Lear 35 Systems

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What is the output of the primary inverter?

115 VAC, 400 Hz, 1000 VA

How many duplex fuel atomizers supply fuel for the combustion chamber?

12

The wing is swept by how many degrees?

13·

Spoiler light flashes when the flaps are extended beyond?

13· with spoilers extended

At what altitude does the passenger masks automatically deploy?

14,000 feet

The Freon air conditioning system must not be operated with one engine inoperative unless the ammeter reads less than what value?

150 Amps or 250 Amps with two engines

What is the maximum speed for deployment of the drag chute?

150 knots

What is the minimum voltage required to close the battery relays to connect the batteries to the battery charging bus?

16 VDC (CAE number) 7 VDC to 18 VDC (Bombardier numbers)

At what altitude must the Freon cooling systems be turned off?

18,000 feet without FCN 89-1 (35,000 feet)

How many degrees of deflection do the ailerons have?

18° up and 12° down

The spoiler light will illuminate when the spoilers are extended beyond?

The takeoff trim annunciator light will illuminate if the trim is how many degrees out of the trim range?

1⁄2°

What are the requirements for using anti-icing fuel additive?

20 fluid ounces per 105-260 gallons, MIL-I-27686 (Hi-Flo Prist 20, Quell 20, D-Ice 20) also a biocide 20 fluid ounces per 105-155 gallons, MIL-I-85470 (Hi Flash Prist, D-Ice Flash 190) not a biocide

What is the maximum demonstrated crosswind for drag chute utilization?

20 knots

The gear warning horn will sound when flaps are extended past how many degrees with all the gear not down and locked?

25 deg

How many watts is the recognition light?

250 watts

Beyond what flap setting will the spoilerons operate?

25·

The spoilerons are automatically activated when the flaps are extended beyond?

25·

What is the power source for the oil pressure gauge?

26 VAC

How is the Freon air conditioning system powered?

28 VDC to the compressor motor (GPU or generator voltage required) Also, if GPU were to fail with auxiliary heat or Freon on they may remain on and rapidly deplete batteries

What is the maximum continuous cruise ITT?

2B: 795o C recommended, 832o C for 30 minutes recommended, 832o C Do not exceed maximum N1 -2C: 827o C recommended, 865o C for 30 minutes recommended, 865o C Do not exceed maximum N1

How many degrees pitches down are the tip tanks from the longitudinal axis?

What is the limitation on the use of the auxiliary hydraulic pump?

3 minutes continuous on and 20 minutes off

How many fan blades on the TFE731-2-2B/2C?

30

What is the normal oil temperature range?

30-127C Note: 127-139C is yellow caution range and 140C is redline

What are the load limitations on the generators?

320 A on the ground, 400 A in the air

How many Boundary Layer Energizers per wing?

39

Concerning the -2C DEEC fuel computers, what are the buffer (memory) limits?

40 cycles and the fuel computer light flashes at slow interval 50 cycles and the buffer overwrites the oldest cycles

How many degrees of extension do the spoilers have?

40°

What is the maximum speed for nose wheel steering?

45 knots of groundspeed

What event disengages the starter and opens the second serial start relay?

45% N2 or 50% N2 depending on fuel computers installed 45% N2 SN 35-245+ and prior aircraft with 1142 fuel computers

How many watts are the main landing gear landing lights?

450 watts (OFF = 0.0 Volts, LO = 21.0 Volts, HI = 28.0 Volts)

What is the minimum allowable amperage from the ground power unit?

500 Amps

A solid-state, high-energy ignition system consists of a dual ignition exciter (induction vibrator) mounted on the engine and two igniter plugs in the combustion chamber. What are the locations of the ignitors on the engine as viewed from the aft?

6 and 7

What is the total fuel capacity?

6,238 lbs with one recognition light

The Horn Silence switch will mute the cabin altitude warning horn for what duration?

