MCA III Final Exam - Practice Questions

The client is admitted with full-thickness burns may be developing DIC. Which signs/symptoms would support the diagnosis of DIC? 1. Oozing blood from the IV catheter site 2. Sudden onset of chest pain and frothy sputum 3. Foul smelling, concentrated urine 4. A reddened, inflamed central line catheter site

1. Oozing blood from the IV catheter site Signs and symptoms of DIC result from clotting and bleeding, ranging from oozing blood to bleeding from every body orifice and into the tissues

Which lab result would the nurse expect in the client diagnosed with DIC? 1. A decreased prothrombin time (PT) 2. A low fibrinogen level 3. An increased platelet count 4. An increased white blood cell count

2. A low fibrinogen level Fibrinogen level helps predict bleeding in DIC. As it becomes lower, the risk of bleeding increases.

Which collaborative treatment would the nurse anticipate in the client diagnosed with DIC? 1. Administer oral anticoagulants 2. Prepare for plasmapheresis 3. Administer fresh frozen plasma 4. Calculate the intake and output

3. Administer fresh frozen plasma Fresh frozen plasma and platelet concentrates are administered to restore clotting factors and platelets

Which client would be most at risk for developing disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC)? 1. A 35 year old pregnant client with placenta previa 2. A 42 year old client with a pulmonary embolus 3. A 60 year old client receiving hemodialyasis 3 days a week 4. A 78 year old client with septicemia

4. A 78 year old client with septicemia DIC is a clinical syndrome that develops as a complication of a wide variety of other disorders, with sepsis being the most common cause of DIC

The nurse writes a diagnosis of "potential for fluid volume deficit related to bleeding" for a client diagnosed with DIC. Which would be an appropriate goal? 1. The client's clot formations will resolve in two days 2. The saturation of the client's dressings will be documented 3. The client will use lemon-glycerin swabs for oral care 4. The client's urine output will be > 30 mL per hour

4. The client's urine output will be > 30 mL per hour The problem is addressing the potential for hemorrhage, and a urine output of greater than 30 mL/hr indicates the kidneys are being adequately perfused and the body is not in shock.

A client is admitted to the Intensive Care Unit with disseminated intravascular coagulation. What will the nurse most likely assess in this client? (SATA) A) Tachycardia B) Increased blood glucose level C) Decreased breath sounds D) Confusion E) Thick, tenacious bronchial secretions

A) Tachycardia C) Decreased breath sounds D) Confusion Clinical manifestations of disseminated intravascular coagulation include decreased breath sounds, tachycardia, and confusion. Increased blood glucose and thick bronchial secretions are not associated with this health problem.

What is the best understanding of mixed venous oxygen saturation by the nurse? A. An overall picture of oxygen delivery and oxygen consumption B. The amount of oxygen attached to each hemoglobin molecule C. The amount of oxygen perfusion taking place within the myocardium D. The amount of oxygen the lungs are able to mix with the blood

A. An overall picture of oxygen delivery and oxygen consumption Clinical determination of mixed venous oxygen saturation can be measured hemodynamically and provides a picture of the overall oxygen utilization by organs and tissues. Mixed venous oxygen saturation is the percentage of hemoglobin saturation in the central venous circulation, and it provides an assessment of the amount of oxygen used by the tissues.

A patient has a nursing diagnosis of risk for ineffective cerebral tissue perfusion related to cerebral edema. An appropriate nursing intervention for the patient is a. avoiding positioning the patient with neck and hip flexion b. maintaining hyperventilation to a PaCO2 of 15 to 20 mm Hg c. clustering nursing activities to provide periods of uninterrupted rest d. routine suctioning to prevent accumulation of respiratory secretions

A. Avoiding positioning the patient with neck and hip flexion Nursing care activities that increase ICP include hip and neck flexion, suctioning, clustering care activities, and noxious stimuli; they should be avoided or performed as little as possible in the patient with increased ICP. Lowering the PaCO2 below 20 mm Hg can cause ischemia and worsening of ICP; the PaCO2 should be maintained at 30 to 35 mm Hg.

A client has disseminated intravascular coagulation​ (DIC). Which clinical manifestation should the nurse expect to​ observe? (SATA) A. Clotting B. Hypertension C. Bleeding D. Joint pain E. Petechiae

A. Clotting C. Bleeding E. Petechiae

The nurse needs to obtain a cardiac output measurement from a patient who has just had a pulmonary artery catheter inserted. What are important interventions for ensuring accurate pressure and cardiac output measurements? (Select all that apply.) A.Ensure rapid injection of fluid through the injectate port. B.Zero reference the transducer system at the phlebostatic axis. C.Inflate the pulmonary artery catheter balloon with 5 mL air. D.Use lactated Ringer's solution for the injectate.

A. Ensure rapid injection of fluid through the injectate port. B. Zero reference the transducer system at the phlebostatic axis. To ensure accurate measurement, zero referencing of the transducer system is a priority action. Rapid injection of the appropriate solution will ensure more accurate readings. Inflating the pulmonary artery catheter balloon with 5 mL of air will likely result in rupture of the balloon, as this volume of air is too high. Normal saline or 5% dextrose in water solutions are used for obtaining thermodilution cardiac output measurements

The patient with type 1 diabetes mellitus with hypoglycemia is having a seizure. Which medication should the nurse anticipate administering to stop the seizure? A. IV dextrose solution B. IV diazepam (Valium) C. IV phenytoin (Dilantin) D. Oral carbamazepine (Tegretol)

A. IV dextrose solution This patient's seizure is caused by low blood glucose, so IV dextrose solution should be given first to stop the seizure. IV diazepam, IV phenytoin, and oral carbamazepine would be used to treat seizures from other causes such as head trauma, drugs, and infections.

The nurse is caring for a patient being monitored with a central venous catheter. In preparing to record a right atrial pressure reading, what is most important for the nurse to understand in recording an accurate value? A. Record the pressure at the end of expiration. B. Low pressures indicate ventricular dysfunction. C. High pressures are likely to indicate hypovolemia. D. Zero referencing is not needed before every recording.

A. Record the pressure at the end of expiration. Right atrial pressures are measured at the end of expiration to ensure that pleural pressure changes do not skew the numerical value. Low pressures are generally indicative of hypovolemia while high pressures are likely to indicate right ventricular dysfunction. Zero referencing is necessary to ensure accurate measurement and should be performed after any position change.

The nurse plans care for a patient with increased ICP with the knowledge that the best way to position the patient is to a. keep the head of the bed flat b. elevate the head of the bed to 30 degrees c. maintain patient on the left side with the head supported on a pillow d. use a continuous rotation bed to continuously change patient position

B. elevate the head of the bed to 30 degrees

A client diagnosed with disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC) is currently bleeding through the gastrointestinal tract. What will the nurse expect to provide for the client? A) Aspirin B) Coumadin C) Fresh frozen plasma and platelets D) Heparin

C) Fresh frozen plasma and platelets Explanation: C) When bleeding is the major manifestation of DIC, fresh frozen plasma and platelet concentrates are given to restore clotting factors and platelets. Heparin may be administered if bleeding is not controlled by plasma and platelets and if the client has manifestations of thrombotic problems. Coumadin and aspirin are not indicated in the treatment of DIC.

