

Why might someone pale when they are exposed to a cold temperature? a Constriction of the dermal collagen and elastic fibers b. Dehydration of the stratum corneum c. Vasoconstriction has occurred d. Purely psychological e. Vasodilation has occurred

Vasoconstriction has occurred

When compared to the shoulder, the hip joint has a. a deeper bony socket and stronger supporting ligaments. b. a shallower bony socket and weaker supporting ligaments. c. a shallower bony socket but stronger supporting ligaments. d. a deeper bony socket but weaker supporting ligaments.

a deeper bony socket and stronger supporting ligaments.

The acetabulum is a. the anterior portion of the hip bone. b. a depression in the hip bone that receives the head of the femur. c. a protuberance in the hip bone that attaches to the head of the femur. d. the prominence of the hip. e. formed anteriorly by the joining of the pubic bones.

a depression in the hip bone that receives the head of the femur.

The top long-distance runners probably have _______ proportion of slow muscle fibers in their leg muscles. a. the same b. a higher c. a lower

a higher

Plasma is a. a dissolved ground matrix and a lining of epithelial cells. b. a liquid ground substance containing dissolved proteins. c. platelets, red blood cells, and white blood cells. d. a liquefied ground substance that includes several dissolved cells. e. platelets and a watery ground substance.

a liquid ground substance containing dissolved proteins.

The glenohumeral joint exhibits a. a high degree of stability but a narrow range of motion. b. a high degree of stability and a wide range of motion. c. a low level of stability but a wide range of motion. d. a low level of stability and a narrow range of motion.

a low level of stability but a wide range of motion.

All the muscle fibers under the control of a single motor axon are referred to as a. the prime mover. b. a motor unit. c. a myofibril. d. the myosin. e. the sarcolemma.

a motor unit

In some proteins, an ionic bond may form between an amino acid with a. a positive R group and an amino acid with a negative R group. b. a carboxyl group and an amino acid with a C-terminal. c. a negative R group and a nonpolar amino acid. d. a glycine and another with a tryptophan. e. a sulfhydryl group and an amino acid with an amine group.

a positive R group and an amino acid with a negative R group.

Apoptosis is best described as a. the process of an aging cell becoming cancerous. b. the destruction of a cell through mechanical damage. c. a process where cells destroy themselves. d. the process of immune cells recognizing an infected cell as "foreign".

a process where cells destroy themselves

Apoptosis is best described as a. the process of immune cells recognizing an infected cell as "foreign". b. the process of an aging cell becoming cancerous. c. the destruction of a cell through mechanical damage. d. a process where cells destroy themselves.

a process where cells destroy themselves.

During wave summation, a. a second stimulus arrives at the muscle before complete relaxation of the first contraction, causing the second contraction to have greater tension than the first one. b. stimuli arrive at the muscle fiber at a rate that allows it to contract and then completely relax between each stimulus. c. the stimuli arrive at the muscle fiber so rapidly that there is no muscle relaxation between stimuli, but rather, a continuous contraction of the muscle fiber. d. a muscle fiber under continuous stimulation and contraction becomes unable to contract at all until it has rested.

a second stimulus arrives at the muscle before complete relaxation of the first contraction, causing the second contraction to have greater tension than the first one.

A motor unit consists of a. a single motor neuron and the multiple muscle fibers it controls. b. multiple motor neurons and the one muscle fiber they control. c. multiple motor neurons and multiple muscle fibers. d. an end plate, a T-tubule, and sarcoplasmic reticulum. e. one synaptic terminal button, a cleft, and an acetylcholine receptor.

a single motor neuron and the multiple muscle fibers it controls.

In the formation of a compound of sodium chloride, a. a chlorine atom donates an electron to a sodium atom. b. the sodium and chlorine atoms share a pair of electrons equally. c. a sodium atom donates an electron to a chlorine atom. d. a chloride ion donates two protons to a sodium ion. e. a sodium ion donates two electrons to a chlorine atom.

a sodium atom donates an electron to a chlorine atom

Generally, a chemical buffer is described as a. a weak acid and weak base that help prevent big changes in pH. b. a strong acid or strong base that brings the pH of a solution to 7.0. c. a weak acid that makes a solution slightly more basic by its presence. d. a neutral molecule that does not influence the pH in any way.

a weak acid and weak base that help prevent big changes in pH.

The principal elbow flexors located on the anterior side of the humerus are the a: biceps brachii b: brachialis c: brachioradialis d: deltoid e: trapezius a. b, d, e b. c, d, e c. a, b, c d. b, c, d e. a, c, e

a, b, c

Which is a correct listing of the hierarchy of a skeletal muscle's components, beginning with the smallest? a: Myofibrils b: Muscle fiber c: Fascicle d: Skeletal muscle a. a, b, c, d b. b, c, a, d c. d, c, b, a d. c, b, a, d

a, b, c, d

Structures found in the dermis include 1a: sweat glands 1b: hair follicles 1c: collagen fibers 1d: sensory nerve endings 1e: arrector pili muscles 1. a, b, c, d, e 2. a, c, d 3. a, b, c, e 4. a, b, d, e 5. a, b, d

a, b, c, d, e

Normally, skin color results from a combination of 1a: melanin 1b: hemoglobin 1c: bilirubin 1d: carotene 1. a, d 2. a, c, d 3. a, b, d 4. b, c, d 5. a, b, c

a, b, d

Which of these are functions of hair? 1a: Sensory reception 1b: Heat retention 1c: Immune function 1d: Protection 1e: Formation of Vitamin D3 1. a, d, e 2. a, b, d, e 3. a, b, d 4. a, b, c, d, e

a, b, d

Choose the answer that correctly lists, in chronological order, the events involved in synaptic transmission. a: A nerve impulse reaches the synaptic knob. b: Neurotransmitter molecules diffuse across the synaptic cleft. c: A nerve impulse begins in the postsynaptic cell. d: Neurotransmitter molecules bind to receptors in the postsynaptic cell. e: A voltage change occurs in the postsynaptic cell. 1. c, b, d, e, a 2. c, a, b, d, e 3. a, c, b, d, e 4. a, b, e, d, c 5. a, b, d, e, c

a, b, d, e, c

Which are applicable to the stratum corneum? 1a: Most superficial stratum 1b: Consists of about 3-5 cell layers 1c: Cells are dead 1d: Interlocking keratinized cells 1e: Cells are anucleate 1. a, c, d, e 2. a, c, e 3. a, c, d 4. a, b, d 5. a, b, c, d, e

a, c, d, e

Match each lever class with the location of its effort, resistance, and fulcrum. a. Fulcrum is between the resistance and effort b. Resistance is between the fulcrum and effort c. Effort is between the fulcrum and the resistance

a. First class lever b. Second class lever c. Third class lever

The action potential of a muscle fiber occurs a. along the sarcolemma and down the T-tubules. b. in the mitochondria. c. within the sarcoplasmic reticulum. d. at the end plate.

along the sarcolemma and down the T-tubules.

The function of the ossicles is to a. detect acceleration of the head. b. determine static head position. c. initiate action potentials that propagate to the inner ear. d. amplify sound waves and transmit them to the inner ear. e. support the tympanic membrane and protect hair cells of the inner ear.

amplify sound waves and transmit them to the inner ear.

