Lab Final
Elevated blood sugar is called ____________________.
hyperglycemia
Match the lettered hematocrit tube layers with their appropriate label. 1. Buffy layer 2. Plasma 3. RBC layer 4. Clay sealant 5. Air a. Label A b. Label D c. Label B d. Label C e. Label E
1. Buffy Layer- Label C 2. Plasma- Label B 3. RBC layer- LAyer D 4. Clay sealant- Label E 5. Air- Label A
Match the following terms with their definitions: An instrument capable of measuring the intensity of light a. Galvanometer b. Transmittance photometry c. Calibration d. Liquid controls e. Occult
Galvanometer
_______________ is the stored form of glucose especially found in muscles and the liver.
Glycogen
Match the following disease condition with their associated blood chemicals: Uric acid a. Hepatitis or liver disease b. Nephritis or kidney disease c. Coronary artery disease and atherosclerosis d. Diabetes e. Gout
Gout
Match the following blood panels with their associated tests: BUN, creatinine, uric acid, and electrolytes a. Cardiac panel (heart) b. Thyroid panel c. Electrolyte panel d. Hepatic panel (liver) e. Renal panel (kidney)
Renal panel (kidneys)
Most cases of hemolytic disease of the newborn can be prevented by administering ____ to the Rh-negative mother. Answers: a. RhoGAM b. hemoglobins c. red blood cells d. gamma globulin
RhoGAM
Substances within the body that induce the production of antibodies that attack an individual's own body tissues are ____________________.
Self-antigens
The branch of laboratory medicine that performs antibody/antigen testing with serum is ____________________.
Serology
Match with the appropriate description: Waste a. Thyroid and pituitary glands produce these b. Electrolytes c. Catalysts d. Urea, uric acid, creatinine e. Prothrombin and fibrinogen
Urea, uric acid, creatinine
Match each anemia with its cause: Destruction of stem cells in bone marrow from toxins a. Aplastic anemia b. Iron deficiency anemia c. Hemolytic anemia d. Pernicious anemia e. Sickle cell anemia
a. Aplastic anemia
Match the following CBC pathological terms with the correct definition: Abnormal increase in RBCs a. Polycythemia b. Leukemia c. Leukocytosis d. Leukopenia e. Anemia
a. Polycythemia
Immunoglobulins produced specifically to destroy foreign invaders are called ____________________.
antibodies
Which of the following classes of antibodies is involved in allergic reactions? Answers: a. Immunoglobulin (Ig) E b. IgA c. IgG d. IgM
Immunoglobulin (Ig) E
Match the definitions with their terms: Pertaining to the attachment of an antigen or antibody to a solid surface, such as latex beads, wells in plastic dishes, or plastic cartridges a. Agglutination b. Immunosorbent c. Erythroblastosis fetalis d. Chromatographic e. Titer
Immunosorbent
Test performed within a living host or organism (e.g., TB skin test) is referred to as ____________________.
In vivo
______________ is an overall reaction of the body to tissue injury or invasion by an infectious agent, characterized by redness, heat, swelling, and pain.
Inflammation
______________ are proteins secreted by infected cells to prevent the further replication and spread of an infection into neighboring cells.
Interferons
Match the following terms with their definitions: Measurement of known values in a specimen to check for reliability of a testing system a. Galvanometer b. Transmittance photometry c. Calibration d. Liquid controls e. Occult
Liquid controls
_______________ are a special type of lymphocyte that attacks and destroys infected cells and cancer cells in a nonspecific way.
Natural Killer Cells
Match the following disease condition with their associated blood chemicals: BUN a. Hepatitis or liver disease b. Nephritis or kidney disease c. Coronary artery disease and atherosclerosis d. Diabetes e. Gout
Nephritis or kidney disease
Nonpathogenic microorganisms that normally inhabit the skin and mucous membranes are called ____________________.
Normal flora
The ABO blood type of the universal donor is: Answers: a. A. b. B. c. O. d. AB.
O
Match the following terms with their definitions: Hidden or not visible to the naked eye a. Galvanometer b. Transmittance photometry c. Calibration d. Liquid controls e. Occult
Occult
An elevated glycosylated hemoglobin A1c test result indicates: Answers: a. oxygen overload. b. not enough oxygen in the hemoglobin. c. excessive glucose intake over the last 24 hours. d. poor glucose control over the past 2 months.
Poor glucose control over the last 2 months
Match with the appropriate descrition: Clotting proteins a. Thyroid and pituitary glands produce these b. Electrolytes c. Catalysts d. Urea, uric acid, creatinine e. Prothrombin and fibrinogen
Prothrombin and fibrinogen
Match the definitions with their terms: Test that measures the extent to which an antibody can be diluted before losing its power to react with a specific antigen a. Agglutination b. Immunosorbent c. Erythroblastosis fetalis d. Chromatographic e. Titer
Titer
Man-made hydrogenated fats are called ____________________.
Trans fats
Match the following terms with their definitions: Measurement of the amount of light passing through the solution a. Galvanometer b. Transmittance photometry c. Calibration d. Liquid controls e. Occult
Transmittance photometry
An abnormal susceptibility to a drug or other agent that is peculiar to the individual is called ____________________.
Idiosyncrasy
A disease state that occurs when pathogenic microorganisms invade the body and overcome its natural defense mechanisms is a(n) ____________________.
