MCAT Review Questions

What would be the volume of a 2 L sample of neon if its pressure is changed from 1 atm to 40 atm under isothermal conditions?

0.05 L

What are the conditions for STP?

1 atm, 0°C (273 K)

Rank the following by decreasing boiling point: 1-pentanol, 1-hexanol, 1,6-hexanediol

1. 1,6-hexanediol 2. 1-hexanol 3. 1-pentanol

What occurs in each of the three phases of birth?

1. Cervix thins out and amniotic sac ruptures ("water breaking") 2. Strong uterine contractions result in birth of fetus 3. Placenta and umbilical cord are expelled (afterbirth)

What are the two mathematical relationships between image distance and object distance?

1/f = 1/o + 1/i m= -i/o

How many carbons are in a diterpene?

20 carbons Note: Terpene is C₁₀H₈

Name the compound

3-methyl-2-oxopentanoic acid

How will a charge that is placed at a point of zero electric potential move relative to a source charge?

A charge will move in a way to decrease potential energy. This does not mean there is no potential difference so the charge may move or not

What is enzyme specificity?

A given enzyme will only catalyze a given reaction of type of rxn

What are the four fat-soluble vitamins?

A, K, E, D

How is priority assigned under the Cahn-Ingold-Prelog priority rules?

Atomic #

What neural structure initiates the action potential?

Axon hillock

What is a collection of cell bodies in the CNS and in the PNS called?

CNS: Nucleus PNS: Ganglion

When the pH of the blood is high, which substance is likely to be excreted in larger quantities in the urine? A. Urea B. Ammonia C. Hydrogen ions D. Bicarbonate ions

D. Bicarbonate ions (Biology Chapter 10)

Which cells are considered granulocytes?

Eosinphil neutrophil basophil

True or False: A voltmeter and an ammeter should not be placed in the same circuit.

False

True or False: Sound waves are a prime example of transverse waves

False

What are the nonpolar amino acids? (7)

Glycine, Alanine, Valine, Leucine, Isoleucine, Methionine, Proline

What is the predominant cell type in the epidermis?

Keratinocytes

What would the meniscus of a liquid that experiences equal cohesive and adhesive forces look like?

No meniscus would form and the liquid surface is flat

Smooth Endoplasmic Reticulum (SER)

No ribosomes; used for lipid synthesis and detoxification of certain drugs +poisons, transports proteins from Rough ER to Golgi Apparatus

How are quinones generally produced?

Oxidation of phenol

Starting from entering the heart from the venae cavae, what are the four chambers through which blood passes in the heart? Which valve prevents backflow into each chamber?

Right atrium - Tricuspid (AV) valve Right ventricle - Pulmonary (semilumar) valve Left atrium - Bicuspid/Mitral (AV) valve Left ventricle - Aortic (semilumar) valve

What are some mechanisms the body uses to retain heat?

Shivering, piloerection, and vasoconstriction

How are the Michaelis-Menten and Lineweaver-Burk plots similar? How are they different?

Similarity: Both allow comparison between Km (substrate concentration when 1/2 enzymes's active sites are bound) and Vmax (maximum velocity since saturation point) Difference: The axes and type of graph differ. For Michaelis-Menten plot it is "[S] vs [v]" hyperbolic curve but the Lineweaver-Burk plot is "1/[S] vs 1/[v]" linear line.

Which components of membrane lipids contribute to their structural role in membranes? Which components contribute to function?

Structure: Fatty acid tail Function: head group; fatty acid saturation

What are some mechanisms the body uses to cool itself?

Sweating and vasodilation

Contrast temperature and heat

Temperature is the indirect measure of thermal contact of a system; looks at average KE; ↑ Temp= ↑thermal energy (enthalpy) Heat is thermal energy transferred btwn objects as a result of difference in their temps

Which hormones are key to sexual differentiation in a fetus with XY genotype? Describe the expected phenotype if receptors to these hormones are absent.

Testesterone If absent then zygote is female

What is the relationship between the entropy of a system and its surroundings for any thermodynamic process?

The entropy of a system & its surroundings will never decrease; will always remain constant or increase

Briefly describe the function of the "filter" used in selective attention

The filter in selective attention permits us to focus on one set of stimuli while scanning other stimuli in the background for important info

What is enzyme cooperatively?

The interaction between substrate subunits so if there is binding it will encourage translation from low affinity, tense late to high affinity, relaxed state. When there is less binding/unbinding (less substrate) there is translation from R to T state.

Define atomic mass

The mass determined by p+n; depends on isotopes

What is activation energy?

The minimum energy needed for reactant particles to collide and a reaction to occur; needed to reach transition state

What is triple point?

The temp and pressure on the graph at which all 3 phases coexist and at equilibrium

How does DNA polymerase recognize which strand is the template strand once the daughter strand is synthesized?