During transcription a. a DNA sequence is formed as a RNA sequence is read. b. a protein is formed as a DNA sequence is read. c.an RNA molecule is formed as a DNA sequence is read. d. an amino acid is transferred to a ribosome as a DNA sequence is read. e. a protein is formed as a RNA sequence is read.

an RNA molecule is formed as a DNA sequence is read.

During transcription a. a protein is formed as a DNA sequence is read. b. an RNA molecule is formed as a DNA sequence is read. c. a protein is formed as a RNA sequence is read. d. an amino acid is transferred to a ribosome as a DNA sequence is read. e. a DNA sequence is formed as a RNA sequence is read.

an RNA molecule is formed as a DNA sequence is read.

A power stroke involves a. a thin filament shortening in length and thereby shortening the sarcomere. b. a thick filament pushing an actin filament towards the nearest Z-line. c. an actin molecule pulling a myosin molecule toward the M-line. d. an actin molecule pulling a myosin molecule toward the M-line.

an actin molecule pulling a myosin molecule toward the M-line.

The building of complex molecules from simpler ones is described as a. catabolism. b. irreversible. c. reversible. d. anabolism. e. exergonic.

anabolism

Glycolysis is an a. anaerobic process that occurs in the cytosol. b. aerobic process that occurs in the cytosol. c. anaerobic process that occurs in the mitochondria. d. aerobic process that occurs in the mitochondria.

anaerobic process that occurs in the cytosol.

The phase of mitosis that begins as spindle fibers pull sister chromatids apart at the centromere is a. anaphase. b. metaphase. c. telophase. d. prophase. e. interphase.

anaphase

The phase of mitosis that begins as spindle fibers pull sister chromatids apart at the centromere is a. anaphase. b. interphase. c. telophase. d. metaphase. e. prophase.

anaphase.

A scientist who describes the layers of the heart wall and their relationship to the surrounding pericardium would be a(n) a. pulmonologist. b. anatomist. c. physiologist. d. pathologist.

anatomist

The type of gland that secretes sweat into a hair follicle that is found in the axillary, anal, and genital regions is the ________ sweat gland. a. apocrine b. merocrine c. sebaceous d. ceruminous

apocrine

The limbs of the body are attached to the axis and make up the a. antebrachial region. b. abdominal region. c. axial region. d. thoracic region. e. appendicular region.

appendicular region.

Bone growth in which the bone increases in diameter is called a. interstitial growth. b. cancellous bone growth. c. epiphyseal growth. d. endosteal growth. e. appositional growth.

appositional growth.

Lipids a. are polymers. b. are a major component of the cell membrane. c. are composed of amino acids linked together. d. include DNA and RNA.

are a major component of the cell membrane.

Gomphoses a. are found only in tooth sockets. b. cover the tendons in the shoulder and coxal joints. c. contain fluid-filled joint cavities. d. consist of sheets of hyaline cartilage. e. are also called saddle joints.

are found only in tooth sockets.

lipids a. are polymers b. are major components of the cell membrane c. are composed of amino acids linked together d. include DNA and RNA

are major components of the cell membrane

The structure responsible for pulling on the follicle and causing "goose bumps" is the a. external root sheath. b. epithelial root sheath. c. arrector pili muscle. d. internal root sheath. e. papilla.

arrector pili muscle.

An arthritic joint contains damage to the hyaline cartilage covering the articulating bones. In other words, the ________ has been damaged. a. articular cartilage b. synovial fluid c. articular capsule d. joint cavity

articular cartilage

Your memories of the sights and sounds of your elementary school are probably stored in a. your hippocampus and amygdala. b. association cortex areas of your cerebrum. c. your limbic system and cranial nerves. d. the arbor vitae of your cerebellum. e. your thalamus and hypothalamus.

association cortex areas of your cerebrum.

The blood-brain barrier is made up of a. ependymal cells and venous blood vessels. b. astrocyte extensions and dural sinuses. c. microglial extensions and capillary endothelial cells. d. microglial extensions and capillary endothelial cells. e. astrocyte perivascular feet and capillary endothelial cells.

astrocyte perivascular feet and capillary endothelial cells.

The occipital condyles articulate with the a. dens. b. atlas. c. vertebra prominens. d. odontoid process. e. axis.

atlas.

Fluid-filled sacs that cushion synovial joints are called a. menisci b. articular discs c. fat pads d. bursae e. diarthroses

bursae

Within the periodic table, elements are organized consecutively by a. atomic mass within rows. b. atomic number within columns. c. atomic mass within columns. d. atomic number within rows.

atomic number within rows

A decrease in muscular activity or damage to neurons that attach to skeletal muscle can lead to a reduction in the size of muscle called a. denervation. b. myasthenia gravis. c. atrophy. d. dystrophy. e. rigor mortis.

atrophy.

Shrinkage of tissue by a decrease in either cell number or cell size is termed a. atrophy. b. neoplasia. c. hypertrophy. d. fibrosis. e. metaplasia.

atrophy.

Rami, trochanters, tubercles, and tuberosities are bone markings that serve as a. passageways for nerves. b. attachments for ligaments or tendons. c. passageways for blood vessels. d. pits or depressions to hold cartilage. e. articulating surfaces.

attachments for ligaments or tendons.

The conductive segment of a neuron is its _______, a region that contains many _______ gated channels. a. axon, voltage- b. dendrite, chemically c. axon, chemically d. dendrite, voltage-

axon, voltage-

The posterior horns of the spinal cord contain a. axons of interneurons. b. autonomic motor neurons. c. axons of motor neurons and cell bodies of interneurons. d. axons of sensory neurons and cell bodies of interneurons. e. axons of sensory and motor neurons.

axons of sensory neurons and cell bodies of interneurons.

What is the correct order for the events that occur during a reflex? 1a: Impulse travels through sensory neuron to the CNS 1b: A stimulus activates a receptor 1c: Information is processed by interneurons 1d: Motor neuron transmits impulse to effector 1e: Effector responds 1. c, b, a, e, d 2. c, a, b, d, e 3. b, a, c, d, e 4. a, b, c, d, e 5. b, d, c, a, e

b, a, c, d, e

An individual water molecule contains ______ atoms and enters into ______ hydrogen bonds with other water molecules. a. two; two b. three; four c. three; six d. three; three e. three; two

b. three; four

A thin extracellular layer upon which an epithelium rests is called a(n) a. basement membrane. b. apical surface. c. intercellular junction. d. stroma.

basement membrane

For elbow flexion, a. biceps brachii is the antagonist and triceps brachii is the agonist. b. triceps brachii is the synergist and biceps brachii is the antagonist. c. biceps brachii is the agonist and triceps brachii is the antagonist. d. biceps brachii is the synergist and triceps brachii is the agonist. e. deltoid is the agonist and biceps brachii is the synergist.

biceps brachii is the agonist and triceps brachii is the antagonist.

Acetylcholine exerts its effect by a. stimulating the motor neuron's synaptic knob. b. allowing calcium to enter the cell. c. activating acetylcholinesterase. d. binding to receptors at the motor end plate.

binding to receptors at the motor end plate.