Infection
The process of transferring microorganisms into or on a culture medium for growth is referred to as ____________________.
Inoculation
The release of a prescribed drug from its dosage is called ____________________.
Liberation
The three-letter abbreviation used for methadone is ____________________.
MTD
__________ are liquid, semisolid, or solid substances containing nutrients needed to grow microorganisms.
Media
A substance produced by the metabolism of a drug in the body is a(n) ________________.
Metabolite
The three-letter abbreviation used for opiates is ____________________.
OPI
The three-letter abbreviation used for oxycodone is ____________________.
OXY
The three-letter abbreviation used for phencyclidine is ____________________.
PCP
A(n) _______________ contains medium in which to grow microorganisms.
Petri dish
Which of the following nonspecific immunity mechanisms involves the process of certain cells engulfing and destroying microorganisms and cellular debris? Answers: a. Normal flora b. Inflammation c. Phagocytosis d. Intact skin and mucous membranes
Phagocytosis
_______________ means an infection capable of forming pus.
Purulent
______________ measurement determines if a substance is present or absent.
Qualitative drug screening
The three-letter abbreviation used for marijuana is ____________________.
THC
The level at which a drug becomes poisonous in the body is called __________________.
Toxicity
Which of the following abbreviations is not related to glucose testing? Answers: a. GTT b. Hgb A1c c. VLDL d. OGTT e. FBG (FBS)
VLDL
Match the following tests with their possible reference ranges. (Hint: Think of what each measures, and look at the units as well as the numerical ranges.) Hemoglobin a. 12 to 18 g/dL b. 0 to 20 mm/hour c. 36% to 55% d. 1.0 INR
a. 12 to 18 g/dL
Which of the following describes a coccus bacterium? a. A round organism that can be found as singles, pairs, clusters, or chains b. An organism that looks like a corkscrew or a spring c. A rod-shaped organism d. An organism that can be a gently curved rod
a. A round organism that can be found as singles, pairs, clusters, or chains
Match the leukocyte disorders with their correct description: Sudden cancer of a nongranulocyte a. ALL (acute lymphocytic leukemia) b. Mononucleosis c. Leukocytopenia d. CML (chronic myelocytic leukemia) e. Leukocytosis
a. ALL (acute lymphocytic leukemia)
Match each testing method with its appropriate test: Pro time a. Coagulation test b. Hematocrit (HCT) c. Sedimentation rate d. CBC e. Hemoglobin (Hgb)
a. Coagulation test
When collecting microbiologic specimens, medical professionals must strive to prevent the spread of infection to others or to themselves. Which of the following precautions is incorrect? a. Disinfect specimen containers before collection. b. Put the specimens in transport bags after collection. c. Wash your hands after specimen collection. d. Wear the appropriate personal protection devices.
a. Disinfect specimen containers before collection.
Which of the following causes viral hemorrhagic fever? a. Ebola virus b. Herpes simplex c. Variola minor d. Variola major
a. Ebola virus
Which of the following is the correct way to write the name of an organism? a. Escherichia coli b. escherichia Coli c. Escherichia Coli d. Escherichia coli
a. Escherichia coli
Match the following terms related to hemoglobin with their appropriate description: The iron portion of the hemoglobin molecule a. Heme b. Globin c. Anemia d. Bilirubin e. Hemoglobin
a. Heme
Match the following descriptions with their causative viral agents: It is estimated that up to 3% of the world's population is infected with this virus that attacks the liver, which was identified in 1989. It poses a threat to health care workers who are exposed to blood. a. Hepatitis C virus b. Coronavirus c. Human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) d. Ebola virus e. Influenza A virus (H1N1)
a. Hepatitis C virus
Match each RBC index with its ratio and reference range: MCHC (mean cell hemoglobin concentration) a. Hgb/HCT (31% to 37% or g/dL) b. Hgb/RBC (26 to 34 pg) c. HCT/RBC (82 to 98 micrometers/fL)
a. Hgb/HCT (31% to 37% or g/dL)
Match the following definitions to the terms: The rate at which an illness occurs a. Morbidity b. Malaise c. Mortality d. Mycelium e. Myalgia
a. Morbidity
Which of the following organisms are referred to as acid-fast bacilli? (Note: They are stained with an acid-fast stain rather than the Gram stain.) a. Mycobacterium tuberculosis b. Escherichia coli c. Neisseria gonorrhoeae d. Streptococcus pneumoniae
a. Mycobacterium tuberculosis
Match the following terms with the correct definition: WBC stem cell that develops into the three kinds of granulocytes a. Myeloblast b. Nongranulocytes c. Macrophages d. Polymorphonuclear e. Megakaryocyte
a. Myeloblast
Which of the following is incorrect regarding microorganisms? a. Parasites can only be one-celled protozoa such as amoebae. b. Bacteria are prokaryotic, reproduce by binary fission, and can form colonies when they multiply on culture media. c. Viruses live in a host cell and are made of RNA or DNA. d. Fungi are eukaryotic, and some are yeast, which reproduce by budding.
a. Parasites can only be one-celled protozoa such as amoebae.
