MBIO McGraw Hill Exam 2

Proteins are composed of various combinations of usually how many different amino acids?

20

The _____ energy is the energy it takes to start a reaction.

activation

Metabolic pathways can be linear,_____ , or_____

branched, cycle

Purines and pyrimidines are synthesized ______.

in distinctly different manners

in addition to glucose, which of the following organic compounds can serve as energy sources for microbes?

disaccharides polysaccharides proteins monosaccharides fatty acids lipids

This figure shows one half of a redox reaction. Compound X is the electron _____ and Compound Y is the electron ____

donor, acceptor

In oxidative phosphorylation, quinones, cytochromes, and flavoproteins are all _______ carriers.

electron

The enzymes of the tricarboxylic acid cycle are found in the _______matrix in eukaryotes and in the_______ in prokaryotes.

mitochondrial, cytoplasm

The TCA cycle completes the ______ of glucose.

oxidation

In oxidation-reduction reactions, or redox reactions, the substance that loses electrons is _____ , and the substance that gains those electrons is _______

oxidized, reduced

The central metabolic pathway that generates reducing power in the form of NADPH is the ____ ____ pathway.

pentose phosphate

After a deamination reaction removes the amino group from amino acids, the remaining carbon skeletons are converted into the appropriate ______ metabolites for entry into central metabolic pathways.

precursor

Certain intermediates of catabolic pathways, called precursor metabolites, are important because ____

they serve as carbon skeletons from which subunits of macromolecules can be made

The Calvin cycle is a two-step linear pathway that photosynthetic organisms use to fix carbon dioxide

false

Glucose catabolism encompasses two key processes: (1) oxidizing glucose molecules to generate ATP, reducing power, and precursor metabolites; and (2) transferring the electrons carried by NADH and FADH2 to the terminal electron acceptor. The second process, transfer of electrons, is accomplished as part of which of the following?

fermentation cellular respiration

The electron transport chain of mitochondria has ______ different protein complexes.

four

Lipid synthesis generally requires the components _____ and _____ acids.

glycerol fatty

he primary pathway used by many organisms to convert glucose to pyruvate is _____

glycolysis

In terms of their metabolism, prokaryotes are _______ with respect to compounds they use for energy and _______ in their biosynthetic processes.

highly diverse; remarkably similar

38 ATP metabolic component

total yield of aerobic respiration

6 ATP metabolic component

transition step

If the vector being used in the cloning process has an ampicillin resistance gene as its selective marker and the lacZ' gene as its second genetic marker, what should be added to the medium to isolate transformed cells?

X-gal ampicillin

For DNA to be visualized in a gel after electrophoresis, ______.

a DNA-staining dye must be used

A replication fork is ______.

a Y-shaped structure where both DNA strands are being replicated

In conjugation in E. coli, an Hfr cell refers to ______.

a cell in which the F plasmid has been integrated into the cell chromosome

Scientists can use a modified Cas9 nuclease as molecular scissors to cut precisely at a specific DNA sequence within a cell, guided by ______.

a single-stranded RNA that recognizes that sequence

The critical site of an enzyme to which a substrate binds by weak forces is called the _____

active site

Because CRISPR systems involve bacteria using retained segments of DNA to identify and destroy future invading phage DNA, these systems are a form of ______.

adaptive immunity

During replication, DNA polymerases ______.

add nucleotides to the 3' end of the new DNA strand

The light-independent reactions of photosynthesis occur _______ the light-dependent reactions, and function to _______.

after; synthesize organic compounds from CO2

Examples of how recombinant DNA techniques have affected society include their impact on ______.

agriculture medical diagnoses forensics

What are the roles of ribosomes in translation?

aligning amino acids and catalyzing the formation of peptide bonds between them Ribosomes detect sequences that indicate where translation should start and finish.

Cells can quickly alter the activity of certain key enzymes, using other molecules that bind reversibly and distort them. This control of enzymes is called ______ regulation.

allosteric

The purpose of a selectable marker, usually a gene that encodes resistance to an antibiotic such as ampicillin, is to ______.

allow researchers to eliminate any cells that have not taken up molecules containing vector sequences

After sequencing the gene of interest, the ____ ____ sequence of the encoded protein can be established.

amino acid

Proteins are hydrolyzed by proteases, enzymes that break the peptide bonds between ____ ____subunits.

amino acid

RT-PCR (reverse-transcription PCR) is a widely used variation of conventional PCR that ______

amplifies cDNA that is reverse transcribed from mRNA template is used to detect certain mRNA sequences in a sample

The main purpose of PCR is to _______.

amplify DNA

The polymerase chain reaction (PCR) is used in ______.

amplifying target DNA disease diagnosis

Enzymes are biological ______ that are typically ______

catalysts; protein

The consequences of not repairing damaged DNA in cells include ______.

cell death cancer (in animals)

When detecting microorganisms with FISH, a probe that hybridizes to sequences on ribosomal RNA (rRNA) is generally used. This is because ______.

cells that are dividing can have thousands of copies of rRNA, increasing the technique's sensitivity

Nucleic Acid Molecule: found in all eukaryotes and prokaryotes

chromosomes only

In general, the chromosome of a bacterial cell is a _______ DNA molecule that is replicated _______.

circular; bidirectionally from one origin of replication

Foreign or altered DNA can be introduced into a recipient cell in a form that will be replicated and passed on to the cell's progeny. This procedure is known as ______

cloning

The procedure that involves inserting DNA into a vector to form a recombinant molecule that is then introduced into cells where it replicates is called molecular ______.

cloning

A(n) _____ is the specific sequence of three nucleotides in mRNA that encode a particular amino acid or a stop signal.

codon

The ends shown here are generated by the action of a restriction enzyme. They are called _______ ends.

cohesive

A bacterial cell described as ______ can take up DNA from the surrounding environment

competent

In bacteria, ______ refers to DNA transfer requiring cell to cell contact.

conjugation

The F or fertility plasmid contains genes that are required for bacterial ______.