The ____ half-life is the time it takes for half of the radioactive material to be eliminated from the body. a. biological b. physical c. chemical d. physiological

biological

The plexus that supplies the upper limbs is the _________ plexus. a. cervical b. lumbar c. brachial d. sciatic e. bronchiole

brachial

The cranial cavity houses the a. ear canals b. spinal cord c. brain d. nasal structures e. eyeball

brain

Arrange the middle ear bones from lateral to medial. 1a: Stapes 1b: Incus 1c: Malleus 1. b, a, c 2. a, c, b 3. a, b, c 4. c, b, a 5. c, a, b

c, b, a

Structurally, enzymes are generally a. spherical carbohydrates. b. elongated carbohydrates. c. globular proteins. d. fibrous proteins. e. four-ring steroids.

c. globular proteins

The two types of cells that make up the nervous system are a. neurons and mast cells. b. neurons and chondrocytes. c. neurons and glial cells. d. macrophages and mast cells. e. mast cells and fibrocytes.

c. neurons and glial cells.

When a nerve impulse reaches the transmissive segment of a neuron, a. calcium diffuses into the neuron and neurotransmitter is released by exocytosis. b. calcium is immediately pumped out of the neuron and vesicles of neurotransmitter undergo phagocytosis. c. calcium is released from the neuron along with neurotransmitter from synaptic vesicles. d. calcium and neurotransmitter diffuse into the synaptic knob. e. calcium is pumped into the neuron and neurotransmitter diffuses out through channels.

calcium diffuses into the neuron and neurotransmitter is released by exocytosis.

The movement of small, polar molecules across the plasma membrane by a carrier protein is called a. osmosis b. filtration c. carrier-mediated diffusion d. concentration gradient e. simple diffusion

carrier-mediated diffusion

The pubic symphysis is classified as a a. cartilaginous joint and a synarthrosis. b. synovial joint and a diarthrosis. c. cartilaginous joint and an amphiarthrosis. d. fibrous joint and an amphiarthrosis. e. fibrous joint and a synarthrosis.

cartilaginous joint and an amphiarthrosis.

The category of reactions in which larger molecules are broken down into smaller ones is known as a. catabolism. b. enzymatic. c. anabolism. d. homeostasis. e. synthesis.

catabolism

Enzymes act as ______, speeding up the rate of reactions. a. energy b. activation c. production d. result e. lower f. catalyst g. increase h. chemicals

catalyst

The nerves projecting inferiorly from the spinal cord are collectively called the a. terminal finale. b. cauda equina. c. caudal terminale. d. caudus finalis. e. terminus filus.

cauda equina.

The condition known as "tennis elbow" is caused by trauma or overuse of the a. common flexor tendon of the anterior forearm muscles. b. common extensor tendon of the anterior forearm muscles. c. common extensor tendon of the posterior forearm muscles. d. common flexor tendon of the posterior forearm muscles. e. None of the choices is correct.

common extensor tendon of the posterior forearm muscles.

The ability of muscle cells to shorten is called _______, a property that allows muscle cells to cause body movement. a. extensibility b. elasticity c. excitability d. contractility

contractility

Because most pathways decussate, each side of the brain processes information from the _________ side of the body. a. ipsilateral b. contralateral

contralateral

Nails are hard derivatives formed from the stratum ______ of the epidermis. a. granulosum b. corneum c. spinosum d. lucidum e. basale

corneum

divides the body into anterior and posterior portions a. midsagittal plane b. coronal plane c. transverse plane

coronal plane

What is the anatomic term for the hip region? a. Crural b. Dorsal c. Coxal d. Sternal e. Sural

coxal

Which body membrane protects the body from water loss and harm to internal organs? a. Cutaneous b. Synovial c. Mucous d. Serous

cutaneous

Contains the cytosol, inclusions, and organelles a. cytoplasm b. plasma membrane c. nucleus

cytoplasm

Another name for the intracellular fluid is a. cisternae. b. interstitial fluid. c. cytoplasm. d. intercellular matrix. e. cytosol.

cytosol

The reticular layer of the dermis consists primarily of a. elastic connective tissue. b. adipose tissue. c. reticular connective tissue. d. nervous tissue. e. dense irregular connective tissue.

dense irregular connective tissue.

In fibrous joints, the articulating surfaces are held together by a. fibrocartilage. b. dense irregular connective tissue. c. dense regular connective tissue. d. articular cartilage. e. areolar connective tissue.

dense regular connective tissue.

Motor pathways are _________ tracts that control _________. a. ascending, effectors b. descending, effectors c. descending, affectors d. ascending, affectors

descending, effectors

These junctions hold adjacent cells together and provide resistance to mechanical stress. a. Gap junctions b. Desmosomes c. Synapses d. Tight junctions

desmosomes

Nails form on the ___ edges of the fingers and the toes. a. epidermis b. stratum corneum c. dermis d. dorsal e. ventral

dorsal

The correct anatomic directional term for "at the back side of the human body" is a. ventral b. dorsal c. caudal d. distal

dorsal

The sweat glands that produce a watery substance and are associated with exercise and stress are the _________ sweat glands, while glands that produce an organic substance that causes body odor are the __________ sweat glands. a. merocrine, eccrine b. holocrine, merocrine c. sebaceous, apocrine d. eccrine, apocrine

eccrine, apocrine

The part of the homeostatic control mechanism that brings about change is the a. receptor. b. control center. c. stimulus. d. effector.

effector

When you are exposed to bright light, a reflex is initiated and the muscles of your iris contract to decrease your pupil size. The iris muscles are acting as a(n) a. control center. b. positive feedback. c. receptor. d. effector.

effector

When considering leverage, the part of the bone from the muscle attachment to the joint would be the a. resistance arm. b. fulcrum. c. effort arm.

effort arm.

When diagramming an atom, how many electrons can fit in each of the shells beyond the innermost shell? a. Six b. Ten c. Two d. Eight

eight

As guided by the octet rule, atoms have the tendency to become stable through the gain, loss, or sharing of a. neurons. b. isotopes. c. electrons. d. protons.

electrons.

Ionic bonds involve a. the sharing of electrons between two atoms of the same element. b. electrostatic interactions between anions and cations. c. the attraction between water and salts. d. the release of protons by negatively charged particles.

electrostatic interactions between anions and cations.

Water and a nonpolar substance will need to be forcibly mixed. This best describes a(n) a. solution b. colloid c. emulsion

emulsion

The pericardium is a two-layered serous membrane that a. encloses the heart. b. encloses the kidney. c. provides lubrication for the knee. d. encloses a lung. e. covers the small intestine.

encloses the heart

Disease is often considered the result of a. negative feedback. b. failure of homeostatic systems. c. maintenance of set point. d. feedback loops.

failure of homeostatic systems.

Muscles of the eye and hand have a high percentage of _______ fibers. a. fast-twitch b. slow-twitch

fat-twitch

Structurally, a syndesmosis is a _________ joint; functionally, it is a __________. a. cartilaginous; amphiarthrosis b. fibrous; synarthrosis c. fibrous; amphiarthrosis d. ball and socket; pivot e. cartilaginous; diarthrosis

fibrous; amphiarthrosis

Movement of fluids through a selectively permeable membrane caused by hydrostatic pressure is referred to as _____. a osmosis b. hydrostatic pressure c. filtration d. carrier-mediated diffusion e. concentration gradient

filtration

When making a fist, the fingers are a. adducted. b. extended. c. flexed. d. hyperextended.

flexed.

The talus, calcaneus, navicular, cuboid, lateral, intermediate, and cuneiform bones are all part of the a. sternum. b. foot. c. skull. d. hand. e. pelvis

foot.