The template strand is highly methylated

How do transport kinetics differ from enzyme kinetics?

Transport kinetics display both Km and Vmax values and can be cooperative like binding proteins. However, transporters do not have Keq values for reactions because there is no catalysts.

True or False: In a circuit, the number of electrons entering a point and leaving that point are the same.

True

True or False: In size-exclusion chromatography, the largest molecule elute first

True

True or False: The units of electric potential energy and electric potential are different

True

When will an acid-base reaction proceed, based on the strength of the reactants and products?

When conjugate acid+base are weaker than reactant

Define pitot tube

a device measuring static pressure during flow to calculate speed

Determine the normality of the following solutions: a) 0.25M Phosphoric acid (H₃PO₄) b) 95 g Phosphate ion (PO₄³⁻) in 100 ml of solution

a) 0.25M Phosphoric acid (H₃PO₄): 0.75 N b) 95 g Phosphate ion (PO₄³⁻) in 100 ml of solution: 30 N

The process of melting NaCl requires a large amount of energy due to the strong attraction between ions. A researcher finds that 58 g of salt melts at 1060 K and requires a heat input of 30,000J. What is the change in entropy? a. 28 J/K b. 1,580 J/K c. 61,000 J/K d. Not enough info is provided

a. 28 J/K (General Chemistry Chapter 7)

Identify the following ions as cations or anions, and then provide the formula or chemical symbol a. Phosphate b. Hypochlorite c. Ammonium d. Phosphide e. Bicarbonate f. Nitrite g. Chromium (II)

a. Anion; PO₄³⁻ b. Anion; ClO⁻ c. Cation; NH₄⁺ d. Anion; P₃⁻ e. Anion; HCO3⁻ f. Anion; NO₂⁻ g. Cation; Cr²⁺

Briefly describe the clinical features of each type of aphasia listed below: a. Broca's aphasia b. Wernicke's aphasia c. Conduction aphasia

a. Broca's aphasia: difficulty producing language b. Wernicke's aphasia: fluent but words devoid of meaning, no language comprehension c. Conduction aphasia: difficulty repeating speech but intact speech production and comprehension

A disease results in the death of Schwann cells. Which portion of the nervous system is NOT likely to be affected? a. Central nervous system b. Somatic nervous system c. Autonomic nervous system d. Parasympathetic nervous system

a. Central nervous system (Biology Chapter 4)

Which part of the eye is responsible for gathering and focusing light? a. Cornea b. Pupil c. Iris d. Retina

a. Cornea (Behavioral Sciences Chapter 2)

Which region of the kidney has the lowest solute concentration under normal physiological circumstances? a. Cortex b. Outer medulla c. Inner medulla d. Renal pelvis

a. Cortex (Biology Chapter 10)

Label the following solutions as electrolytes or nonelectrolytes: assume all in aqueous solution a. HCl b. Sucrose c. MgBr₂ d. CH₄

a. Electrolyte b. Nonelectrolyte c. Electrolyte d. Nonelectrolyte

A chemical reaction has negative enthalpy and a negative entropy. Which of the following terms necessarily describes this reaction? a. Exothermic b. Enderthermic c. Exogonic d. Endergonic

a. Exothermic (General Chemistry Chapter 7)

Which of the following types of intelligence is NOT described by Gardner's theory of multiple intelligences? a. Fluid intelligence b. Bodily-kinesthetic intelligence c. Visual-spatial intelligence d. Linguistic intelligence

a. Fluid intelligence (Behavioral sciences chapter 4)

Which of the following sets of conditions would be LEAST likely to result in ideal gas behavior? a. High pressure and low temperature b. Low temperature and large volume c. High pressure and large volume d. Low pressure and high temperature

a. High pressure and low temperature (Gen Chem Chapter 8)

Which of these amino acids has a side chain that can become ionized in cells? a. Histidine b. Leucine c. Proline d. Threonine

a. Histidine (Biochem Ch 1)

Why does the equilibrium between keto and enol tautomers lie far to the keto side? I. The keto form is more thermodynamically stable II. The enol form is lower energy III. The enol form is more thermodynamically stable a. I only b. III only c. I and II only d. II and III only

a. I only (Ochem Chapter 7)

Which of the following is true of teaching an animal a complicated, multistage behavior? I. The individual parts of the behavior should not run counter to the animal's natural instincts II. The behaviors must be tied to a food reward of some kind III. Rewarding individual parts of the behavior on their own interferes with reinforcement of the entire behavior a. I only b. I and III only c. II and III d. I, II, and III

a. I only (Behavioral sciences chapter 3)

The concentrations of all reactants in a zero-order reaction are increased two-fold. What is the new rate of the reaction? a. It is unchanged b. It is decreased by a factor of 2 c. It is increased by a factor of 2 d. It cannot be determined from the information given

a. It is unchanged (Gen Chem Chapter 5)