conjugation

Which of the following are the three main methods of gene transfer in bacteria?

conjugation transduction transformation

A plasmid that can directs its own transfer from donor to recipient cells is called a(n) _____ plasmid.

conjugative

A plasmid that can directs its own transfer from donor to recipient cells is called a(n) ______ plasmid.

conjugative

Enzymes involved in essential metabolic pathways, such as glycolysis, are usually ______.

constitutive

Enzymes that are synthesized constantly in a cell are called _____

constitutive

Conjugation in bacteria requires ______.

contact between donor and recipient cell

The genes that are present in all strains of a given species are called the ______.

core genome

In recent years, a new field of bioinformatics has emerged, which ______.

creates the computer technology to store, retrieve, and analyze nucleotide sequence data

Examples of electron carriers are proteins that contain heme, a molecule that holds an iron in its center. These are called _____

cytochromes

In prokaryotes, the electron transport chain is located in the _____ membrane, whereas in eukaryotic cells it is in the _____ membrane of mitochondria.

cytoplasm, inner

Consider the effect of temperature on enzyme activity. If the temperature is too high, proteins will _____ and no longer function.

denature

The first step in a polymerase chain reaction (PCR) cycle requires a high temperature to _______.

denature the DNA double helix

DNA microarray analysis is used to ______.

determine which genes are being transcribed

Knowing the sequence of a genome is useful in which of the following applications?

determining protein sequences identifying genetic alterations associated with disease studying evolutionary relationships

To isolate bacterial cells that have been transformed with recombinant DNA, the cells are grown in media ______.

differential for cells that carry the recombinant plasmid; selective for cells with vector sequences

Mutants that can grow under conditions in which the parent (wild type) cells cannot are easily isolated by _____ selection.

direct

Selecting penicillin-resistant mutants by plating them on a medium containing penicillin is an example of ______ selection.

direct

Mutant cells in bacterial cultures can be isolated by _____ selection and ____ selection methods.

direct and indirect

Two methods used to identify mutants in a culture are ______ and ______ selection.

direct and indirect

Each PCR cycle ______ the number of copies of target DNA.

doubles

In addition to four protein complexes, the mitochondrial electron transport chain has two freely-moving ______, ubiquinone and cytochrome c, that serve to ______.

electron carriers; shuttle electrons between the complexes

DNA gel _____ is a laboratory technique for separating DNA fragments according to size by using an electric current to move the DNA through a gel-like matrix.

electrophoresis

When transforming cells as part of a cloning procedure, using bacteria such as E. coli that are not naturally competent, DNA can be introduced by ______, a procedure that creates temporary holes in the cytoplasmic membrane by exposing the cells to an electric current.

electroporation

Which step of the polymerase chain reaction (PCR) involves the synthesis of complementary strands of DNA?

elongation

A cloning vector typically includes a second genetic marker which _______.

encodes an observable characteristic to identify cells that contain a recombinant molecule

Hydrogen sulfide is produced as a result of certain types of anaerobic respiration. Some chemolithotrophs can then use this as a/an ______.

energy source

Consider how cells obtain energy to make ATP. The chemical that serves as the electron donor is the _________ source, and the one that ultimately accepts those electrons is the ________ electron acceptor.

energy, terminal

Proteins that function as biological catalysts are called _____

enzymes

ut the three basic steps of the polymerase chain reaction (PCR) in order. Start with the earliest step at the top.

1. Template DNA is denatured 2. Primers anneal to denature DNA 3. DNA synthesis occurs

How many replication forks are formed from opening a section of a circular DNA molecule as part of DNA replication?

2

How many template strands exist in a replication fork?

2

Arrange the following events in the proper sequence for gene cloning. 1 = Incorporate gene into a bacterial plasmid, 2 = Isolate DNA from organism containing the desired gene, 3 = Incorporate cloned gene into bacterial cells, 4 = Cut DNA with restriction enzyme

2, 4, 1, 3

A codon contains how many nucleotides?

3

The genetic code includes _______ stop codon(s).

3

RNA polymerase can only add nucleotides to the ______ end of a growing strand.

3'

Arrange the following in the proper sequence in which they occur during a single PCR cycle. 1. Addition of DNA nucleotides by Taq polymerase 2. Complementary base pairing between primers and target DNA 3. Heat separation of strands of target DNA

3,2,1

What is the proper order of the following events in the expression of a eukaryotic gene?1. translation2. RNA processing3. transcription

3,2,1

How many codons are used to specify the 20 possible amino acids?

61

The genetic code is comprised of 64 different codons. Out of these, ______ code a specific amino acid.

61

If you start with one double-stranded molecule of the target DNA and you perform SIX cycles of PCR, how many double-stranded copies of the DNA will you have?

64

T/F; Plasmids are insertion sequences that can lead to changes in genotype within a cell or between cells.

False

T/F; Researchers performing genetic engineering can carry out their experiments unregulated, because this technology is so safe.

False

T/F; Ultraviolet rays are chemical mutagens.

False

T/F; Vertical gene transfer is the transfer of genes from one organism to another in a population, while horizontal gene transfer is the transfer of genes from parent cell to progeny.

Fasle

Which of the following plasmids encodes all the necessary genetic information for transfer from one bacterial cell to another?

Conjugative plasmids only

An essential macromolecule that encodes all of the information needed by a cell to synthesize its components is _____

DNA

The molecule that encodes all the instructions needed to produce a cell's components is ______

DNA

During repair of oxidized guanine, which enzyme removes the damaged nucleobase from the sugar-phosphate backbone?

DNA glycosylase

After the initiation of replication of a bacterial chromosome, the enzyme _______ adds nucleotides to a growing strand.

DNA polymerase

______ sometimes incorporates the incorrect nucleotide when generating a new strand of DNA during DNA ______; this leads to a detectable distortion in the DNA helix.

DNA polymerase; replication

What happens to an organism if it lacks one or more enzymes in a given biosynthetic pathway?

