Knowledge Exam

Prolonged use of fast-twitch fibers results in fatigue because the process is ________. Select one: A.antagonist B.agonist C.aerobic D.anaerobic

The correct answer is D.Anaerobic refers to a process that does not require oxygen at the time but requires oxygen for recovery.Answer A: An antagonist's muscle acts as opposing muscles to agonists. They usually contract as a means of returning the limb to its original position.Answer B: An agonist is a contracting muscle whose action generates a force in the intended direction.Answer C: Slow-twitch muscle fibers do not fatigue because they are aerobic, which means they use oxygen during their movements. The correct answer is: anaerobic

Malnutrition during fetal development is likely to have which effect on the brain? Select one: A.Scarring due to the death of brain cells B.Synaptic enlargement C.Malformation of the brain cells D.A reduced number of brain cells

The correct answer is D.The most consistent finding of the research is that malnutrition during fetal development results in a reduced number of brain cells. There is also some evidence that there are problems in myelination.Answer A: Incorrect.Answer B: Incorrect.Answer C: Incorrect. The correct answer is: A reduced number of brain cells

Meta-analysis of therapist/client racial/ethnic matching suggests that: Select one: A.clients may be more likely to remain in treatment when they are matched with therapists of their same race or ethnicity B.client/therapist matching has no effect C.client/therapist matching greatly improves treatment outcomes D.clients are less likely to remain in treatment when they are matched with therapists of their same race or ethnicity

Cabral and Smith (2011) found that clients prefer therapists of their own race and perceive therapists of their own race somewhat more positively than other therapists. This is consistent with the findings of meta-analysis related to therapist/client racial matching. For instance, Smith and Trimble (2016) found that clients are more likely to remain in treatment when they are matched with therapists of their same race or ethnicity. [Smith, Timothy B. & Trimble, Joseph E. (2016). Foundations of multicultural psychology: Research to inform effective practice, (pp. 115-128). Washington, DC, US: American Psychological Association, viii, 308 pp.]Answer B: This is not true. Numerous studies have found a correlation between length of treatment and client/therapist matching.Answer C: While studies have shown that therapist/client matching increases adherence to treatment, correlations with treatment outcome have not been highlighted.Answer D: The opposite is true. The correct answer is: clients may be more likely to remain in treatment when they are matched with therapists of their same race or ethnicity

To evaluate an intervention designed to increase the time a hyperactive child stays on-task when doing schoolwork, the best technique would be _____. Select one: A.situational sampling B.event recording C.interval recording D.sequential analysis

Feedback The correct answer is C.In this situation, the behavior may have no clear beginning or end, and the purpose of the evaluation is to determine how long the child exhibits the behavior. Interval recording involves dividing a period of time into equal intervals and recording whether or not the target behavior occurred during each interval. This technique could be easily used to assess time-on-task.Answer A: Situational sampling is used when an experimenter is interested in observing a behavior in different contexts.Answer B: Event recording is used primarily to investigate rare events (behaviors) and usually involves counting the number of times the behavior occurs during an event, which wouldn't be appropriate in this case.Answer D: Sequential analysis is used to study complex behavioral sequences (e.g., social interactions). The correct answer is: interval recording

Interventions for individuals diagnosed with Conduct Disorder are most effective when: Select one: A.they are combined with CBT or DBT. B.they begin during adolescence and include CBT. C.they begin before adolescence and include family interventions. D.they are combined with psychotropic medications.

Question text Question ID #13066: Interventions for individuals diagnosed with Conduct Disorder are most effective when: Select one: A.they are combined with CBT or DBT. B.they begin during adolescence and include CBT. C.they begin before adolescence and include family interventions.Correct D.they are combined with psychotropic medications. Feedback The correct answer is C.Interventions for youth diagnosed with Conduct Disorder are most effective when they target preadolescents and when they include family intervention, such as Parent Management Training (PMT), Multisystemic Treatment (MST), or Functional Family Therapy (FFT).Answers A, B, and D: Interventions for individuals diagnosed with Conduct Disorder are most effective when they begin before adolescence and include family interventions. The correct answer is: they begin before adolescence and include family interventions.

The essential feature of Oppositional Defiant Disorder is a recurrent pattern of an angry/irritable mood, argumentative/defiant behavior, or vindictiveness as evidenced by at least four symptoms that are exhibited during interactions with: Select one: A.at least one person who is not a sibling. B.at least one person who is a sibling. C.at least one parent or teacher. D.at least one authority figure.

The correct answer is A. According to the DSM-5, symptoms of Oppositional Defiant Disorder (ODD) must be exhibited during interactions with at least one person who is not a sibling. Answers B, C, and D: For a DSM-5 diagnosis of ODD, symptoms must be present during interactions with at least one person who is not a sibling. The correct answer is: at least one person who is not a sibling.

Most older adults who complete suicide have a psychiatric disorder at the time of their death, with __________ being the most common diagnosis. Select one: A.Major Depressive Disorder B.Substance Use Disorder C.Major Neurocognitive Disorder D.Generalized Anxiety Disorder

The correct answer is A. Researchers have consistently identified Major Depressive Disorder as a significant risk factor for suicide among older adults. Answer B: While Substance Use Disorders have also been present in older adults who completed suicide, these diagnoses account for a smaller number of cases. Answer C: Major Neurocognitive Disorder has been diagnosed in a smaller number of cases than Major Depressive Disorder. Answer D: While anxiety disorders have also been present in older adults who completed suicide, these diagnoses account for a smaller number of cases. The correct answer is: Major Depressive Disorder

Test-retest reliability would be the most appropriate method of determining the reliability of a test if the test is designed to assess which of the following? Select one: A.General intelligence B.Mood C.State anxiety D.Reading level

The correct answer is A.A test-retest reliability coefficient is obtained by correlating scores on a test with scores on the same test when the same set of examinees retakes it. A test-retest reliability coefficient is most appropriately used with traits that are stable over time. Otherwise, any variance in scores between administrations of the test may reflect the natural change in the trait rather than the test's lack of reliability. Of the answer choices, general intelligence is probably least likely to change significantly over time. Thus, scores on intelligence tests should not change over time and a reliable (accurate and consistent) intelligence test will yield similar scores even when administered at different times. Answers B, C, and D are incorrect. Mood, state anxiety, and reading level are not stable traits. Since a reliable measure of these traits can conceivably yield different scores at different times, the test-retest reliability coefficient will likely underestimate the true reliability of assessment measures. The correct answer is: General intelligence

Which of the following is the negative effect an unfair and biased selection procedure has on a protected class? Select one: A.Adverse impact B.Criterion-referencing C.Cut-off score D.Confidence interval

The correct answer is A.An adverse impact results from practices that seem to be neutral but that disproportionately and negatively affect protected groups.Answer B: The purpose of a criterion-referenced test is to measure an individual's absolute level of accomplishment of the material covered in that exam according to some standard reference point.Answer C: Cut-off scores are values that mark the lowest point at which a certain status or category is attained.Answer D: A confidence interval is a range of values that is likely to include a population value with a certain degree of confidence. The correct answer is: Adverse impact

Which of the following is a drug that blocks muscarinic acetylcholine receptors? Select one: A.Atropine B.Neostigmine C.Albumin D.Hemicholinium

The correct answer is A.Atropine is a natural alkaloid anticholinergic agent that has potent antimuscarinic effects and is used to treat symptomatic bradycardia.Answer B: Neostigmine is a drug that inhibits the activity of acetylcholinesterase.Answer C: Albumin is a protein found in the blood that transports free fatty acids and can bind with some lipid-soluble drugs.Answer D: Hemicholinium is a drug that inhibits the uptake of choline. The correct answer is: Atropine

Studies on information processing during the first two years of life indicate that infants first exhibit recognition memory for up to 24 hours following presentation of a stimulus at about ____ months of age. Select one: A.3 B.5 C.7 D.9

The correct answer is A.By three months of age, infants habituate to visual stimuli - i.e., show less response to the second presentation of a stimulus for periods up to 24 hours. This is interpreted as indicating that the infant recognizes the stimulus.Answer B: Incorrect.Answer C: By 7 months, infants begin to show signs of recall memory.Answer D: Incorrect. The correct answer is: 3

A DSM-5 diagnosis of Post-traumatic Stress Disorder or Acute Stress Disorder requires the development of characteristic symptoms following exposure to: Select one: A.actual or threatened death, serious injury, or sexual violence B.serious injury, or a threat to the physical integrity of self or others C.one or more severe psychosocial stressors D.a threat to the physical integrity of self or others

The correct answer is A.Criteria for Post-traumatic Stress Disorder and Acute Stress Disorder include symptoms of intrusion and avoidance, as well as alterations in mood, cognition, and arousal following exposure to actual or threatened death, serious injury, or sexual violence.Answers B, C, and D: A diagnosis of Post-traumatic Stress Disorder or Acute Stress Disorder requires the development of characteristic symptoms following exposure to actual or threatened death, serious injury, or sexual violence. The correct answer is: actual or threatened death, serious injury, or sexual violence

The concept of triangulation is central to general systems theory and can be found in the work of Bowen, Minuchin, Satir, and others. Although these theorists differ somewhat in their definition of triangulation, in general, it is said to: Select one: A.reduce tension as a two-person system draws in a third party.Correct B.reduce tension as the members of a two-person system focus their attention on a third party. C.facilitate avoidance of conflict between two persons as they form an alliance against a third person. D.reduce conflict as two members of a three-person system assume a submissive role when interacting with the third dominant member.

The correct answer is A.Different theorists have somewhat different definitions for the term "triangulation." The best answer to this question, therefore, is the one that is most general. As a general term, triangulation refers to the formation of a three-person system by two people in order to reduce the stress and conflict between them.Answer B: Minuchin described three types of triangles - stable coalition, triangulation, and detouring. This response describes detouring.Answer C: This is a type of triangle but is too specific to be the correct answer to this question.Answer D: This isn't an accurate definition of triangulation. The correct answer is: reduce tension as a two-person system draws in a third party.