Complications such as scarlet fever, rheumatic fever, and glomerulonephritis are found in which of the following organisms? a. Streptococcus pyogenes b. Streptococcus pneumoniae c. Streptococcus viridans d. Streptococcus agalactiae
a. Streptococcus pyogenes
Which of the following statements regarding erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) is false? a. The following medical conditions will cause a decreased ESR result: inflammatory diseases, autoimmune disorders, cancer, and leukemia. b. ESR tests cannot be performed on capillary blood because of the volume of blood needed. c. The following technical interferences will increase the ESR result: vibrating surface, reading after 60 minutes, and tilting the sedimentation rate tube. d. When plasma proteins increase, they cause the RBCs to stack together like poker chips, a condition known as rouleaux.
a. The following medical conditions will cause a decreased ESR result: inflammatory diseases, autoimmune disorders, cancer, and leukemia.
Which of the following statements is incorrect concerning influenza testing? a. The influenza test strips usually test for influenza A, B, and C. b. Presence of a blue test line in B and a pink control line is a valid positive test for influenza type B. c. The specimen for testing influenza is usually a nasal swab or nasal wash. d. Presence of a blue test line in A and a pink control line is a valid positive test for influenza type A.
a. The influenza test strips usually test for influenza A, B, and C.
Match the terms related to hemostasis with the correct definition: Activates prothrombin to become thrombin a. Thromboplastin b. Heparin c. Thrombin d. Embolus e. Fibrin
a. Thromboplastin
Which of the following organisms has a characteristic jerky movement? (Hint: It was seen in the microscopic urinalysis video.) a. Trichomonas vaginalis b. Neisseria gonorrhoeae c. Gardnerella vaginalis d. Chlamydia trachomatis
a. Trichomonas vaginalis
Which of the following is an incorrect association? a. Trichomonas vaginalis/roundworm b. Pediculus humanus/body louse c. Enterobius vermicularis/pinworms d. Giardia lamblia/protozoan flagellate that causes gastrointestinal symptoms
a. Trichomonas vaginalis/roundworm
Which of the following causes smallpox? a. Variola major b. Bacillus anthracis c. Francisella tularensis d. Yersinia pestis
a. Variola major
Most CLIA-waived hematology tests use blood from a(n): a. syringe. b. artery. c. Vacutainer. d. vein. e. capillary.
a. capillary
Match the following tests with their possible reference ranges. (Hint: Think of what each measures, and look at the units as well as the numerical ranges.) ESR a. 12 to 18 g/dL b. 0 to 20 mm/hour c. 36% to 55% d. 1.0 INR
b. 0 to 20 mm/hour
Which of the following organisms could be an occupational hazard for those who work with contaminated wool and inhale the spores ("woolsorter's disease") and could also be a bioterrorism weapon? a. Clostridium botulinum b. Bacillus anthracis c. Francisella tularensis d. Yersinia pestis
b. Bacillus anthracis
Match the following descriptions with their causative viral agents: This virus causes severe acute respiratory syndrome (SARS), a respiratory illness that was recently reported in Asia, North America, and Europe. a. Hepatitis C virus b. Coronavirus c. Human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) d. Ebola virus e. Influenza A virus (H1N1)
b. Coronavirus
Match each testing method with its appropriate test: HemataSTAT a. Coagulation test b. Hematocrit (HCT) c. Sedimentation rate d. CBC e. Hemoglobin (Hgb)
b. Hematocrit (HCT)
Match the terms related to hemostasis with the correct definition: A natural anticoagulant that prevents excessive clotting a. Thromboplastin b. Heparin c. Thrombin d. Embolus e. Fibrin
b. Heparin
Match each RBC index with its ratio and reference range: MCH (mean cell hemoglobin) a. Hgb/HCT (31% to 37% or g/dL) b. Hgb/RBC (26 to 34 pg) c. HCT/RBC (82 to 98 micrometers/fL)
b. Hgb/RBC (26 to 34 pg)
Which of the following has the correct order of the pharmacokinetic stages? a. Liberation, metabolism, absorption, elimination, and distribution b. Liberation, absorption, distribution, metabolism, and elimination c. Metabolism, absorption, liberation, distribution, and elimination d. Distribution, metabolism, absorption, liberation, and elimination
b. Liberation, absorption, distribution, metabolism, and elimination
Match the following definitions to the terms: Feeling of weakness, distress, or discomfort a. Morbidity b. Malaise c. Mortality d. Mycelium e. Myalgia
b. Malaise
Match the leukocyte disorders with their correct description: Presence of atypical "reactive" lymphocytes a. ALL (acute lymphocytic leukemia) b. Mononucleosis c. Leukocytopenia d. CML (chronic myelocytic leukemia) e. Leukocytosis
b. Mononucleosis
Match the following terms with the correct definition: Lymphocyte and monocyte group a. Myeloblast b. Nongranulocytes c. Macrophages d. Polymorphonuclear e. Megakaryocyte
b. Nongranulocytes
Which of the following is not a formed element in the blood? a. Platelets b. Prothrombin c. White blood cells (WBCs) d. Red blood cells (RBCs)
b. Prothrombin
Which of the following Strep organisms causes strep throat and demonstrates beta hemolysis? a. Streptococcus agalactiae b. Streptococcus pyogenes c. Streptococcus pneumoniae d. Streptococcus viridans
b. Streptococcus pyogenes
Which of the following statements about Neisseria gonorrhoeae is incorrect? a. This organism requires a 10% carbon dioxide atmosphere for growth. b. This organism is a gram-positive bacillus. c. This organism causes gonorrhea, which is a sexually transmitted disease. d. This organism is transported in the Jembec transport system.
b. This organism is a gram-positive bacillus.