It must have the end product provided from an external source.

_______ are single-stranded pieces of DNA, labeled with a detectable marker, used to locate specific complementary nucleotide sequences in nucleic samples attached to a solid surface.

DNA probes

In humans, two of the genes associated with the development breast cancer encode enzymes involved in ______.

DNA repair

In respiring bacteria, how does ATP synthase generate ATP?

It uses the energy released from allowing protons to flow back into the cell to add a phosphate group to ADP.

What are the two main forms of energy?

Kinetic, Potential

Use the following four words to correctly complete the sentence: endergonic, exergonic, anabolism, catabolism."Cells constantly produce ATP during _____ reactions of ______and then use it to power _____ reactions of _____

exergonic, catabolism, endergonic, anabolism

Starch and cellulose are both polymers made up of the monosaccharide _____, which means that hydrolysis of the polymers releases subunits that can enter directly into the central metabolic pathway of ________ to be oxidized.

glucose, glycolysis

Fats, the most common simple lipids, are broken down by lipases into their component ______

glycerol and fatty acids

Fats, the most common simple lipids, are broken down by lipases into their component ______.

glycerol and fatty acids

Lipid synthesis generally requires the components_______ and _________acids.

glycerol, fatty

Microorganisms that can grow on polysaccharides and disaccharides first break these down to glucose or precursor metabolites that can then enter into the pathway of ____ to be oxidized.

glycolysis

Most vectors have a second genetic marker that is made non-functional if an insert is in the multiple-cloning site. This disruption of the marker's function is called ______.

insertional inactivation

The hormone_____ is a genetically engineered pharmaceutical protein that is used in the treatment of diabetes.

insulin

Fluorescence in situ hybridization (FISH) is used to detect specific nucleotide sequences within ______.

intact cells attached to a microscope slide

Eukaryotic cells can regulate the levels of mRNA by destroying specific RNA transcripts through a process known as RNA _______, abbreviated RNAi.

interference

What is the function of RNAi?

interference with translation by targeting a specific mRNA

A modified version of Cas9 can be used for gene editing, a process that ______.

introduces targeted changes into the existing nucleotide sequence of a cell's genome

Which of the following is required for fluorescence in situ hybridization (FISH)?

labeled probe

The lac operon only functions when ______ is present in the medium but ______ is absent from the medium.

lactose; glucose

The DNA strand that is synthesized discontinuously during DNA replication, forming Okazaki fragments, is called the _____ strand.

lagging

As part of DNA replication, Okazaki fragments are made during the synthesis of the ______.

lagging strand in a discontinuous manner

In DNA replication, the synthesis of one new strand proceeds continuously as fresh template is exposed. This strand is known as the ______ strand.

leading

This is an image of a replication fork. The top (blue) arrow is pointing to the ______strand, and the bottom (red) arrow is pointing to the _______ strand.

leading, lagging

A collection of DNA fragments that have been cloned into vectors for further study is called a DNA _____

library

When the sticky ends of two DNA fragments anneal, the enzyme DNA _____ can then form a covalent bond between the fragments to create a recombinant DNA molecule.

ligase

The reactions that capture radiant energy and convert it into chemical energy in the form of ATP are called the ____-_____ reactions.

light dependent

Plasmids with a ______copy number occur in only one copy per cell, while those with a _______ copy number are present in many copies per cell.

low, high

_____ is transcribed from a DNA template and translated during protein synthesis.

mRNA

Double-stranded cDNA is made from mature _______ using a combination of the enzymes _____ ____ and DNA polymerase.

mRNA, reverse transcriptase

Each individual spot on a DNA microarray chip contains ______.

many copies of the same oligonucleotide

The series of sequential chemical reactions in a cell that converts a starting compound to an end product is called a ____pathway.

metabolic

The sum total of all chemical reactions in a cell is called _____.

metabolism

The analysis of the total microbial genomes in an environment is a field known as ______

metagenomics

A DNA _____ contains anywhere from tens to hundreds of thousands of DNA spots, each of which contains many copies of a short DNA fragment functioning as a probe.

microarray

A technique that allows scientists to study the expression of genes in organisms is called DNA ______.

microarray analysis

DNA ______ are used to study gene expression in organisms whose genome has already been sequenced.

microarrays

Although diagrams describing applications of biotechnology often only show one or a few molecules of DNA, in reality ______.

millions of molecules are involved

The ______ DNA strand is used as the template for RNA synthesis.

minus (-)

Plasmids, transposons and phage DNA are all examples of ______.

mobile genetic elements

Which term refers to an organism that has a mutation?

mutant

A(n) ____ is a change in the nucleotide sequence of DNA that is passed on to daughter cells.

mutation

Genetic change in bacteria occurs through which two mechanisms?

mutation horizontal gene transfer

The process by which organisms best adapted to a given environment will predominate in that environment is called _______.

natural selection

Nucleic Acid Molecule: made of double stranded RNA

neither plasmids nor chromosomes

Which of the following are possible outcomes of a base substitution?

nonsense mutation missense mutation synonymous mutation

All DNA nucleotides contain the same deoxyribose and phosphate groups, but different ______.

nucleobases/ bases

High Copy Number =

occur in many copies in a cell

Horizontal transfer is from ____ to ____

one organism to another in a population

When trying to illustrate how DNA molecules in a molecular biologist's "tool kit" work, it is often helpful to use ______ on diagrams.

only one or a few molecules

A long stretch of DNA that potentially codes for a protein is called a(n) _____ _____ _____ (ORF).

open reading frame

To initiate replication of a DNA molecule, specific proteins must bind to a specific DNA sequence called the ______.

origin of replication

The mechanism by which cellular respiration uses reducing power generated in glycolysis, the transition step, and the TCA cycle to synthesize ATP is ______ phosphorylation.

oxidative

he mechanism by which cellular respiration uses reducing power generated in glycolysis, the transition step, and the TCA cycle to synthesize ATP is ______ phosphorylation.