Abraham Maslow derived his need hierarchy theory from: Select one: A.his experiences as a clinical psychologist B.his experience as an organizational consultant C.a review of the literature on motivation D.the principles of psychodynamic theory

The correct answer is A.During his work as a clinical psychologist, Maslow noticed that people are motivated by different needs. Maslow derived his theory about the need hierarchy and self-actualization from his observations of therapy clients, work with college students, and study of people he believed to be highly productive (e.g., Abraham Lincoln, Thomas Jefferson, Eleanor Roosevelt).Answers B, C, and D: Abraham Maslow derived his need hierarchy theory from his experiences as a clinical psychologist. The correct answer is: his experiences as a clinical psychologist

A practitioner of Minuchin's structural family therapy uses which of the following to alter the hierarchical relationships within a family system or subsystem? Select one: A.Unbalancing B.Tracking C.Reframing D.Mimesis

The correct answer is A.For the exam, you want to be familiar with the four techniques listed in the answers to this question. Unbalancing is a restructuring technique that is used by structural family therapists to change hierarchical relationships between family members. It may involve affiliating with a family member, ignoring a family member, or entering into a coalition with a family member against another member.Answer B: Tracking is a joining technique and involves following the verbal and nonverbal content of the family's communications by, for example, asking clarifying questions, showing interest in what they're saying, and connecting things they've said in the past to current interactions.Answer C: Reframing is a paradoxical technique that involves offering an alternative interpretation of the meaning of a behavior or event.Answer D: Mimesis is another joining technique and involves adopting the family's affective and communication style. The correct answer is: Unbalancing

High, prolonged levels of cortisol have been associated with mood disorders as well as shrinkage to which area of the brain? Select one: A.Hippocampus B.Thalamus C.Suprachiasmatic nucleus D.Cerebellum

The correct answer is A.High levels of cortisol can wear down the brain's ability to function properly. According to several studies, chronic stress impairs brain function by disrupting synapse regulation, resulting in the loss of sociability and the avoidance of interactions with others. Structurally, human studies have shown that stress changes neuronal morphology, suppresses neuronal proliferation, and reduces hippocampal volume.Answer B: A major role of the thalamus is to support the motor and language system. Damage to the thalamus can lead to a permanent coma.Answer C: The suprachiasmatic nucleus is the central pacemaker of the circadian timing system and regulates most circadian rhythms in the body. Damage to this area of the brain results in disturbed processes in the timing of hormone release and metabolism.Answer D: One function of the cerebellum is the coordination of voluntary movements. Damage to the cerebellum can lead to asynergia, dysmetria, adiadochokinesia, intention tremor, and ataxic gait. The correct answer is: Hippocampus

In a normal distribution of test scores, approximately ____% of scores are more than two standard deviations above the mean. Select one: A.2.5 B.5 C.7.5 D.10

The correct answer is A.In a normal distribution, approximately 95% of scores fall between scores that are -2 and +2 standard deviations from the mean. This means that about 2.5% of scores are less than the score that is 2 standard deviations below the mean and about 2.5% are more than the score that is 2 standard deviations above the mean.Answer B: For this question, you must identify the % of scores that fall more than two standard deviations above the mean. Knowing that roughly 95% of scores fall between scores that are -2 and +2 standard deviations from the mean, leaves you with 5% of scores that fall above and below the mean. About 2.5% of scores are less than the score that is 2 standard deviations below the mean and about 2.5% are more than the score that is 2 standard deviations above the mean.Answer C: About 95% of scores fall between scores that are -2 and +2 standard deviations from the mean. This means that about 2.5% of scores are less than the score that is 2 standard deviations below the mean and about 2.5% are more than the score that is 2 standard deviations above the mean.Answer D: About 95% of scores fall between scores that are -2 and +2 standard deviations from the mean. This means that about 2.5% of scores are less than the score that is 2 standard deviations below the mean and about 2.5% are more than the score that is 2 standard deviations above the mean. The correct answer is: 2.5

When 11-year old Samantha plays with her 5-year old brother Sam, she often assumes the role of "mother" and teaches Sam how to do things. Sam cooperates by doing what Samantha instructs him to do. The interaction between Samantha and her brother is best described as: Select one: A.complementary B.symmetrical C.parallel D.disengaged

The correct answer is A.In this situation, Samantha is the "teacher" while her younger brother is the "student." Complementary transactions are transactions between individuals who are not equals - e.g., between a dominant and a subordinate person.Answer B: Symmetrical transactions occur between equals.Answer C: Parallel transactions are a combination of complementary and symmetrical transactions.Answer D: The term "disengaged" is not used to describe the type of transaction presented in this question. The correct answer is: complementary

John is a 35-year-old graphic designer who is seeking help for his fear of public speaking. Due to a recent promotion, he is now required to make regular "pitches" to prospective clients. Previously, his work was mostly "behind the scenes," and he is afraid that he will "blow it" when making presentations and look incompetent and silly to his co-workers and the clients. John is considering asking to be demoted so that he won't have to make presentations. He states that public speaking has been a problem for him since high school and that he feels like he is having a panic attack whenever he has to speak in front of a group. The most likely DSM-5 diagnosis for John is: Select one: A.Social Anxiety Disorder B.Panic Disorder C.Specific Phobia D.Generalized Anxiety Disorder

The correct answer is A.John's symptoms meet the diagnostic criteria for Social Anxiety Disorder, which is diagnosed when the individual experiences marked fear of scrutiny by others in one or more social situations that is out of proportion to the actual threat posed by the situation. Since John's symptoms occur only when he speaks in public, the specifier "performance only" would be added to his diagnosis.Answer B: Panic Disorder is characterized by sudden, unexpected panic attacks. John's panicky feelings arise in response to a specific stressor (public speaking) and, therefore, are not unexpected.Answer C: Specific Phobia is characterized by marked fear or anxiety about a specific object or situation, whereas the fear or anxiety associated with Social Anxiety Disorder is related to a fear of scrutiny by others.Answer D: Generalized Anxiety Disorder involves excessive anxiety and worry about multiple events or activities and the anxiety and worry are not necessarily due to a fear of scrutiny by others. John's anxiety and worry are related to a single activity (public speaking) and to a fear of scrutiny by others, so Social Anxiety Disorder is the appropriate diagnosis. The correct answer is: Social Anxiety Disorder

An emphasis on contact, awareness, and experimentation is central to which of the following? Select one: A.Gestalt therapy B.Solution-focused therapy C.Adlerian therapy D.Rational-emotive therapy

The correct answer is A.Knowing that the goal of Gestalt therapy is to achieve conscious awareness would help to identify the correct response. Contact, conscious awareness, and experimentation are key targets in Gestalt therapy. Contact refers to being in touch with what is happening in the here-and-now; awareness refers to focused attention in situations requiring it; and experimentation is the act of trying something new in order to increase understanding.Answer B: The emphasis of solution-focused is a focus on solutions versus problems.Answer C: The focus of Adlerian includes: inferiority feelings, striving for superiority, style of life, and social interest.Answer D: In Rational-emotive therapy an emphasis is placed on challenging irrational beliefs that lead to negative emotional consequences, which result in self-defeating behaviors. The correct answer is: Gestalt therap

The intentional production of a physical symptom for the specific purpose of obtaining financial benefits is characteristic of which of the following? Select one: A.Malingering B.Factitious Disorder C.Conversion Disorder D.Somatic Symptom Disorder

The correct answer is A.Malingering involves the intentional production of physical or psychological symptoms to obtain an external reward. The goal of obtaining an external reward distinguishes this condition from Somatic Symptom and Related Disorders.Answer B: Although Factitious Disorder involves the intentional production of symptoms, the goal is not to obtain an external reward.Answer C: Conversion Disorder involves somatic symptoms that are incompatible with recognized neurological or medical conditions.Answer D: Somatic Symptom Disorder involves somatic symptoms that are distressing with excessive thoughts, feelings, or behaviors related to the symptoms. The correct answer is: Malingering

________ is the conscious experience and interpretation of information from the senses that involves neurons in the central nervous system. Select one: A.Perception B.Sensation C.Saturation D.Brightness

The correct answer is A.Perception refers to the way sensory information is organized, interpreted, and consciously experienced.Answer B: Sensation involves the cells of the nervous system that are specialized to detect stimuli from the environment.Answer C: Saturation refers to the relative purity of the light that is perceived.Answer D: Brightness is the second perceptual dimension of light and is a term that describes the intensity of light. The correct answer is: Perception

Dr. Green sets his clients' fees on the basis of a "sliding scale" that is based on their current income. This practice is _______________________________. Select one: A.acceptable but not explicitly mentioned in the Ethics Code B.unacceptable but not explicitly mentioned in the Ethics Code C.explicitly recommended in the Ethics Code D.explicitly prohibited in the Ethics Code

The correct answer is A.Sliding scale fees are not explicitly addressed in the Ethics Code. Sliding scale fees are generally considered acceptable as long as they are fair and serve the best interests of the client.Answer B: This answer is incorrect. Sliding scale fees are generally considered acceptable.Answer C: This answer is incorrect. The codes do not specifically address sliding scale fees.Answer D: This answer is incorrect. The codes do not prohibit the practice of using a sliding scale. The correct answer is: acceptable but not explicitly mentioned in the Ethics Code

Approximately 80% of children diagnosed with ADHD continue to have symptoms of the disorder as adolescents. However, in adolescence, symptoms of ____________ typically decrease. Select one: A.hyperactivity B.inattention C.hyperactivity and inattention D.inattention and impulsivity

The correct answer is A.Studies have demonstrated that most children diagnosed with ADHD continue to experience symptoms in adolescence but that the symptoms change somewhat. Hyperactivity typically decreases in adolescence while impulsivity (especially verbal and emotional impulsivity) and inattention continue.Answers B, C, and D: Symptoms of hyperactivity typically decrease in adolescence while inattention and impulsivity continue. The correct answer is: hyperactivity

The DSM-5 classifies symptoms of Substance Use Disorders into which of the following categories? Select one: A.Impaired control, social impairment, risky use, and pharmacological criteria B.Functional impairment, denial of consequences, impaired control, and pharmacological criteria C.Impaired control, tolerance, withdrawal, and functional impairment D.Functional impairment, tolerance and withdrawal, risky use, and marked distress

The correct answer is A.The DSM-5 categorizes the indicators of problematic substance use in terms of the four categories listed in this answer. Impaired control refers to the tendency of the individual to use more of the substance than intended, inability to cut down on substance use, craving for the substance, and tendency to spend a great deal of time obtaining, using, or recovering from the effects of the substance. Social impairment refers to difficulties with social, occupational, and/or recreational activities due to substance use. Risky use refers to the use of the substance in situations that are potentially physically hazardous or despite knowing that physical or psychological problems may be exacerbated by substance use. Pharmacological criteria include tolerance and withdrawal.Answers B, C, and D: The DSM-5 classifies symptoms of Substance Use Disorders into the following four categories - impaired control, social impairment, risky use, and pharmacological criteria The correct answer is: Impaired control, social impairment, risky use, and pharmacological criteria

Which of the following is NOT included as an Alcohol-Related Disorder in the DSM-5? Select one: A.Alcohol Dependence B.Alcohol Intoxication C.Alcohol Withdrawal D.Alcohol-Induced Major Neurocognitive Disorder

The correct answer is A.The DSM-5 distinguishes Alcohol Use Disorders on a continuum (mild, moderate, severe) based upon the number of applicable criteria. Alcohol Use Disorders replaced DSM-IV diagnoses of Alcohol Dependence and Alcohol Abuse.Answer B: Alcohol Intoxication is included as a diagnosis in the DSM-5 and involves maladaptive behavioral and psychological changes with at least one of the following symptoms: slurred speech; unsteady gait; nystagmus; impaired attention or memory.Answer C: The DSM-5 describes Alcohol Withdrawal as involving the development of at least two symptoms within several hours to a few days following cessation or reduction of alcohol consumption (e.g., autonomic hyperactivity, hand tremor, insomnia, transient illusions or hallucinations, seizures).Answer D: In the DSM-5, Alcohol-Induced Major Neurocognitive Disorder involves a significant decline in one or more cognitive domains that interferes with independence in everyday activities. The correct answer is: Alcohol Dependence

Which of the following is a group of subnuclei of the amygdala that receives sensory input, including information about the presence of odors and pheromones? Select one: A.Medial nucleus B.Lateral nucleus C.Central nucleus D.Red nucleus

The correct answer is A.The medial nucleus is a group of subnuclei of the amygdala that receives sensory input, including information about the presence of odors and pheromones, and relays it to the medial basal forebrain and hypothalamus.Answer B: The lateral nucleus is a nucleus of the amygdala that receives sensory information from the neocortex, thalamus, and hippocampus and sends projections to the basal, accessory basal, and central nucleus of the amygdala.Answer C: The central nucleus is the region of the amygdala that receives information from the basal, lateral, and accessory basal nuclei and sends projections to a wide variety of regions in the brain. It is involved in emotional responses.Answer D: The red nucleus is a structure in the rostral midbrain involved in motor coordination. The correct answer is: Medial nucleus

The stages of change (transtheoretical) model identifies two factors as the primary predictors of successful transition from one stage to the next. These are: Select one: A.perceived self-efficacy and decisional balance. B.locus of control and level of commitment. C.motivation and persuasibility. D.outcome expectancies and outcome value

The correct answer is A.The stages of change model identifies several factors that impact a person's willingness to alter a problematic behavior. These are the two factors that are identified in the model as predictors of movement from one stage to the next. Perception of self-efficacy refers to the belief that one is capable of taking the steps needed to change, while decisional balance refers to the balance between the perceived pros and cons of changing. The cons of changing outweigh the pros during the precontemplation and contemplation stages; the cons and pros are about equal during the preparation stage; and the pros outweigh the cons during the action and maintenance stages.Answer B, C, & D: Perception of self-efficacy and decisional balance are the two factors that predict movement between the stages of the transtheoretical model. The correct answer is: perceived self-efficacy and decisional balance.