An unconscious patient with increased ICP in on ventilatory support. The nurse notifies the health care provider when arterial blood gas measurement results reveal a a. pH of 7.43 b. SaO2 of 94% c. PaO2 of 50 mm Hg d. PaCO2 of 30 mm Hg

C. PaO2 of 50 mm Hg A PaO2 of 50 mm Hg reflects a hypoxemia that may lead to further decreased cerebral perfusion and hypoxia and must be corrected. The pH of SaO2 are within normal range, and a PaCO2 of 30 mm Hg reflects acceptable value for the patient with increased ICP

What is the best action by the nurse to level and zero a hemodynamic monitoring system transducer? A. Level the air-fluid interface of the zeroing transducer at the height of the patient's mattress. B. Position the air-fluid interface of the zeroing transducer at the fifth intercostal space; midclavicular line. C. Position the air-fluid interface of the zeroing transducer at the phlebostatic axis; fourth intercostal space, midaxillary line. D. Level the air-fluid interface of the zeroing transducer at the second intercostal space; anterior-axillary line.

C. Position the air-fluid interface of the zeroing transducer at the phlebostatic axis; fourth intercostal space, midaxillary line. To obtain accurate hemodynamic values, the transducer system must be positioned at the level of the atria and pulmonary artery, commonly termed the phlebostatic axis (fourth intercostal space, midaxillary line). The transducer must be leveled at the phlebostatic axis. The transducer must be placed at the level of the fourth intercostal space, midaxillary line.

CN III originating in the midbrain is assessed by the nurse for an early indication of pressure on the brainstem by a. assessing for nystagmus b. testing the corneal reflex c. testing pupillary reaction to light d. testing for oculocephalic (doll's eye) reflex

C. Testing pupillary reaction to light One of the functions of CN III, the oculomotor nerve, is pupillary constriction, and testing for pupillary constriction is important to identify patients at risk for brainstem herniation caused by increased ICP. The corneal reflex is used to assess the functions of CN V and VII, and the oculocephalic reflex tests all cranial nerves involved with eye movement. Nystagmus is commonly associatted with specific lesions or chemical toxicities and is not a definitive sign of ICP

The nurse is alerted to possible acute subdural hematoma in the patient who a. has a linear skull fracture crossing a major artery b. has focal symptoms of brain damage with no recollection of a head injury c. develops decreased LOC and a headache within 48 hours of head injury d. has an immediate loss of consciousness with a brief lucid interval followed by decreasing LOC

C. develops decreased LOC and a headache within 48 hours of head injury

The nurse is evaluating care provided to a client with disseminated intravascular coagulation. Which observation indicates care has been successful for this client? A) Heart rate 110 beats per minute B) Oxygen saturation level 86% C) Urine output 20 cc per hour D) No evidence of bleeding

D) No evidence of bleeding Care provided to a client with disseminated intravascular coagulation is successful when there is no further bleeding. Oxygen saturation of 86% is evidence that treatment is needed. Heart rate of 110 beats per minute is evidence that treatment is needed. Urine output of 20 cc per hour is below normal limits and would indicate the need for further treatment.

A patient with ICP monitoring has pressure of 12 mm Hg. The nurse understand that this pressure reflects a. a severe decrease in cerebral perfusion pressure b. an alteration in the production of CSF c. the loss of autoregulatory control of ICP d. a normal balance between brain tissue, blood, and CSF

D. A normal balance between brain tissue, blood, and CSF Normal is 5 - 15 mm Hg

Successful achievement of patient outcomes for the patient with cranial surgery would be best indicated by the a. ability to return home in 6 days b. ability to meet all self-care needs c. acceptance of residual neurologic deficits d. absence of signs and symptoms of increased ICP

D. Absence of signs and symptoms of increased ICP The primary goal after cranial surgery is prevention of increased ICP, and interventions to prevent ICP and infection postoperatively are nursing priorities. The residual deficits, rehabilitation potential, and ultimate function of the patient depend on the reason for surgery, the postoperative course, and the patient's general state of health

When assessing the body function of a patient with increased ICP, the nurse should initially assess a. corneal reflex testing b. extremity strength testing c. pupillary reaction to light d. circulatory and respiratory status

D. Circulatory and respiratory status Of the body functions that should be assessed in an unconscious patient, cardiopulmonary status is the most vital function and gives priorities to the ABCs (airway, breathing, and circulation)

The female patient has been brought to the ED with a sudden onset of a severe headache that is different from any other headache she has had previously. When considering the possibility of a stroke, which type of stroke should the nurse know is most likely occurring? A. TIA B. Embolic stroke C. Thrombotic stroke D. Subarachnoid hemorrhage

D. Subarachnoid hemorrhage Headache is common in a patient who has a subarachnoid hemorrhage or an intracerebral hemorrhage. A TIA is a transient loss of neurologic function usually without a headache. A headache may occur with an ischemic embolic stroke, but severe neurologic deficits are the initial symptoms. The ischemic thrombotic stroke manifestations progress in the first 72 hours as infarction and cerebral edema increase.

What is the best position for the nurse to place the patient in to obtain a right atrial pressure measurement? A. Left side-lying with the head of the bed elevated 30 degrees B. Prone, lying on the abdomen with slight head elevation C. Right side-lying with the head of the bed elevated 30 degrees D. Supine, either flat or with the head of the bed no more than 60 degrees

D. Supine, either flat or with the head of the bed no more than 60 degrees Accurate assessment of a hemodynamic measure is best accomplished with the patient in a supine position with the head of the bed elevated slightly and no more than 60 degrees. The measurement can be obtained in the lateral position, but it is technically difficult because the patient must be positioned at a 30-degree lateral position for this method to be accurate. Hemodynamic measurements are not assessed in the prone position.

The nurse begins to review orders recently entered by the cardiologist. Medication orders include dobutamine (Dobutrex) 400 mg in 250 mL 5% dextrose in water titrated to keep cardiac index > 2 L/min/m2. What is the best understanding of cardiac index by the nurse? A.The amount of blood pumped out by a ventricle per minute B.The amount of blood ejected with each ventricular contraction C.The pressure created by the volume of blood in the left heart D.The measurement specific to the patient's size or body area

D. The measurement specific to the patient's size or body area Cardiac index is cardiac output individualized to a patient's body surface area or size. Cardiac output is the amount of blood pumped out by a ventricle per minute. The amount of blood ejected with each ventricular contraction is stroke volume. The pressure created by the volume of blood in the left heart is pulmonary artery occlusive pressure.

A nurse assesses clients on a medical-surgical unit. Which clients should the nurse identify as at risk for secondary seizures? (Select all that apply.) a. A 26-year-old woman with a left temporal brain tumor b. A 38-year-old male client in an alcohol withdrawal program c. A 42-year-old football player with a traumatic brain injury d. A 66-year-old female client with multiple sclerosis e. A 72-year-old man with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease

a. A 26-year-old woman with a left temporal brain tumor b. A 38-year-old male client in an alcohol withdrawal program c. A 42-year-old football player with a traumatic brain injury Clients at risk for secondary seizures include those with a brain lesion from a tumor or trauma, and those who are experiencing a metabolic disorder, acute alcohol withdrawal, electrolyte disturbances, and high fever. Clients with a history of stroke, heart disease, and substance abuse are also at risk. Clients with multiple sclerosis or chronic obstructive pulmonary disease are not at risk for secondary seizures.

A male patient who has possible cerebral edema has a serum sodium level of 116 mEq/L (116 mmol/L) and a decreasing level of consciousness (LOC). He is now complaining of a headache. Which prescribed interventions should the nurse implement first? a. Administer IV 5% hypertonic saline. b. Draw blood for arterial blood gases (ABGs). c. Send patient for computed tomography (CT). d. Administer acetaminophen (Tylenol) 650 mg orally.

a. Administer IV 5% hypertonic saline. The patient's low sodium indicates that hyponatremia may be causing the cerebral edema. The nurse's first action should be to correct the low sodium level. Acetaminophen (Tylenol) will have minimal effect on the headache because it is caused by cerebral edema and increased intracranial pressure (ICP). Drawing ABGs and obtaining a CT scan may provide some useful information, but the low sodium level may lead to seizures unless it is addressed quickly.

