Marketing Exam 6

1) All marketing strategy is built on STP: segmentation, targeting, and ________. A) positioning B) product C) planning D) promotion E) performance

A

142) Which of the following statements about the branding guidelines for a small business is true? A) A small business must creatively conduct low-cost marketing research. B) A small business must avoid leveraging secondary brand associations. C) A small business must separate the well-integrated brand elements to enhance both brand awareness and brand image. D) A small business must disintegrate the brand elements to maximize the contribution of each of the three main sets of brand equity drivers. E) A small business must focus on building more than two strong brands based on a number of associations.

A

2) ________ is the act of designing the company's offering and image to occupy a distinctive place in the minds of the target market. A) Positioning B) Valuation C) Pricing D) Commercialization E) Launching

A

28) Points-of-________ are product associations that are not necessarily unique to the brand but may in fact be shared with other brands. A) parity B) difference C) inflection D) presence E) divergence

A

3) The goal of positioning is to ________. A) locate the brand in the minds of consumers to maximize the potential benefit to the firm B) discover the different needs and groups existing in the marketplace C) target those customers marketers can satisfy in a superior way D) collect information about competitors that will directly influence the firms' strategy E) help the firm anticipate what the actions of its competitors will be

A

34) A brand must demonstrate ________, for it to function as a true point-of-difference. A) clear superiority of an attribute or benefit B) clear profitability to the company C) clear similarity to the attributes of other brands D) technological advances for an attribute or benefit E) exploitation of competitors' weakness

A

39) Philip Morris bought Miller Brewing and launched low-calorie beer, at a time when consumers had the impression that low-calorie beer does not taste as good as normal beer. What did the company try to build when they conveyed the fact that the beer contained one third less calories and hence it is less filling? A) points-of-difference B) points-of-conflict C) points-of-parity D) points-of-presence E) points-of-inflection

A

49) American Express' "World-Class Service, Personal Recognition," Mary Kay's "Enriching women's lives," Hallmark's "Caring Shared," and Starbucks' "Rewarding Everyday Moments" are examples of brand ________. A) mantras B) parity C) identity D) architecture E) extension

A

50) Brand ________ are short, three- to five-word phrases that capture the irrefutable essence or spirit of the brand positioning and ensure that the company's own employees understand what the brand represents. A) mantras B) symbols C) logos D) alliances E) extensions

A

52) BMW's "The ultimate driving machine," American Express' "Don't leave home without it," New York Times' "All the news that's fit to print," and AT&T's "Reach out and touch someone" are all examples of brand ________. A) slogan B) personality C) mission D) architecture E) vision

A

55) Points-of-parity are important while designing brand mantras for brands facing ________. A) rapid growth B) market saturation C) slow and steady growth D) rapid decline E) stability in sales volume

A

56) For brands in more stable categories where extensions into more distinct categories are less likely to occur, the brand mantra may focus more exclusively on points-of-________. A) difference B) presence C) inflection D) parity E) conflict

A

57) One common difficulty in creating a strong, competitive brand positioning is that many of the attributes or benefits that make up the points-of-parity and points-of-difference are ________. A) negatively correlated B) always correlated C) directly proportional D) never correlated E) positively correlated

A

6) Perdue's cogent reason why a target market should buy its chicken is "More tender golden chicken at a moderate premium price," also known as its ________. A) customer-focused value proposition B) competitive frame of reference C) points-of-parity D) straddle positioning E) perceptual map

A

66) If Starbucks considers quick-serve restaurants and convenience shops in its competitive frame of reference, then intended ________ might be quality, image, experience and variety, while intended ________ might be convenience and value. A) PODs; POPs B) POPs; PODs C) substantiators; image variables D) design variables; personality variables E) image variables; personality variables

A

68) Subway restaurants are positioned as offering healthy, good-tasting sandwiches. When the competitive frame of reference is quick-serve restaurants like McDonald's, what is the POD? A) health B) taste C) convenience D) price E) brand

A

71) A supplier creates better information systems, and introduces barcoding, mixed pallets, and other methods of helping the consumer. The supplier is most likely to be differentiated on its ________. A) innovativeness B) reliability C) insensitivity D) resilience E) accuracy

A

19) When Coca-Cola focused on developing its soft drink business but missed seeing the market for coffee bars and fresh-fruit-juice bars that eventually impinged on its soft-drink business, it was suffering from ________ because it defined competition in traditional category and industry terms. A) factor elimination B) marketing myopia C) factor reduction D) category points-of-parity E) reliance on product description