Which of the following is used to determine the amount of variability in one variable that is predictable from another variable? Select one: A.Coefficient of determination B.Cronbach's alpha C.Coefficient of concordance D.Eta

The correct answer is A.To calculate the coefficient of determination, square the correlation coefficient. This provides a measure of shared variability, or the amount of variability in one variable that can be explained by variability in another variable (i.e., the amount of variability in one variable that is predictable from another variable).Answer B: Cronbach's alpha provides an estimate of a measure's internal consistency reliability.Answer C: The coefficient of concordance provides an estimate of inter-rater reliability for ranked data and three or more raters.Answer D: Eta is a correlation coefficient that is used to estimate the variability of two continuous variables that have a nonlinear relationship. The correct answer is: Coefficient of determination

Which of the following work shifts is likely to be associated with the least amount of job-related stress? Select one: A.Permanent day shift B.Permanent night shift C.Rotating shifts D.Compressed workweek with rotating shifts

The correct answer is A.Unfortunately, the research on work schedules is very inconsistent with different studies comparing different types of schedules and producing different results with regard to the outcomes associated with flextime, compressed workweek, rotating shifts, etc. In one study, workers who were switched from rotating shifts to permanent day shifts showed significant increases in several measures of well-being [T. Akerstedt and L. Torsvall, Experimental changes in shift schedules: The effect on well-being, Ergonomics, 21(10), 849-856, 1978]. In a more recent study, workers on fixed and rotating shifts were compared, and those on the fixed shift reported less stress and better work attitudes [M. Jamal and V. Baba, Shiftwork and department-type related to job stress, work attitudes, and behavioral intentions: A study of nurses, Journal of Organizational Behavior, 13(5), 449-464, 1992].Answer B: Studies comparing day and night shifts have usually found the day shift to be associated with better outcomes. Apparently, this is because, for most people, the night shift is inconsistent with the normal sleep-wake cycle.Answer C: The answer, "rotating shifts," is incorrect.Answer D: The answer, "compressed work week with rotating shifts," is incorrect. The correct answer is: Permanent day shift

Symptoms of Alcohol Withdrawal include: Select one: A.dysphoric mood, vivid dreams, insomnia or hypersomnia, and increased appetite. B.hand tremor, insomnia, hallucinations, and seizures. C.incoordination, nystagmus, impaired memory, and mood lability. D.dysphoric mood, pupillary dilation, insomnia, and fever.

The correct answer is B. Alcohol Withdrawal is diagnosed in the presence of at least two characteristic symptoms within several hours to a few days following cessation or reduction of alcohol consumption, e.g., hand tremor, insomnia, transient illusions or hallucinations, and generalized tonic-clonic seizures. Answer A: These symptoms are characteristic of Stimulant Withdrawal. Answer C: These are symptoms of Alcohol Intoxication. Answer D: These symptoms are associated with Opioid Withdrawal. The correct answer is: hand tremor, insomnia, hallucinations, and seizures.

Based on the initial evaluation of a 15-year-old boy, a clinician believes the nature and number of his symptoms suggest a DSM-5 diagnosis of Attention-Deficit/Hyperactivity Disorder, predominantly inattentive presentation. Before assigning the diagnosis, the clinician will want to confirm that the same symptoms were present before the boy was _____ years of age and that he exhibits them in at least _____ settings. Select one: A.7; 2 B.12; 2 C.6; 3 D.10; 3

The correct answer is B. For a diagnosis of ADHD, the DSM-5 requires that several inattentive or hyperactive-impulsive symptoms are present before age 12 and that symptoms are present in at least two settings (e.g., at home, school, or work; with friends or relatives; in other activities). Answers A, C, and D: These responses are incorrect as the DSM-5 requires symptoms to be present before age 12 and that they are present in at least two settings. The correct answer is: 12; 2

The DSM-5 requires which of the following for a diagnosis of Autism Spectrum Disorder? Select one: A.An onset of symptoms at three years of age B.An onset of symptoms during the early developmental period C.Apparent normal development for at least six months followed by a loss of previously acquired skills D.Apparent normal development for at least two years followed by a loss of previously acquired skills

The correct answer is B. For the diagnosis of Autism Spectrum Disorder, the DSM-5 requires that "symptoms must be present in the early developmental period." Answers A, C, and D: The correct DSM-5 requirement for a diagnosis of Autism Spectrum Disorder is an onset of symptoms during the early developmental period. The correct answer is: An onset of symptoms during the early developmental period

During the postpartum period, approximately _____ of women experience postpartum depression. Select one: A.1 to 2% B.10 to 15% C.25 to 30% D.45 to 50%

The correct answer is B. Postpartum depression is a mood disorder that begins within several weeks following delivery. Ten to 15% of women in the United States experience symptoms of postpartum depression. Factors associated with an increased risk for this diagnosis include having difficulty getting pregnant, having twins or triplets, having premature labor and delivery, experiencing pregnancy and birth complications, and having a baby during adolescence. Answers A, C, and D: These responses are incorrect as researchers have established that approximately 10 to 15% of women experience postpartum depression. The correct answer is: 10 to 15%

First-and second-grade children who have been identified as being at risk for academic underachievement are provided with a special after-school program. This is an example of: Select one: A.primary prevention B.secondary preventionCorrect C.tertiary prevention D.crisis prevention

The correct answer is B. Interventions aimed at identified individuals that have as their goal the reduction of the severity and/or prevalence of a disorder are categorized as secondary preventions. Since the school program is being given to identified individuals (children who have been identified as being at risk for academic problems), this qualifies as a form of secondary prevention.Answer A: As defined by many authorities, primary preventions are aimed at populations rather than at specific individuals who have been identified as being at-risk.Answer C: Tertiary preventions are more rehabilitative in nature.Answer D: Clearly, this program is not a form of crisis intervention. The correct answer is: secondary prevention

For most children, holophrastic speech begins between the ages of: Select one: A.8 to 12 months B.12 to 18 months C.18 to 24 months D.24 to 36 months

The correct answer is B.A child is exhibiting holophrastic speech when he/she uses a single word to convey an entire idea - e.g., uses the word "juice" to mean "give me some juice." Most children exhibit holophrastic speech by 12 to 18 months.Answer A: Incorrect. Answer C: Children begin exhibiting telegraphic speech (the use of two words to convey an entire sentence) between the ages of 18 and 24 months.Answer D: By about 24 to 36 months, most children use sentences of three or more words. The correct answer is: 12 to 18 months

For an extended family systems (Bowenian) therapist, when a family exhibits a high degree of fusion but one member is more differentiated than the others, the likely approach would be to: Select one: A.work with the least differentiated family members B.work with the most differentiated family member C.work with all members of the extended family as a group D.work with all family members in individual therapy until they reach a similar level of differentiation

The correct answer is B.According to Murray Bowen, a high degree of fusion (emotional "stuck togetherness") is the source of family dysfunction. The goal of Bowen's form of family therapy, therefore, is to help family members become less fused, or more differentiated (individuated). In contrast to many other family therapists, Bowen's form of therapy typically does not involve seeing all of the family members. Bowen often worked with the most differentiated family member on the assumption that, when that member changed in a positive way, his/her change would motivate other family members to move toward greater differentiation.Answer A: Followers of Bowen would likely work first with the most differentiated family member.Answer C: In contrast to many other family therapists, Bowen typically worked with the two most significant adult family members. This typically involved working with the parents or the parent who was the most differentiated, even when the "identified patient" was a child.Answer D: This is not a technique used by Bowen. The correct answer is: work with the most differentiated family member

A child living in the United States is exposed to both English and a second language between the ages of six months and three years and, as a result, becomes fluent in both languages. If the child had not been exposed to the second language until after the age of 4 or 5, she would have had more trouble acquiring the second language. This provides evidence for: Select one: A.the concept of critical periods B.the concept of sensitive periods C.the Whorfian hypothesis D.the notion of imprinting

The correct answer is B.Although some authors use the terms "critical period" and "sensitive period" interchangeably, they actually mean two different things. A sensitive period refers to an optimal period rather than a necessary period. The situation described in this question suggests there is a sensitive period for dual language learning.Answer A: A critical period refers to a time when certain developmental events MUST happen, or later aspects of development will not occur.Answer C: The Whorfian hypothesis says that the structure of a language determines or greatly influences the modes of thought and behavior characteristic of the culture in which it is spoken. This does not apply to this question.Answer D: Although imprinting is also a type of phase-sensitive learning, it specifically refers to the example of certain species of animals that form an attachment to the first large moving object that they meet. The correct answer is: the concept of sensitive periods

The characteristic symptoms of Tobacco Withdrawal include all of the following except: Select one: A.irritability or anger B.hypersomnia C.impaired concentration D.increased appetite

The correct answer is B.As described in the DSM-5, Tobacco Withdrawal involves the development of at least four characteristic symptoms within 24 hours of abrupt cessation or reduction in the use of tobacco - i.e., irritability or anger, anxiety, impaired concentration, increased appetite, restlessness, depressed mood, and/or insomnia.Answers A, C, and D: The characteristic symptoms of Tobacco Withdrawal include irritability or anger, anxiety, impaired concentration, and increased appetite. The correct answer is: hypersomnia

A structural family therapist's interventions when working with a triangulated family will be designed to: Select one: A.foster insight in order to establish more appropriate hierarchies and boundaries. B.create stress in order to unbalance the family's homeostasis. C.dilute the tension between family members in order to reduce triangulation. D.alter the family's implicit and explicit rules in order to increase differentiation.

The correct answer is B.As its name suggests, structural family therapy is concerned with restructuring the family. Before the family's structure can be altered, its homeostatic state must be unbalanced so that family members are more susceptible to change. This is accomplished by interjecting some type of stress into the family.Answer A: Structural family therapy is based on the premise that action precedes understanding, and it emphasizes changing behaviors rather than fostering insight.Answer C: Rather than diluting the tension, a structural family therapist would utilize stress as an entry point to alter the family's homeostatic state.Answer D: This sounds more like extended family systems therapy. The correct answer is: create stress in order to unbalance the family's homeostasis.