60 seconds

On the preflight, what should the fire bottle gauges indicate?

600 psi at 70F

What is the normal charge on the hydraulic accumulator?

750 psi minimum (850 psi recommended) with no hydraulic pressure on the system

At what altitude does the cabin altitude warning light illuminate?

8,750 feet (resets at 7,200 feet) System goes to manual

At what altitude does the emergency pressurization valves activate?

9,500 feet

How could you tell if a 50 A current limiter is blown during the preflight?

A silver pin protrudes from the top of the current limiter

The shoulder static ports (FC200) supply static pressure to what?

Air Data Computer which supplies information to the autopilot and mach trim

What are the approximate thrust percentages between the Core and the Fan?

At Sea Level: Fan = 60% Core = 40% At FL 400: Fan = 40% Core = 60%

What are three ways the emergency pressurization system can be activated?

Automatically by the aneroid switches at 9,500 feet Automatically by a DC electrical system failure Automatically by loss of HP servo bleed air Manually by placing the bleed air switches to Emergency Manually by pulling the Mod Valve CB on Main Bus

The pusher and puller get their inputs from?

Autopilot pitch servo

What actions occur when the Fire T Handle is pulled?

Bleed air, hydraulic and fuel valves electrically close and the fire bottles are armed

What form of electrical protection does the Freon and Aux heat systems have?

Both have 150 Amp current limiters

What are the limitations regarding yaw damper operation?

Both must be operative, one must be on during flight except for takeoff, landing touchdown, and trimming rudder except for the AvCon modification. Note: If left stall is inoperative then utilize secondary yaw damper and if right stall is inoperative then utilize primary yaw damper.

What is the primary way to disengage the autopilot?

By activating the trim switch

How do you change the copilot's RMI heading to match the copilot's HSI heading?

By adjusting the pilot's HSI as the copilot's RMI is coupled to the pilot's HSI

How do you switch between the frequencies set in COM 1A and COM 1B?

By depressing the TFR switch. Failure of the bus will revert to COM 1A

How are the parking brake valves actuated?

By depressing the brake pedals and pulling the parking brake handle to the locked position or pull the parking brake handle and depress the brake pedals

If you are flying an ILS approach that does not have an OM, the FINAL mode will not be activated. How can you engage the FINAL mode?

By ensuring that flaps are selected beyond 13deg and depressing the NAV 1 test button

How is the cabin emergency lighting system tested?

By moving the switch to the TEST position and observing illumination of the indirect lighting of the cabin overhead panel and the EXIT light on the emergency exit

How is the cabin air exhaust control valve controlled when the AUTO/MAN switch is in the MAN position?

By operation of the UP/DN manual control knob (cherry picker)

How can the passenger oxygen masks be deployed manually?

By rotating the passenger oxygen mask valve to manual

How do you place the pilot's altimeter in the standard barometric mode in the event of a SDCM failure?

By selecting the Standby mode on the altimeter

Once deployed, how is the drag chute jettisoned?

By squeezing the drag chute handle and pushing it down

How is the Pt2/Tt2 probe anti-ice turned on?

By the corresponding nacelle heat switch

How are the heating elements in the stall warning vanes turned on?

By the respective pitot heat switches

Primary flight controls are operated by?

Cables, bell cranks and push rods

What DC buses are "hot" all the time and what systems are connected to them?

DC Left Battery Bus: Left stall Entrance lights Door motor DC Right Battery Bus: Right stall

The Freon air conditioning system consists of what components?

DC motor, Compressor, Condenser, Dehydrator, Evaporator, Blower, Expansion valve, Cooling fan

How is the flight director modes selected?

Depressing the applicable mode without the autopilot engaged

The primary purpose of the spoilers is to?

Destroy (spoil) lift

How many fuel jet pumps are there and where are they located?

Four, one in each tip tank and one in each wing

What is the difference between the 100% oxygen and the normal oxygen positions on the pilot's oxygen masks?