A 78-kg patient with septic shock has a pulse rate of 120 beats/min with low central venous pressure and pulmonary artery wedge pressure. Urine output has been 30 mL/hr for the past 3 hours. Which order by the health care provider should the nurse question? a. Administer furosemide (Lasix) 40 mg IV. b. Increase normal saline infusion to 250 mL/hr. c. Give hydrocortisone (Solu-Cortef) 100 mg IV. d. Titrate norepinephrine to keep systolic blood pressure (BP) above 90 mm Hg.

a. Administer furosemide (Lasix) 40 mg IV. Furosemide will lower the filling pressures and renal perfusion further for the patient with septic shock. Patients in septic shock require large amounts of fluid replacement. If the patient remains hypotensive after initial volume resuscitation with minimally 30 mL/kg, vasopressors such as norepinephrine may be added. IV corticosteroids may be considered for patients in septic shock who cannot maintain an adequate BP with vasopressor therapy despite fluid resuscitation.

Admission vital signs for a brain-injured patient are blood pressure of 128/68 mm Hg, pulse of 110 beats/min, and of respirations 26 breaths/min. Which set of vital signs, if taken 1 hour later, will be of most concern to the nurse? a. Blood pressure of 154/68 mm Hg, pulse of 56 beats/min, respirations of 12 breaths/min b. Blood pressure of 134/72 mm Hg, pulse of 90 beats/min, respirations of 32 breaths/min c. Blood pressure of 148/78 mm Hg, pulse of 112 beats/min, respirations of 28 breaths/min d. Blood pressure of 110/70 mm Hg, pulse of 120 beats/min, respirations of 30 breaths/min

a. Blood pressure of 154/68 mm Hg, pulse of 56 beats/min, respirations of 12 breaths/min Systolic hypertension with widening pulse pressure, bradycardia, and respiratory changes represent Cushing's triad. These findings indicate that the intracranial pressure (ICP) has increased, and brain herniation may be imminent unless immediate action is taken to reduce ICP. The other vital signs may indicate the need for changes in treatment, but they are not indicative of an immediately life-threatening process.

An adolescent boy is brought to the emergency department after a motorcycle accident. His respirations are deep, periodic, and gasping. There are extreme fluctuations in blood pressure. Pupils are dilated and fixed. What type of head injury should the nurse suspect? a. Brainstem b. Skull fracture c. Subdural hemorrhage d. Epidural hemorrhage

a. Brainstem Signs of brainstem injury include deep, rapid, periodic or intermittent, and gasping respirations. Wide fluctuations or noticeable slowing of the pulse, widening pulse pressure, or extreme fluctuations in blood pressure are consistent with a brainstem injury. Skull fracture and subdural and epidural hemorrhages are not consistent with these signs.

When evaluating a patient with a central venous catheter, the nurse observes that the insertion site is red and tender to touch and the patient's temperature is 101.8° F. What should the nurse plan to do? a. Discontinue the catheter and culture the tip. b. Use the catheter only for fluid administration. c. Change the flush system and monitor the site. d. Check the site more frequently for any swelling.

a. Discontinue the catheter and culture the tip. The information indicates that the patient has a local and systemic infection caused by the catheter, and the catheter should be discontinued to avoid further complications such as endocarditis. Changing the flush system, continued monitoring, or using the line for fluids will not help prevent or treat the infection.

A patient reports feeling numbness and tingling of the left arm before experiencing a seizure. The nurse determines that this history is consistent with what type of seizure? a. Focal b. Atonic c. Absence d. Myoclonic

a. Focal The initial symptoms of a focal seizure involve clinical manifestations that are localized to a particular part of the body or brain. Symptoms of an absence seizure are staring and a brief loss of consciousness. In an atonic seizure, the patient loses muscle tone and (typically) falls to the ground. Myoclonic seizures are characterized by a sudden jerk of the body or extremities.

The following interventions are ordered by the health care provider for a patient who has respiratory distress and syncope after eating strawberries. Which will the nurse complete first? a. Give epinephrine. b. Administer diphenhydramine. c. Start continuous ECG monitoring. d. Draw blood for complete blood count (CBC)

a. Give epinephrine. Epinephrine rapidly causes peripheral vasoconstriction, dilates the bronchi, and blocks the effects of histamine and reverses the vasodilation, bronchoconstriction, and histamine release that cause the symptoms of anaphylaxis. The other interventions are also appropriate but would not be the first ones completed.

A patient with septic shock has a BP of 70/46 mm Hg, pulse of 136 beats/min, respirations of 32 breaths/min, temperature of 104°F, and blood glucose of 246 mg/dL. Which intervention ordered by the health care provider should the nurse implement first? a. Give normal saline IV at 500 mL/hr. b. Give acetaminophen (Tylenol) 650 mg rectally. c. Start insulin drip to maintain blood glucose at 110 to 150 mg/dL. d. Start norepinephrine to keep systolic blood pressure above 90 mm Hg.

a. Give normal saline IV at 500 mL/hr. Because of the decreased preload associated with septic shock, fluid resuscitation is the initial therapy. The other actions also are appropriate, and should be initiated quickly as well.

The patient with type 1 diabetes mellitus is having a seizure. Which medication should the nurse anticipate will be administered first? a. IV dextrose solution b. IV diazepam (Valium) c. IV phenytoin (Dilantin) d. Oral carbamazepine (Tegretol)

a. IV dextrose solution This patient's seizure could be caused by low blood glucose, so IV dextrose solution would be given first to stop the seizure. IV diazepam, IV phenytoin, and oral carbamazepine would be used first to treat seizures from other causes such as head trauma, drugs, and infections. These drugs will be tried if the IV dextrose is ineffective.

During change-of-shift report, the nurse is told that a patient has been admitted with dehydration and hypotension after having vomiting and diarrhea for 4 days. Which finding is most important for the nurse to report to the health care provider? a. New onset of confusion b. Decreased bowel sounds c. Heart rate 112 beats/min d. Pale, cool, and dry extremities

a. New onset of confusion The changes in mental status are indicative that the patient is in the progressive stage of shock and that rapid intervention is needed to prevent further deterioration. The other information is consistent with compensatory shock.

A patient who has been treated for status epilepticus in the emergency department will be transferred to the medical nursing unit. Which equipment should the nurse have available in the patient's assigned room (select all that apply)? a. Side-rail pads b. Tongue blade c. Oxygen mask d. Suction tubing e. Urinary catheter f. Nasogastric tube

a. Side-rail pads c. Oxygen mask d. Suction tubing The patient is at risk for further seizures, and O2 and suctioning may be needed after any seizures to clear the airway and maximize oxygenation. The bed's side rails should be padded to minimize the risk for patient injury during a seizure. Use of tongue blades during a seizure is contraindicated. Insertion of a nasogastric (NG) tube is not indicated because the airway problem is not caused by vomiting or abdominal distention. A urinary catheter is not required unless there is urinary retention.

The nurse is caring for a patient who has septic shock. Which assessment finding is most important for the nurse to report to the health care provider? a. Skin cool and clammy b. Heart rate of 118 beats/min c. Blood pressure of 92/56 mm Hg d. O2 saturation of 93% on room air

a. Skin cool and clammy Because patients in the early stage of septic shock have warm and dry skin, the patient's cool and clammy skin indicates that shock is progressing. The other information will also be reported, but does not indicate deterioration of the patient's status.