The mean age of onset of motor tics in Tourette's Disorder is: Select one: A.1 to 3 years B.5 to 7 years C.9 to 11 years D.12 to 14 years

The correct answer is B.For individuals with Tourette's Disorder, the onset of motor tics ordinarily precedes the onset of vocal tics. The reported mean age of onset of motor tics varies, but a commonly reported range is between 5 and 7 years. The onset of vocal tics is usually later, with a mean age of 11 years.Answers A, C, and D: These responses are incorrect as the mean age of onset of motor tics in Tourette's Disorder is 5 to 7 years. The correct answer is: 5 to 7 years

_____________ is a brief manualized therapy that was originally designed for the treatment of depression. Select one: A.Cognitive processing therapy B.Interpersonal therapy C.Dialectical behavior therapy D.Cognitive behavioral therapy

The correct answer is B.Interpersonal therapy (IPT) is a brief manual-based therapy that defines four key problem areas presented by depressed patients: grief, interpersonal role disputes, role transition, and interpersonal deficits. These areas are the primary targets of therapy. While IPT was originally developed as a treatment for depression, its use has since been applied to a number of other mental health maladies.Answer A: CPT was developed in the 1980s by Patricia Resick, Ph.D. for the treatment of PTSD among sexual assault survivors. It has since been applied to other traumatized populations.Answer C: DBT was originally developed by Marsha Linehan for the treatment of borderline personality disorder. The use of DBT has since been widely diversified.Answer D: While CBT was originally developed by Beck for the treatment of depression; it is not inherently a manual based therapy. However, since CBT's inception, many manualized versions of CBT have been created. Though CBT is generally regarded as a time-sensitive therapy, it is not always brief. As a result some manualized adaptations of CPT, such as brief cognitive behavioral therapy, have condensed the general format from 12-20 sessions to between 4-8 sessions. The correct answer is: Interpersonal therapy

As defined by Minuchin, triangulation is a: Select one: A.healthy adaptation by family members to unexpected change B.way for family members to avoid dealing with stress or conflict C.method used by the therapist to diagnose the family structure D.method used by the therapist to reduce stress in the family

The correct answer is B.Minuchin described triangulation as a type of rigid triad. Triangulation occurs when parents are in conflict, and both try to recruit a child to their side to avoid or reduce the conflict between them. Answer A: Triangulation, as described by Minuchin, is an unhealthy dynamic.Answer C: Triangulation is not a therapist intervention.Answer D: Triangulation relates to a dynamic initiated by a client rather than the therapist. The correct answer is: way for family members to avoid dealing with stress or conflic

A child with Oppositional Defiant Disorder is least likely to exhibit which of the following? Select one: A.Frequent conflicts with his/her parents B.A high degree of physical aggression toward peers C.Frequently blames others for his or her mistakes D.Often loses temper

The correct answer is B.Oppositional Defiant Disorder (ODD) involves a pattern of angry/irritable mood, argumentative/defiant behavior, or vindictiveness. Although children with this disorder may be verbally aggressive, a high degree of physical aggression is not characteristic and may be a sign of comorbid Conduct Disorder.Answer A: It's likely a child diagnosed with ODD would exhibit conflict with their parents. Answer C: Blaming is another behavior a child diagnosed with ODD may exhibit. Answer D: Feeling angry/irritable or losing their temper is another symptom likely to be exhibited in a child diagnosed with ODD. The correct answer is: A high degree of physical aggression toward peers

Telling a husband and wife who complain that they are constantly arguing with each other to argue for at least two hours every night is referred to as? Select one: A.Positioning B.Prescribing the symptom C.Double-bind communication D.An ordeal

The correct answer is B.Prescribing the symptom, which involves instructing a family member to deliberately engage in the symptom, is a paradoxical intervention often used in strategic family therapy.Answer A: This paradoxical technique involves exaggerating the severity of the symptom.Answer C: This is not an example of double-bind communication.Answer D: This paradoxical intervention involves assigning an unpleasant task that the client must engage in whenever a symptom occurs. The correct answer is: Prescribing the symptom

Dr. Green is contacted by an insurance company, which wants information about a previous client of hers. The client's fee was paid by the insurance company when he was seeing her, and the insurance company now wants information for part of its regular peer review process. Dr. Green's best course of action would be to ______________________________. Select one: A.provide the insurance company with the information it requests B.provide the insurance company with the information it requests only after ensuring that the company will take steps to protect the client's confidentiality C.provide the insurance company with the information it requests in a way that allows the client's identity to be concealed D.refuse to release any information to the company unless she feels it is in the client's best interests

The correct answer is B.Problems related to confidentiality constituted one of the original objections to the peer review process. Insurance companies and other third-party payers have, however, been fairly responsible in finding ways to maintain the confidentiality of clients. Normal confidentiality requirements are relaxed in cases of peer review because of the necessity to provide review committees with information about clients. However, confidentiality is always an issue when releasing information about a client and, consequently, this answer would be the best course of action.Answer A: This answer is incorrect. Psychologists should ensure client information is protected.Answer C: This answer is incorrect, as given the nature of the situation, this would likely be impossible. In cases of peer review, the practice is for the insurance company to safeguard the client's confidentiality by removing the client's name from the clinical information before passing it on to the committee.Answer D: This answer is incorrect. In this situation, as in others involving the release of information, you would want to release only information you deem to be relevant. The correct answer is: provide the insurance company with the information it requests only after ensuring that the company will take steps to protect the client's confidentiality

: For a diagnosis of Separation Anxiety Disorder, the DSM-5 requires symptoms of fear, anxiety, or avoidance that have lasted for at least __________ in children and adolescents or about __________ in adults. Select one: A.two weeks; four weeksIncorrect B.four weeks; six months C.four weeks; six weeks D.two months; eight months

The correct answer is B.The DSM-5 specifies a minimum duration of symptoms for Separation Anxiety Disorder of 4 weeks in children and adolescents and typically 6 months in adults.Answers A, C, and D: The correct duration of symptoms indicate 4 weeks in children and adolescents and typically 6 months in adults. The correct answer is: four weeks; six months

Which of the following is the ability of the nervous system to change in response to experience or the environment? Select one: A.Reductionism B.Neural plasticity C.Ontogeny D.Neuroscience

The correct answer is B.The ability of the brain to be changed by the environment and by experience is called neural plasticity.Answer A: Reductionism is the scientific strategy of breaking a system down into increasingly smaller parts to understand it.Answer C: Ontogeny is the process by which individual changes in the course of its lifetime, as it grows up and grows older.Answer D: Neuroscience is the study of the nervous system. The correct answer is: Neural plasticity

Which of the following is a small nucleus in the brainstem whose neurons produce norepinephrine and modulate large areas of the forebrain? Select one: A.Substantia nigra B.Locus coeruleus C.Striatum D.Raphe nuclei

The correct answer is B.The locus coeruleus is a small nucleus located in the pons and is the primary source of noradrenaline in the forebrain. It is involved with physiological responses to stress and panic.Answer A: The substantia nigra is a midbrain structure that provides dopaminergic projections to areas of the forebrain, specifically the basal ganglia.Answer C: The striatum consists of the caudate nucleus and putamen. The neuronal activity of the striatum is related to movements, rewards, and the conjunction of both.Answer D: The raphe nuclei is a string of nuclei in the midline of the midbrain and brainstem that contain most of the serotonergic neurons of the brain. The correct answer is: Locus coeruleus

The transmission of messages from one neuron to another through a synapse is called ________. Select one: A.postsynaptic potential B.synaptic transmission C.saltatory conduction D.decremental conduction

The correct answer is B.The primary means of communication between neurons is called synaptic transmission.Answer A: Alterations in the membrane potential of a postsynaptic neuron, produced by the liberation of neurotransmitters at the synapse produces postsynaptic potentials.Answer C: Saltatory conduction is the conduction of action potentials by myelinated axons.Answer D: Decremental conduction is a gradual decrease in the stimuli and response along a pathway of conduction. It occurs in nerve fibers with reduced membrane potentials. The correct answer is: synaptic transmission

Research using elicited imitation tasks (e.g., imitating a sequence of events such as removing a mitten from a puppet, shaking the mitten, and then replacing the mitten on the puppet) indicate that, for most infants, the onset of the ability to recall the past occurs: Select one: A.between 3 and 6 months of age B.between 6 and 12 months of age C.between 12 and 18 months of age D.between 18 and 24 months of ag

The correct answer is B.There is physiological and behavioral evidence that the neural mechanisms required for long-term memory recall undergo significant development during the second half of the first year of life. In one study using the procedure described in this question, 75% of infants 6, 9, or 11 months of age imitated at least one action (e.g., removing the mitten) after a delay of 24 hours [Barr, R. et al. (1996). Developmental changes in deferred imitation by 6- to 24-month old infants. Infant Behavior and Development, 19, 159-170.]Answers A, C, and D: Research using elicited imitation tasks indicate that, for most infants, the onset of the ability to recall the past occurs between 6 and 12 months of age. The correct answer is: between 6 and 12 months of age

A new client tells the clinician that she has been feeling "down in the dumps" and "completely worthless" for the last five or six days. She also says she is having trouble sleeping, has lost her appetite, and feels anxious "all the time." The client denies having previous mood problems and states that there are no specific stressors in her life. The client's symptoms are most suggestive of which of the following DSM-5 diagnoses? Select one: A.Major Depressive Disorder B.Other Specified Depressive Disorder C.Other Specified Anxiety Disorder D.Major Depressive Episode, single episode

The correct answer is B.This client has symptoms of Major Depressive Disorder, but they have persisted for less than two weeks, which is the minimum duration required for the diagnosis. Therefore, a diagnosis of Other Specified Depressive Disorder with the reason "short-duration depressive episode" is the best fit for her symptoms.Answer A: A diagnosis of Major Depressive Disorder requires a duration of symptoms of at least two weeks.Answer C: Although the client is experiencing anxiety, her symptoms do not meet the criteria for an anxiety disorder. Furthermore, she is exhibiting several symptoms that are typical of depression.Answer D: Major depressive episode is not a DSM-5 diagnosis but, instead, is an essential feature of Major Depressive Disorder and Bipolar II Disorder, and a possible feature of Bipolar I Disorder. The correct answer is: Other Specified Depressive Disorder

A psychologist who obtained a Ph.D. in organizational psychology wants to change her specialty to clinical psychology. To meet the requirements of APA's guidelines regarding a change in specialty, the psychologist must ________________________. Select one: A.complete an internship in clinical psychology under the supervision of a licensed clinical psychologist. B.complete appropriate doctoral-level classes and supervised post-doctoral training. C.obtain a second Ph.D. in clinical psychology from an accredited university or professional school. D.obtain appropriate supervision of her clinical practice.

The correct answer is B.This issue is addressed in the APA's "General Guidelines for Providers of Psychological Services" and "Specialty Guidelines for Clinical Psychologists." Section 1.7 of the "Specialty Guidelines" states that "professional psychologists who wish to qualify as clinical psychologists meet the same requirements with respect to the subject matter and professional skills that apply to doctoral and postdoctoral education and training in clinical psychology."Answer A: This answer is incorrect as it fails to account for the requirements laid out in the documents noted above.Answer C: This answer is incorrect. Obtaining another doctoral degree is not required, but meeting the same requirements regarding the subject matter and professional skills is necessary.Answer D: This answer is incorrect. Supervision alone would not be sufficient. The correct answer is: complete appropriate doctoral-level classes and supervised post-doctoral training.