oxidative

Vertical Transfer is from ___ to ____

parent to offspring

A bacterial virus is known as a(n) _______

phage

A(n) ______ is a virus that infects bacteria, and some can transfer bacterial genes from a donor cell to a recipient cell.

phage

The ability of Escherichia coli to randomly turn on or off the the production of attachment pili is an example of ______.

phase variation

This figure shows the steps of ______, a process that repairs thymine dimers by breaking the covalent bonds that have formed between adjacent thymines.

photoreactivation

When describing conjugation in Gram-negative bacteria, a donor cell with an F ______ is considered F+, while that without this structure are termed F-.

plasmid

_____ are circular pieces of bacterial DNA that do not usually encode information essential to the life of a cell.

plasmids

Nucleic Acid Molecule: typically do not encode genes essential to the life of the cell

plasmids only

The ______ strand of DNA contains the same order of nucleotides as the corresponding RNA transcript.

plus (+)

A(n) ____ mutation occurs if a single base pair is changed during DNA synthesis.

point

The _______ _______ ______ (PCR) is a technique that makes numerous copies of a given region of DNA in a matter of hours.

polymerase chain reaction

In addition to yielding energy, catabolic pathways generate carbon intermediates that can be used in anabolic pathways for the biosynthesis of macromolecules. These carbon skeletons are called _____ _____

precursor metabolites

Eukaryotic mRNA is first synthesized as an immature transcript called_____ -______ It has to be processed significantly before it forms mature mRNA.

precursor, mRNA

What enzyme synthesizes the short segments of RNA required to initiate DNA replication?

primase

In the polymerase chain reaction (PCR), the ______ dictate which part of the DNA will be amplified.

primers

To initiate DNA replication, short sequences of RNA are needed. These are called ____

primers

All of the following are examples of means by which microorganisms can respond to changing environmental conditions EXCEPT ______.

production of different ribosomes

Some members of which of the following groups can use inorganic chemicals such as hydrogen sulfide and ammonia for energy?

prokaryotes only

RNA polymerase binds to a ______ to begin transcription.

promotor

Repair of nucleotide incorporation errors during the process of DNA replication is accomplished by _____by DNA polymerase and by ____ repair.

proofreading and mismatch

Repair of nucleotide incorporation errors during the process of DNA replication is accomplished by_______ by DNA polymerase and by _______ repair.

proofreading, mismatch

During a viral infection of a bacterial cell, the viral DNA can be integrated into the host chromosome. The DNA is then called a(n) _____

prophage

Which of the following can be found in a bacteriophage?

protein coat DNA or RNA genome

Gel electrophoresis may be used to separate DNA, RNA, or ______ according to their size.

proteins

Each subunit of the ribosome is made up of ______ and a type of RNA called ______.

proteins, rRNA

The form of energy that results from the electrochemical gradient established by the electron transport chain is the _____

proton motive force

The electron transport chain consists of large protein-complexes embedded in a membrane. These pass electrons from one to the next, while simultaneously pumping ______ across the membrane.

protons, H ions

The three main types of electron carriers in a typical electron transport chain are , ______ , _________ and flavoproteins.

quinones, cytochromes

Which type of RNA molecule is included in the composition of ribosomal subunits?

rRNA

Fluorescence in situ hybridization (FISH) is commonly used to ______.

rapidly identify microorganisms directly in a sample detect specific nucleotide sequences

A variation on standard PCR combines the methods of RT-PCR and qPCR in order to detect and determine the relative amount of a given RNA sequence in a sample without the need for gel electrophoresis. The combination method is called ______ -______ RT-PCR.

real time

While standard sigma factors recognize promoters for genes that need to be expressed during routine growth conditions, alternative sigma factors ______.

recognize different sets of promoters, thereby controlling expression of specific groups of genes

The joining of genomic fragments to vectors creates molecules called _____ DNA molecules.

recombinant

The joining of genomic fragments to vectors creates molecules called ______ DNA molecules.

recombinant

Biotechnology now uses ______ to genetically engineer organisms to give them useful traits.

recombinant DNA techniques

The figure depicts oxidation-reduction reactions, which are also known as ____ reactions.

redox

oxidation-reduction reactions, which are also known as _____ reactions.

redox

Consider the three key central metabolic pathways (glycolysis, pentose phosphate pathway, and the TCA cycle). What three beneficial products of these pathways?

reducing power precursor metabolites ATP

Mutations that arise naturally during cellular metabolism, and not as a result of exposure to mutation-causing agents, are called ______ mutations.

spontaneous

Random genetic changes that result from normal cellular processes are ______.

spontaneous mutations

In prokaryotes, the first AUG after a ribosome-binding site typically functions as a(n)______ codon. At other sites it simply encodes the amino acid _____

start, methionine

An open reading frame begins with a(n) _____codon and ends with a(n) _____ codon.

start, stop

When a restriction enzyme makes staggered cuts in a double-stranded DNA molecule, the fragments that result have single-stranded overhangs known as _____ ends.

sticky, or cohesive

Translation terminates when the ribosome reaches a(n) ______ codon, which is a codon not recognized by a tRNA.

stop

The signal to end protein synthesis is indicated by sequences called _______ ______.

stop codons

Base ______ mutations occur when an incorrect nucleotide is incorporated in place of another during DNA synthesis.

substitution

The most common type of mutation is base ______ , where an incorrect nucleotide is incorporated during DNA replication.

substitution

Base ______ mutations occur when an incorrect nucleotide is incorporated in place of another during DNA synthesis.

substitutions

Microorganisms must adapt rapidly to changes in their environment in order to ______.

survive

Which type of RNA carries amino acids during protein synthesis?

tRNA

The single-stranded DNA from which a new DNA strand is synthesized is referred to as the ______.

template

Which of the following are needed for the polymerase chain reaction (PCR)?

template DNA DNA polymerase from Thermus aquaticus primers deoxynucleotides

The process of transcription stops when the RNA polymerase reaches a ______.