In the 100% position, 100% oxygen is supplied and in the normal position oxygen is diluted with ambient flight deck air

What is the approximate voltage output of the induction vibrator?

Input = 28 VDC Output = (18,000 to 24,000) VDC

When selecting transfer with the fuselage tank full, what does the white light on the fuel panel indicate?

Insufficient pressure (2.75 psi) in the line, possibly failure of the transfer pump, faulty pressure switch (xfer line) or even a faulty wing fuel pressure switch

What is the function of the restrictor (snubber) in the hydraulic line?

It creates a back pressure during gear retraction to lightly apply brakes and stop wheel rotation

Takeoff trim setting is important for what reason?

It is a trim setting that provides neutral control pressures at V2 in the takeoff configuration

What purpose does the static defect correction module (SDCM) serve?

It measures pitot and static pressures and provides static error correction for the pilot's encoding altimeter

If an inverter fails, how should the auxiliary inverter be used?

It should be on and selected to the failed bus

What will happen if the drag chute inadvertently deploys in flight?

It will separate from the aircraft because the pin holding the riser was not locked into position by the drag chute handle being pulled

With hydraulic pressure only from the auxiliary pump, which system should not be operated?

Landing gear

If all three green lights were burned out, how could you tell whether the gear was down and locked?

Landing lights for each respective main gear, engine sync light will illuminate when the nose gear is locked down, red gear inboard door lights illuminated and went out, nose unsafe illuminated and went out and no horns with thrust levers at idle or flaps extended beyond 25 deg

What are the five scenarios when the Master Warning lights are unable to be cancelled?

Left engine fire light Right engine fire light Left stall warning activates Right stall warning activates Spoiler extended with flaps extended beyond 13°

What does a Fuel Filter light indicate?

Light illuminates at 1.25·, one or both the airframe fuel filters are bypassed at 2.25·. Light is indicating an impending a bypass situation

If the two inboard anti skid lights illuminate, what must you do?

Limit use of nose wheel steering to below 10 knots

What type of hydraulic fluid is used?

MIL H 5606, mineral based and colored red

The AC circuit breakers are what type?

Magnetic

What differential is allowed between tanks while fueling?

Maximum 125 gallons

What type of engine oil is utilized in the TFE731?

Mobil 254 Type II

What do the jet pump switches control?

Motive flow valves

What activates the ignitors during a normal engine ground start?

Moving the thrust levers from cutoff to idle

With emergency pressurization activated, what anti-ice systems are available?

Nacelle heat and alcohol anti-icing system

What does the ENG ICE light indicate?

Nacelle heat is on and there is insufficient bleed air (<2 psi). Nacelle heat off, then there is a malfunction of the valve

What are the minimum battery voltages for start?

Nicad = 23 VDC Lead Acid = 24 VDC (25 VDC if over 110F)

In the event of a failure of the primary pitch trim motor with the autopilot off, will the Mach Trim system engage?

No

If an engine is shutdown during flight can you use all the tip tank fuel assuming that the respective tank was full at shutdown?

No, approximately 600 lbs, or half, will not be usable

Can you always mute the gear warning horn?

No, if the flaps are beyond 25 deg and the gear is not down and locked

May the battery be used to power the cooling or aux heating systems?

No, only a generator or GPU with approximately 28 VDC output

In the event of a total DC failure, will the passenger masks still automatically deploy if necessary?

No, the oxygen solenoid needs DC power to operate

What are the unloaded tire pressures?

Nose-105 psi Main-160 psi

What is the normal landing gear strut extension?

Nose-5.0" Main-3.0"

How many hand held fire extinguishers are on board and where are they located?

One, behind the flight deck

In the event of total electrical failure, is any anti-ice system available?

Only nacelle heat, as the valves are deenergized open

In the event of total electrical system failure at night, what flight instruments will remain illuminated?