The spinal cord extends from the level of the _______________ to the level of the ____________. a. brain; filum terminale b. foramen magnum; first lumbar vertebra c. cervical enlargement; cauda equina d. cervical enlargement; lumbosacral enlargement

foramen magnum; first lumbar vertebra

With a specimen in the anatomic position, you can best see the mediastinum with a _____ view. a. inferior b. superior c. midsagittal d. frontal e. posterior

frontal

Damage to the ____________ will likely result in a personality change or disorder. a. frontal association area b. occipital lobe c. primary somatosensory cortex d. somatosensory association cortex

frontal association area

In the body, a joint serves as a ________ for a long bone. a. effort arm b. resistor c. fulcrum d. lever

fulcrum

At the optic chiasm a. all axons from each optic nerve cross to the opposite side of the brain. b. ganglion cell axons from the medial region of each retina cross to the opposite side of the brain. c. ganglion cell axons from the lateral region of each retina cross to the opposite side of the brain. d. none of the axons actually cross to the opposite side of the brain.

ganglion cell axons from the medial region of each retina cross to the opposite side of the brain.

Produce secretions that create an environment unsuitable for some microorganisms a. skin b. hair c. glands d. nails

glands

greatest range of motion a. glenohumeral joint b. coxal joint

glenohumeral joint

has indistinct or absent ligaments a. glenohumeral joint b. coxal joint

glenohumeral joint

most frequently dislocated joint a. glenohumeral joint b. coxal joint

glenohumeral joint

most unstable joint a. glenohumeral joint b. coxal joint

glenohumeral joint

The head of the humerus articulates with the a. glenoid cavity. b. intertubercular sulcus. c. greater trochanter. d. greater tubercle. e. trochlear notch.

glenoid cavity.

The cerebral cortex consists of ______ matter. a. white b. gray

gray

The term "hallux" refers to the a. great toe. b. middle digit. c. lateral-most toe. d. little finger. e. thumb.

great toe.

In the gluteus maximus, each motor unit controls a _____________ amount of muscle fibers than a motor unit in the eye muscles. a. lesser b. greater

greater

An inguinal hernia is in the region of the a. umbilicus. b. shoulder. c. thigh. d. calf. e. groin.

groin

Protects against abrasion; acts as a heat insulator, protects the eyes against foreign objects a. skin b. hair c. glands d. nails

hair

Which of the following is not found in thick skin? a. Sweat glands b. Hair follicles c. Stratum lucidum d. Stratum corneum

hair follicles

Eyelids serve two purposes: one is to protect the eye and the other is to a. help distribute lacrimal fluid to cleanse and lubricate the surface. b. help distribute blood to the eye surface. c. prevent excess mucus from obscuring vision. d. help to control the transmission of the nerve impulse to the retina. e. help spread antiviral solution.

help distribute lacrimal fluid to cleanse and lubricate the surface.

Water has a a. low specific heat, and this tends to lead to variability in body temperature. b. low specific heat, and this tends to minimize sweating. c. high specific heat, and this tends to keep body temperature relatively constant. d. high specific heat, and this tends to cause large amounts of sweating. e. low specific heat, and this tends to result in chills and shivering.

high specific heat, and this tends to keep body temperature relatively constant

The region of an enzyme into which the substrate fits is a a. highly specific antibody. b. one-size-fits-all antibody. c. one-size-fits-all active site. d. highly specific active site.

highly specific active site.

The elbow is a _______ joint. a. plane b. hinge c. saddle d. condyle

hinge

The joint just proximal to the knee is which one of these? a. Ankle b. Hip c. Spine

hip

Endocrine glands secrete a. sweat. b. hormones. c. saliva. d. digestive enzymes. e. All of the choices are correct.

hormones

Endochondral ossification begins with a(n) _________ model. a. hyaline cartilage b. osteoid c. membranous d. mesenchyme e. dense connective tissue

hyaline cartilage

The pressure exerted by a fluid on the inside wall of its container (or vessel, in the case of the human body), is called ____. a. osmosis b. hydrostatic pressure c. filtration d. carrier-mediated diffusion e. concentration gradient

hydrostatic pressure

When the angle between articulating bones increases beyond the anatomic position, the movement is referred to as a. hyperflexion. b. dislocation. c. hypertrophy. d. supination. e. hyperextension.

hyperextension.

Epidermal dendritic (Langerhans) cells function as part of the ______ response. a. immune b. sweating c. heating d. sensory e. tanning

immune

The cell bodies of sensory neurons are found a. in posterior root ganglia b. in posterior horns of gray matter. c. in anterior horns of gray matter. d. in the white matter funiculi.

in posterior root ganglia.

The pigment melanin is a(n) a. inclusion. b. triglyceride. c. membrane-bound organelle. d. non-membrane-bound organelle. e. nutrient.

inclusion.

In a lab setting, heating a vessel full of reactants will generally a. lower the reaction rate due to the change in structure of the reactants. b. increase the kinetic energy of the molecules and increase the reaction rate. c. lower the activation energy and the kinetic energy of the reactants. d. convert products to reactants by increasing the energy requirements. e. raise the activation energy and catalyze the reaction.

increase the kinetic energy of the molecules and increase the reaction rate.

The optimum temperature for most enzymes is around body temperature. If the body temperature is slightly elevated, what effect will this have on enzymatic reactions? a. Increased reaction rates b. Enzymes may denature c. Less kinetic energy, so less likely for enzyme and substrate to contact d. Stiffer, more rigid enzymes

increased reaction rates

Mechanical stress applied to bone __________ osteoblast activity in bone tissue, and the removal of mechanical stress __________ osteoblast activity. a. increases; decreases b. decreases; maintains c. increases; maintains d. decreases; increases

increases; decreases

Potassium has a higher concentration a. outside the cell versus inside the cell, and sodium is also more concentrated outside versus inside the cell. b. outside the cell versus inside the cell, whereas sodium has a higher concentration inside versus outside the cell. c. inside the cell versus outside the cell, whereas sodium has a higher concentration outside versus inside the cell. d. inside the cell versus outside the cell, and sodium is also more concentrated inside versus outside the cell.

inside the cell versus outside the cell, whereas sodium has a higher concentration outside versus inside the cell.

Contraction of the diaphragm assists in a. expiration. b. inspiration. c. flexion at the waist. d. extension at the waist. e. All of the choices are correct.

inspiration.

Proteins that are embedded within, and extend across, the phospholipid bilayer are called _____ proteins. a. catalytic b. integral c. peripheral d. cytoskeleton

integral

Association areas a. correlate similar functions from different lobes on the same side of the brain. b. integrate new sensory inputs with memories of past experiences. c. integrate outgoing motor information. d. correlate information from opposite sides of the brain. e. correlate similar functions from the same lobes on the opposite side of the brain.

integrate new sensory inputs with memories of past experiences.

The control center of a homeostatic mechanism a. integrates sensory input and signals for change as needed. b. detects a change in a variable that is being regulated. c. is a change in the external environment. d. brings about change to the internal environment.

integrates sensory input and signals for change as needed.

Pinocytosis is the process in which the cell a. internalizes ("eats") a large solid particle. b. pumps small solutes against their concentration gradient and out of the cell. c. internalizes ("drinks") a droplet of interstitial fluid. d. splits ("pinches") off a small part of itself to secrete into the extracellular space.

internalizes ("drinks") a droplet of interstitial fluid.