A distribution of test scores is normally shaped and has a mean of 100 and a standard error of measurement of 5. For an examinee who obtains a score of 103 on the test, the 68% confidence interval is: Select one: A.95 to 105. B.98 to 108. C.93 to 113 D.90 to 115

The correct answer is B.To calculate the 68% confidence interval, one standard error is added to and subtracted from the examinee's test score. Adding and subtracting 5 (the standard error) to and from the examinee's score of 103 produces a confidence interval that ranges from 98 to 108.Answers A, C, and D: An examinee who obtains a score of 103 on a test, the 68% confidence interval would equate to 98 to 108. The correct answer is: 98 to 108.

A primary goal of Minuchin's structural family therapy is to: Select one: A.increase differentiation in family members by identifying and restructuring family triangles. B.replace rigid and diffuse boundaries with clear boundaries. C.balance separation and togetherness. D.align boundaries with family systems and subsystems.

The correct answer is B.You may have been able to narrow the responses given for this question by knowing that "boundaries" are a key target in Minuchin's approach. From the perspective of structural family therapy, family dysfunction can be traced to boundaries that are overly rigid or diffuse. "Clear" boundaries are appropriate and functional boundaries.Answer A: For the exam, you want to have the term "differentiation" associated with Bowen.Answer C: Although alterations in boundaries may have this effect, this response does not describe Minuchin's approach as well as answer B does.Answer D: "Aligning boundaries" does not describe Minuchin's approach as well as answer B does. The correct answer is: replace rigid and diffuse boundaries with clear boundaries.

Your new client, a college freshman, says she sometimes has an "out of body" experience in which she is watching what she is doing from outside herself. She describes a recent experience in which she was in her dorm room writing a paper when she realized she couldn't feel her fingers on the computer keyboard or her feet on the floor and then suddenly felt like she was watching herself from the ceiling. The client says that these episodes make her feel like she is "going crazy" and are interfering with her ability to attend class and complete course assignments. The client's symptoms are most suggestive of a DSM-5 diagnosis of: Select one: A.Delusional Disorder. B.Dissociative Fugue. C.Depersonalization/Derealization Disorder. D.Depersonalization Disorder.

The correct answer is C. Depersonalization/Derealization Disorder involves recurrent episodes of depersonalization (a sense of unreality, detachment, or being an outside observer of one's thoughts, feelings, etc.) and/or derealization (a sense of unreality or detachment involving one's surroundings) that cause clinically significant distress or impaired functioning. Answer A: Delusional Disorder involves one or more delusions that last at least one month. As defined in the DSM-5, a delusion is a false belief about external reality that is firmly held despite what almost everyone else believes and despite what constitutes proof or evidence to the contrary. Answer B: A dissociative fugue is characterized by apparently purposeful travel with an inability to recall some or all of one's past and is included in the DSM-5 as a specifier for Dissociative Amnesia. Answer D: Depersonalization Disorder is not a DSM-5 diagnosis. The correct answer is: Depersonalization/Derealization Disorder.

The transtheoretical model would best be applied for treatment of: Select one: A.posttraumatic stress disorder B.paranoid schizophrenia C.nicotine use disorder D.autism spectrum disorder

The correct answer is C. Knowing that the transtheoretical model was originally developed as an intervention for cigarette smoking and other addictive behaviors would likely have helped you answer this question. Since its inception, the transtheoretical model has been applied to a variety of other behaviors, including weight control, treatment compliance, intimate partner violence, and financial management. However, it is generally regarded as most effective in treating conditions where concrete, identifiable behavior change is the focus of treatment. Answer A: Numerous treatment studies have established exposure-based treatment as the most effective treatment option for PTSD. Answer B: Medication management is highly regarded as a necessary treatment for individuals diagnosed with schizophrenia spectrum disorders. Answer D: Applied behavioral analysis (ABA therapy) is widely regarded as the best intervention for individuals diagnosed with this condition. The correct answer is: nicotine use disorder

As described in the DSM-5, _______________ is the likely diagnosis for an adult client who has experienced a depressed mood, a poor appetite, and impaired concentration for most of the day on most days for over two years. Select one: A.Dysthymic Disorder B.Mood Disorder NOS C.Persistent Depressive Disorder D.Unspecified Depressive Disorder

The correct answer is C. The client's symptoms are consistent with a diagnosis of Persistent Depressive Disorder. Answer A: Dysthymic Disorder is not a DSM-5 diagnosis. Answer B: Mood Disorder NOS is not a DSM-5 diagnostic category. Answer D: Unspecified Depressive Disorder applies when a clinician does not want to indicate the reason why a client's symptoms do not meet the criteria for a specific depressive disorder. The correct answer is: Persistent Depressive Disorder

Two weeks after witnessing the murder of a co-worker, Mrs. Cee develops many symptoms, including a sense of detachment, flashbacks of the event, sleep problems, impaired concentration, a depressed mood, and an unwillingness to talk about the murder. She has had these symptoms for seven days. Based on these symptoms, the most likely diagnosis is: Select one: A.PTSD B.Brief Psychotic Disorder. C.Acute Stress Disorder. D.Conversion Disorder.

The correct answer is C.A diagnosis of Acute Stress Disorder requires exposure to actual or threatened death, severe injury, or sexual violation. Mrs. Cee's symptoms began after witnessing her co-worker's death. Her symptoms fit into categories of intrusion, negative mood, dissociative, avoidance, and arousal. Moreover, her symptom duration (seven days) falls within three days to one month.Answer A: The duration of the woman's symptoms is less than one month (the minimum duration required for PTSD); therefore, Acute Stress Disorder is the most likely diagnosis.Answer B: Mrs. Cee is not demonstrating symptoms of psychosis.Answer D: Mrs. Cee's symptoms are not somatic. The correct answer is: Acute Stress Disorder.

A(n) _______ refers to a tool of assessment used to help narrow down and identify areas of deficit to be targeted for intervention. Select one: A.achievement test B.informal evaluation C.diagnostic test D.psychological autopsy

The correct answer is C.A diagnostic test is a tool of assessment used to help narrow down and identify areas of deficit to be targeted for intervention. For example, in educational settings, diagnostic tests of reading, mathematics, and other academic subjects may be administered to assess the need for educational intervention.Answer A: An achievement test evaluates accomplishment or the degree of learning that has taken place.Answer B: An informal evaluation is a typically nonsystematic assessment that leads to the formation of an opinion or attitude.Answer D: A psychological autopsy is a construction of a deceased individual's psychological profile based on archival records, artifacts, and interviews previously conducted with the deceased or people who knew him/her. The correct answer is: diagnostic test

Which of the following would be most effective for reducing a rater's leniency bias? Select one: A.BARS B.Peer ratings C.Forced-choice technique D.BIB

The correct answer is C.A leniency bias occurs when a rater rates all ratees very positively regardless of their actual level of performance. Likert-type scales are most susceptible to leniency and other rater biases. A forced-choice scale presents items that have been identified as being of equal social desirability in dyads or triads and requires the rater to pick the item that best describes the ratee. Because of its format, it eliminates the leniency bias.Answer A: BARS is a type of rating scale. Although it was developed to help increase rater accuracy, the research has not been particularly favorable.Answer B: Peer ratings would not overcome the problem of leniency.Answer D: BIB - biographical information blank - is not a rating scale. The correct answer is: Forced-choice technique

An expert witness is recognized by the court to be qualified to offer opinions on a specific issue. To qualify as an expert witness, a psychologist must ______. Select one: A.have a valid professional license B.have a relevant doctoral degree from an accredited school C.have appropriate education, training, and experience D.be certified as a forensic psychologist by the ABPP

The correct answer is C.An expert witness is ordinarily approved by the court through the process of voir dire during which the witness's education, training, and experience are examined. Requirements for expert testimony are provided in state and federal law. For example, Federal Rule of Evidence 702 states, "A witness who is qualified as an expert by knowledge, skill, experience, training, or education may testify in the form of an opinion or otherwise if: (a) the expert's scientific, technical, or other specialized knowledge will help the trier of fact to understand the evidence or to determine a fact in issue; (b) the testimony is based on sufficient facts or data; (c) the testimony is the product of reliable principles and methods; and (d) the expert has reliably applied the principles and methods to the facts of the case."Answers B, C, and D: Do not reflect the characteristics of an expert witness as ordinarily defined by the court. The correct answer is: have appropriate education, training, and experience

A drive for order that involves the testing of patterns and structures against the real world is referred to as: Select one: A.elaboration B.deduction C.equilibration D.accommodation

The correct answer is C.As defined by Piaget equilibration involves a combination of assimilation and accommodation and is motivated by a drive for balance or order. This is a difficult question because it asks about a familiar concept using unfamiliar language.Answer A: Elaboration refers to the process of increasing the number of associations between items of information which enhances the meaningfulness of the information and is associated with improvements in retention and retrieval.Answer B: Deduction refers to reasoning from the general to the specific.Answer D: Accommodation is only one aspect of equilibration. The correct answer is: equilibration

A solution-focused therapist is working with a family whose conversations frequently escalate to intense arguments. The therapist will most likely: Select one: A.reduce tension during therapy sessions by having family members talk directly to her rather than to each other B.appoint one family member to act as "referee" whenever the family fights at home C.ask the family members if they can remember a time when they were able to talk to each other for an extended period without arguing D.instruct the family members to argue with each other for at least one hour each evening

The correct answer is C.As its name implies, solution-focused therapy focuses on solutions rather than problems. Solution-focused therapists use "exceptions" to help identify solutions to a client's problems. An exception is a time when the problem did not exist or existed in a less intense form.Answer A: This sounds more like the approach a Bowenian family therapist would adopt.Answer B: This isn't characteristic of the solution-focused approach.Answer D: This is not characteristic of this approach. The correct answer is: ask the family members if they can remember a time when they were able to talk to each other for an extended period without arguing

A client tells a clinician that she is having "a lot of problems" with food. She states that she has been on numerous diets over the years and, even when she achieves her desired weight, she always gains it back. She says that she has been evaluated for medical problems such as hypothyroidism, but all the tests have been negative. When determining if the client's symptoms meet the criteria for Binge Eating Disorder or Bulimia Nervosa, the clinician should keep in mind that: Select one: A.binges are more severe in Binge Eating Disorder than in Bulimia Nervosa. B.a disturbance in body image is not characteristic of Bulimia Nervosa. C.compensatory behavior is not a requirement for Binge Eating Disorder. D.a sense of a lack of control overeating during binges is not characteristic of Binge Eating Disorder.

The correct answer is C.Compensatory behavior is a diagnostic criterion for Bulimia Nervosa but not for Binge Eating Disorder and, therefore, differentiates the two disorders.Answer A: Binges can be severe in both disorders and, therefore, is not a distinguishing characteristic.Answer B: The disturbance in body image associated with Bulimia Nervosa involves self-evaluation that emphasizes body shape and weight.Answer D: A sense of lack of control is characteristic of both disorders. The correct answer is: compensatory behavior is not a requirement for Binge Eating Disorder.