terminator

During the second step of a polymerase chain reaction (PCR) cycle, the temperature is lowered. This results in ______.

the primers annealing to their complementary sequences

Which of the following is found in all DNA nucleotides?

the same sugar and phosphate, but different nucleobases

Which DNA fragment will move fastest during gel electrophoresis?

the shortest molecule

qPCR (quantitative PCR) =

used to amplify target sequence and monitor PCR product accumulation

RT-PCR (reverse-transcription PCR) =

used to detect certain mRNA sequences in a sample

Genetic engineering is commonly used in the production of ______.

vaccines pharmaceutical proteins transgenic plants

A genetic element such as a plasmid or a bacteriophage that is used to introduce genetic material into a cloning host during recombinant DNA experiments is called a _____

vector

A genetic element such as a plasmid or a bacteriophage that is used to introduce genetic material into a cloning host during recombinant DNA experiments is called a ______

vector

A genetic element such as a plasmid or a bacteriophage that is used to introduce genetic material into a cloning host during recombinant DNA experiments is called a_ _______

vector

What is a prophage?

viral DNA that has been integrated into a bacterial chromosome

Restriction-modification systems were discovered ______.

while studying why certain bacterial strains are relatively resistant to phage infection

When bacteriophages replicate, phage components are synthesized in the host cell and assemble into new viruses ______.

within that cell before being released

What is the repair process in this image?

Photoreactivation

Which of the following statements about PCR primers are true?

Primers are designed to anneal to the template DNA at each end of the target DNA. The primers are complementary to template DNA.

Plasmids that encode resistance to a variety of antimicrobial agents and heavy metals are called Blank______ plasmids or factors.

R

Protection against the toxic effects of antimicrobial compounds or heavy metals is often encoded on plasmids called _____ plasmids.

R, resistance

Transcription is carried out by an enzyme called _______ _______

RNA polymerase

What enzyme binds to a DNA promoter region to initiate transcription?

RNA polymerase

A bacteriophage consists of a genome made up of DNA or _______, surrounded by a coat made up of ______.

RNA, protein

During transcription, RNA polymerase synthesizes ______ from a(n) ______ template.

RNA;DNA

Which of the following PCR techniques utilizes cDNA?

RT-PCR only

T/F; A point mutation always leads to a shift of the reading frame from the point of mutation downstream.

False

T/F; An RNA transcript is a strand of RNA copied from an RNA template.

False

T/F; An RNA transcript is synthesized in the 3' to 5' direction.

False

T/F; Bacteria use CRISPR for gene editing.

False

T/F; In bacterial conjugation, all F+ donor cells are high frequency recombinant (Hfr) cells.

False

T/F; Only fragments of DNA from the same organism can be joined together to make a recombinant DNA molecule.

False

The function of a tRNA is to ______.

carry the amino acids used in translation

Narrow Host Range =

can replicate in only one species

The energy released by ______ is captured by cells to make ATP; this ATP can then be used for biosynthesis, or ______.

catabolism, anabolism

The main energy currency of cells is the molecule called ____

ATP

When a cell processes glucose or other organic molecules through its central metabolic pathways, it does so to generate what three critical things?

ATP, reducing power, precursor metabolites

The critical site of an enzyme to which a substrate binds by weak forces is called the _____ _____

Active site

Cells use ATP as the ready and immediate donor of free energy. ATP stands for ___

Adenosine, triphosphate

With respect to their synthesis, how are amino acids typically grouped?

By structurally related families that share common biosynthesis pathways

Considering the general equation that describes photosynthesis, the rate of the process would be most influenced by the availability of _______ in the atmosphere.

CO2

Which of the following correctly describe cytochromes found in an electron transport chain?

Cytochromes are proteins that contain heme, a molecule that holds an iron atom in its center. Several different cytochromes exist.

8 ATP metabolic component

Glycolysis

Non-competitive inhibition by enzyme poisons characteristic

Inhibitor permanently changes the shape of the enzyme, making the enzyme non-functional

The electron transport chain is a cluster of membrane-embedded electron carriers that accept electrons from the coenzymes _____ and ________ and then pass these electrons along the chain.

NADH, FADH

Which of the following combinations of molecules is produced during the light-dependent reactions of photosynthesis and used in the light-independent reactions?

NADPH and ATP

What happens to glucose inside a cell?

Some glucose might enter glycolysis, only to be siphoned off as a precursor metabolite for biosynthesis. Some glucose might be oxidized to CO2, generating the maximum amount of ATP. Glucose can be used in catabolism to yield energy, or the precursor metabolites generated from its breakdown can be used in anabolism.

24 ATP metabolic component

TCA Cycle

Consider the following linear metabolic pathway of a bacterial cell: Starting compound → Intermediate-a → Intermediate-b → End Product. The first two reactions are catalyzed by enzymes A and B, respectively. If a mutant cell arose that was unable to produce enzyme B, what would be the impact on the other components of the pathway?

The cell could still produce intermediate-a but would be unable to produce intermediate-b or the end product.

What is the active site of an enzyme?

The critical site to which a substrate binds by weak forces.

Fats are hydrolyzed by lipases. The glycerol component is then converted to a precursor metabolite, and the fatty acids are degraded using a series of reactions called β-oxidation that remove successive 2-carbon units. Where do these components enter the central metabolic pathways for further oxidation?

The precursor metabolites from glycerol enter glycolysis; the 2-carbon units from fatty acids are added to coenzyme A and enter the TCA cycle.

Microorganisms can grow on a variety of organic compounds other than glucose, including polysaccharides, proteins, and lipids. How do they accomplish this?

They break these macromolecules down into appropriate precursor metabolites that are then introduced into central metabolism or used in biosynthesis.

In photosynthesis, what do the light reactions, or light-dependent reactions, accomplish?

They capture radiant energy and convert it to chemical energy in the form of ATP.

For each six-carbon molecule of glucose that enters glycolysis, how many molecules of pyruvate are made, and how many carbon atoms does each pyruvate have?