Which portion of a reflex arc is most likely to be located entirely within the central nervous system? a. interneuron b. sensory neuron c. somatic receptors d. motor neuron e. effectors

interneuron

Based on function, the vast majority of neurons are a. motor neurons. b. sensory neurons. c. interneurons. d. unipolar neurons. e. bipolar neurons.

interneurons.

The _________ provide passageways for spinal nerves to exit the vertebral column and travel to other parts of the body. a. intervertebral foramina b. vertebral foramina c. vertebral canals d. articular facets e. transverse foramina

intervertebral foramina

Symphyses can be found in the a. knee joints. b. intervertebral joints. c. glenohumeral joints. d. joints between the sternum and the ribs.

intervertebral joints.

The __________ muscles of the foot attach proximally and distally within the foot. a. extrinsic b. intrinsic c. intrinsic and extrinsic

intrinsic

MgCl2 fully dissociates into Mg2+ and Cl- ions when mixed with water. Therefore, the bonds between Mg2+ and Cl- in MgCl2 can be described as ionic. polar covalent. nonpolar covalent. hydrogen bonds.

ionic

Touching a hot object with the right hand will result in withdrawal of the right hand from the object. This is an example of a(n) ____________ reflex. a. contralateral b. ipsilateral

ipsilateral

The structure that functions as a diaphragm to control pupil size is the a. iris. b. cornea. c. ora serrata. d. anterior chamber. e. suspensory ligament.

iris.

A nerve a. is found only in the CNS. b. contains a single axon. c. carries only sensory information. d. carries information only toward the PNS. e. is a cablelike bundle of parallel axons.

is a cablelike bundle of parallel axons.

Compact bone a. is located deep to spongy bone in the diaphysis. b. is composed of tubular units called osteons. c. has a brace-like arrangement of trabeculae. d. is avascular. e. All of the choices are correct.

is composed of tubular units called osteons.

When a cell is placed in a solution with a very low solute concentration, water diffuses into the cell. Such a solution is called a(n) _________ solution. a. isotonic b. endergonic c. hypertonic d. hypotonic

isotonic

Endocrine glands a. lack ducts and secrete their products into the bloodstream or into interstitial fluid. b. lack ducts and secrete their products onto the skin surface. c. possess short ducts and secrete their products directly onto the skin surface. d. possess ducts to secrete their products into the bloodstream or into interstitial fluid. e. secrete mucus directly into a body cavity.

lack ducts and secrete their products into the bloodstream or into interstitial fluid.

Which of the following will increase during strenuous muscular activity? a. Myosin b. Carbon monoxide c. Lactate d. Oxygen e. Actin

lactate

A brain ventricle located in the cerebrum is the _____ ventricle. a. third b. fourth c. falx d. median e. lateral

lateral

In anatomic position, the radius lies _____ to the ulna. a. medial b. inferior c. superior d. lateral e. posterior

lateral

The axillary region is ______ to the pectoral region. proximal a. distal b. lateral c. medial c. inferior

lateral

Most commonly, which cerebral hemisphere is responsible for controlling speech? a. left b. right

left

The bones of the fingers and toes (phalanges) are categorized as _____ bones. a. irregular b. short c. long d. sesamoid e. flat

long

When atoms of elements on the left side of the periodic table ionize, they tend to a. add neutrons and therefore become megaions. b. gain electrons and therefore become anions. c. gain protons and therefore become anions. d. lose electrons and therefore become cations. e. lose protons and therefore become cations.

lose electrons and therefore become cations.

When atoms of elements on the left side of the periodic table ionize, they tend to a. add neutrons and therefore become megaions. b. lose electrons and therefore become cations. c. gain protons and therefore become anions. d. gain electrons and therefore become anions. e. lose protons and therefore become cations.

lose electrons and therefore become cations.

In the formation of an ionic bond between Na and Cl to form common table salt, sodium (Na) _____ an electron and chlorine (Cl) _____ an electron. a. gains; loses b. gains; also gains c. loses; also loses d. loses; gains

loses;gains

An ion is an atom or group of atoms that has a. a biological half-life due to radioactive decay. b. a different number of neutrons than most atoms of that element. c. lost or gained a proton. d. lost or gained an electron.

lost or gained an electron.

Parathyroid hormone release is triggered by _______ levels of calcium in the blood. a. high b. low

low

Enzymes are used to ___ the energy of activation needed to begin a reaction. a. energy b. activation c. production d. result e. lower f. catalyst g. increase h. chemicals

lower

The neurons that directly innervate skeletal muscles are called a. first-order neurons. b. lower motor neurons. c. second-order neurons. d. upper motor neurons.

lower motor neurons.

Lateral to the umbilical abdominopelvic region are the _____ regions. a. iliac b. hypochondriac c. epigastric d. hypogastric e. lumbar

lumbar

The medial and lateral condyles of the tibia articulate with the a. apex of the patella. b. medial and lateral condyles of the femur. c. medial and lateral epicondyles of the femur. d. head of the fibula. e. greater and lesser trochanters of the femur.

medial and lateral condyles of the femur.

The tapered, conical inferior end of the spinal cord is called the conus a. sacralis. b. caudalis. c. finalis. d. equine. e. medullaris.

medullaris.

The cylindrical space within the diaphysis of a long bone is called the a. epiphyseal plate. b. endosteum. c. lacuna. d. medullary cavity.

medullary cavity.

Increasing the depth of the articulating surface of the knee, much like the labra of the shoulder and hip, are fibrocartilaginous extensions of the synovial membrane called ___. a. tibial collateral ligament b. menisci c. transverse ligament d. patellar ligament e. fibular collateral ligament f. PCL g. tibiofibular h. ACL i. tibiofemoral joint

menisci

The first amino acid put in place when a protein is being synthesized at a ribosome is a. proline. b. methionine. c. cysteine. d. tryptophan. e. glycine.

methionine.

Which is a non-membrane-bound organelle? a. Rough endoplasmic reticulum b. Mitochondrion c. Microtubule d. Lysosome e. Golgi apparatus

microtubule

Divides the body or organ into right and left halves. a. midsagittal plane b. coronal plane c. transverse plane

midsagittal plane

The _________ are responsible for synthesizing most of a human body cell's ATP. a. mitochondria b. ribosomes c. nucleoli d. microfilaments e. lysosomes

mitochondria

Water contains two hydrogen atoms bound to one oxygen atom; "H2O" is therefore water's a. molecular formula. b. stochastic isomer. c. ionic compound. d. isotope ratio.

molecular formula

The simple sugar glucose is an example of a a. lipid. b. polysaccharide. c. glycogen. d. monosaccharide. e. polymer.

monosaccharide

The simple sugar glucose is an example of a a. monosaccharide. b. lipid. c. glycogen. d. polysaccharide. e. polymer.

monosaccharide.

Compared to a solution with a pH of 7, a solution with a pH of 4 is a. more basic and has a 300-fold decrease in [H+]. b. more basic and has a 1,000-fold increase in [H+]. c. more basic and has a 300-fold increase in [H+]. d. more acidic and has a 1,000-fold increase in [H+]. e. more acidic and has a 300-fold increase in [H+].

more acidic and has a 1,000-fold increase in [H+].