The core feature of the DSM-5 diagnosis of Gender Dysphoria is which of the following? Select one: A.Persistent preference for cross-gender roles B.Strong desire to be treated as the opposite gender C.Incongruence between assigned and experienced/expressed gender D.Cross-gender identification

The correct answer is C.Incongruence between assigned gender and experienced/expressed gender is the core feature of Gender Dysphoria in the DSM-5.Answer A: A persistent preference for cross-gender roles in make-believe or fantasy play is one of the possible symptoms for children with Gender Dysphoria, but it is not the core feature.Answer B: The DSM-5 lists "a strong desire to be treated as the other gender (or some alternative gender different from one's assigned gender)" as one of the possible symptoms of Gender Dysphoria for adolescents or adults.Answer D: Cross-gender identification is not the core feature of this disorder, according to the DSM-5. The correct answer is: Incongruence between assigned and experienced/expressed gender

Sue and his colleagues (2007) distinguish between three forms of racial microaggression. As described by these investigators, __________ is occurring when a White person says to an African-American individual, "When I look at you, I don't see color" or "There's only one race, the human race." Select one: A.microassault B.microinsult C.microinvalidation D.microinequity

The correct answer is C.Microassault, microinsult, and microinvalidation are the three forms of microaggression described by D. W. Sue et al. (Racial microaggressions in everyday life: Implications for clinical practice, American Psychologist, 62, 271-286, 2007). Microinvalidation refers to "verbal comments or behaviors that exclude, negate, or nullify the psychological thoughts, feelings, or experiential reality of a person of color" (p. 278). "Color blindness" is a type of microinvalidation.Answer A: Microassaults are "explicit racial derogations characterized primarily by a violent verbal or nonverbal attack meant to hurt the intended victim through name-calling, avoidant behavior or purposeful discriminatory actions" (p. 278).Answer B: Microinsults are "remarks or comments that convey rudeness, insensitivity and demean a person's racial heritage or identity" (p. 278).Answer D: Microinequity is not one of the three forms of microaggression described by Sue et al. The correct answer is: microinvalidation

Which of the following would a managed care organization consider most useful for reducing its risk for legal liability? Select one: A.Capitation B.Behavioral health "carve-outs" C.Credentialing of providers D.Utilization review

The correct answer is C.Of the procedures listed in the responses, only one would be likely to reduce a managed health care organization's risk for legal liability. Credentialing providers helps ensure that providers are competent to provide services and thereby reduces the risk for legal liability (i.e., it contributes to risk management).Answer A: This answer is incorrect. Capitation refers to contracting for a set of services on the basis of a predetermined fee. It reduces the organization's costs but does not protect it from legal liability.Answer B: This answer is incorrect. Behavioral health "carve-outs" involve contracting behavioral health care services that are separate from the services provided for other health care. It is not associated with risk management.Answer D: This answer is incorrect. Utilization review is another cost containment technique and may involve denying payment for services that are not deemed necessary by the managed health care organization. The correct answer is: Credentialing of providers

When working with a client belonging to an ethnic minority group, a White therapist interprets the client's reluctance to disclose personal information as a sign of paranoia. According to Ridley (2005), this therapist is exhibiting which of the following? Select one: A.Marginalization B.OveridentificationI C.Color blindness D.Cultural ambivalence

The correct answer is C.Ridley distinguishes between ten race-related defense mechanisms: color blindness, color consciousness, cultural transference, cultural countertransference, cultural ambivalence, pseudotransference, overidentification, identification with the oppressor, race-based misdiagnosis, and avoidance of race (Overcoming unintentional racism in counseling and therapy: A practitioner's guide to intentional intervention, Thousand Oaks, CA, Sage Publications, 2005). As defined by Ridley, color blindness refers to a therapist's "illusion that minority clients are no different than non-minority clients" (p.67). He notes that "color blind" therapists tend to overlook the effects of racism and discrimination and, consequently, view deviations from White middle-class norms as pathological.Answer A: Marginalization is not one of the race-related defense mechanisms identified by Ridley.Answer B: Overidentification occurs when a minority therapist over identifies with the experiences of a minority client and assumes that the client's presenting problems are race-related.Answer D: According to Ridley, cultural ambivalence refers to a therapist's ambivalent motivations for treating members of ethnic minority groups (e.g., needs for power and dominance versus needs for acceptance and approval). The correct answer is: Color blindness

In an attempt to live up to mainstream standards of beauty, a member of a racial minority group alters her appearance in order to "look White." This is best described as an example of: Select one: A.racial stereotypes. B.racial stigmatization. C.internalized racism. D.interpersonal racism.

The correct answer is C.Several types of racism are distinguished in the literature. Two of these are internalized racism and interpersonal racism (answers C and D). Others include cultural, structural, and institutional racism. See, e.g., P. Figueroa, Education and the social construction of "race," London, Routledge, 1991. Internalized racism refers to the internalization of negative beliefs, attitudes, and stereotypes related to race. It is also known as individual racism and, when it involves acceptance of negative views by a member of the stigmatized group, it is also referred to as internalized oppression and may be expressed as rejecting one's own culture and attempting to act or look like members of the dominant culture.Answer A: Racial stereotypes are overgeneralized beliefs about individuals based on their race.Answer B: Racial stigmatization refers to the process of stigmatizing (shaming, disgracing) individuals on the basis of their race.Answer D: Interpersonal racism refers to the expression of racism between individuals and is manifested, for example, by social exclusion, unfair treatment and harassment. The correct answer is: internalized racism.

With regard to the termination of professional services, the Ethics Code requires psychologists to _____________________________________. Select one: A.offer to help the client locate alternative services B.take actions that protect the best interests of the client C.provide pretermination counseling and provide referrals or alternative services, except where precluded by the actions of clients/patients D.take action that is consistent with the reason(s) for the termination

The correct answer is C.Standard 10.10(c) of the Ethics Code applies in this situation. It advises that certain steps be taken, regardless of the reason for the termination. Specifically, it reads, "Except where precluded by the actions of clients/patients or third-party payors, prior to termination psychologists provide pretermination counseling and suggest alternative service providers as appropriate." This answer comes closest to the actual language of the Ethics Code and, therefore, is the best answer.Answer A: The language in this answer does not align as well with that of the Ethics Code. Psychologists should "suggest alternative service providers," but are not instructed to "help the client locate an alternative provider."Answer B. This answer is incorrect as it is vague and does not address the specific ethical obligations inherent in termination.Answer D. This answer fails to address the ethical responsibilities in this situation. The correct answer is: provide pretermination counseling and provide referrals or alternative services, except where precluded by the actions of clients/patients

As defined by Donald Super, career maturity: Select one: A.is achieved by most people by the time they reach their late 20s or early 30s B.is not fully achieved until mid-life or later C.refers to the individual's mastery of tasks at each developmental stage D.refers to the degree of match between the individual's self-concept and current occupational aspirations

The correct answer is C.Super's life space/life span theory includes a stage theory that encompasses the entire lifespan. The five stages are growth, exploration, establishment, maintenance, and disengagement. Each stage involves a set of developmental tasks, and mastery of those tasks represents career maturity. Career maturity prepares the individual to fulfill the life roles characteristic of the stage the person is in as well as for the tasks of the subsequent stage.Answers A, B, and D: As defined by Donald Super, career maturity refers to the individual's mastery of tasks at each developmental stage. The correct answer is: refers to the individual's mastery of tasks at each developmental stage

Which of the following is a measure of interrater reliability that adjusts for the level of chance agreement between raters' scores? Select one: A.Predictive validity B.Magnitude of effect C.Kappa coefficient D.Standard error of measurement

The correct answer is C.The Kappa coefficient is a statistical measure of inter-rater reliability used to assess qualitative documents and determine the reliability between two raters.Answer A: Predictive validity is the degree to which a measure can predict another measure given at a later time.Answer B: The magnitude of the effect is a measure of the strength of the relation between variables, or the magnitude, of change across time, or the magnitude of difference between groups.Answer D: The standard error of measurement estimates how repeated measures of an individual on the same instrument tend to be distributed around their "true" score. The correct answer is: Kappa coefficient

Providing social skills training to children whose aggressive behaviors have already had a substantial adverse impact on their family and peer relations and school performance is an example of: Select one: A.primary prevention B.secondary prevention C.tertiary prevention D.behavioral prevention

The correct answer is C.Three types of prevention are distinguished in the literature - primary, secondary, and tertiary. Tertiary preventions are aimed at individuals who have already developed a disorder. Their goal is to reduce the risk for chronicity and relapse and any other problems related to the disorder.Answer A: Primary preventions are aimed at reducing the development and incidence of mental disorders.Answer B: Secondary preventions target individuals who have just begun to exhibit symptoms of a disorder in order to prevent the disorder from becoming more serious.Answer D: This is a made up term. The correct answer is: tertiary prevention

In a normal distribution of scores that has a mean of 120 and a standard deviation of 12, a raw score of 138 is equivalent to a z-score of: Select one: A.0.75 B.1 C.1.5 D.2.25

The correct answer is C.To identify the correct answer to this question, you need to know that z-scores indicate how far a raw score is below or above the mean. In this distribution, the mean is 120 and the standard deviation is 12. Therefore, a raw score of 138 is 1.5 standard deviations above the mean and is equivalent to a z-score of 1.5.Answers A, B, and D: In a normal distribution of scores that has a mean of 120 and a standard deviation of 12, a raw score of 138 is equivalent to a z-score of 1.5. The correct answer is: 1.5

During the first session with an American Indian family consisting of a grandmother, mother, father, and three children, an Anglo American therapist would be best advised to: Select one: A.refer the family to an American Indian therapist B.treat the family like any other family unless there is a clear reason to do otherwise C.assess each family member's level of acculturation before developing a treatment plan D.ensure that she establishes a "value-free" environment

The correct answer is C.You may have been able to identify the correct response to this question through the process of elimination.Answer A: This may be unnecessary if the therapist has appropriate training or seeks consultation. An initial step when working with clients from culturally diverse groups is to identify the client's stage of racial/ethnic identity development, degree of acculturation, and worldview (beliefs, values, attitudes, etc.).Answer B: Utilizing a "colorblind" approach would be unethical. Ethical mandates require psychologists to consider the importance of cultural factors impacting the client and the therapeutic process.Answer D: This also would not be culturally competent or ethical. It is impossible to establish a "value-free" environment. Psychologists are instead mandated to recognize their values and biases and maintain an awareness of how this impacts the therapeutic process. The correct answer is: assess each family member's level of acculturation before developing a treatment plan

To assess the reliability of a characteristic that fluctuates in severity or intensity over time, you would be best advised to use which of the following? Select one: A.Coefficient of equivalence B.Coefficient of stability C.Coefficient of determination D.Coefficient of internal consistency

The correct answer is D. If the characteristic measured by a test fluctuates over time (i.e., is a "state"), it would not be appropriate to assess the test's reliability using a method that requires administering the test (or alternative forms of the test) at different times. A coefficient of internal consistency would be appropriate for a test that measures a characteristic that fluctuates over time since it requires administering the test only once. Answer A: A coefficient of equivalence is obtained when equivalent forms reliability is used. In most cases, it is necessary to administer the different forms at different times; therefore, this method would not be the best for a test that measures a characteristic that fluctuates over time. Answer B: The coefficient of stability is obtained when using test-retest reliability, which would also be inappropriate for a measure of a characteristic that fluctuates over time. Answer C: The coefficient of determination is not a measure of reliability. The correct answer is: Coefficient of internal consistency

Jung's analytic theory differs from Freud's psychotherapy in all of the following ways except: Select one: A.Jung's perspective reflects a more optimistic view of human nature. B.Jung promoted a more active interchange between analyst and patient. C.Jung conceptualized the psyche as continuing to evolve throughout the lifespan. D.Jung replaced the concept of the ego with the concepts of the self and the ideal-self.