Two molecules of pyruvate, each with three carbon atoms.

The process by which chemolithoautotrophs and photoautotrophs incorporate CO2 into organic compounds is called ____ _____

carbon fixation

Some enzymes act with the assistance of a non-protein component. This component is called a _____; if that component is an organic molecule it can be called a ______

cofactor, coenzyme

Identify each of the following by the most precise descriptive term as either a cofactor or coenzyme: magnesium:_____; NADP+:______ ; zinc:______

cofactor, coenzyme, cofactor

The Calvin cycle ______

incorporates carbon dioxide into organic compounds

An atom that has a lower affinity (attraction) for electrons than another is described as ______ than the other.

less electronegative

Enzymes function as biological catalysts, accelerating the conversion of one substance, the _____ into another, the ____

substrate, product

As part of cellular respiration, a membrane-bound enzyme called ATP ____ uses energy from a proton-motive force to add a phosphate group to ADP.

synthase

As part of cellular respiration, a membrane-bound enzyme called ATP _______ uses energy from a proton-motive force to add a phosphate group to ADP.

synthase

Proton motive force is _____

the form of energy that results from the electrochemical gradient established by the electron transport chain

Metabolism is best defined as _____

the sum total of all chemical reactions in a cell

Why is regulation of gene expression important?

A cell does not need all of its encoded proteins at the same time.

Which of the following describes the termination of translation?

A stop codon is reached and the polypeptide is released from the ribosome.

Selectable marker =

Allows for elimination of bacterial cells that do not contain recombinant molecule or vector

Origin of replication =

Allows plasmid to replicate independent of host chromosome

Restriction enzyme recognition site =

Allows vector to be cut so that gene of interest can be inserted

What is the repair process in this image?

Base Excision Repair

What mutation is represented in this picture?

Base Substitution

Deoxynucelotides

Building blocks of DNA

If both glucose and lactose are present in a medium, why is the lac operon not transcribed?

Cells preferentially use glucose and only use lactose if the glucose is depleted.

_______ is used to determine which visible mass of bacterial growth on an agar plate contains a given DNA sequence.

Colony blotting

Taq polymerase

Enzyme that copies target DNA sequence

When an excision errors produces a plasmid containing both chromosomal and F plasmid DNA, the resulting plasmid is called a(n) _____ plasmid.

F' or F prime

When integrated F plasmid DNA in an Hfr cell is excised from the chromosome, an excision error can result in the removal of chromosomal DNA along with the F plasmid DNA, creating a plasmid called ______.

F', F prime

In the most thoroughly studied example of bacterial conjugation, the term ______ designates a donor cell with an F plasmid, whereas those cells who lack the F plasmid are termed _______

F+, F-

The technique called ______ uses a fluorescently labeled probe to detect specific nucleotide sequences within intact cells.

FISH

The technique called______ uses a fluorescently labeled probe to detect specific nucleotide sequences within intact cells.

FISH

T/F: A codon and an anticodon base pair with each other because they have identical nucleotide sequences.

False

In order to form lipids, how are fatty acids and glycerol synthesized?

Fatty acid chains are assembled from 2-carbon acetyl groups from the transition step; the precursor to glycerol comes from glycolysis.

What is the outcome if translation begins at the wrong reading frame?

Generally, a non-functional protein is made.

Which of the following terms describes the sequence of nucleotides (genetic makeup) of an organism or a cell?

Genotype

Competitive inhibition characteristic

Inhibitor binds to the active site of the enzyme, blocking access of the substrate

Non-competitive inhibition by regulatory molecules characteristic

Inhibitor reversibly changes the shape of the enzyme so that the substrate can no longer bind to the active site

What is the importance of the polymerase chain reaction (PCR)?

It can be used to detect target DNA in a sample. It can be used to increase the amount of a select region of DNA in a sample.

Until the optimal temperature is reached, raising the temperature has what effect on the speed of enzymatic reactions?

It increases their rate.

Autotrophs use carbon dioxide (CO2) to synthesize organic compounds. Which of the following descriptions of this process are true?

It is called carbon fixation. In photosynthetic organisms, the process is called the light-independent reactions.

Errors by DNA polymerase that incorporate the wrong nucleotide into replicating DNA can be repaired quickly by which two mechanisms?

Mismatch repair Proofreading by DNA polymerase

Why is the genetic code said to be redundant?

More than one codon can code for a specific amino acid.

An organism that has a mutation is called a _____.

Mutant

The amino acid that is placed first during translation in bacteria is _______.

N-formylmethionine

What is the repair process in this image?

Nucleotide Excision Repair

Low Copy Number =

Occur in one or few copies per cell

The image highlights a bacterial defense system against invading bacteria called the ___

Restriction-Modification System

Which of the following initiates translation?

Ribosomes assemble on the mRNA.

What are the three major structures directly involved in translation?

Ribosomes, mRNA and tRNA

Extensively damaged DNA activates the ______ repair mechanism, which cannot always determine the correct nucleotide sequence, thus introducing mutations resulting from the repair process itself.

SOS

______ repair is activated by extensive DNA damage and uses a polymerase that lacks proofreading ability, ultimately resulting in mutations.

SOS

Primers

Short DNA molecules that determine site of amplification in target DNA

Double-stranded DNA =

Template containing target sequence

Oxidative phosphorylation, the mechanism by which cellular respiration uses the NADH and FADH2 generated in glycolysis, the transition step, and the TCA cycle to synthesize ATP, involves what two steps?

The electron transport chain generates a proton motive force. ATP synthase uses the energy of the proton motive force to drive the synthesis of ATP.

Which of the following is an example of activation energy?

The energy of a small flame used to light the natural gas of a Bunsen burner.

In order for cells to obtain energy, they remove electrons from an energy source and ultimately donate them to the terminal electron acceptor. What does this tell us about the electron affinity of the energy source and the terminal electron acceptor?

The energy source has a lower affinity for electrons, and the terminal electron acceptor has a higher affinity for electrons.