Which of the following is the causative agent of the plague? a. Clostridium botulinum b. Yersinia pestis c. Francisella tularensis d. Bacillus anthracis
b. Yersinia pestis
Which of the following is not a poisonous metal that needs to be tested? a. Lead b. Zinc c. Arsenic d. Iron
b. Zinc
A sensitivity test is done to: a. determine whether the organism will grow anaerobically. b. determine which antibiotics would be most effective for treating patients' bacterial infections. c. perform a colony count. d. identify the organism.
b. determine which antibiotics would be most effective for treating patients' bacterial infections.
Match the following tests with their possible reference ranges. (Hint: Think of what each measures, and look at the units as well as the numerical ranges.) Hematocrit a. 12 to 18 g/dL b. 0 to 20 mm/hour c. 36% to 55% d. 1.0 INR
c. 36% to 55%
Which of the following represents incomplete hemolysis, producing a green halo around the colony? a. Gamma b. Delta c. Alpha d. Beta
c. Alpha
Match the following terms related to hemoglobin with their appropriate description: A condition in which the RBC or hemoglobin levels are below normal. a. Heme b. Globin c. Anemia d. Bilirubin e. Hemoglobin
c. Anemia
No growth around the "A" disk can be used to identify Streptococcus pyogenes. What substance is in the "A" disk? a. Vancomycin b. Penicillin c. Bacitracin d. Tetracycline
c. Bacitracin
Which of the following steps are incorrect when collecting a throat culture? a. Sanitize your hands and apply gloves. b. Have the patient sit with head back. Use a sterile tongue depressor to hold down the tongue, and have the patient say "Ahh." c. Be sure to include the teeth and the back of the tongue and place the swab in the appropriate container. d. Rotate the swab on the back of throat in a circular motion or figure-eight pattern
c. Be sure to include the teeth and the back of the tongue and place the swab in the appropriate container.
Wet mounts can be done to detect the presence of "clue cells," vaginal epithelial cells covered with what organism? a. Neisseria gonorrhoeae b. Chlamydia trachomatis c. Gardnerella vaginalis d. Trichomonas vaginalis
c. Gardnerella vaginalis
Which of the following emerging infectious diseases is an acute respiratory illness that was recently reported as pandemic? a. Ebola b. HIV/AIDS c. H1N1 swine flu virus d. Hemolytic uremic syndrome
c. H1N1 swine flu virus
Match the following descriptions with their causative viral agents: This virus, first discovered in 1981, is the cause of acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS). a. Hepatitis C virus b. Coronavirus c. Human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) d. Ebola virus e. Influenza A virus (H1N1)
c. Human immunodeficiency virus (HIV)
Match the leukocyte disorders with their correct description: Abnormal decrease of WBCs a. ALL (acute lymphocytic leukemia) b. Mononucleosis c. Leukocytopenia d. CML (chronic myelocytic leukemia) e. Leukocytosis
c. Leukocytopenia
Match the following terms with the correct definition: Large engulfing cells in the tissues that came from monocytes a. Myeloblast b. Nongranulocytes c. Macrophages d. Polymorphonuclear e. Megakaryocyte
c. Macrophages
Match the following definitions to the terms: The rate of deaths a. Morbidity b. Malaise c. Mortality d. Mycelium e. Myalgia
c. Mortality
Match each testing method with its appropriate test: Sediplast/Westergren/Streck a. Coagulation test b. Hematocrit (HCT) c. Sedimentation rate d. CBC e. Hemoglobin (Hgb)
c. Sedimentation rate
Match the terms related to hemostasis with the correct definition: Activates fibrinogen to become fibrin a. Thromboplastin b. Heparin c. Thrombin d. Embolus e. Fibrin
c. Thrombin
Match the following tests with their possible reference ranges. (Hint: Think of what each measures, and look at the units as well as the numerical ranges.) Pro time a. 12 to 18 g/dL b. 0 to 20 mm/hour c. 36% to 55% d. 1.0 INR
d. 1.0 INR
Which of the following drugs are typically screened using a saliva or breath specimen? a. Opiates b. Marijuana c. Amphetamines d. Alcohol e. Cocaine
d. Alcohol
Which of the following therapeutic drug categories and their represented drugs are not typically monitored for therapeutic levels? a. Antidepressants (i.e., lithium) b. Anticonvulsants (i.e., phenobarbital) c. Antibiotics (i.e., ampicillin) d. Antihistamines (i.e., Benadryl)
d. Antihistamines (i.e., Benadryl)
Match each testing method with its appropriate test: QBC a. Coagulation test b. Hematocrit (HCT) c. Sedimentation rate d. CBC e. Hemoglobin (Hgb)
d. CBC
Match the leukocyte disorders with their correct description: Long-term cancer of granulocytes in bone marrow a. ALL (acute lymphocytic leukemia) b. Mononucleosis c. Leukocytopenia d. CML (chronic myelocytic leukemia) e. Leukocytosis
d. CML (chronic myelocytic leukemia)
Which of the following organisms produces a neurotoxin, the most poisonous natural substance known, which causes dry mouth, dilated pupils, and a progressive muscle weakness that leads to respiratory failure and death? a. Bacillus anthracis b. Francisella tularensis c. Variola major d. Clostridium botulinum
d. Clostridium botulinum
In the Gram stain procedure, what is the most critical differentiating step? a. Crystal violet b. Safranin c. Gram iodine d. Decolorizer
d. Decolorizer
The anticoagulant and Vacutainer tube used for most hematology testing in a reference lab is: a. heparin in a green-top tube. b. heparin in a lavender-top tube. c. ethylenediaminetetraacetic acid (EDTA) in a green-top tube. d. EDTA in a lavender-top tube. e. none of these; no anticoagulant is needed for hematology tests.
d. EDTA in a lavender-top tube.