B

27) Which of the following terms is most closely associated with the statement: "attributes or benefits consumers strongly associate with a brand, positively evaluate, and believe that they could not find to the same extent with a competitive brand"? A) points-of-inflection B) points-of-difference C) points-of-parity D) points-of-value E) points-of-presence

B

33) Which of the following criteria relates to consumers seeing the brand association as distinctive and superior to relevant competitors? A) desirability B) differentiability C) believability D) deliverability E) deviance

B

4) The result of positioning is the successful creation of ________, which provides a cogent reason why the target market should buy the product. A) an award-winning promotional campaign B) a customer-focused value proposition C) a demand channel D) everyday low pricing E) employee value proposition

B

47) Straddle positions ________. A) help firms to analyze who their competitors are B) allow brands to expand their market coverage and potential customer base C) are a necessity while creating a firm's vision and mission statement D) assist firms in collecting information on competitors that will directly influence their strategy E) are ambiguous moral principles behind the operation and regulation of marketing

B

59) A ________ advantage is one that a company can use as a springboard to new advantages. A) sustainable B) leverageable C) realistic D) rational E) distinct

B

62) Which of the following types of differentiation refers to companies effectively designing their distribution medium's coverage, expertise, and performance to make buying the product easier and more enjoyable and rewarding? A) services differentiation B) channel differentiation C) image differentiation D) product differentiation E) employee differentiation

B

65) Which of the following is an example of image differentiation? A) Berry's has an intensive training program for its customer-facing staff, to ensure a consistent service standard. B) The Swan Hotels use a distinctive signature fragrance in all outlets so that customers can associate the fragrance with the hotel. C) JEK's sophisticated customer database allows the company to handle queries and product returns much faster than competitors. D) RTZ shifted its products from supermarket aisles to exclusive stores as it realized that customers were willing to pay more in stores. E) Hayley's found success by allowing buyers to customize the color and some features of its appliances before buying them.

B

9) ________ are defined as companies that satisfy the same customer need. A) Communities B) Competitors C) Trendsetters D) Industries E) Task groups

B

10) A(n) ________ is a group of firms offering a product or class of products that are close substitutes for one another. A) community B) task force C) industry D) focus group E) umbrella brand

C

17) ________ refers to the products or sets of products with which a brand competes and which function as close substitutes. A) Consumer profitability analysis B) Competitive frame of reference C) Category membership D) Value membership E) Demand field

C

31) Which of the following criteria relates to consumers seeing the brand association as personally relevant to them? A) deliverability B) authenticity C) desirability D) differentiability E) feasibility

C

37) Philip Morris bought Miller Brewing and launched low-calorie beer, at a time when consumers had the impression that low-calorie beer does not taste as good as normal beer. What does the company assure by stating that the beer tastes good? A) points-of-difference B) points-of-presence C) points-of-parity D) points-of-conflict E) points-of-inflection

C

38) When BMW first made its strong competitive push into the US market in the early 1980s, it positioned the brand as the only automobile that offered both luxury (competing with Cadillac) and performance (competing with the Corvette), which is known as ________ because it uses points-of-difference and points-of-parity across categories. A) a competitive frame of reference B) zone of tolerance positioning C) straddle positioning D) red-ocean thinking E) perceptual mapping

C

41) Nivea became the leader in the skin cream class on the "gentle," "protective," and "caring" platform. The company further moved into classes such as deodorants, shampoos, and cosmetics. Attributes like gentle and caring were of no value unless consumers believed that its deodorant was strong enough, its shampoo would cleanse, and its cosmetics would be colorful enough. This is an example of ________. A) competitive points-of-parity B) competitive points-of-difference C) category points-of-parity D) category points-of-difference E) competitive points-of-presence

C

42) ________ are associations designed to overcome perceived weaknesses of the brand. A) Conceptual points-of-parity B) Category points-of-difference C) Competitive points-of-parity D) Competitive points-of-difference E) Category points-of-parity

C

44) A marketer that wants to anchor a point-of-difference for Dove soap on brand benefits might emphasize which of the following? A) The soap is one-quarter cleansing cream. B) Dove products include bar soaps and shampoos. C) Dove soap helps users have softer skin. D) The soap brand has global presence. E) The brand has recently launched soap for men.