Which strand is replicated continuously during DNA replication?

The leading strand only

Which of the following are reasons an organism might use fermentation?

They lack an electron transport chain. A suitable inorganic terminal electron acceptor is not available.

Although the actual procedure is much more involved, the basic metabolism of wine-making involves inoculating grape juice with a special strain of the yeast Saccharomyces cerevisiae. S. cerevisiae will preferentially perform aerobic respiration on sugars in the juice but can also ferment those sugars to yield CO2 and alcohol, an important component of wine. Assume you inoculate a completely full container of juice and then close the lid. What will the yeast do?

They will grow aerobically, consume the O2 dissolved in the juice, and then switch to fermenting sugars to yield alcohol.

Why did the NIH form the Recombinant Advisory Committee?

To provide guidelines for researchers performing genetic engineering.

The genetic transfer mechanism shown in the picture is?

Transformation

Which of the following statements about transformation is correct?

Transformation is the uptake of naked DNA from the environment.

Several codons code for the same amino acid, which is called the redundancy of the code. Because of redundancy, the genetic code is said to be degenerate.

True

T/F; A point mutation involves any substitution of a single nucleotide.

True

T/F; Several codons code for the same amino acid, which is called the redundancy of the code. Because of redundancy, the genetic code is said to be degenerate.

True

T/F; The development of recombinant DNA techniques has had a huge impact on many different aspects of society including agriculture and medicine.

True

Which of the following types of radiation are mutagenic?

Ultraviolet rays X-rays

Why is Taq polymerase used in the PCR reaction?

Using heat-stable polymerase prevents the need to add more enzyme at each PCR cycle. Taq polymerase is heat-stable and can withstand the high temperature used in the denaturation step of the reaction.

A tRNA has a(n) _____ , a group of three nucleotides that is complementary to the codon of the mRNA.

anticodon

A tRNA has a(n) _____, a group of three nucleotides that is complementary to the codon of the mRNA.

anticodon

A tRNA has a(n) ___________ , a group of three nucleotides that is complementary to the codon of the mRNA.

anticodon

A transfer RNA molecule is folded into a three dimensional shape held together by hydrogen bonds. On one end of this structure is the _____ (which binds to mRNA), and on the other end, a specific_____ ______ is attached.

anticodon, amino acid

Some microorganisms can alter characteristics of certain surface proteins, allowing them to avoid detection by the host's immune system. This phenomenon is called ______.

antigenic variation

Many bacteria are able to recognize and destroy invading DNA. It is thought this ability evolved ______.

as a defense against phages

Nucleotide subunits of DNA and RNA are composed of three units: a 5-carbon sugar, a phosphate group, and a nucleobase. They are initially synthesized ______.

as ribonucleotides that can be converted to deoxyribonucleotides by replacing the 2' hydroxyl group with a hydrogen atom

Cancer-causing chemicals are called______

carcinogens

Chemicals that cause cancer are known as ______, and most of them are ______.

carcinogens; mutagens

Restriction enzymes are naturally produced by ______.

bacteria

Chemical mutagens can cause two types of mutations: ____ substitutions and _____ mutations.

base, frameshift

Chemical mutagens can cause two types of mutations: ______ substitutions and ______ mutations.

base, frameshift

A new field has emerged which employs the power of computers to store, retrieve, and analyze DNA sequence data called ______.

bioinformatics

Although the pentose phosphate pathway is used by cells to break down glucose, it is particularly important because of its contribution to _____

biosynthesis

The technique of colony _____ uses probes to detect specific DNA sequences in colonies grown on agar plates.

blotting

An origin of transfer is encoded by _______.

both conjugative and mobilizable plasmids

Nucleic Acid Molecule: contains an origin of replication

both plasmids and chromosomes

Broad Host Range =

can replicate in many different species

Once fragments of DNA have been separated using gel electrophoresis, the DNA bands are typically visualized by using a(n) _______.

fluorescent dye

A(n) ____ mutation results from an insertion or deletion of nucleotides, leading to a shift of the reading frame from the point of mutation downstream.

frameshift

Which of the following are caused by chemical mutagens?

frameshift mutations base substitutions

Which of the following techniques can separate RNA or protein molecules based on their size?

gel electrophoresis

A ______ is a sequence of nucleotides that usually codes for one functional protein.

gene

The functional unit of a genome that codes for a product is a(n) ____

gene

Bacteria lack the ability to remove introns from precursor RNA. Thus, for cloning purposes it may be necessary to ____

generate cDNA from mRNA

Bacteria lack the ability to remove introns from precursor RNA. Thus, for cloning purposes it may be necessary to ______.

generate cDNA from mRNA

_____engineering has been used to produce vaccines, pharmaceutical proteins, transgenic plants and animals, and DNA.

genetic

In addition to using naturally-occurring mutants with desirable characteristics in biotechnology, researchers can now also use ______ _____ techniques to genetically alter organisms.

genetic DNA

Information encoded in genetic material is translated into proteins based on rules known as the ______.

genetic code

The _____ ____ correlates a series of three nucleotides to one amino acid or a stop codon.

genetic code

Biotechnology is generally associated with _____ _____ , the process of deliberately altering an organisms genetic makeup using in vitro techniques.

genetic engineering

The process of altering an organisms genetic information in vitro is called ______.

genetic engineering

A large segment of a cell's genome that originated in other species is called a(n) ______.

genomic island

A(n) _____ _____ is a large segment of a cell's genome that has clearly originated in a different species.

genomic island

The ____ is the nucleotide sequence in the DNA of a cell or an organism.

genotype

In the case of plants, algae, and cyanobacteria, the two major products of photosynthesis are ______

glucose and oxygen

Engineered Cas9 nucleases recognize and bind to particular DNA or RNA sequences with the help of ______.

guide RNA

Atoms that are more electronegative than others ____

have a higher affinity for electrons

Atoms that are more electronegative than others _____

have a higher affinity for electrons

Highly automated methods that generate huge amounts of DNA sequence data relatively quickly are termed _____-______ (or next-generation) sequencing.