Only the standby attitude gyro provided the emergency battery is set to STBY (03:45) or ON (00:30).

When does the Auxiliary Inverter light illuminate?

Only when the Auxiliary Inverter is on and has failed

With a loss of DC power, will the bleed air shutoff and regulator valves fail to the open or closed position?

Open

What is the consideration for the hydraulic system at OAT below -25C?

Operate engines for three minutes to bring hydraulic system up to normal operating temperature

What will happen if you depress the maneuver button with the autopilot engaged and what happens when it is released?

Pitch and roll modes are cancelled while the button is depressed and held. When the button is released, the autopilot assumes basic attitude hold

What indication would you have in the cockpit that one engine driven hydraulic pump has failed during flight?

Possibly LOW HYD pressure light, if installed, during actuation of subsystems

Pitch trim is accomplished by repositioning the horizontal stabilizer with a dual motor, primary and secondary. Which motor does the Mach Trim operate?

Primary

What is connected to the squat switch systems?

Right Landing Gear Squat Switch: Left Landing Gear Squat Switch: Right stall Inboard anti skid Gear Left stall Outboard anti skid Gear Squat Switch Relay Panel: Nose wheel steering-disabled in flight Spoilers/spoilerons-monitor system disabled on ground, slows deployment rate in air Anti skid-brakes disabled in flight Stall warning test-disabled in flight Cabin pressurization-outflow valve open on ground, CAB ALT (510) disabled on gnd Takeoff trim light-disabled in flight Generator load limit (SN 148 and above)-single generator limiting on ground Mach trim test-disabled in flight, will reset system Mach overspeed/stick puller-not disabled in flight on FC200 Windshield heat sensor-hi/lo limits Hour meter-disabled on ground Thrust reversers-disabled in flight

What buses and inverter are connected to the Right Generator Bus?

Right Power, Right Main, and Battery Charging Bus and the Secondary Inverter

What is the expected life of the number 1 emergency battery in the STBY position and in the ON position?

STBY (03:45) ON (00:30)

The autopilot utilizes which pitch trim?

Secondary pitch trim motor

How should you set up the audio panel and associated switches in order to communicate between the pilot and copilot in an emergency descent?

Set the OXY-MIC to ON, select INPHN and press the microphone button to talk through the oxygen mask microphone. Turn on the master volumes and utilize speakers

In order to receive ATC communication over the NAV 2 VOR receiver, how would you position the navigation radio and audio panel switches?

Set the VOR frequency in NAV 2, turn up the volume on the NAV 2 radio, turn ON (up position) the NAV 2 selector switch on the audio panel

How would you set the audio panel if you want to transmit to ATC on COM 2 and receive over a headset?

Set the rotary selector to VHF 2, set the SPKR/PHONE switch to PHN and set the VHF 2 switch ON (up position)

Why are the engine core rotation clockwise and the fan rotation counterclockwise (as viewed from the aft)?

Smaller engine mounts are utilized because of the counteracted torque. If a part of the engine seizes, the torque is counteracted and will not shear the engine from its mounts.

What are the five major components of the TFE731-2 engine and how many bearings do they rest on?

Spinner and Fan (11,502 RPM) Low pressure spool (N1) (20,688 RPM) High pressure spool (N2) -2B(29,692 RPM) -2C(30,100 RPM) Annular combustion chamber Transfer gearbox and Accessory gearbox 6 bearings

Name five systems that will be affected when the airplane lands and closes a squat witch?

Spoilers/spoilerons-usable on ground with AUG AIL light on Nose wheel steering Thrust reversers Takeoff trim light Mach trim test Generator load limit-320 Amps on ground Windshield heat-low limit thermostats (215o F) Pressurization valves (outflow/safety) opens Hour meter

What components make up the Century III Wing with Softflite?

Stall strip, Stall fence, Boundary Layer Energizers, Strake, Aileron brush seals

What engine is installed on the LJ35 and what is the rated thrust?