C

45) Marketers typically focus on brand ________ in choosing the points-of-parity and points-of-difference that make up their brand positioning. A) equity B) awareness C) benefits D) architecture E) extensions

C

46) ________ are visual representations of consumer perceptions and preferences. A) Brand narratives B) Share of mind variables C) Perceptual maps D) Exemplars E) Points-of-parity

C

5) Which of the following best describes a car company's value proposition? A) We charge a 20 percent premium on our cars. B) We target safety-conscious upscale families. C) We sell the safest, most durable wagon. D) We are the market leader in the small car category. E) We focus on expanding in faster-growing markets.

C

53) A brand mantra should be ________. A) original, ambiguous, and straightforward B) unique, complex, and inspirational C) communicative, simple, and inspirational D) competitive, sensitive, and simple E) unique, sensitive, and explanatory

C

58) ________ is a company's ability to perform in one or more ways that competitors cannot or will not match. A) Brand positioning B) Market research C) Competitive advantage D) Competitor analysis E) Competitive intelligence

C

60) Which of the following types of differentiation relates to companies having better-trained personnel who provide superior customer service? A) channel differentiation B) services differentiation C) employee differentiation D) image differentiation E) product differentiation

C

70) Suppliers who are better at handling emergencies, product recalls, and inquiries are most likely to be differentiated based on their ________. A) innovativeness B) thoroughness C) resilience D) insensitivity E) reliability

C

18) When Coca-Cola determines the bottled-water competitors for its Dasani brand by identifying the products or sets of products with which a brand competes and which function as close substitutes, it is determining Dasani's ________. A) customer-focused value proposition B) points-of-parity C) points-of-difference D) category membership E) brand mantra

D

29) The three criteria that determine whether a brand association can truly function as a point-of-difference are ________. A) comparability, authenticity, deliverability B) desirability, peculiarity, deliverability C) deviance, peculiarity, deformity D) desirability, deliverability, differentiability E) differentiability, authenticity, desirability

D

30) The three criteria that determine whether a brand association can truly function as a point-of-difference include desirability, ________, and differentiability. A) discrimination B) customerization C) implementation D) deliverability E) demand

D

36) ________ are attributes or benefits that consumers view as essential to a legitimate and credible offering within a certain product or service class. A) Category points-of-difference B) Conceptual points-of-parity C) Competitive points-of-parity D) Category points-of-parity E) Competitive points-of-difference

D

40) Consumers might not consider a hand sanitizer truly a hand sanitizer unless they are gels designed to apply topically, contain alcohol that kills the germs present on the skin, and developed for use after washing hands or for those times when soap and water are not available. These service elements are considered ________. A) competitive points-of-difference B) competitive points-of-parity C) category points-of-difference D) category points-of-parity E) conceptual points-of-parity

D

48) Which of the following statements about brand mantras is true? A) They guide only major decisions, they have no influence on mundane decisions. B) Their influence does not extend beyond tactical concerns. C) They must economically communicate what the brand is and avoid communicating what it is not. D) They can provide guidance about what ad campaigns to run and where and how to sell the brand. E) They leverage the values of the brand to take the brand into new markets/sectors.

D

51) A brand ________ is a translation of the brand mantra that attempts to creatively engage consumers and others external to the company. A) vision B) extension C) architecture D) slogan E) alliance

D

54) Brand mantras typically are designed to capture the brand's points-of-________, that is, what is unique about the brand. A) conflict B) parity C) inflection D) difference E) presence

D

61) Singapore Airlines is well regarded in large part because of the excellence of its flight attendants. This is an example of ________ differentiation. A) image B) services C) product D) employee E) channel

D

64) Which of the following is an example of channel differentiation? A) Berry's has an intensive training program for its customer-facing employees, to ensure a consistent service standard. B) The Swan Hotels use a distinctive signature fragrance in all outlets so that customers can associate the fragrance with the hotel. C) JEK's sophisticated customer database allows the company to handle queries and product returns much faster than competitors. D) RTZ shifted its products from supermarket aisles to exclusive stores as it realized that customers were willing to pay more in stores. E) Hayley's found success by allowing buyers to customize the color and some features of its appliances before buying them.

D

67) If a brand is developing an offering with multiple frames of reference, which of the following is NOT advisable? A) create a combined positioning that addresses all competitors B) prioritize competitors C) choose the most important set of competitors to serve as the competitive frame D) adopt lowest common denominator positioning E) develop the best possible positioning for each type or class of competitors

D

69) Suppliers who are dependable in their on-time delivery, order completeness, and order-cycle time are most likely to be differentiated based on ________. A) resilience B) innovativeness C) insensitivity D) reliability E) expertise

D

7) Which of the following best describes BR Chicken's value proposition? A) We sell chicken at most major malls. B) We undertake home delivery services. C) We target quality-conscious consumers of chicken. D) We sell tender golden chicken at a moderate price. E) We charge a 10 percent premium on our chicken.