high throughput

Several new technologies to rapidly determine DNA sequences are referred to as ______ sequencing.

high-throughput

In_______ gene transfer, DNA moves from one organism to another, while in ______ gene transfer, DNA is passed from a parent cell to its progeny.

horizontal, vertical

The most likely place to isolate the bacterium that naturally produces Taq polymerase is _______.

hot vents

A bacterium that receives a plasmid with a human insulin gene cloned into it will produce ______. (Assume that the plasmid has the components that allow expression of the gene in bacteria.)

human insulin

A probe can be used to "find" a sequence of interest because it will anneal to its complement in a process called _______.

hybridization

An auxotroph can be isolated from a prototrophic parent strain by ______ selection.

indirect

_____ selection is used to isolate an auxotroph from a prototrophic parent strain, because no selective medium exists to inhibit the parent.

indirect

______ mutations are genetic changes caused by factors from outside of the cell such as radiation or chemicals.

induced

This figure highlights the ______ phase of translation in bacteria.

initiation

After new virus particles have assembled in the bacterial host cell, they are usually ______.

released as a result of host cell lysis

Cells duplicate their DNA before cell division using a process called DNA ____

replication

In this image of a bacterial chromosome replicating, the openings the labels are pointing to are called the ______ ______.

replication fork

The pieces of DNA produced when restriction enzymes cut DNA are called ______ fragments.

restriction

In a typical cloning procedure, the DNA of interest and the vector are cut with the same ____ ____and then joined to form a recombinant DNA molecule.

restriction enzyme

Enzymes that cut DNA at or near specific DNA sequences are called ___ ____

restriction enzymes

Which of the following are systems bacteria can use to protect against invading DNA?

restriction-modification CRISPR

Reverse transcriptase is naturally produced by _______.

retroviruses

The enzyme that synthesizes DNA using an RNA template is called ____ ____

reverse transcriptase

The pentose sugar in RNA is _____, while in DNA the pentose sugar is ______.

ribose, dexyribose

RNA contains the sugar _____, which differs from its DNA counterpart by possessing _____ oxygen atom

ribose, one more

To study microorganisms using the FISH technique, the probe is typically designed to hybridize to sequences on _______ RNA. (No abbreviations please)

ribosomal

In bacteria, the ribosome starts to assemble at a sequence in mRNA called the _____-_____ site. Translation begins at the first AUG codon after that.

ribosome binding

In this schematic of mRNA, label A points to the _______-binding site, label B depicts the _____codon, and label C highlights the _______ codon.

ribosome, start, stop

Protein synthesis involves ______ , which align amino acids and catalyze peptide bond formation between them.

ribosomes

Protein synthesis involves________ , which align amino acids and catalyze peptide bond formation between them.

ribosomes

Vectors used in molecular cloning typically have a(n) ______, meaning a gene that allows the researcher to eliminate any cells that have not taken up molecules containing the vector sequences. An example of such a gene is one that encodes resistance to an antibiotic.

selectable marker

Because the newly made double helices are composed of one strand from the original molecule and one newly synthesized strand, DNA replication is said to be

semiconservative

DNA replication is described as being ______, because each new DNA molecule formed by the process has one original strand and one newly synthesized strand.

semiconservative

A laboratory technique used to determine the specific order of nucleotides in DNA is called DNA ____

sequencing

The function of mRNA is to ______.

serve as a template for protein synthesis

The transmission of information from outside a cell to the inside is known as ______.

signal transduction

A base substitution in a protein-encoding gene results in one of three possible mutation outcomes:____ mutation, _____ mutation, or _______mutation.

silent, missense, nonsense

Agarose gel electrophoresis separates nucleic acid fragments according to ____

size

An mRNA sequence has ______.

three potential reading frames, but only one is typically used for translation

In a biotechnology lab, restriction enzymes are used ______.

to cut DNA predictably into fragments for recombinant DNA technology

Metagenomics is the analysis of ______.

total microbial genomes in an environment

Alternative sigma factors allow cells to directly control ______.

transcription

Information is passed from the environment into the cell by a process known as signal _____

transduction

The mechanism by which bacterial DNA is moved from one bacterium to another by a bacteriophage is called _______.

transduction

_______ is the transfer of bacterial DNA from a donor to recipient via a bacteriophage

transduction

_______ is the transfer of bacterial DNA from a donor to recipient via a bacteriophage.

transduction

Because E. coli cells are not naturally competent, when used for cloning, they must be treated to induce them to take up DNA by the process of ______.

transformation

The process of bacterial ______ involves the uptake of "naked" DNA by competent bacterial recipient cells.

transformation

Which mechanism of gene transfer involves the uptake of "naked" DNA by competent bacterial recipient cells?

transformation

In prokaryotes, genes can be transferred from a donor to a recipient via three different mechanisms: _______ ,_______ , and _______ .

transfromation, trandsuction, conjugation

During what process is the information in mRNA used to make a protein?

translation

_____ is the process of decoding the information carried by mRNA to synthesize a protein.

translation

________ is the process of decoding the information carried by mRNA to synthesize a protein.

translation

A DNA sequence that can move within a cell without specificity as to where it ultimately inserts is a(n) _______ .

transposons

Mutagens that are DNA segments that can insert into genes and thereby inactivate them are called ______.

transposons

Segments of DNA that can move to new positions within the genome of a single cell are called _____

transposons

Segments of DNA that can move to new positions within the genome of a single cell are called _____.

transposons

_____ are DNA segments that increase the rate of mutations by inserting themselves into genes and inactivating them.

transposons

______ are segments of DNA that can move from one location to another in a cell's genome.

transposons

Which of the following are examples of mobile genetic elements?

transposons phage DNA genomic islands plasmids

Regulating gene expression involves controlling mRNA synthesis and rapidly destroying mRNA transcripts.

true

T/F: DNA replication must occur prior to cell division to ensure that each new cell has a complete genome.

true