Which of the following compounds has a formula weight between 74 and 75 grams per mole? a. KCl b. C₄H₁₀O c. MgCl₂ d. BF₃

a. KCl (Gen Chem Chapter 4)

Describe the three mechanism of bacterial genetic recombination: a. Transformation b. Conjugation c. Transduction

a. Transformation: integration of foreign genetic material from lysed (ruptured) bacteria into the host genome b. Conjugation: transfer of genetic material from one bacterium to another using conjugation bridge (pili); unilateral transfer from F+ to F- c. Transduction: transfer of genetic material from one bacterium to another by bacteriophage

At the venous end of a capillary bed, the osmotic pressure: a. is greater than the hydrostatic pressure b. results in a new outflow of fluid c. is significantly higher than the osmotic pressure at the arterial end d. causes proteins to enter the interstitium

a. is greater than the hydrostatic pressure (Biology Chapter 7)

Which of the following carboxylic acids will be the most acidic? a. CH3CHCLCH2COOH b. CH3CH2CCL2COOH c. CH3CH2CHCLCOOH d. CH3CH2CH2COOH

b. CH3CH2CCL2COOH (Ochem Chapter 8)

Which of the following best explains a student's ability to sit on the couch and watch reruns of a favorite TV show while studying for a chemistry exam? a. Selective attention b. Divided attention c. Shadowing d. Parallel processing

b. Divided attention (Behavioral sciences chapter 4)

Which of the following fine motor tasks would one expect to see first in an infant? a. grasping for objects with two fingers b. following objects with eyes c. scribbling with a crayon d. moving a toy from one hand to the other

b. following objects with eyes (Behavioral sciences Ch 1)

A chemistry student reacts butanone and butanal each with PCC and KMnO₄. What are the expected products of each reaction?

butanone: no rxn butanal: with KMnO₄ will form Butanoic acid, with PCC no rxn

Given the cycle shown, what is the total work done by the gas during the cycle? a. -10 J b. 0 J c. 7.5 J d. 17.5 J

c. 7.5 J (Physics and Math Chapter 3)

Cholesterol, shown below contains how many chiral centers? a. 5 b. 7 c. 8 d. 9

c. 8 (Ochem Chapter 2)

A disorder of the pineal gland would most likely result in which of the following disorders? a. High blood pressure b. Diabetes c. Insomnia d. Hyperthyroidism

c. Insomnia (Behavioral sciences Ch 1)

Compound A has a Ka (equilibrium constant of acid dissociation) of approximately 10^-4. Which of the following compounds is most likely to react with a solution of compound A? a. HNO3 b. NO2 c. NH3 d. N2O5

c. NH3 (General Chemistry Chapter 6)

When no force is being applied, the velocity must be:

constant velocity

The reduction of a carboxylic acid using lithium aluminum hydride will yield what final product? a. an aldehyde b. an ester c. a ketone d. An alcohol

d. An alcohol (Ochem Chapter 8)

Which of the following correctly ranks the compounds below by ascending boiling point? I. Acetone II. KCl III. Kr IV. Isopropyl alcohol a. I < II< IV< III b. III< IV< I< II c. II< IV< I< III d. III< I< IV< II

d. III< I< IV< II (General Chem Ch 3)

If two objects are traveling toward each other, how does the apparent frequency differ from the original frequency?

f'> f f'=f[(v+vd)/(v-vs)]

Define "myelin sheath"

fatty membrane made by oligodendrocytes, acts as insulator and around axon to speed signal conduction

Define laminar flow

flow that is parallel to each other; no backflow

Define turbulence

flow with backflow and swirls

What does Southern blotting accomplish for a researcher?

is useful when searching for a particular DNA sequence bc it separates DNA fragments by length and then probes for sequence of interest

What conditions favor formation of a kinetic product and thermodynamic product?

kinetic product: Low temp and low (less) free energy to reach transition state thermodynamic product: High temp and high (more) free energy to reach transition state

List the following carbon-containing compounds from most oxidized carbon to most reduced: methane, carbon dioxide, ketone, alcohol, and carboxylic acid

most oxidized: carbon dioxide carboxylic acid ketone alcohol most reduced: methane

What are the three common shapes of bacteria?

spherical: cocci rod-shaped: bacilli spiral-shaped: spirilli

What is critical point?

the temp and pressure on the graph above which liquid and gas are indistinguishable and heat of vaporization is zero

What functions are accomplished by the somatic nervous system?

voluntary actions, like moving muscles

What effect does the parasympathetic nervous system have on the digestive system?

↑ digestive system secretion, promote peristalsis

What are the effects of the sympathetic nervous system?

"Fight or flight", ↑heart rate, dilate pupil, inhibit bladder, activated by stress

What are the primary germ layers, and what organs are found from each?