D

8) The ________ defines which other brands a brand competes with and therefore which brands should be the focus of competitive analysis. A) consumer profitability analysis B) competitor indexing C) service blueprint D) competitive frame of reference E) cluster analysis

D

143) Which of the following is NOT one of the specific branding guidelines for small businesses? A) Creatively conduct low-cost marketing research. B) Leverage as many secondary associations as possible. C) Focus on building one or two strong brands based on one or two key associations. D) Create buzz and a loyal brand community. E) Use a trial-and-error approach.

E

32) Which of the following criteria relates to the company having the internal resources and commitment to feasibly and profitably create and maintain the brand association in the minds of consumers? A) differentiability B) peculiarity C) desirability D) believability E) deliverability

E

35) The two basic forms of points-of-parity are ________ points-of-parity and ________ points-of-parity. A) conceptual; competitive B) strategic; conceptual C) category; deliverable D) competitive; peculiar E) category; competitive

E

43) As a marketing manager, which of the following would be the best purpose for your organization's competitive points-of-parity? A) to point out competitors' points-of-difference B) to emphasize competitors' points-of-difference C) to rationalize competitors' perceived points-of-difference D) to globalize competitors' perceived points-of-difference E) to negate competitors' perceived points-of-difference

E

63) Dayton, Ohio-based Iams found success selling premium pet food through regional veterinarians, breeders, and pet stores. This is an example of ________ differentiation. A) service B) employee C) image D) product E) channel

E

5. A brownie mix might claim to taste great and support this claim by including high-quality ingredients or by showing users delighting in its consumption, thereby communicating its membership of the baked desserts category through ________. a. announcing category benefits b. comparing to exemplars c. relying on the product descriptor d. communicating deliverability variables e. identifying counterexamples

a

112. ________ may be based on virtually any type of attribute or benefit. For example, FedEx uses "guaranteed overnight delivery" and Nike uses "performance." a. Points-of-parity b. Points-of-difference c. Points of conflict d. Points of defensibility e. Points of service

b

13. In a positioning statement, the case for the product rests on its ________. a. product category b. points-of-difference c. target consumer d. consumer need e. brand

b

3. The preferred approach to positioning is to inform consumers of a brand's membership before stating its ________. a. point-of-parity b. point-of-difference c. point of conflict d. point of weakness e. point of reference

b

8. Marketers must decide at which level to anchor the brand's points-of-differences. At the lowest level are ________. For example, Dove soap can talk about the fact that it is one-quarter cleansing cream. a. brand values b. brand attributes c. brand benefits d. brand specifications e. brand partitions

b

9. All of the following would be considered to be among examples of negatively correlated attributes and benefits EXCEPT ________. a. low price versus high quality b. taste versus low calories c. supply versus demand d. powerful versus safe e. nutritious versus good tasting

c

1. To achieve a point-of-parity (POP) on a particular attribute or benefit, a sufficient number of consumers must believe that the brand is "________" on that dimension. a. most excellent b. neutral c. marginal d. good enough e. service based

d

14. The obvious means of differentiation, and often most compelling ones to consumers, relate to aspects of the ________. a. price b. distribution process c. promotions d. product and service e. sales team responsible for the product or service

d

2. When BMW created ________ with its "luxury and performance" approach, it was able to maximize both attributes and benefits. a. its core identity b. a core competency c. deliverability criteria d. a straddle position e. competitive parity

d

6. Points-of-parity are driven by the needs of category membership and ________. a. loyalty b. large margins c. guaranteed profits d. the necessity of negating competitors' PODs (points-of-difference) e. the creation of PODs (points-of-difference)

d

7. ________ are typically the least desirable level to position a brand's points-of-difference, in part because competitors can easily copy them. a. Benefits b. Attitudes c. Values d. Attributes e. Messages

d

15. The primary explanation for Singapore Airlines' extraordinary worldwide market share is that Singapore Airlines' "Singapore Girl" persona has struck a responsive chord with much of the travelling public. This is an example of ________. a. personnel differentiation b. channel differentiation c. position differentiation d. maturity differentiation e. image differentiation

e

4. There are three main ways to convey a brand's category membership: announcing category benefits, ________, and relying on the product descriptor. a. overt publicity b. industry trade press c. buzz marketing d. preference positions e. comparing to exemplars

e