The correct answer is D. Jung's analytic psychology differs from Freud's psychotherapy in a number of important ways. For Jung the basic elements of the psyche are the conscious (which includes the ego) and the unconscious (which includes a personal and collective component). The ego is an important part of Jung's theory. Although he did make use of the notion of the "self," he considered the self to be the archetype for the ego. Answer A: This is true about Jung's perspective. He described people as being more creative and goal-directed than Freud. Answer B: This also describes Jung's approach. Answer C: Jung placed a great deal of emphasis on changes that occur during adulthood, especially in midlife. The correct answer is: Jung replaced the concept of the ego with the concepts of the self and the ideal-self.

Use of which of the following substances is NOT likely to produce a Substance-Induced Psychotic Disorder? Select one: A.Alcohol B.Cannabis C.Cocaine D.Opioids

The correct answer is D. The DSM-5 identifies 10 classes of drugs that are associated with Substance-Induced Disorders but only eight are associated with Substance-Induced Psychotic Disorder: alcohol; cannabis; phencyclidine; other hallucinogen; inhalant; sedative, hypnotic, or anxiolytic; amphetamine or other stimulant; and cocaine. Answers A, B, and C: Alcohol, cannabis, and cocaine are associated with the diagnosis of a Substance-Induced Psychotic Disorder in the DSM-5. The correct answer is: Opioids

A 12-year-old boy's mother says her son is very argumentative, doesn't do what he is asked to do, and frequently bullies and threatens his sister and classmates at school. Also, in the past year, the boy has skipped school at least a half dozen times, ran away from home for two days on three different occasions, and was expelled from school for throwing a rock through a school window. The mother has been divorced for four years, and she says that these problems started several months after she remarried two years ago. Based on these symptoms, the most likely diagnosis for the boy is: Select one: A.Child or Adolescent Antisocial Behavior. B.Adjustment Disorder with disturbance of conduct. C.Oppositional Defiant Disorder. D.Conduct Disorder.

The correct answer is D. The diagnosis of Conduct Disorder requires a persistent pattern of behavior that violates the basic rights of others and/or age-appropriate social norms or rules with three or more characteristic symptoms, e.g. bullying, threatening, or intimidating others; being frequently truant from school; running away from home at least twice; and vandalizing school property. Answer A: Child or Adolescent Antisocial Behavior is included in the DSM-5 with Other Conditions That May Be a Focus of Clinical Attention and may apply when the individual's symptoms do not meet the criteria for a mental disorder. Answer B: A diagnosis of Adjustment Disorder is assigned when the individual does not meet the diagnostic criteria for another mental disorder. Answer C: Oppositional Defiant Disorder involves a recurrent pattern of an angry/irritable mood, argumentative/defiant behavior, or vindictiveness. The boy's symptoms are more severe than those associated with Oppositional Defiant Disorder. The correct answer is: Conduct Disorder.

A 23-year old client of yours is currently the defendant in a court case. The client's attorney contacts you, requesting that you provide him with some information about the client from your files. The information will be helpful in preparing the client's defense. You _______________________. Select one: A.release the information since to do so is in the "best interests of the client." B.release the information because privilege is waived in this situation. C.release only the information you believe is relevant to the case. D.discuss the release with the client before taking any additional action.

The correct answer is D. The release of confidential client information ordinarily requires a waiver from the client. Of the responses given, this is the best one. Privilege may or may not be waived in this situation and, even if it is, you should discuss the release of confidential information (even to the client's attorney) with the client and, in most cases, obtain a waiver. Answer A: This answer is incorrect, because you should discuss the matter with the client and assure you obtain a release . Answer B: This answer is incorrect, because the client maintains the privilege until the client releases it. Answer C: This answer is incorrect because until you have obtained a release, you should not share information with another party, including the client's attorney. The correct answer is: discuss the release with the client before taking any additional action.

Dr. Drucker is hired by the court to conduct an evaluation of a family as part of a child protection matter. Based on Dr. Drucker's evaluation and other evidence, the court determines that the child can remain at home with his family who will be provided with supervision and counseling. Six months after the case is heard in court, Dr. Drucker is contacted by the mother who says she would like to begin therapy with him for issues unrelated to the child protection matter. Dr. Drucker should ________________________. Select one: A.agree to see the woman in therapy since the child protection matter has been resolved. B.agree to see the woman in therapy only if her problem is, in fact, unrelated to the child protection matter. C.agree to see the woman in therapy since his familiarity with her situation will be an advantage. D.refer the woman to a colleague.

The correct answer is D. This answer is most consistent with ethical guidelines that require psychologists to avoid multiple relationships. For example, Guideline 7 of the APA's Guidelines for Child Custody Evaluations in Family Law Proceedings identifies providing psychotherapy to prior child custody examinees as a multiple relationship that should be avoided. Answer A: This answer is incorrect. In most situations, multiple relationships are to be avoided. Answer B: This answer is incorrect. Dr. Drucker should avoid entering into a therapy relationship with the parent given he provided a previous custody evaluation. Answer C: This answer is incorrect. Dr. Drucker should avoid forming a multiple relationship with the parent, given Guideline 7 of APA's Guideline for Child Custody Evaluations in Family Law Proceedings. The correct answer is: refer the woman to a colleague.

Jacob, age 14, is being seen by a school clinician for repeated angry outbursts at school. He is persistently irritable, constantly argues with adults, has a history of behavioral referrals, and recently changed schools after being expelled for threatening a teacher. Jacob is failing in school, and his parents are thinking of sending him to a wilderness camp where he can "get some sense knocked into him." The most likely DSM-5 diagnosis for Jacob is which of the following? Select one: A.Intermittent Explosive Disorder B.Oppositional Defiant Disorder C.Bipolar II Disorder D.Disruptive Mood Dysregulation Disorder

The correct answer is D.Disruptive Mood Dysregulation Disorder involves severe, recurrent temper outbursts with a persistently irritable or angry mood between outbursts on most days. Jacob's symptoms of persistent irritability and frequent outbursts are consistent with this diagnosis.Answer A: A persistent irritable mood between temper outbursts is not characteristic of Intermittent Explosive Disorder.Answer B: Oppositional Defiant Disorder differs from Disruptive Mood Dysregulation Disorder primarily in terms of the severity, frequency, and chronicity of the temper outbursts, with Disruptive Mood Dysregulation Disorder having more severe, frequent, and chronic symptoms. When the criteria for both disorders are met, a diagnosis of Disruptive Mood Dysregulation Disorder is assigned.Answer C: The essential feature of Bipolar II Disorder is hypomania (a distinct period of abnormally elevated, expansive, or irritable mood accompanied by increased activity or energy). Although people with Disruptive Mood Dysregulation Disorder are irritable, they do not exhibit the increased energy that is characteristic of Bipolar II Disorder. Also, the mood disturbance associated with Bipolar Disorder is episodic, whereas the mood disturbance associated with Disruptive Mood Dysregulation Disorder is persistent. The correct answer is: Disruptive Mood Dysregulation Disorder

A White female client feels that the primary obstacle in her life is sexism and that there is nothing she can do to change the problems she is experiencing. As defined by Sue (1978), she has an: Select one: A.internal locus of control and internal locus of responsibility B.external locus of control and internal locus of responsibility C.internal locus of control and external locus of responsibility D.external locus of control and external locus of responsibility

The correct answer is D.Even if you are unfamiliar with Sue's conceptualization of worldview, you probably could have identified the correct response by considering the information provided in the question. This individual has an external locus of responsibility (she can't do anything about her problems) and an external locus of control (she believes her problems are due to sexism).Answers A, B, & C: As defined by Sue this individual is exhibiting an EC-ER worldview. The correct answer is: external locus of control and external locus of responsibility

The symptoms of fetal alcohol syndrome (FAS): Select one: A.gradually decline during early childhood with the appropriate environmental stimulation B.are largely reversible with the proper diet during the first several months of life C.are limited primarily to physical defects (facial abnormalities and retarded growth) D.are largely irreversible and include physical, behavioral, and cognitive impairments

The correct answer is D.Fetal alcohol syndrome is the most severe form of fetal alcohol spectrum disorder (FASD) and is characterized by a pattern of physical, behavioral, and cognitive impairments that are associated with alcohol consumption by pregnant women. The severity and nature of the symptoms are related to the amount of alcohol consumed by the mother during pregnancy. For most children, however, the symptoms are serious and are, to a large degree, irreversible.Answer A: Although some of the facial deformities become less obvious with increasing age, most deficits are irreversible.Answer B: Proper diet has not been found to have a significant effect on impairments due to fetal alcohol syndrome.Answer C: Fetal alcohol syndrome also involves substantial cognitive and behavioral problems. The correct answer is: are largely irreversible and include physical, behavioral, and cognitive impairments

A DSM-5 diagnosis of Schizophrenia requires the presence of two or more active-phase symptoms during one month, with at least one symptom being ____________ plus continuous signs of disturbance for least six months. Select one: A.negative symptoms B.disorganized speech or disorganized behavior C.delusions or hallucinations D.delusions, hallucinations, or disorganized speech

The correct answer is D.For a diagnosis of Schizophrenia, the DSM-5 specifies that at least one of the active-phase symptoms must be delusions, hallucinations, or disorganized speech.Answers A, B, and C: The DSM-5 specifies that at least one of the active-phase symptoms of Schizophrenia must be delusions, hallucinations, or disorganized speech. The correct answer is: delusions, hallucinations, or disorganized speech

Which type of distribution has its mean at the highest point and is symmetrical about the mean? Select one: A.Binomial distribution B.Negatively skewed distribution C.Positively skewed distribution D.Normal distribution

The correct answer is D.For a normal distribution the mean, median, and mode coincide at the center. The curve is perfectly symmetrical and asymptotic at its extremes.Answer A: A binomial distribution is a probability distribution that summarizes the likelihood that a value will take one of two independent values under a given set of parameters of assumptions.Answer B: A negatively skewed distribution refers to the distribution type where more values are plotted on the right side of the graph and the tail of the distribution is longer on the left.Answer C: A positively skewed distribution is a type of distribution in which most values are clustered around the left tail of the distribution while the right tail is longer. The correct answer is: Normal distribution

Dr. Jason Dunn obtains the permission from a child's mother and father before beginning an evaluation that will be used by the court to help determine custody rights. Before the evaluation is completed, however, the mother withdraws her consent. Dr. Dunn should __________________________. Select one: A.make a custody recommendation on the basis of the information he has already obtained B.continue the evaluation since the father has not withdrawn his consent C.continue the evaluation since both parents gave their consent prior to beginning the evaluation D.contact the court to determine the appropriate course of action

The correct answer is D.Given the limited information provided in this question, this is the best response of the available options. Normally, a psychologist would not evaluate a child without the consent of both parents. Whenever one parent does not give consent (or withdraws his/her consent) for an evaluation in a custody case, the psychologist should seek guidance from the court on how to proceed.Answer A: This answer is incorrect, both because one parent has withdrawn consent and because an incomplete evaluation will not yield conclusive results.Answer B: This answer is incorrect. Seeking guidance from the court is the better answer.Answer C: This answer is incorrect. Now that one parent has withdrawn consent, the psychologist is in a position where he needs input from the court regarding how to proceed. The correct answer is: contact the court to determine the appropriate course of action

Psychological autopsies indicate that about ____% of people who died by suicide meet the criteria for one or more mental disorders at the time of their death. Select one: A.25 B.55 C.70 D.90