While admitting a 42-yr-old patient with a possible brain injury after a car accident to the emergency department (ED), the nurse obtains the following information. Which finding is most important to report to the health care provider? a. The patient takes warfarin (Coumadin) daily. b. The patient's blood pressure is 162/94 mm Hg. c. The patient is unable to remember the accident. d. The patient complains of a severe dull headache.

a. The patient takes warfarin (Coumadin) daily. The use of anticoagulants increases the risk for intracranial hemorrhage and should be immediately reported. The other information would not be unusual in a patient with a head injury who had just arrived in the ED.

Which data collected by the nurse caring for a patient who has cardiogenic shock indicate that the patient may be developing multiple organ dysfunction syndrome (MODS)? a. The patient's serum creatinine level is elevated. b. The patient complains of intermittent chest pressure. c. The patient's extremities are cool and pulses are weak. d. The patient has bilateral crackles throughout lung fields.

a. The patient's serum creatinine level is elevated. The elevated serum creatinine level indicates that the patient has renal failure as well as heart failure. The crackles, chest pressure, and cool extremities are all symptoms consistent with the patient's diagnosis of cardiogenic shock.

A patient has ICP monitoring with an intraventricular catheter. A priority nursing intervention for the patient is a. aseptic technique to prevent infection b. constant monitoring of ICP waveforms c. removal of CSF to maintain normal ICP d. sampling CSF to determine abnormalities

a. aseptic technique to prevent infection Aseptic technique to prevent infection- An intraventricular catheter is a fluid coupled system that can provide direct access for microorganisms to enter the ventricles of the brain, and aseptic technique is a very high nursing priority to decrease the risk for infection. Constant monitoring of ICP waveforms is not usually necessary, and removal of CSF for sampling or to maintain normal ICP is done only when specifically ordered

The nurse observes a patient ambulating in the hospital hall when the patient's arms and legs suddenly jerk and the patient falls to the floor. The nurse will first a. assess the patient for a possible injury. b. give the scheduled divalproex (Depakote). c. document the timing and description of the seizure. d. notify the patient's health care provider about the seizure.

a. assess the patient for a possible injury. The patient who has had a myoclonic seizure and fall is at risk for head injury and should first be evaluated and treated for this possible complication. Documentation of the seizure, notification of the health care provider, and administration of antiseizure medications are also appropriate actions, but the initial action should be assessment for injury.

The patient with leukemia has acute disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC) and is bleeding. What diagnostic findings should the nurse expect to find? a. elevated D-dimers b. elevated fibrinogen c. reduced prothrombin time (PT) d. reduced fibrin degradation products (FDPs)

a. elevated D-dimers

The nurse is monitoring a patient for increased ICP following a head injury. Which of the following manifestations indicate an increased ICP (select all that apply) a. fever b. oriented to name only c. narrowing pulse pressure d. dilated right pupil > left pupil e. decorticate posturing to painful stimulus

a. fever b. oriented to name only d. dilated right pupil > left pupil e. decorticate posturing to painful stimulus The first sign of increased ICP is a change in LOC. Other manifestations are dilated ipsilateral pupil, changes in motor response such as posturing, and fever, which may indicate pressure on the hypothalamus. Changes in vital signs would be an increased systolic BP with widened pulse pressure and bradycardia

A patient's family member asks the nurse what caused the patient to develop disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC). The nurse tells the family member that DIC a. is caused by an abnormal activation of clotting. b. occurs when the immune system attacks platelets. c. is a complication of cancer chemotherapy. d. is caused when hemolytic processes destroy erythrocytes.

a. is caused by an abnormal activation of clotting.

When a patient is admitted to the emergency department following a head injury, the nurse's first priority in management of the patient once a patent airway is confirmed is a. maintaining cervical spine precautions b. determining the presence of increased ICP c. monitoring for changes in neurologic status d. establishing IV access with a large-bore catheter

a. maintaining cervical spine precautions In addition to monitoring for a patent airway during emergency care of the patient with a head injury, the nurse must always assume that a patient with a head injury may have a cervical spine injury. Maintaining cervical spine precautions in all assessment and treatment activities with the patient is essential to prevent additional neurologic damage.

A high school teacher who has been diagnosed with epilepsy after having a generalized tonic- clonic seizure tells the nurse, "I cannot teach any more. It will be too upsetting if I have a seizure at work." Which response by the nurse specifically addresses the patient's concern? a. "You might benefit from some psychologic counseling." b. "Epilepsy usually can be well controlled with medications." c. "You will want to contact the Epilepsy Foundation for assistance." d. "The Department of Vocational Rehabilitation can help with work retraining."

b. "Epilepsy usually can be well controlled with medications." The nurse should inform the patient that most patients with seizure disorders are controlled with medication. The other information may be necessary if the seizures persist after treatment with antiseizure medications is implemented.

The nurse provides information to the caregiver of a 68-yr-old man with epilepsy who has tonic-clonic seizures. Which statement by the caregiver indicates a need for further teaching? a. "It is normal for a person to be sleepy after a seizure." b. "I should call 911 if breathing stops during the seizure." c. "The jerking movements may last for 30 to 40 seconds." d. "Objects should not be placed in the mouth during a seizure."

b. "I should call 911 if breathing stops during the seizure." Caregivers do not need to call an ambulance or send a person to the hospital after a single seizure unless the seizure is prolonged, another seizure immediately follows, or extensive injury has occurred. Altered breathing is a clinical manifestation of a tonic-clonic seizure. Contact emergency medical services (or call 911) if breathing stops for more than 30 seconds. No objects (e.g., oral airway, padded tongue blade) should be placed in the mouth. Lethargy is common in the postictal phase of a seizure. Jerking of the extremities occurs during the clonic phase of a tonic-clonic seizure. The clonic phase may last 30 to 40 seconds.

Family members of a patient who has a traumatic brain injury ask the nurse about the purpose of the ventriculostomy system being used for intracranial pressure monitoring. Which response by the nurse is best for this situation? a. "This type of monitoring system is complex and it is managed by skilled staff." b. "The monitoring system helps show whether blood flow to the brain is adequate." c. "The ventriculostomy monitoring system helps check for alterations in cerebral perfusion pressure." d. "This monitoring system has multiple benefits including facilitation of cerebrospinal fluid drainage."

b. "The monitoring system helps show whether blood flow to the brain is adequate." Short and simple explanations should be given initially to patients and family members. The other explanations are either too complicated to be easily understood or may increase the family members' anxiety.

A patient with a head injury opens his eyes to verbal stimulation, curses when stimulated, and does not respond to a verbal command to move but attempts to push away a painful stimulus. The nurse records the patient's Glasgow Coma Scale score as a. 9. b. 11. c. 13. d. 15.

b. 11. The patient has scores of 3 for eye opening, 3 for best verbal response, and 5 for best motor response.

A patient with an intracranial problem does not open his eyes to any stimulus, has no verbal response except moaning and muttering when stimulated, and flexes his arm in response to painful stimuli. The nurse records the patients GCS score as a. 6 b. 7 c. 9 d. 11

b. 7 7- no opening of eyes = 1; incomprehensible words= 2, flexion withdrawal = 4 Total = 7

Which statement best describes a subdural hematoma? a. Bleeding occurs between the dura and the skull. b. Bleeding occurs between the dura and the cerebrum. c. Bleeding is generally arterial, and brain compression occurs rapidly. d. The hematoma commonly occurs in the parietotemporal region.

b. Bleeding occurs between the dura and the cerebrum. A subdural hematoma is bleeding that occurs between the dura and the cerebrum as a result of a rupture of cortical veins that bridge the subdural space. An epidural hemorrhage occurs between the dura and the skull, is usually arterial with rapid brain concussion, and occurs most often in the parietotemporal region.