A protein consists of a. more than 200 amino acids. b. C-terminal, several nucleic acids, and an N-terminal. c. between 3 and 20 amino acids. d. an amine group, a carboxyl group, and an R group.

more than 200 amino acids.

The neurons that stimulate muscle contraction are called _____ neurons. a. sensory b. contractile c. inhibitory d. association e. motor

motor

If a joint moves in all three planes of space, it is classified as a. multiaxial. b. nonaxial. c. biaxial. d. uniaxial.

multiaxial.

A group of enzymes that are physically attached to one another is referred to as a(n) a. phosphate complex. b. multienzyme complex. c. metabolic pathway. d. allosteric pathway.

multienzyme complex.

Protect the ends of the fingers and toes from damage; can be used in defense a. skin b. hair c. glands d. nails

nails

Fatty acids consist mainly of carbon and hydrogen, and so fatty acids are a. polar and dissolve in water. b. nonpolar and do not dissolve in water. c. polar and do not dissolve in water. d. nonpolar and dissolve in water.

nonpolar and do not dissolve in water.

The building blocks that form the DNA double helix are called a. nitrogenous acids. b. steroid bases. c. nucleotides. d. nucleoli. e. nuclear pores.

nucleotides.

The portion of the brain involved primarily with vision is the a. frontal lobe. b. insula. c. occipital lobe. d. parietal lobe. e. temporal lobe.

occipital lobe.

The glial cell that myelinates and insulates axons within the CNS is the a. neurolemmocyte. b. microglial cell. c. ependymal cell. d. astrocyte. e. oligodendrocyte.

oligodendrocyte.

A bipolar neuron has a. two dendrites extending from the cell body. b. two axons extending from the cell body. c. a single short process that extends from the cell body and then splits into a peripheral and a central branch. d. one axon and one dendrite extending from the cell body.

one axon and one dendrite extending from the cell body.

When a person blinks, she is using her a. orbicularis oculi. b. depressor labii inferioris. c. orbicularis oris. d. occipitofrontalis muscle. e. procerus.

orbicularis oculi.

At what level of organization is a tooth? a. Atomic level b. System level c. Tissue level d. Cell level e. Organ level

organ level

Which level of organization in the human body involves two or more tissue types working together to perform specific, complex functions? a. Tissue level b. Cellular level c. Organ level d. Organismal level

organ level

The hypodermis is rich in adipose, and thus its functions include a. frequent regeneration, structural support, and defense against infection. b. maintenance of boundaries and sensation of stimuli. c. water regulation and vitamin synthesis. d. organ protection, energy storage, and thermal insulation.

organ protection, energy storage, and thermal insulation.

Movement away from high solvent concentration or towards high solute concentration describes a. osmosis b. hydrostatic pressure c. filtration d. carrier-mediated diffusion e. simple diffusion

osmosis

During the healing of a bone fracture, a hard callus is formed by a. osteoclasts. b. osteoblasts. c. osteocytes. d. fibroblasts.

osteoblasts

As the bone matrix calcifies and the secreting cells become walled in, a. osteoblasts become osteocytes. b. osteoclasts become osteocytes. c. osteoblasts become osteoclasts. d. osteogenic progenitors become osteoclasts.

osteoblasts become osteocytes.

Bone cells that become surrounded by bone matrix and are located in cavities called lacunae are a. osteogenic cells. b. osteoblasts. c. osteoclasts. d. osteocytes.

osteocytes

What unit of bone consists of a central canal (containing blood vessels, nerves, and lymph vessels) surrounded by concentric rings of calcified matrix? a. Lamella b. Canaliculus c. Osteocyte d. Osteon e. Trabeculum

osteon

Glycolipids are found on the a. inside of the cell, where they are a source of high-energy nutrition to power mitochondria. b. inner layer of the cell membrane, and they provide scaffold support to the cell membrane. c. middle layer of the cell membrane, and they function to transmit solutes through the membrane. d. outer layer of the cell membrane, and they help make the sticky sugar coating on its surface.

outer layer of the cell membrane, and they help make the sticky sugar coating on its surface.

If an electron and a hydrogen ion are removed from a structure during a chemical reaction, the structure is said to have been a. dehydrogenated. b. oxidized. c. dehydrated. d. reduced.

oxidized

In a chemical reaction where an electron is exchanged from one reactant to another, the structure that loses an electron is a. catalyzed. b. analyzed. c. oxidized. d. reduced.

oxidized

The lobe that is immediately posterior to the central sulcus and that is involved in general sensory functions is the a. temporal lobe. b. frontal lobe. c. parietal lobe. d. occipital lobe. e. parietal lobe.

parietal lobe.

The outer serous membrane lining the abdominal a. a. cavity is called the b. parietal pericardium c. visceral peritoneum d. visceral pleura e. parietal peritoneum

parietal peritoneum

Which is a sesamoid bone? a. Clavicle b. Calcaneus c. First metatarsal d. Patella e. Femur

patella

The tibial tuberosity is the attachment site for the a. patellar ligament. b. hamstring muscles. c. intercondylar eminence. d. patellar tendon. e. sciatic nerve.

patellar ligament.

The anatomic changes that result from disease are studied under a. histology. b. pathologic anatomy. c. developmental anatomy. d. surgical anatomy. e. systemic anatomy.

pathologic anatomy

The break of a bone that has been weakened by disease is a ________fracture; when a broken end of the bone pierces the skin, the fracture is ________. a. greenstick; simple b. pathologic; compound c. pathologic, simple. d. stress; greenstick e. epiphyseal; stress

pathologic; compound

The type of muscles in which the fascicles are at an oblique angle to the tendon and the muscle fibers resemble a large feather is called a. parallel. b. circular. c. convergent. d. pennate.

pennate.

The bond between adjacent amino acids is a(n) ________ bond. a. amino b. peptide c. hydrogen d. ionic

peptide

The molecular formula for bicarbonate ion is HCO3-. It is therefore a a. polyatomic anion. b. polyatomic cation. c. radioactive isotope. d. cationic compound.

polyatomic anion

Proteins are a. neither monomers nor polymers. b. polymers made up of amino acid monomers. c. monomers. d. monomers made of repeating subunits of polymers. e. polymers made of repeating units of carbohydrates.

polymers made up of amino acid monomers.

The directional term that means "in back of" or "toward the back surface" is a. proximal. b. cephalic. c. caudal. d. anterior. e. posterior.

posterior

In neurophysiology, the term "summation" refers to the addition of a. action potentials at the node of Ranvier. b. resting membrane potentials in a particular area of the brain. c. presynaptic hyperpolarizations. d. excitatory neurotransmitter molecules at a receptor. e. postsynaptic potentials at the initial segment.

postsynaptic potentials at the initial segment.

Most commonly, a synapse is made between a a. presynaptic neuron's dendrite and a postsynaptic membrane's cell body. b. presynaptic neuron's soma and a postsynaptic neuron's synaptic knob. c. presynaptic neuron's axon and a postsynaptic neuron's dendrite. d. presynaptic neuron's axon hillock and a postsynaptic neuron's cell body.

presynaptic neuron's axon and a postsynaptic neuron's dendrite.

The primary function of eyebrows is to a. prevent sweat from dripping into the open eye. b. prevent excess light from entering the eye. c. form a protective barrier of fat and hair to help shade the eye. d. allow the appropriate amount of light to enter the eye. e. prevent objects from striking the eye.

prevent sweat from dripping into the open eye.