The complete blood count (CBC) generally includes all of the following except: a. RBC count. b. WBC count. c. hematocrit. d. ESR. e. hemoglobin.
d. ESR
Match the following descriptions with their causative viral agents: This organism was first discovered in 1977 after two simultaneous outbreaks in Africa (Sudan and Congo). It causes fever, extensive bleeding, and destruction of internal organs. a. Hepatitis C virus b. Coronavirus c. Human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) d. Ebola virus e. Influenza A virus (H1N1)
d. Ebola virus
Match the terms related to hemostasis with the correct definition: A moving clot a. Thromboplastin b. Heparin c. Thrombin d. Embolus e. Fibrin
d. Embolus
What is the name of the tiny roundworm whose female normally lays her eggs during the nighttime hours in the anal area of the human host, causing itching of this area? a. Candida albicans b. Trichomonas vaginalis c. Pediculus humanus d. Enterobius vermicularis
d. Enterobius vermicularis
The major component in the erythrocyte that carries oxygen is: a. plasma. b. iron. c. protein. d. hemoglobin. e. hematocrit.
d. Hemoglobin
Match the following definitions to the terms: Mass of hyphae that some fungi produce a. Morbidity b. Malaise c. Mortality d. Mycelium e. Myalgia
d. Mycelium
Which of the following statements concerning influenza is incorrect? a. The elderly and patients with chronic health problems are at greater risk for complications. b. Several influenza pandemics have occurred in the past. c. Type C influenza is milder than the other types. d. One type of influenza mutation is called antigenic drift, which refers to an abrupt change in the virus strain.
d. One type of influenza mutation is called antigenic drift, which refers to an abrupt change in the virus strain.
Match the following terms with the correct definition: Many-shaped nucleus or "seg" a. Myeloblast b. Nongranulocytes c. Macrophages d. Polymorphonuclear e. Megakaryocyte
d. Polymorphonuclear
Transmission of the EBV causing infectious mononucleosis is primarily by: Answers: a. injection. b. direct contact. c. vector. d. aspiration.
direct contact
Match the terms related to hemostasis with the correct definition: The final sticky, stringy product of coagulation a. Thromboplastin b. Heparin c. Thrombin d. Embolus e. Fibrin
e. Fibrin
Match each testing method with its appropriate test: HemoCue a. Coagulation test b. Hematocrit (HCT) c. Sedimentation rate d. CBC e. Hemoglobin (Hgb)
e. Hemoglobin (Hgb)
Which of the following statements is false? a. The interval for detecting drugs in urine varies depending on the drug. b. The most common legal drug of abuse in America is ethanol. c. Three toxic reactions to over-the-counter drugs are overdose, interaction with other drugs, and idiosyncrasy. d. If performing drug testing for the Department of Transportation (DOT) in the office, the physician must be a certified Medical Review Officer (MRO). e. If a quantitative result is needed to detect an illegal drug, the specimen is usually urine.
e. If a quantitative result is needed to detect an illegal drug, the specimen is usually urine.
Match the following descriptions with their causative viral agents: An endemic flu virus that mutated from former gene viruses in swine, birds, and humans. a. Hepatitis C virus b. Coronavirus c. Human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) d. Ebola virus e. Influenza A virus (H1N1)
e. Influenza A virus (H1N1)
Match the leukocyte disorders with their correct description: Increase in WBCs (usually due to infection) a. ALL (acute lymphocytic leukemia) b. Mononucleosis c. Leukocytopenia d. CML (chronic myelocytic leukemia) e. Leukocytosis
e. Leukocytosis
Match the following terms with the correct definition: Large nuclear cell in the bone marrow that fragments its cytoplasm to become platelets a. Myeloblast b. Nongranulocytes c. Macrophages d. Polymorphonuclear e. Megakaryocyte
e. Megakaryocyte
Match the following definitions to the terms: Diffuse muscle pain a. Morbidity b. Malaise c. Mortality d. Mycelium e. Myalgia
e. Myalgia
Match each anemia with its cause: Inherited abnormal hemoglobin S a. Aplastic anemia b. Iron deficiency anemia c. Hemolytic anemia d. Pernicious anemia e. Sickle cell anemia
e. Sickle cell anemia
The preferred sample for pregnancy testing is obtained as a: Answers: a. catheterized specimen. b. 24-hour sample. c. random sample. d. first morning sample.
first morning sample
The hormone produced by the pancreas to raise blood glucose is ___________________.
glucagon
Pregnancy testing is based upon detection of: Answers: a. TSH. b. human chorionic gonadotropin (HCG). c. follicle-stimulating hormone. d. luteinizing hormone.
human chorionic gonadotropin (HCG)
Excessively high blood insulin levels is referred to as ____________________.
hyperinsulinemia
Methadone and morphine are ____________________.
opiates
The three-letter abbreviation used for amphetamine is ____________________.