After endotracheal suctioning, the nurse notes that the intracranial pressure (ICP) for a patient with a traumatic head injury has increased from 14 to 17 mm Hg. Which action should the nurse take first? a. Document the increase in intracranial pressure. b. Ensure that the patient's neck is in neutral position. c. Notify the health care provider about the change in pressure. d. Increase the rate of the prescribed propofol (Diprivan) infusion.

b. Ensure that the patient's neck is in neutral position. Because suctioning will cause a transient increase in ICP, the nurse should initially check for other factors that might be contributing to the increase and observe the patient for a few minutes. Documentation is needed, but this is not the first action. There is no need to notify the health care provider about this expected reaction to suctioning. Propofol is used to control patient anxiety or agitation. There is no indication that anxiety has contributed to the increase in ICP.

The Glasgow Coma Scale consists of an assessment of what functions? a. Pupil reactivity and motor response. b. Eye opening and verbal and motor responses. c. Level of consciousness and verbal response. d. Intracranial pressure (ICP) and level of consciousness.

b. Eye opening and verbal and motor responses. The Glasgow Coma Scale assesses eye opening and verbal and motor responses. Pupil reactivity is not a part of the Glasgow Coma Scale but is included in the pediatric coma scale. Level of consciousness and ICP are not part of the Glasgow Coma Scale.

A patient with massive trauma and possible spinal cord injury is admitted to the emergency department (ED). Which assessment finding by the nurse will help confirm a diagnosis of neurogenic shock? a. Inspiratory crackles b. Heart rate 45 beats/min c. Cool, clammy extremities d. Temperature 101.2°F (38.4°C)

b. Heart rate 45 beats/min Neurogenic shock is characterized by hypotension and bradycardia. The other findings would be more consistent with other types of shock.

After surgery for an abdominal aortic aneurysm, a patient's central venous pressure (CVP) monitor indicates low pressures. Which action should the nurse take? a. Administer IV diuretic medications. b. Increase the IV fluid infusion per protocol. c. Increase the infusion rate of IV vasodilators. d. Elevate the head of the patient's bed to 45 degrees.

b. Increase the IV fluid infusion per protocol. A low CVP indicates hypovolemia and a need for an increase in the infusion rate. Diuretic administration will contribute to hypovolemia and elevation of the head or increasing vasodilators may decrease cerebral perfusion.

A nurse is caring for a patient whose hemodynamic monitoring indicates a blood pressure of 92/54 mm Hg, a pulse of 64 beats/min, and an elevated pulmonary artery wedge pressure (PAWP). Which intervention ordered by the health care provider should the nurse question? a. Elevate head of bed to 30 degrees. b. Infuse normal saline at 250 mL/hr. c. Hold nitroprusside if systolic BP is less than 90 mm Hg. d. Titrate dobutamine to keep systolic BP is greater than 90 mm Hg.

b. Infuse normal saline at 250 mL/hr. The patient's elevated PAWP indicates volume excess in relation to cardiac pumping ability, consistent with cardiogenic shock. A saline infusion at 250 mL/hr will exacerbate the volume excess. The other actions will help to improve cardiac output, which should lower the PAWP and may raise the BP.

A nurse cares for a client who is experiencing status epilepticus. Which prescribed medication should the nurse prepare to administer? a. Atenolol (Tenormin) b. Lorazepam (Ativan) c. Phenytoin (Dilantin) d. Lisinopril (Prinivil)

b. Lorazepam (Ativan) Initially, intravenous lorazepam is administered to stop motor movements. This is followed by the administration of phenytoin. Atenolol, a beta blocker, and lisinopril, an angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitor, are not administered for seizure activity. These medications are typically administered for hypertension and heart failure.

Which intervention will the nurse include in the plan of care for a patient who has cardiogenic shock? a. Check temperature every 2 hours. b. Monitor breath sounds frequently. c. Maintain patient in supine position. d. Assess skin for flushing and itching.

b. Monitor breath sounds frequently. Because pulmonary congestion and dyspnea are characteristics of cardiogenic shock, the nurse should assess the breath sounds frequently. The head of the bed is usually elevated to decrease dyspnea in patients with cardiogenic shock. Elevated temperature and flushing or itching of the skin are not typical of cardiogenic shock.

A patient who is suspected of having an epidural hematoma is admitted to the emergency department. Which action will the nurse expect to take? a. Administer IV furosemide (Lasix). b. Prepare the patient for craniotomy. c. Initiate high-dose barbiturate therapy. d. Type and crossmatch for blood transfusion.

b. Prepare the patient for craniotomy. The principal treatment for epidural hematoma is rapid surgery to remove the hematoma and prevent herniation. If intracranial pressure is elevated after surgery, furosemide or high-dose barbiturate therapy may be needed, but these will not be of benefit unless the hematoma is removed. Minimal blood loss occurs with head injuries, and transfusion is usually not necessary.

A patient who has been involved in a motor vehicle crash arrives in the emergency department (ED) with cool, clammy skin; tachycardia; and hypotension. Which intervention ordered by the health care provider should the nurse implement first? a. Insert two large-bore IV catheters. b. Provide O2 at 100% per non-rebreather mask. c. Draw blood to type and crossmatch for transfusions. d. Initiate continuous electrocardiogram (ECG) monitoring.

b. Provide O2 at 100% per non-rebreather mask. The first priority in the initial management of shock is maintenance of the airway and ventilation. ECG monitoring, insertion of IV catheters, and obtaining blood for transfusions should also be rapidly accomplished but only after actions to maximize O2 delivery have been implemented.

Which hemodynamic parameter best reflects the effectiveness of drugs that the nurse gives to reduce a patient's left ventricular afterload? a. Mean arterial pressure (MAP) b. Systemic vascular resistance (SVR) c. Pulmonary vascular resistance (PVR) d. Pulmonary artery wedge pressure (PAWP)

b. Systemic vascular resistance (SVR) SVR reflects the resistance to ventricular ejection, or afterload. The other parameters may be monitored but do not reflect afterload as directly.

After evacuation of an epidural hematoma, a patient's intracranial pressure (ICP) is being monitored with an intraventricular catheter. Which information obtained by the nurse requires urgent communication with the health care provider? a. Pulse of 102 beats/min b. Temperature of 101.6° F c. Intracranial pressure of 15 mm Hg d. Mean arterial pressure of 90 mm Hg

b. Temperature of 101.6° F Infection is a serious consideration with ICP monitoring, especially with intraventricular catheters. The temperature indicates the need for antibiotics or removal of the monitor. The ICP, arterial pressure, and apical pulse only require ongoing monitoring at this time.

Which finding about a patient who is receiving vasopressin to treat septic shock indicates an immediate need for the nurse to report the finding to the health care provider? a. The patient's urine output is 18 mL/hr. b. The patient is complaining of chest pain. c. The patient's peripheral pulses are weak. d. The patient's heart rate is 110 beats/minute.

b. The patient is complaining of chest pain. Because vasopressin is a potent vasoconstrictor, it may decrease coronary artery perfusion. The other information is consistent with the patient's diagnosis, and should be reported to the health care provider but does not indicate an immediate need for a change in therapy.