After the thalamus, auditory nerve signals reach the a. cochlear nucleus. b. medial geniculate nucleus. c. primary auditory cortex. d. inferior colliculus.

primary auditory cortex.

Some bone interiors contain hemopoietic tissue, which functions in a. making connective tissue fibers. b. breaking down toxins. c. storing fat. d. producing hormones. e. producing blood cells.

producing blood cells.

If you were studying the functions of skeletal muscle, you would be studying all of the following except a. helping maintain a constant body temperature. b. protecting internal organs. c. production of blood cells. d. holding the head erect. e. movement.

production of blood cells.

Flat bones a. have elaborate shapes, and sometimes resemble sesame seeds. b. protect underlying soft tissue and may be slightly curved. c. are, by definition, not at all curved. d. have a diaphysis and an epiphysis. e. include the bones of the wrist that glide across each other.

protect underlying soft tissue and may be slightly curved.

Hemoglobin in blood, collagen in tendons, and enzymes in the digestive system are all examples of a. carbohydrates b. lipids c. proteins d. amino acids e. catalyst

proteins

An element's atomic number is determined by the number of __________ in one atom of that element. a. protons b. atomic mass units c. electrons d. nuclei e. neutrons

protons

The directional term that means "closest to the point of attachment to the trunk" is a. dorsal b. distal. c. medial. d. proximal. e. cephalic.

proximal.

Which of the following is a product of glycolysis? a. FADH2 b. Pyruvate c. NAD+ d. Carbon dioxide e. Oxygen

pyruvate

The bones of the antebrachium are the a. radius, ulna, carpals, and metacarpals. b. carpals, metacarpals, and phalanges. c. radius and ulna. d. radius, ulna, and humerus. e. radius, ulna, humerus, and carpals.

radius and ulna.

In an adult, red bone marrow is found in all of the following bones except the a. sternum. b. vertebrae. c. radius of forearm. d. ribs.

radius of forearm.

Reflexes are described as a. rapid and involuntary. b. pre-programmed and voluntary. c. slow and spontaneous. d. spontaneous and self-initiating.

rapid and involuntary.

Chemically gated ion channels are mainly found in the ________ segment of a neuron. a. initial b. conductive c. receptive d. transmissive

receptive

The entire area through which the sensitive ends of the receptor cells are distributed is the a. Concentrated along basal cells b. Buried within the olfactory glands c. At the apical surface of olfactory neurons d. At the surface of supporting cells e. Scattered among the lamina propria

receptive field.

Consider the difference between lifting a light pad of paper versus a heavy textbook. The primary way the level of force of muscle contraction is controlled is by a. activating different regions of the muscle. b. activating the motor units at a different frequency. c. recruiting a different number of motor units. d. altering the number of crossbridges each individual fiber uses.

recruiting a different number of motor units.

The abdominal muscle that extends vertically the entire length of the anteromedial abdominal wall and forms the traditional "six pack" is the a. external oblique. b. transverse abdominis. c. rectus abdominis. d. internal oblique.

rectus abdominis.

Oxidative fibers are a. red and fatigable. b. white and fatigable. c. white and fatigue-resistant. d. red and fatigue-resistant.

red and fatigue-resistant.

When NAD+ becomes NADH, it is being a. oxidized and releasing chemical energy. b. oxidized and gaining chemical energy. c. reduced and releasing chemical energy. d. reduced and gaining chemical energy.

reduced and gaining chemical energy.

Connective tissue proper is divided into two broad categories: loose connective tissue and dense connective tissue. This classification is based upon the a. size of the cells present. b. origin of the tissue type. c. number of different cells types and their respective arrangement. d. relative proportions of cells, fibers, and ground substance present. e. relative proportions of cells, fibers, and ground substance present.

relative proportions of cells, fibers, and ground substance present.

The term "activation energy" refers to the amount of energy a. released by a catabolic reaction. b. required to initiate only catabolic reactions. c. released by an endergonic reaction. d. required to initiate any chemical reaction. e. released by an exergonic reaction.

required to initiate any chemical reaction.

The electron transport chain a. does not require oxygen, and involves proteins in the cristae of mitochondria. b. requires oxygen, and involves proteins in the outer membrane of mitochondria. c. requires oxygen, and involves proteins in the cristae of mitochondria. d. does not require oxygen, and involves proteins in the outer membrane of mitochondria.

requires oxygen, and involves proteins in the cristae of mitochondria.

If a heavy load is at one end of a lever, the distance between the fulcrum and that load is called the a. resistance arm. b. lever length. c. effort arm.

resistance arm.

When an organism senses and reacts to changes in their internal or external environments, this is an example of a. responsiveness. b. metabolism. c. reproduction. d. organization.

responsiveness

The deeper sublayer of the dermis is the ________ layer, and it is the _______ of the two. a. papillary, thinner b. reticular, thinner c. reticular, thicker d. papillary, thicker

reticular, thicker

A posterior root contains a. motor axons only. b. autonomic nervous system axons. c. sensory axons only. d. a mix of sensory and motor axons.

sensory axons only.

The _________ is a large, saw-toothed, flat, fan-shaped muscle positioned between the ribs and the scapula. a. subclavius b. pectoralis minor c. trapezius d. serratus anterior e. levator scapulae

serratus anterior

The normal level at which a physiological variable is maintained is known as its a. set point. b. effector. c. control center. d. stimulus. e. negative feedback.

set point.

The citric acid cycle involves a. several enzymes within the cytosol and the outer membrane of the mitochondrion. b. a multienzyme complex within the cytosol. c. a multienzyme complex within the outer compartment of the mitochondrion. d. several enzymes within the matrix of the mitochondrion.

several enzymes within the matrix of the mitochondrion.

The bones of the wrist are classified as _____ bones. a. regular b. short c. irregular d. flat e. long

short

Cephalic is to head as deltoid is to a. shoulder b. armpit c. chest d. sternum

shoulder

The acromioclavicular joint is part of the a. shoulder. b. cranium. c. neck. d. elbow. e. sternum.

shoulder

The movement of particles from an area of high concentration to an area of low concentration describes ___. a. osmosis b. filtration c. carrier-mediated diffusion d. concentration gradient e. simple diffusion

simple diffusion

The type of epithelial tissue that is only one cell-layer thick is called __________; the type of epithelial tissue that is two or more cell-layers thick is called _________. a. squamous, transitional b. pseudostratified, cuboidal c. simple; stratified d. stratified; columnar

simple; stratified

The most abundant form of smooth muscle is a. multiunit, which is also known as varicose muscle. b. single-unit, which is also known as somatic nervous system muscle c. single-unit, which is also known as visceral smooth muscle. d. multiunit, which is also known as visceral smooth muscle. e. cardiac muscle, which is also known as visceral smooth muscle.

single-unit, which is also known as visceral smooth muscle.

Protects against abrasion; contains melanin, which absorbs damaging UV light a. skin b. hair c. glands d. nails

skin

The type of muscle fibers that have only a single nucleus, both thick and thin filaments, but no Z discs, are a. skeletal. b. cardiac and skeletal. c. cardiac. d. smooth. e. cardiac and smooth.

smooth

The type of muscle that is found in blood vessel walls is __________ muscle. a. cardiac b. skeletal c. smooth

smooth

The three forms of matter are a. solids, liquids, and gases. b. vapor, water, and solid. c. blood, bone, and air. d. air, water, and solids.

solids, liquids, and gases.