TFE731-2-2B or 2C, 3,500 lbs of thrust at sea level up to 72o F

When may engine sync not be used?

Takeoff, landing and single engine operation

What does the AC Bus switch select?

The AC Voltmeter to either the left or right AC Bus

If the Freon air conditioning system is selected on and the auxiliary heat is selected on, which system has priority?

The Freon air conditioning system

From where is pneumatic air extracted?

The HP and LP compressor sections

If you are flying a NDB approach and the ground station goes off the air, what indication would you have on the flight deck?

The absence of an aural Morse code identification

What does the ALC AI light indicate?

The alcohol reservoir is empty (pressure switch) or failed pump. (SN 002-112) The alcohol reservoir is low (float switch). (SN 113 and above)

What will happen if the Freon cooling system is inadvertently left on when an engine is started?

The compressor motor should automatically be deenergized. There is a potential for current limiter failure when generate is selected

When you perform the fire detection system test, what does the test check?

The continuity of the sensing elements and control units (DC powered through Left Essential Bus)

With dual DME's, if the pilot wants to hold the DME display in his HSI , which DME control head should be set to hold?

The copilot's DME head should be set to hold

What are the considerations when using the emergency brakes?

The emergency brake handle must be pulled out of the recess and depressed approximately 2 inches before braking action begins-braking force proportional to lever movement, do not pump emergency brake handle Anti skid is inoperative Landing distance must be adjusted

What does the Cabin Air switch control?

The flow control valve and the safety valve

In order to have proper directional guidance on the flight director when making a back course approach, how should the HSI and flight director be set?

The front course should be set in the HSI and REV selected on the flight director

What does a slow flashing Fuel Computer light represent on the -2C DEEC fuel computers?

The fuel computer buffer (memory) is full and needs to be downloaded

What fuel tanks are vented directly by the fuel vent system?

The fuselage and tip tanks

If both 275 amp current limiters fail, what effect will this have on the electrical system?

The generators can not recharge the batteries. All items connected to the Battery Charging Bus including essential buses on aircraft without AMK 85-1 (SN 35-509 and below) will continue to operate until the batteries are depleted. Ammeters will indicate normal system draw. Voltmeter will indicate battery voltage.

What indicates that the oxygen has discharged overboard?

The green discharge plug will blow out (2,700-3,000 psi)

If the Left Main Bus and the Main Bus tie circuit breakers have opened, what has possibly happened?

The left main bus has a fault and has been isolated from the electrical system

In order for the Mach Puller to operate, what switch must be on?

The left stall warning switch

Which control surface is used to trim the airplane in the pitch axis?

The moveable horizontal stabilizer

When checking the brake wear during the pre-flight inspection, should the parking brake be set or released?

The parking brake should be set (0.33")

What are the differences in the windshield ice detect lights?

The pilot's ice detect light is located inside of the windshield heat discharge duct and the copilot's ice detect light is located outside of the windshield heat discharge duct

If a jet pump failed during flight would there be sufficient fuel supply to the engine without using the standby pump?

Theoretically, the engines will suction feed at 25,000' and below

The DC circuit breakers are what type?

Thermal

What does the absence of the red discharge disc indicate?

Thermal discharge of a fire bottle (220F)

What do amber annunciator lights indicate?

They indicate a malfunction that requires attention

What do red annunciator lights indicate?

They indicate a malfunction that requires immediate corrective action

After an emergency gear extension, what indication will you see on the gear position lights?

Three green and two red lights as the main gear doors will remain open

How many hydraulic pumps are there and how are they powered?

Three total, two engine driven and one electric auxiliary pump

How is 115 VAC reduced to 26 VAC?

Through step-down transformers (auto-transformers)

Assuming no options, how many static discharge wicks are installed on the LJ35?

Tip Tanks 2 each, Elevator 6 , Tail-2

What is the function of the H valve?