Norepinephrine has been prescribed for a patient who was admitted with dehydration and hypotension. Which patient data indicate that the nurse should consult with the health care provider before starting the norepinephrine? a. The patient is receiving low dose dopamine. b. The patient's central venous pressure is 3 mm Hg. c. The patient is in sinus tachycardia at 120 beats/min. d. The patient has had no urine output since being admitted.

b. The patient's central venous pressure is 3 mm Hg. Adequate fluid administration is essential before giving vasopressors to patients with hypovolemic shock. The patient's low central venous pressure indicates a need for more volume replacement. The other patient data are not contraindications to norepinephrine administration.

A nurse witnesses a client begin to experience a tonic-clonic seizure and loss of consciousness. Which action should the nurse take? a. Start fluids via a large-bore catheter. b. Turn the client's head to the side. c. Administer IV push diazepam. d. Prepare to intubate the client.

b. Turn the client's head to the side. The nurse should turn the client's head to the side to prevent aspiration and allow drainage of secretions. Anticonvulsants are administered on a routine basis if a seizure is sustained. If the seizure is sustained (status epilepticus), the client must be intubated and should be administered oxygen, 0.9% sodium chloride, and IV push lorazepam or diazepam.

Which finding is the best indicator that the fluid resuscitation for a 90-kg patient with hypovolemic shock has been effective? a. Hemoglobin is within normal limits. b. Urine output is 65 mL over the past hour. c. Central venous pressure (CVP) is normal. d. Mean arterial pressure (MAP) is 72 mm Hg.

b. Urine output is 65 mL over the past hour. Assessment of end organ perfusion, such as an adequate urine output, is the best indicator that fluid resuscitation has been successful. Urine output should be equal to or more than 0.5 mL/kg/hr. The hemoglobin level, CVP, and MAP are useful in determining the effects of fluid administration, but they are not as useful as data indicating good organ perfusion

The nurse recognizes the presence of Cushing's triad in the patient with a. Increased pulse, irregular respiration, increased BP b. decreased pulse, irregular respiration, increased pulse pressure c. increased pulse, decreased respiration, increased pulse pressure d. decreased pulse, increased respiration, decreased systolic BP

b. decreased pulse, irregular respiration, increased pulse pressure Cushing's triad consists of three vital sign measures that reflect ICP and its effect on the medulla, the hypothalamus, the pons, and the thalamus. Because these structures are very deep, Cushing's triad is usually a late sign of ICP. The signs include an increasing systolic BP with a widening pulse pressure, a bradycardia with a full and bounding pulse, and irregular respirations.

A patient with cardiogenic shock has the following vital signs: BP 102/50, pulse 128, respirations 28. The pulmonary artery wedge pressure (PAWP) is increased, and cardiac output is low. The nurse will anticipate an order for which medication? a. 5% albumin infusion b. furosemide (Lasix) IV c. epinephrine (Adrenalin) drip d. hydrocortisone (Solu-Cortef)

b. furosemide (Lasix) IV The PAWP indicates that the patient's preload is elevated, and furosemide is indicated to reduce the preload and improve cardiac output. Epinephrine would further increase the heart rate and myocardial oxygen demand. 5% albumin would also increase the PAWP. Hydrocortisone might be considered for septic or anaphylactic shock.

The intensive care unit (ICU) nurse educator determines that teaching a new staff nurse about arterial pressure monitoring has been effective when the nurse a. balances and calibrates the monitoring equipment every 2 hours. b. positions the zero-reference stopcock line level with the phlebostatic axis. c. ensures that the patient is supine with the head of the bed flat for all readings. d. rechecks the location of the phlebostatic axis with changes in the patient's position.

b. positions the zero-reference stopcock line level with the phlebostatic axis. For accurate measurement of pressures, the zero-reference level should be at the phlebostatic axis. There is no need to rebalance and recalibrate monitoring equipment every 2 hours. Accurate hemodynamic readings are possible with the patient's head raised to 45 degrees or in the prone position. The anatomic position of the phlebostatic axis does not change when patients are repositioned.

Which prescribed intervention will the nurse implement first for a patient in the emergency department who is experiencing continuous tonic-clonic seizures? a. Give phenytoin (Dilantin) 100 mg IV. b. Monitor level of consciousness (LOC). c. Administer lorazepam (Ativan) 4 mg IV. d. Obtain computed tomography (CT) scan.

c. Administer lorazepam (Ativan) 4 mg IV. To prevent ongoing seizures, the nurse should administer rapidly acting antiseizure medications such as the benzodiazepines. A CT scan is appropriate, but prevention of any seizure activity during the CT scan is necessary. Phenytoin will also be administered, but it is not rapidly acting. Patients who are experiencing tonic-clonic seizures are nonresponsive, although the nurse should assess LOC after the seizure.

An intraaortic balloon pump (IABP) is being used for a patient who is in cardiogenic shock. Which assessment data indicate to the nurse that the goals of treatment with the IABP are being met? a. Urine output of 25 mL/hr b. Heart rate of 110 beats/minute c. Cardiac output (CO) of 5 L/min d. Stroke volume (SV) of 40 mL/beat

c. Cardiac output (CO) of 5 L/min A CO of 5 L/min is normal and indicates that the IABP has been successful in treating the shock. The low SV signifies continued cardiogenic shock. The tachycardia and low urine output also suggest continued cardiogenic shock.

To evaluate the effectiveness of the pantoprazole (Protonix) ordered for a patient with systemic inflammatory response syndrome (SIRS), which assessment will the nurse perform? a. Auscultate bowel sounds. b. Ask the patient about nausea. c. Check stools for occult blood. d. Palpate for abdominal tenderness.

c. Check stools for occult blood. Proton pump inhibitors are given to decrease the risk for stress ulcers in critically ill patients. The other assessments will also be done, but these will not help in determining the effectiveness of the pantoprazole administration.

An older patient with cardiogenic shock is cool and clammy. Hemodynamic monitoring indicates a high systemic vascular resistance (SVR). Which intervention should the nurse anticipate? a. Increase the rate for the dopamine infusion. b. Decrease the rate for the nitroglycerin infusion. c. Increase the rate for the sodium nitroprusside infusion. d. Decrease the rate for the 5% dextrose in normal saline (D5/.9 NS) infusion.

c. Increase the rate for the sodium nitroprusside infusion. Nitroprusside is an arterial vasodilator and will decrease the SVR and afterload, which will improve cardiac output. Changes in the D5/.9 NS and nitroglycerin infusions will not directly decrease SVR. Increasing the dopamine will tend to increase SVR.

A patient with possible disseminated intravascular coagulation arrives in the emergency department with a blood pressure of 82/40, temperature 102° F (38.9° C), and severe back pain. Which physician order will the nurse implement first? a. Administer morphine sulfate 4 mg IV. b. Give acetaminophen (Tylenol) 650 mg. c. Infuse normal saline 500 mL over 30 minutes. d. Schedule complete blood count and coagulation studies.

c. Infuse normal saline 500 mL over 30 minutes. The patient's blood pressure indicates hypovolemia caused by blood loss and should be addressed immediately to improve perfusion to vital organs.