Table sugar completely dissolved in water is an example of a a. colloid b. suspension c. solution

solution

The portion of the nervous system that conducts impulses from the skin, joints, skeletal muscles, and special senses is the ___________ division. a. autonomic motor b. visceral sensory c. somatic sensory d. somatic motor

somatic sensory

According to the second law of thermodynamics, when energy is transformed from one kind to another a. new energy is created. b. homeostasis is maintained. c. chemical bonds must be broken. d. some of it is converted to heat. e. some energy is destroyed.

some of it is converted to heat.

In humans, the only cell that bears a flagellum is the ________ cell. a. brain b. red blood c. oocyte d. sperm e. kidney

sperm

The vertebral processes that are most easily palpated along the midline of the back are the _____ processes. a. lamellar b. superior articular c. transverse d. inferior articular e. spinous

spinous

The part of the cochlea that converts pressure waves (from sounds) into changes in membrane potentials is the a. spiral organ. b. helicotrema. c. modiolus. d. scala vestibuli. e. scala tympani.

spiral organ.

The integument consists of the epidermis, which is composed of _____________, and the dermis, which is composed primarily of ____________ connective tissue. a. simple columnar epithelium; stratified b. simple squamous epithelium; dense regular c. stratified squamous epithelium; dense irregular d. dense irregular connective tissue; dense regular and dense irregular

stratified squamous epithelium; dense irregular

The shallow depressions between folds on the surface of the brain are called a. gyri. b. sulci. c. syncitia. d. ventricles.

sulci.

Rotation of the forearm so as to direct the palm anteriorly (as in anatomic position) is called a. abduction. b. protraction. c. supination. d. pronation. e. eversion.

supination.

The enzyme-substrate complex is a. another name for the active site. b. a pocket on the substrate that the enzyme recognizes. c. the reactants whose chemical reaction the enzyme catalyzes. d. the chemical structure formed when the substrate binds to the active site.

the chemical structure formed when the substrate binds to the active site.

The electrochemical gradient refers to a. the combination of electrical and chemical gradients between two areas. b. the difference in electrical charge between two areas. c. the resistance a membrane has to allowing any charged chemical to pass through it. d. the difference in concentration of a substance between two areas.

the combination of electrical and chemical gradients between two areas.

In a first-class lever a. the effort is between the resistance and the fulcrum. b. there is no effort arm. c. the resistance is between the fulcrum and the effort. d. the fulcrum is in the middle, between the effort and the resistance.

the fulcrum is in the middle, between the effort and the resistance.

Homeostasis is best described as... a. the prevention of changes internally despite external changes. b. the changes in the internal environment which have no influence on health. c. the maintenance of a stable internal environment despite a changing external environment. d. a process in which the external environment has no influence on the internal environment.

the maintenance of a stable internal environment despite a changing external environment.

Lines of cleavage are a result of a. the alignment of epidermal ridges. b. the orientation of collagen fibers in the dermis. c. wounds to the epidermis such as hemangiomas. d. the alignment of dermal papillae.

the orientation of collagen fibers in the dermis.

When transmission occurs at a synapse, neurotransmitter is released by a. the presynaptic neuron's synaptic knob into the synaptic cleft. b. the presynaptic neuron's soma into synaptic vesicles. c. the postsynaptic neuron's dendrites into the synaptic cleft. d. the postsynaptic neuron's telodendria into the axon hillock. e. the presynaptic neuron's dendrites into the synaptic cleft.

the presynaptic neuron's synaptic knob into the synaptic cleft.

A double covalent bond involves a. the sharing of one pair of electrons. b. the donation of two pairs of electrons. c. the sharing of two pairs of electrons. d. the donation of one pair of electrons.

the sharing of two pairs of electrons.

The ___ is one of the two major extracapsular ligaments of the knee. It provides protection from medial displacement if there is a laterally applied force.a. tibial collateral ligament b. menisci c. transverse ligament d. patellar ligament e. fibular collateral ligament f. PCL g. tibiofibular h. ACL i. tibiofemoral joint

tibial collateral ligament

The ___is an extremely complicated synovial joint due to its potential for multiaxial motion when flexed. a. tibial collateral ligament b. menisci c. transverse ligament d. patellar ligament e. fibular collateral ligament f. PCL g. tibiofibular h. ACL i. tibiofemoral joint

tibiofemoral joint

Groups of similar cells and extracellular products that carry out a common function are called a. organs. b. organ systems. c. matrices. d. tissues.

tissues

A fever of 101°F causes most enzymes in the human body a. to become more rigid. b. to saturate. c. to be more flexible and efficient. d. to denature.

to be more flexible and efficient.

An EPSP will cause the postsynaptic membrane a. potential to become more negative. b. potential to maintain its resting value of -70 mV. c. to depolarize. d. to hyperpolarize.

to depolarize.

A conduction pathway consists of a(n) a. ganglion and a nucleus. b. nerve and effector. c. tract and a nucleus. d. nerve and a tract.

tract and a nucleus.

The delivery of drugs through the skin through the use of an adhesive patch is called _____ administration. a. intramuscular b. transdermal c. subcutaneous d. hypodermal

transdermal

The type of epithelium that lines the urinary bladder and may include some binucleated cells is called ____________ epithelium. a. pseudostratified b. stratified squamous nonkeratinized c. transitional d. stratified squamous keratinized e. simple squamous

transitional

Dendrites a. transmit signals away from the cell body. b. transmit signals toward the cell body. c. manufacture proteins to be used by the neuron. d. use hormones to transmit information. e. release neurotransmitter.

transmit signals toward the cell body.

Proteins that assist the movement of a substance across the membrane are called _________ proteins. a. intercellular attachment b. transport c. identification d. catalytic e. cytoskeleton

transport

A(n) ____ plane separates the body into superior and inferior parts. a. sagittal b. frontal c. coronal d. transverse e. oblique

transverse

Connecting the medial and lateral menisci across the center of the articulating surface, the ___ provides a strut against separation.a. tibial collateral ligament b. menisci c. transverse ligament d. patellar ligament e. fibular collateral ligament f. PCL g. tibiofibular h. ACL i. tibiofemoral joint

transverse ligament

divides the body into superior and inferior portions a. midsagittal plane b. coronal plane c. transverse plane

transverse plane

The most common lipids in the body are a. eicosanoids, and they are used as hormonal messengers. b. steroids, and they are used as signaling molecules in inflammatory responses. c. phospholipids, and they are used as key ingredients of bile salts. d. glycoproteins, and they are used as backbones for cell membranes. e. triglycerides, and they are used for energy storage in adipose.

triglycerides, and they are used for energy storage in adipose.

When diagramming an atom, the innermost shell is filled with ______ electrons. a. two b. ten c. six d. eight

two

When diagramming an atom, the innermost shell is filled with ______ electrons. a. eight b. ten c. six d. two

two.

In general, you become unaware of the shirt on your back because your touch receptors a. are tonic. b. are transducers. c. maintain firing but are ignored. d. undergo adaptation.

undergo adaptation.

One function of the brain's frontal lobe is a. verbal communication. b. speech interpretation. c. smell. d. hearing. e. vision.

verbal communication.