The correct answer is D.Psychological autopsy (PA) was originally developed as a method for identifying the mode of death in equivocal cases (i.e., homicide, suicide, natural causes, or accident); however, it has become the primary method for identifying the proximate cause of suicide. Based on a comprehensive review of PA studies, researchers concluded that approximately 90% of people who died by suicide had symptoms of at least one diagnosable mental disorder, and this conclusion has been confirmed by several subsequent studies (Psychology autopsy studies of suicide: a systematic review. Psychological Medicine, 33, 395-405, 2003).Answers A, B, and C: Psychological autopsies indicate that about 90% of people who died by suicide meet the criteria for one or more mental disorders at the time of their death. The correct answer is: 90

According to Sue and Zane (1987), when working with certain Asian American clients, "gift-giving": Select one: A.is discouraged because it tends to foster dependency on the therapist B.is discouraged because it can create a harmful multiple relationship C.is encouraged during the final therapy sessions to help clients maintain therapeutic gains D.is encouraged during the initial therapy sessions to help reduce premature termination from therapy

The correct answer is D.S. Sue and N. Zane point out that some ethnic minority clients (especially Asian American clients) may expect to obtain some meaningful benefit early in therapy and tend to be skeptical about its long-term benefits. They recommend "gift-giving" during the initial therapy sessions as a useful strategy for increasing credibility and preventing premature termination [The role of culture and cultural techniques in psychotherapy: A critique and reformulation, American Psychologist, 42(1), 37-45, 1987]. Examples of "gifts" that can be given during initial therapy sessions include normalizing the client's distress, instilling a sense of hopefulness, and identifying concrete and mutually agreed-upon goals.Answers A & B: While many therapists would support this statement, Sue and Zane encouraged gift-giving when working with this population.Answer C: Sue and Zane recommend the implementation of gift-giving early in the therapy process. The correct answer is: is encouraged during the initial therapy sessions to help reduce premature termination from therapy

A pharmaceutical company asks a psychologist to help it design and conduct a research study on one of its new drugs. The company representative says the company will publish the results of the study only if they are favorable to the drug. The psychologist should __________________________. Select one: A.agree to participate only if he is able to approve the final report B.agree to participate only if the company gives him appropriate authorship credit for his work C.agree to participate since it is up to the company to decide what to publish and who to list as an author D.not agree to participate in designing or conducting the study

The correct answer is D.Standard 5.01 applies to this situation. It states that "psychologists do not knowingly make public statements that are false, deceptive, or fraudulent concerning their research, practice, or other work activities or those of persons or organizations with which they are affiliated." Agreeing with the company's decision to publish only supportive data would be supporting a form of deception and would not be in the best interests of the potential users of the drug. Therefore, this response is most consistent with the "spirit" of the Ethics Code.Answer A, B, and C: These answers are incorrect as it fails to address the central issue, which is potential deception of the public. The correct answer is: not agree to participate in designing or conducting the study

The 2013 National Survey on Drug Use and Health found that the largest percentage of respondents ages 12 through 17 used which of the following during the past month? Select one: A.Hallucinogenics B.Marijuana C.Tobacco products D.Alcohol

The correct answer is D.The 2013 rates of alcohol and drug use among individuals ages 12 through 17 were somewhat lower than rates reported in previous years. However, alcohol continued to be the most commonly used substance by adolescents. In this survey, 11.6% of respondents ages 12 to 17 reported using alcohol in the past month.Answer A: In the 2013 survey, .5% of respondents ages 12 to 17 reported using hallucinogenic drugs in the past month.Answer B: In this survey, 7.1% of respondents ages 12 to 17 reported using marijuana in the past month. Of the illicit drugs, it was the most commonly used drug.Answer C: In this survey, 7.8% of respondents ages 12 to 17 reported using tobacco products (cigarettes, smokeless tobacco, cigars, and/or pipe tobacco) in the past month. The correct answer is: Alcohol

Cluster C Personality Disorders include which of the following Personality Disorders? Select one: A.Paranoid, Schizoid, and Schizotypal B.Schizoid, Antisocial, and Narcissistic C.Antisocial, Borderline, Histrionic, and Narcissistic D.Avoidant, Dependent, and Obsessive-Compulsive

The correct answer is D.The Personality Disorders are divided into three clusters based on their similarities. Cluster C disorders involve anxiety or fearfulness and include Avoidant, Dependent, and Obsessive-Compulsive Personality Disorders.Answer A: These are Cluster A disorders, which involve odd or eccentric behaviors.Answer B: Schizoid Personality Disorder is a Cluster A disorder, while Antisocial and Narcissistic Personality Disorders fall within Cluster B.Answer C: These are Cluster B disorders, which are characterized by dramatic, emotional, or erratic behaviors. The correct answer is: Avoidant, Dependent, and Obsessive-Compulsive

Dr. Lane, a psychologist, is conducting a research study on peer pressure, and the study's participants will be 120 fifth-grade students. The study will involve a 30-minute interview with each student and observation of the students during their lunch hour. Before beginning the study, Dr. Lane should _____________________. Select one: A.obtain an informed consent from each student B.obtain an informed consent from each student's parent C.obtain an informed consent from appropriate school personnel D.obtain the assent of each student and an informed consent from each student's parent

The correct answer is D.This answer is consistent with the APA's Ethics Code Standard 3.10(b), which states: "For persons who are legally incapable of giving informed consent, psychologists nevertheless (1) provide an appropriate explanation, (2) seek the individual's assent, (3) consider such persons' preferences and best interests, and (4) obtain appropriate permission from a legally authorized person if such substitute consent is permitted or required by law." This requirement applies to minors and to adults who have been declared legally incompetent.Answer A: This answer is incorrect. As minors, the students cannot legally provide consent.Answer B: This answer is incorrect as it fails to address the need to secure the students' assent.Answer C: This answer is incorrect. School personnel cannot provide consent on behalf of students. The correct answer is: obtain the assent of each student and an informed consent from each student's parent

When attempting to expand your private practice, it is important to keep in mind that in-person solicitations _____________________________. Select one: A.are always unethical B.are unethical only when they target individuals receiving similar services from another professional C.are unethical only when they include deceptive or misleading information D.are unethical when they include deceptive information or when the person solicited is susceptible to undue influence

The correct answer is D.This answer is most consistent with Standard 5.06 of the Ethic Code: Solicitations are unethical when they include deceptive or false information or when their targets are individuals who are vulnerable to undue influence. Although the APA's prohibitions against the solicitation of clients have been limited by the requirements of the Federal Trade Commission, APA still considers certain types of business solicitations unethical.Answer A: This answer is incorrect. In-person solicitations might be ethically acceptable in some situations, such as when they are "invited" solicitations.Answer B: This answer is incorrect. This type of solicitation might also be acceptable in some situations.Answer C: This answer is incorrect as it is not the most complete response of those given. The correct answer is: are unethical when they include deceptive information or when the person solicited is susceptible to undue influence

Which of the following would be most useful for combining the results of several research studies that each evaluated the effectiveness of the same treatment for a particular disorder? Select one: A.P-value B.Kappa coefficient C.Coefficient alpha D.Effect size

The correct answer is D.This describes a meta-analysis and an effect size is the index you would calculate when conducting a meta-analysis. It converts data from different studies (which may have different sample sizes, different outcome measures, etc.) to a common metric so you can combine and compare the results of the studies.Answer A: Although the p-value indicates the level of significance (probability that the null hypothesis is false), it is not as useful as an effect size for combining the results of different studies.Answer B: The kappa coefficient is used to evaluate inter-rater reliability.Answer C: Coefficient alpha is used to assess internal consistency reliability. The correct answer is: Effect size

: You have been working with a couple to resolve their marital conflicts. Despite months of intensive therapy, the couple has come to the conclusion that it is in everyone's best interests to end their marriage. The couple has a 12-year-old daughter and has asked you to perform a custody evaluation for the divorce proceedings. You should _____. Select one: A.perform the custody evaluation as long as you are no longer providing therapy to the couple B.perform the custody evaluation only if you obtain consent from both parents to do so C.perform the custody evaluation after clarifying your roles and responsibilities with all parties D.not perform the custody evaluation

The correct answer is D.This issue is addressed in APA's (2010) Guidelines for Child Custody Evaluations in Family Law Proceedings. This answer is most consistent with Paragraph II.7 of APA's Guidelines, which states "psychologists strive to avoid conflicts of interest and multiple relationships in conducting evaluations." It is also consistent with the ethical requirements regarding multiple relationships provided in Standard 3.05 of the APA's Code of Ethics and the Values Statement of Paragraph III of the Canadian Code of Ethics.Answer A: This answer is incorrect. Having provided therapy to the couple in the past would interfere with your objectivity.Answer B: Even with consent, such an arrangement would be counter to the directives of the Guidelines described above.Answer C: Clarifying your role would be insufficient in this situation. In order to avoid a conflict of interest, a psychologist should not engage in both roles. The correct answer is: not perform the custody evaluation

Which of the following is not a DSM-5 diagnostic criterion for Conversion Disorder? Select one: A.One or more symptoms that involve an alteration in sensory or motor functioning B.Evidence of incompatibility between the symptoms and known medical conditions C.Symptoms are not better explained by a medical condition or other mental disorder D.Evidence that the symptoms are related to a psychological need or conflict.

The correct answer is D.This was a requirement for a diagnosis of Conversion Disorders in previous versions of the DSM; however, it is not a diagnostic criterion in DSM-5.Answer A: This is a diagnostic criterion for Conversion Disorder.Answer B: This DSM-5 includes this criterion for a diagnosis of Conversion Disorder.Answer C: This criterion must be met for a diagnosis of Conversion Disorder. The correct answer is: Evidence that the symptoms are related to a psychological need or conflict.

Which of the following is produced by damage to the cortex of the right parietal lobe and results in a failure to notice objects located on the left? Select one: A.Blindsight B.Dualism C.Monism D.Unilateral neglect

The correct answer is D.Unilateral neglect is a condition after damage to one brain hemisphere occurs, where the person becomes unaware of and inattentive to one side of the body. This is usually the side opposite to the half of the brain that was damaged.Answer A: Blindsight is a phenomenon in which individuals with damage to the primary visual cortex of the brain can tell where an object is, although they claim they cannot see it. This likely occurs because visual information is conveyed, bypassing the primary visual cortex.Answer B: Dualism is the position that the mind and body constitute two separate entities that interact with each other to make a person. This communication occurs by way of the pineal gland.Answer C: Monism is the belief that the mind and body are different parts of the same entity. The correct answer is: Unilateral neglect

Which of the following suggests that a DSM-5 diagnosis of Anorexia Nervosa is more appropriate than a diagnosis of Bulimia Nervosa? Select one: A.The presence of episodes of binging and purging B.A disturbance in body image C.Menstrual irregularities D.Persistent restriction of energy intake

The correct answer is: D. This question is asking which symptom is characteristic of Anorexia but not Bulimia. One of the DSM-5 diagnostic criteria for Anorexia (but not Bulimia) is a "restriction of energy intake relative to requirements, leading to a significantly low body weight" (p. 338). Answer A: While binging and purging are classic signs of Bulimia Nervosa, some individuals with Anorexia engage in binging and purging, and the DSM-5 includes binge-eating/purging type as a specifier for Anorexia. Answer B: Anorexia Nervosa and Bulimia Nervosa both involve a disturbance in the perception of one's body weight or shape. Answer C: Menstrual irregularity is an associated feature of both disorders. The correct answer is: Persistent restriction of energy intake