The patient has developed cardiogenic shock after a left anterior descending myocardial infection. Which circulatory-assist device should the nurse expect to use for this patient? a. Cardiopulmonary bypass b. Impedance cardiography (ICG) c. Intraaortic balloon pump (IABP) d. Central venous pressure (CVP) measurement

c. Intraaortic balloon pump (IABP) The most commonly used mechanical circulatory assist device is the IABP, and it is used to decrease ventricular workload, increase myocardial perfusion, and augment circulation. Cardiopulmonary bypass provides circulation during open heart surgery. It is not used as an assist device after surgery. ICG is a noninvasive method to obtain cardiac output and assess thoracic fluid status. CVP measurement is an invasive measurement of right ventricular preload and reflects fluid volume problems.

The nurse has administered prescribed IV mannitol (Osmitrol) to an unconscious patient. Which parameter should the nurse monitor to determine the medication's effectiveness? a. Blood pressure b. Oxygen saturation c. Intracranial pressure d. Hemoglobin and hematocrit

c. Intracranial pressure Mannitol is an osmotic diuretic and will reduce cerebral edema and intracranial pressure. It may initially reduce hematocrit and increase blood pressure, but these are not the best parameters for evaluation of the effectiveness of the drug. O2 saturation will not directly improve as a result of mannitol administration.

A patient who is unconscious has ineffective cerebral tissue perfusion and cerebral tissue swelling. Which nursing intervention will be included in the plan of care? a. Encourage coughing and deep breathing. b. Position the patient with knees and hips flexed. c. Keep the head of the bed elevated to 30 degrees. d. Cluster nursing interventions to provide rest periods.

c. Keep the head of the bed elevated to 30 degrees. The patient with increased intracranial pressure (ICP) should be maintained in the head-up position to help reduce ICP. Extreme flexion of the hips and knees increases abdominal pressure, which increases ICP. Because the stimulation associated with nursing interventions increases ICP, clustering interventions will progressively elevate ICP. Coughing increases intrathoracic pressure and ICP.

When the nurse educator is evaluating the skills of a new registered nurse (RN) caring for patients experiencing shock, which action by the new RN indicates a need for more education? a. Placing the pulse oximeter on the ear for a patient with septic shock b. Keeping the head of the bed flat for a patient with hypovolemic shock c. Maintaining a cool room temperature for a patient with neurogenic shock d. Increasing the nitroprusside infusion rate for a patient with a very high SVR

c. Maintaining a cool room temperature for a patient with neurogenic shock Patients with neurogenic shock have poikilothermia. The room temperature should be kept warm to avoid hypothermia. The other actions by the new RN are appropriate.

A patient with septicemia develops prolonged bleeding from venipuncture sites and blood in the stools. Which action is most important for the nurse to take? a. Avoid other venipunctures. b. Apply dressings to the sites. c. Notify the health care provider. d. Give prescribed proton-pump inhibitors.

c. Notify the health care provider. The patient's new onset of bleeding and diagnosis of sepsis suggest that disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC) may have developed, which will require collaborative actions such as diagnostic testing, blood product administration, and heparin administration. The other actions are also appropriate, but the most important action should be to notify the health care provider so that DIC treatment can be initiated rapidly

The nurse is caring for a patient receiving a continuous norepinephrine IV infusion. Which patient assessment finding indicates that the infusion rate may need to be adjusted? a. Heart rate is slow at 58 beats/min. b. Mean arterial pressure (MAP) is 56 mm Hg. c. Systemic vascular resistance (SVR) is elevated. d. Pulmonary artery wedge pressure (PAWP) is low.

c. Systemic vascular resistance (SVR) is elevated. Vasoconstrictors such as norepinephrine will increase SVR, and this will increase the work of the heart and decrease peripheral perfusion. The infusion rate may need to be decreased. Bradycardia, hypotension (MAP of 56 mm Hg), and low PAWP are not associated with norepinephrine infusion.

The nurse is caring for a patient who has a head injury and fractured right arm after being assaulted. Which assessment information requires rapid action by the nurse? a. The apical pulse is slightly irregular. b. The patient complains of a headache. c. The patient is more difficult to arouse. d. The blood pressure (BP) increases to 140/62 mm Hg.

c. The patient is more difficult to arouse. The change in level of consciousness (LOC) is an indicator of increased intracranial pressure (ICP) and suggests that action by the nurse is needed to prevent complications. The change in BP should be monitored but is not an indicator of a need for immediate nursing action. Headache and a slightly irregular apical pulse are not unusual in a patient after a head injury.

Which characteristic will the nurse associate with a focal seizure? a. The patient lost consciousness during the seizure. b. The seizure involved both sides of the patient's brain. c. The seizure involved lip smacking and repetitive movements. d. The patient fell to the ground and became stiff for 20 seconds.

c. The seizure involved lip smacking and repetitive movements. Complex focal seizure is characterized commonly by lip smacking and automatisms (repetitive movements that may not be appropriate). Loss of consciousness, bilateral brain involvement, and a tonic phase are associated with generalized seizure activity.

While the nurse is transporting a patient on a stretcher to the radiology department, the patient begins having a tonic-clonic seizure. Which action should the nurse take? a. Insert an oral airway during the seizure to maintain a patent airway. b. Restrain the patient's arms and legs to prevent injury during the seizure. c. Time and observe and record the details of the seizure and postictal state. d. Avoid touching the patient to prevent further nervous system stimulation.

c. Time and observe and record the details of the seizure and postictal state. Because the diagnosis and treatment of seizures frequently are based on the description of the seizure, recording the length and details of the seizure is important. Insertion of an oral airway and restraining the patient during the seizure are contraindicated. The nurse may need to move the patient to decrease the risk of injury during the seizure.

A nurse is assessing a patient who is receiving a nitroprusside infusion to treat cardiogenic shock. Which finding indicates that the drug is effective? a. No new heart murmurs b. Decreased troponin level c. Warm, pink, and dry skin d. Blood pressure of 92/40 mm Hg

c. Warm, pink, and dry skin Warm, pink, and dry skin indicates that perfusion to tissues is improved. Because nitroprusside is a vasodilator, the blood pressure may be low even if the drug is effective. Absence of a heart murmur and a decrease in troponin level are not indicators of improvement in shock.

DIC is a disorder in which: a. the coagulation pathway is genetically altered, leading to thrombus formation in all major blood vessels b. an underlying disease depletes hemolytic factors in the blood, leading to diffuse thrombotic episodes and infarcts c. a disease process stimulates coagulation processes with resultant thrombosis, as well as depletion of clotting factors, leading to diffuse clotting and hemorrhage d. an inherited predisposition causes a deficiency of clotting factors that leads to overstimulation of coagulation processes in the vasculature

c. a disease process stimulates coagulation processes with resultant thrombosis, as well as depletion of clotting factors, leading to diffuse clotting and hemorrhage

A patient is admitted to the emergency department (ED) for shock of unknown etiology. The first action by the nurse should be to a. obtain the blood pressure. b. check the level of orientation. c. administer supplemental oxygen. d. obtain a 12-lead electrocardiogram.

c. administer supplemental oxygen. The initial actions of the nurse are focused on the ABCs—airway, breathing, and circulation—and administration of O2 should be done first. The other actions should be accomplished as rapidly as possible after providing O2.

When a brain-injured patient responds to nail bed pressure with internal rotation, adduction, and flexion of the arms, the nurse reports the response as a. flexion withdrawal. b. localization of pain. c. decorticate posturing. d. decerebrate posturing.

c. decorticate posturing. Internal rotation, adduction, and flexion of the arms in an unconscious patient is documented as decorticate posturing. Extension of the arms and legs is decerebrate posturing. Because the flexion is generalized, it does not indicate localization of pain or flexion withdrawal.