To blend Hot bleed air with Cold ram air

Why does the reservoir plumbing for the engine driven pumps originate from the side and for the auxiliary pump from the bottom?

To leave 0.4 gallons in the reservoir for the auxiliary pump in case of fluid loss

Why do you need a minimum of 1,800 psi of emergency air?

To override hydraulic system pressure (specifically to move shuttle valves against 1,500 psi) in the event of electrical failure

What is the purpose of the soft start protection and explain its operation?

To prevent shearing the tower shaft. DC voltage is reduced to 12 VDC for 1.5 seconds when the start sequence is initiated

What is the purpose of the hydraulic brake fuses?

To prevent the loss of hydraulic system pressure and fluid due to a brake line failure. If it senses 5.5 ounces of fluid flow, it will restrict fluid loss

The AUG AIL light will illuminate when what two conditions occur?

When there is a 6· split between aileron and spoileron or when there is a 6· split between spoilers

When should continuous ignition be utilized?

Whenever engine nacelle ice is suspected

How is the light in the standby gyro turned on?

Whenever the STBY or ON position is selected

Name four systems or components that use pneumatic air from the engines?

Wing and stabilizer anti-ice Engine nacelle anti-ice Windshield anti-ice Pressurizing the alcohol reservoir (510) Air conditioning and pressurization

Bleed air is used for anti-icing on what surfaces?

Wings, horizontal stabilizers, engine nacelles and windshield

How is the heat for the static ports turned on?

With the battery switches

When should the oil level be checked?

Within one hour after shutdown, preferably 15 minutes up to one hour after shutdown

Can both fire extinguishing bottles be fired into the same engine?

Yes

Can the yaw damper system be turned on if the autopilot master switch is turned off?

Yes, both yaw damper systems are independently powered

If you are operating in secondary pitch trim, are you able to utilize the autopilot when operating off the secondary trim?

Yes, the autopilot utilizes the secondary trim motor Flap speed limitations (Non Rosemount pitot-static system)? 198 kias (0-8) deg 183 kias (9-20) deg 153 kias (21-40) deg

Can the entry door lights be turned on when the airplane batteries are turned off?

Yes, the door lights are wired to the Left Battery Bus

Are you able to read oxygen pressure on the gauge in the cockpit if the oxygen valve on the oxygen bottle is in the off position?

Yes, the oxygen gauge is a direct reading gauge. There are two regulator oxygen bottle styles: They turn different directions to turn on. Black knob and green knob. The green knob regulator should not be turned past detents or damage to the o-ring seal will occur.

Are you able to utilize the drag chute in conjunction with the thrust reversers?

Yes, you can!!! However, it is a limitation because Learjet did not certify both at the same time.

How many thermocouples, which are located between the high pressure turbine (N2) and the low pressure turbine (N1), measure ITT?

10

What is the maximum cabin differential pressure?

10 psid

At what altitude does the cabin altitude aural warning sound?

10,100 feet

At what altitude does the cabin altitude limiter activate?

11,500 feet

What is the normal AC voltage?

110-130 Volts

What is the normal hydraulic system pressure?

(1,250-1,500) psi

What is the normal oxygen pressure for flight?

(1,550-1,850) psi

What is the normal charge on the emergency bottle?

(1,800-3,000) psi

At what indicated Ram Air Temperature should anti-icing be turned on?

+/- 10 C

The landing gear has been flight tested to what airspeeds?

0.85 MI/320 KIAS

What are the engine starter limits?

1 minute 1 minute 15 minute (coffee break) 1 minute 1 minute 60 minutes (lunch break)

How long does it take for the fire bottles to discharge?

1 to 2 seconds

The flap system has a pressure relief valve to prevent exceeding the flap limitations. What is the pressure relief valve limit?

1,650 psi

What will cause the primary or secondary inverter light to illuminate?