AMP
____________ is defined as passage of a substance through the surface of the body into body fluids and tissues.
Absorption
Gelatinous substance obtained from seaweed that is liquid when heated and solid when cooled and used in culture media is ____________________.
Agar
Destructive tissue diseases caused by antibody/self-antigen reactions are referred to as ____________________.
Autoimmune diseases
Which of the following lymphocytes differentiate into plasma cells and memory cells with the subsequent production of antibodies (humoral immunity)? Answers: a. T cells b. Natural killer (NK) cells c. B cells d. T helper cells
B cells
The three-letter abbreviation used for barbiturates is ____________________.
BAR
The three-letter abbreviation used for buprenorphine is ____________________.
BUP
The three-letter abbreviation used for benzodiazepines is ____________________.
BZO
People who do not exercise regularly, are overweight, and eat mostly saturated fats will probably increase their level of which of the following? Answers: a. Albumin b. Good cholesterol (HDL) c. Glucose d. Bad cholesterol (LDL)
Bad Cholesterol (LDL)
An FDA-approved drug for treating opioid drug addiction is ____________________.
Buprenorphine
Hematology is the study of: a. proteins in the blood. b. blood plasma. c. formed elements in the blood and bone marrow. d. infectious diseases in the blood. e. blood chemistry.
C. Formed elements in the blood and bone marrow
The three-letter abbreviation used for cocaine is ____________________.
COC
Match the following terms with their definitions: Measurement of optics and/or settings to ensure that the analyzer is working correctly with the testing devices a. Galvanometer b. Transmittance photometry c. Calibration d. Liquid controls e. Occult
Calibration
Marijuana is a(n) ____________________.
Cannabinoid
Physicians use which of the following lipid results as the best predictive indicator of possible future myocardial infarct (MI)? Answers: a. Low-density lipoprotein (LDL) value b. High-density lipoprotein (HDL) value c. Cholesterol value d. Cholesterol/HDL ratio
Cholesterol/ HDL ratio
A visible mass of bacteria formed on a culture medium by one bacterium growing and replicating is a(n) ____________________.
Colony
Match the following disease condition with their associated blood chemicals: Cholesterol a. Hepatitis or liver disease b. Nephritis or kidney disease c. Coronary artery disease and atherosclerosis d. Diabetes e. Gout
Coronary artery disease and atherosclerosis
The presence of microorganisms growing on a laboratory medium is called ____________________.
Culture
Blood carrying the drug through the body is called ____________________.
Distribution
Having the pink color of the counterstain used in Gram's method refers to ____________________.
Gram negative
_____________ are cells capable of engulfing and ingesting microorganisms and cellular debris.
Phagocytes
Which of the following provides long-term protection against future infections due to the production of antibodies that were formed naturally during an infection or artificially by vaccination? Answers: a. Active immunity b. Cell-mediated immunity c. Passive immunity d. Nonspecific immunity
Active immunity
Match the definitions with their terms: Clumping together of blood cells or latex beads caused by antibodies adhering to their antigens a. Agglutination b. Immunosorbent c. Erythroblastosis fetalis d. Chromatographic e. Titer
Agglutination
Which of the following statements is false? Answers: a. No antigens of the ABO system are present on cells of group O individuals. b. An Rh (D)-negative person should be transfused with Rh-positive blood. c. Type A blood contains anti-B antibodies in the plasma. d. An Rh-negative mother carrying an Rh-positive fetus may cause hemolytic problems in the fetus.
An Rh (D)-negative person should be transfused with Rh-positive blood
Substances that are perceived as foreign to the body and elicit an antibody response are ____________________.
Antigens
Which of the following statements regarding HIV testing is not true? Answers: a. Blood or oral testing should be performed 3 months after a risk event. b. Patients who test positive for HIV should have access to counseling. c. Risk events include oral sex with multiple partners, a diagnosis of tuberculosis, and illegal injected drugs or steroids. d. If HIV infection is detected early, it may be controlled with medication to halt the progression to acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS) and reduce the possibility of infecting others. e. There is now a cure for HIV infection if detected early
There is now a cure for HIV infection if detected early
Match with the appropeiate description: Hormones a. Thyroid and pituitary glands produce these b. Electrolytes c. Catalysts d. Urea, uric acid, creatinine e. Prothrombin and fibrinogen
Thyroid and pituitary glands produce these
Match the following blood panels with their associated tests: T3, T4, and TSH a. Cardiac panel (heart) b. Thyroid panel c. Electrolyte panel d. Hepatic panel (liver) e. Renal panel (kidney)
Thyroid panel
Match the following terms with the correct definition: Immature red cell in bone marrow (also called rubriblast) a. Poikilocytosis b. Erythroblast c. Reticulocytes d. Hematologists e. Anisocytosis
b. Erythroblast
Match the following terms related to hemoglobin with their appropriate description: The protein portion of the hemoglobin molecule a. Heme b. Globin c. Anemia d. Bilirubin e. Hemoglobin
b. Globin
Match each anemia with its cause: Seen with blood loss (menses, ulcers, hemorrhaging) a. Aplastic anemia b. Iron deficiency anemia c. Hemolytic anemia d. Pernicious anemia e. Sickle cell anemia
b. Iron deficiency anemia
Match the following CBC pathological terms with the correct definition: Cancer of the WBCs a. Polycythemia b. Leukemia c. Leukocytosis d. Leukopenia e. Anemia
b. Leukemia
Which of the following is not a granulocyte? a. Band/seg b. Lymphocyte c. Basophil d. Neutrophil e. Eosinophil
b. Lymphocyte
HCG is produced by the developing placenta during pregnancy, with the levels peaking: Answers: a. between 10 and 30 days of pregnancy. b. on the day of delivery. c. between 50 and 80 days of pregnancy. d. between 5 and 8 days after conception.