The earliest signs of increased ICP the nurse should assess for include a. Cushing's triad b. unexpected vomiting c. decreasing level of consciousness (LOC) d. dilated pupil with sluggish response to light

c. decreasing level of consciousness (LOC) One of the most sensitive signs of increased intracranial pressure (ICP) is a decreasing LOC. A decrease in LOC will occur before changes in vital signs, ocular signs, and projectile vomiting occur

After receiving 2 L of normal saline, the central venous pressure for a patient who has septic shock is 10 mm Hg, but the blood pressure is still 82/40 mm Hg. The nurse will anticipate an order for a. furosemide b. nitroglycerin c. norepinephrine d. sodium nitroprusside

c. norepinephrine When fluid resuscitation is unsuccessful, vasopressor drugs are given to increase the systemic vascular resistance (SVR) and blood pressure and improve tissue perfusion. Furosemide would cause diuresis and further decrease the BP. Nitroglycerin would decrease the preload and further drop cardiac output and BP. Nitroprusside is an arterial vasodilator and would further decrease SVR.

To establish hemodynamic monitoring for a patient, the nurse zeroes the: a. cardiac output monitoring system to the level of the left ventricle. b. pressure monitoring system to the level of the catheter tip located in the patient. c. pressure monitoring system to the level of the atrium, identified as the phlebostatic axis. d. pressure monitoring system to the level of the atrium, identified as the midcavicular line.

c. pressure monitoring system to the level of the atrium, identified as the phlebostatic axis. Rationale: Referencing means positioning the transducer so that the zero reference point is at the level of the atria of the heart. The stopcock nearest the transducer is usually the zero reference for the transducer. To place this reference level with the atria, use an external landmark: the phlebostatic axis. The phlebostatic axis is the intersection between the fourth intercostal space at the sternum and the midpoint between the anterior and posterior aspects of the chest wall. Position the port of the stopcock nearest the transducer level with the phlebostatic axis.

After the diagnosis of disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC), what is the first priority of collaborative care? a. administer heparin. b. administer whole blood. c. treat the causative problem. d. administer fresh frozen plasma.

c. treat the causative problem.

After the emergency department nurse has received a status report on the following patients who have been admitted with head injuries, which patient should the nurse assess first? a. A 20-yr-old patient whose cranial x-ray shows a linear skull fracture b. A 50-yr-old patient who has an initial Glasgow Coma Scale score of 13 c. A 30-yr-old patient who lost consciousness for a few seconds after a fall d. A 40-yr-old patient whose right pupil is 10 mm and unresponsive to light

d. A 40-yr-old patient whose right pupil is 10 mm and unresponsive to light The dilated and nonresponsive pupil may indicate an intracerebral hemorrhage and increased intracranial pressure. The other patients are not at immediate risk for complications such as herniation.

Which nursing action is needed when preparing to assist with the insertion of a pulmonary artery catheter? a. Determine if the cardiac troponin level is elevated. b. Auscultate heart sounds before and during insertion. c. Place the patient on NPO status before the procedure. d. Attach cardiac monitoring leads before the procedure.

d. Attach cardiac monitoring leads before the procedure. Dysrhythmias can occur as the catheter is floated through the right atrium and ventricle, and it is important for the nurse to monitor for these during insertion. Pulmonary artery catheter insertion does not require anesthesia, and the patient will not need to be NPO. Changes in cardiac troponin or heart and breath sounds are not expected during pulmonary artery catheter insertion.

Which assessment information is most important for the nurse to obtain when evaluating whether treatment of a patient with anaphylactic shock has been effective? a. Heart rate c. Blood pressure b. Orientation d. Oxygen saturation

d. Oxygen saturation Because the airway edema that is associated with anaphylaxis can affect airway and breathing, the O2 saturation is the most critical assessment. Improvements in the other assessments will also be expected with effective treatment of anaphylactic shock.

When monitoring the effectiveness of treatment for a patient with a large anterior wall myocardial infarction, the most pertinent measurement for the nurse to obtain is a. central venous pressure (CVP). b. systemic vascular resistance (SVR). c. pulmonary vascular resistance (PVR). d. pulmonary artery wedge pressure (PAWP).

d. pulmonary artery wedge pressure (PAWP). PAWP reflects left ventricular end diastolic pressure (or left ventricular preload) and is a sensitive indicator of cardiac function. Because the patient is high risk for left ventricular failure, the PAWP must be monitored. An increase will indicate left ventricular failure. The other values would also provide useful information, but the most definitive measurement of changes in cardiac function is the PAWP.

Skull radiographs and a computed tomography (CT) scan provide evidence of a depressed parietal fracture with a subdural hematoma in a patient admitted to the emergency department following an automobile accident. In planning care for the patient, the nurse anticipates that a. the patient will receive life-support measures until the condition stabilizes b. immediate burr holes will be made to rapidly decompress the intracranial activity c. the patient will be treated conservatively with close monitoring for changes in neurologic condition d. the patient will be taken to surgery for a craniotomy for evacuation of blood and decompression of the cranium

d. the patient will be taken to surgery for a craniotomy for evacuation of blood and decompression of the cranium When there is a depressed fracture and fractures with loose fragments, a craniotomy is indicated to elevate the depressed bone and remove free fragments. A craniotomy is also indicated in cases of acute subdural and epidural hematomas to remove the blood and control the bleeding. Burr holes may be used in an extreme emergency for rapid decompression, but with a depressed fracture, surgery would be the treatment of choice

The emergency department (ED) nurse receives report that a seriously injured patient involved in a motor vehicle crash is being transported to the facility with an estimated arrival in 5 minutes. In preparation for the patient's arrival, the nurse will obtain a. a dopamine infusion. b. a hypothermia blanket. c. lactated Ringer's solution. d. two 16-gauge IV catheters.

d. two 16-gauge IV catheters. A patient with multiple trauma may require fluid resuscitation to prevent or treat hypovolemic shock, so the nurse will anticipate the need for 2 large-bore IV lines to administer normal saline. Lactated Ringer's solution should be used cautiously and will not be ordered until the patient has been assessed for possible liver abnormalities. Vasopressor infusion is not used as the initial therapy for hypovolemic shock. Patients in shock need to be kept warm not cool.

While assisting with the placement of a pulmonary artery (PA) catheter, the nurse notes that the catheter is correctly placed when the balloon is inflated and the monitor shows a a. typical PA pressure waveform. b. tracing of the systemic arterial pressure. c. tracing of the systemic vascular resistance. d. typical PA wedge pressure (PAWP) tracing.

d. typical PA wedge pressure (PAWP) tracing. The purpose of a PA line is to measure PAWP, so the catheter is floated through the pulmonary artery until the dilated balloon wedges in a distal branch of the pulmonary artery, and the PAWP readings are available. After insertion, the balloon is deflated and the PA waveform will be observed. Systemic arterial pressures are obtained using an arterial line, and the systemic vascular resistance is a calculated value, not a waveform.

The nurse suspects the presence of an arterial epidural hematoma in the patient who experiences a. failure to regain consciousness following a head injury b. a rapid deterioration of neurologic function within 24 to 48 hours following a head injury c. nonspecific, nonlocalizing progression of alteration in LOC occurring over weeks or months d. unconsciousness at the time of a head injury with a brief period of consciousness followed by a decrease in LOC

d. unconsciousness at the time of a head injury with a brief period of consciousness followed by a decrease in LOC An arterial epidural hematoma is the most acute neurologic emergency, and the typical symptoms include unconsciousness at the scene, with a brief lucid interval followed by a decrease in LOC. An acute subdural hematoma manifests signs within 48 hours of an injury; a chronic subdural hematoma develops over weeks or months