1. Inverter fails 2. Inverter is turned off 3. Inverter output is less than 90 VAC 4. Bus load is less than 10 VA (Watts)

What are the limitations with regard to the utilization of 100LL?

1. Maximum 500 gallons per 100 hours of operation per engine 2. Minimum fuel temperature of -54o C 3. Both jet pumps and standby pumps must be on and operating 4. Flight is limited to 15,000'

What occurs when the XFER-FILL switch is moved to XFER?

1. Transfer valve opens 2. Crossflow valve opens 3. Standby pumps are deenergized 4. Transfer pump is energized

What occurs when the XFER-FILL switch is moved to FILL?

1. Transfer valve opens 2. Crossflow valve opens 3. Standby pumps are energized 4. Transfer pump is disabled

What is the hydraulic system reservoir quantity?

1.9 gallons pressurized to 17 PSI to prevent foaming with a 20 PSI overboard relief

How many bolts hold the conical spinner onto the fan assembly?

10

What is the maximum allowable amperage from the ground power unit?

1100 Amps

What happens when the cabin altitude reaches approximately 8,750 feet?

Aneroid switches to manual mode Only cherry picker can control the cabin Cabin altitude light illuminates (510)

When using emergency air for braking, what protection is lost?

Anti skid and differential braking

How is the landing gear system controlled and actuated?

Electrically controlled and hydraulically actuated

What is the emergency air utilized for?

Emergency extension of the landing gear and for emergency braking

Why is it not recommended to taxi (prolonged) with the recognition light?

Excessive heat builds up due to insufficient airflow

What is the purpose of the Mach Trim system?

FAR 25 requires that when an aircraft experiences an increase/decrease of 6 knots that the aircraft should experience a control pressure force equal to one pound. The LJ35 does not demonstrate this without the help of an "artificial feel device" called mach trim.

When climbing or descending to an altitude set in the altitude alerter, what warnings will occur?

FC200 will give a bell tone and an amber light 1,000 feet prior to the selected altitude

What are the alcohol reservoir quantities and durations for the two pressurization systems?

FL 450 system: 2.2 gallons 45 minutes-Radome and Windshield 90 minutes-Radome only FL 510 system: 1.75 gallons 45 minutes-Radome and Windshield 129 minutes-Radome only

What are the three fire detection loops and what are there corresponding temperature limits?

Firewall = 410F Accessory gearbox = 410F Combustion chamber = 890F

With the number 1 emergency battery in the ON position, what circuits would be powered?

Flap and gear control circuits, standby gyro light and the landing gear lights (rheostat is operational also)

Stall biasing occurs at what settings?

Flaps at 3°, 13°, 25° and at approximately 22,500'

What occurs when the XFER-FILL switch is in FILL and the fuselage tank becomes full?

Float switch causes: 1. Transfer valve closes 2. Crossflow valve closes 3. Standby pumps are deenergized 4. Green full light illuminates

What is the fire extinguishing agent?

Halon 1301 or CF3Br

How is the main gear held in the retracted position?

Hydraulic pressure

Secondary flight controls are operated by?

Hydraulics

If the fuel computer fails, what protection do you lose?

Ultimate overspeed protection (109% N1 or 110% N2) is lost You will still have the mechanical overspeed governor protection (105% N2)

What engine systems are affected when a fuel computer fails?

Ultimate overspeed protection is lost Over temperature protection is disabled Engine response is slower Single engine takeoff, climb and landing performance are degraded Fuel consumption is affected Surge bleed valve fails to 1/3 open SPR is disabled Engine sync

Where is the first aid kit carried?

Under jumpseat and should be in the pilot's flight bag

What is the lowest speed that the drag chute is still effective?

Until the airplane stops

When does the Low Fuel light illuminate?

When either wing float switches reach 400-500 lbs

If the emergency lights were armed, when would they illuminate?

When main battery DC power is depleted to approximately 4 VDC


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