between 50 and 80 days of pregnancy
Match each RBC index with its ratio and reference range: MCV (mean cell volume) a. Hgb/HCT (31% to 37% or g/dL) b. Hgb/RBC (26 to 34 pg) c. HCT/RBC (82 to 98 micrometers/fL)
c. HCT/RBC (82 to 98 micrometers/fL)
Match each anemia with its cause: Destruction of circulating RBCs a. Aplastic anemia b. Iron deficiency anemia c. Hemolytic anemia d. Pernicious anemia e. Sickle cell anemia
c. Hemolytic anemia
Match the following CBC pathological terms with the correct definition: Abnormal increase in WBCs a. Polycythemia b. Leukemia c. Leukocytosis d. Leukopenia e. Anemia
c. Leukocytosis
Which of the following WBCs does not match the associated description? a. Eosinophil increases in number during allergic reactions. b. Basophil becomes a mast cell when it enters the tissues to mediate the inflammatory response. c. Neutrophil can differentiate into a T cell or B cell. d. Monocyte is the largest WBC. e. Lymphocyte is the smallest WBC.
c. Neutrophil can differentiate into a T cell or B cell.
Match the following terms with the correct definition: Newly released RBCs into the blood that still contain some nuclear DNA a. Poikilocytosis b. Erythroblast c. Reticulocytes d. Hematologists e. Anisocytosis
c. Reticulocytes
The erythrocyte indices: a. compare the RBC count to the WBC count. b. provide information for hematocrit. c. aid in diagnosing anemia classifications. d. allow for calculations of oxygen in hemoglobin. e. are taken from the ESR results.
c. aid in diagnosing anemia classifications.
Match the following terms related to hemoglobin with their appropriate description: A byproduct of RBC breakdown that is sent to the liver a. Heme b. Globin c. Anemia d. Bilirubin e. Hemoglobin
d. Bilirubin
Match the following terms with the correct definition: Specialists who evaluate the cellular elements of blood microscopically and analytically a. Poikilocytosis b. Erythroblast c. Reticulocytes d. Hematologists e. Anisocytosis
d. Hematologists
Which of the following statements regarding Pro time testing is false? a. The major use of the Pro time test is to monitor patients who have been placed on anticoagulant therapy. b. Patients who lack clotting factors, have liver disease, or are deficient in vitamin K will have higher Pro time results. c. Patients with low Pro time results are in danger of internal clotting, which can cause strokes and heart attacks. d. Patients taking anticoagulants will have lower Pro time and international normalized ratio (INR) results.
d. Patients taking anticoagulants will have lower Pro time and international normalized ratio (INR) results.
Which of the following statements regarding the making and staining of a blood smear is true? Answers: a. Medical assistants are qualified to read and report a stained blood smear. b. Blood cells are observed and identified under the low power lens of the microscope. c. A properly done blood smear will have a blunt edge at the end of the smear and a thinner distribution of blood cells in the heel of the slide. d. When identifying cells, one should note the size, shape, and color of the blood cell, its nucleus, and its cytoplasm.
d. When identifying cells, one should note the size, shape, and color of the blood cell, its nucleus, and its cytoplasm.
The age group in which symptoms of EBV are most often displayed is: Answers: a. under 5. b. 40 to 50. c. 50 and over. d. 15 to 25.
15 to 25
________________ include sugars and starches.
Carbohydrates
Match the following blood panels with their associated tests: Troponins I & T, the enzyme CK, and myoglobin a. Cardiac panel (heart) b. Thyroid panel c. Electrolyte panel d. Hepatic panel (liver) e. Renal panel (kidney)
Cardiac panel
Match with the appropriate description: Enzymes a. Thyroid and pituitary glands produce these b. Electrolytes c. Catalysts d. Urea, uric acid, creatinine e. Prothrombin and fibrinogen
Catalysts
Which of the following groups are allowed to be eaten 2 days before collecting the fecal specimen used for the Hemoccult blood test? Answers: a. Chicken, fish, and eggs b. Red and partially cooked meats c. Cauliflower, broccoli, turnips, parsnips, and melons d. Vitamin C, alcohol, and aspirin
Chicken, fish, and eggs
Match the definitions with their terms: Pertaining to a visual color change that appears when an enzyme-linked antibody/antigen reaction takes place a. Agglutination b. Immunosorbent c. Erythroblastosis fetalis d. Chromatographic e. Titer
Chromatographic
Match the following disease condition with their associated blood chemicals: Glucose a. Hepatitis or liver disease b. Nephritis or kidney disease c. Coronary artery disease and atherosclerosis d. Diabetes e. Gout
Diabetes
Match the following blood panels with their associated tests: Positively charged cations and negatively charged anions a. Cardiac panel (heart) b. Thyroid panel c. Electrolyte panel d. Hepatic panel (liver) e. Renal panel (kidney)
Electrolyte panel
Match with the appropriate description: Salts a. Thyroid and pituitary glands produce these b. Electrolytes c. Catalysts d. Urea, uric acid, creatinine e. Prothrombin and fibrinogen
Electrolytes
_______________ is cholesterol manufactured in the liver.
Endogenous cholesterol
Which of the following is the causative agent of infectious mononucleosis? Answers: a. Variola major b. Human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) c. Cytomegalovirus d. Epstein-Barr virus (EBV)
Epstein-Barr virus (EBV)
Match the definitions with their terms: Hemolytic disease of the newborn a. Agglutination b. Immunosorbent c. Erythroblastosis fetalis d. Chromatographic e. Titer
Erythroblastosis fetalis
Cholesterol derived from the diet is ____________________.
Exogenous cholesterol
Which of the following will not cause a liquid control to fall out of range? Answers: a. Poor specimen processing or faulty technique b. Failure of patient to fast before collection of the specimen c. Instrument dirty or faulty d. Reagents stored at wrong temperature or expired
Failure of patient to fast before collection of the specimen
Which of the following statements regarding Helicobacter pylori and ulcers is false? Answers: a. As the mucous layer breaks down, the acid and the bacteria cause an ulcer. b. Spicy foods may irritate the ulcerous tissue. c. Treatment includes antibiotics and acid-reducing medications. d. Helicobacter pylori is believed to be the cause of all ulcers. e. Helicobacter pylori weakens the mucous lining of the stomach and duodenum.
Helicobacter pylori is believed to be the cause of all ulcers
Match the following blood panels with their associated tests: Bilirubin, albumin, ALP, GGT, AST, ALT, and LD a. Cardiac panel (heart) b. Thyroid panel c. Electrolyte panel d. Hepatic panel (liver) e. Renal panel (kidney)
Hepatic panel (Liver)
Match the following disease condition with their associated blood chemicals: Bilirubin a. Hepatitis or liver disease b. Nephritis or kidney disease c. Coronary artery disease and atherosclerosis d. Diabetes e. Gout
Hepatitis or liver disease
Excessive fat in blood that gives a milky appearance in the plasma is called ____________________.
Hyperlipidemia
Match the following terms with the correct definition: Abnormally shaped a. Poikilocytosis b. Erythroblast c. Reticulocytes d. Hematologists e. Anisocytosis
a. Poikilocytosis
Which of the following pairs is correct regarding the diagnosis of infectious mononucleosis? Answers: a. Hematologic findings = reactive atypical lymphocytes increased under the microscope b. Serologic findings = heterophile antibodies present in the serum c. Clinical findings = fatigue, fever, swollen glands, sore throat, headache d. All of the pairs above are correct.
all of the pairs above are correct
Which of the following statements regarding hematocrits is false? a. Spun hematocrits should be performed in duplicate, with results falling within 2% of each other. b. One condition in which a high hematocrit value might be found is polycythemia. c. Note the appearance of the plasma for hemolysis (red) and/or lipemia (cloudy white due to high fat content). d. If capillary blood from a finger is used for the microhematocrit, the capillary tube must not contain an anticoagulant.
d. If capillary blood from a finger is used for the microhematocrit, the capillary tube must not contain an anticoagulant.
Match the following CBC pathological terms with the correct definition: Abnormal decrease in WBCs a. Polycythemia b. Leukemia c. Leukocytosis d. Leukopenia e. Anemia
d. Leukopenia
Match each anemia with its cause: Caused by decreased vitamin B12 a. Aplastic anemia b. Iron deficiency anemia c. Hemolytic anemia d. Pernicious anemia e. Sickle cell anemia
d. Pernicious anemia
Match the following CBC pathological terms with the correct definition: Abnormal decrease in RBCs a. Polycythemia b. Leukemia c. Leukocytosis d. Leukopenia e. Anemia
e. Anemia
Match the following terms with the correct definition: Variances in RBC size a. Poikilocytosis b. Erythroblast c. Reticulocytes d. Hematologists e. Anisocytosis
e. Anisocytosis
Match the following terms related to hemoglobin with their appropriate description: A molecule that has a reddish pigment and is capable of carrying oxygen a. Heme b. Globin c. Anemia d. Bilirubin e. Hemoglobin
e. Hemoglobin
A critical vitamin used by the liver to produce clotting factors is vitamin: a. A. b. D. c. B. d. E. e. K.
e. K
Which of the following occult blood tests does not require a restrictive diet prior to testing because it uses an antibody-antigen reaction to detect human blood rather than the guaiac methods, which detect any blood (i.e., red meat in the stool)? Answers: a. Coloscreen III method that applies three separate fecal samples onto three testing cards that are then returned to the lab for testing b. Colocare method with testing sheets placed in the toilet after three separate bowel movements to be read within 30 seconds and recorded as positive or negative c. iFOB method using a sampling probe that is placed in a solution and sent back to the lab for testing d. All the occult blood tests restrict the eating of red meat before and during the testing period.
iFOB method using a sampling probe that is placed in a solution and sent back to the lab for testing
The hormone produced by the pancreas to lower blood glucose is __________________.
insulin