- Ectoderm: (outermost) Epidermis, hair, nails, epithelia of nose, mouth, and anal canal; lens of eye, nervous system and inner ear; adrenal medulla - Mesoderm: (middle) musculoskeletal system, circulatory system, excretory system, gonads, muscular and connective tissue layer of digestive and respiratory system, adrenal cortex - Endoderm: (innermost) epithelial lining of digestive and respiratory tract, and parts of liver, pancreas, thyroid, bladder and distal urinary and reproductive tracts

What are the two reactive centers of carbonyl-containing compounds?

- α-hydrogens (acidic) - carbonyl carbon

What are the conditions for Standard conditions?

1 atm, 25°C, 1 M

What is the specific heat of liquid water (in calories)?

1 cal/g*K

What is the net charge of an object with one coulomb of electrons and 3 moles of neurons?

1 e⁻: - 1.6 ×10⁻¹⁹ C and neurons have no charge so it is just -1.6 ×10⁻¹⁹ C

If the newton is the product of kilograms and meters/second^2, what units comprise the pound?

1 lb= (slug *ft)/s^2

Referred equation: 4Na(s)+ 1 O₂(g)→2Na₂O(s) If 46 g Na and 32 g O₂ are provided, find the maximum number of moles of sodium oxide provided?

1 mole Na₂O

What is the density of argon gas at 4 atm and 127 °C?

5 g/L

If the temperature of a 6 L gas at constant pressure is changed from 27 °C to 127 °C, what would be its final volume?

8 L

What is the average speed of helium at -173 °C?

800 m/s

EEG waveform during REM sleep most resemble which of the following states of consciousness? A. Alertness B. Slow wave sleep C. Stage 1 sleep D. Mediation

A. Alertness (Behavioral sciences chapter 4)

Which type of conflict is associated with the LEAST amount of stress? A. Approach-approach conflict B. Avoidance-avoidance conflict C. Approach-avoidance conflict D. Avoidance-escape conflict

A. Approach-approach conflict (Behavioral Science Chapter 5)

After infection of a cell, a viral particle must transport itself to the nucleus in order to produce viral proteins. What is the likely genomic content of the virus? A. Double-stranded DNA B. Double-stranded RNA C. Positive-sense RNA D. Negative-sense RNA

A. Double-stranded DNA (Bio ch 1)

Seeking homeostasis to reduce an uncomfortable internal state is associated with which motivational theory? A. Drive reduction theory B. Instinct theory C. Arousal theory D. Incentive theory

A. Drive reduction theory (Behavioral Science Chapter 5)

People from cultures around the world can identify which of the following emotions? A. Happiness, sadness, and surprise B. Happiness, anger, and apathy C. Sadness, anticipation, and happiness D. Excitement, anger, and disgust

A. Happiness, sadness, and surprise (Behavioral Science Chapter 5)

The period for a certain wave is 34 ms. If there is a Doppler shift that doubles the perceived frequency, which of the following must be true? I. The detector is moving toward the source at a velocity equal to the speed of sound. II. The source is moving toward the detector at a velocity equal to half the speed of sound. III. The perceived period is 17 ms. IV. The perceived period is 68 ms. A. III only B. I and IV only C. II and III only D. I, II, and IV only

A. III only (Physics Chapter 7)

Which mRNA codon is the start codon and what amino acid does it code for?

AUG; Methionine

What are some functional groups that classically act as acids and bases?

Acids: alcohol, carboxylic acid, aldehyde Bases: Amines, amides

How does sensory adaptation affect a difference threshold?

Adaptation raises the difference threshold for sensory response as one becomes used to stimulus; therefore ↑ (larger) difference to evoke response

How do antibodies become specific for a given antigen?

B cells originally mature in the bone marrow and have some specificity at this point; however, antibodies that can respond to given antigen undergo hypermutation, or rapid mutation of their antigen binding sites. Only those B cells with the highest affinity for antigen survive and proliferate increasing the specificity for the antigen over time (called clonal selection).

When calculating the difference of vectors A and B (A-B), we invert B and put the tail of this new vector at the tip of A. What would be the effect of reversing this order (B-A)?

B-A and A-B have the same magnitude but different direction

If the speed of a wave is 3 m/s and its wavelength is 10 cm, what is its period? A. 0.01 s B. 0.03 s C. 0.1 s D. 0.3 s

B. 0.03 s (Physics Chapter 7)

If a defibrillator passes 15 A of current through a patient's body for 0.1 seconds, how much charge goes through the patient's skin? A. 0.15 C B. 1.5 C C. 15 C D. 150 C

B. 1.5 C (Physics Chapter 6)

In some forms of otosclerosis, the stapedial foot plate, which transmits vibrations from the bones of the middle ear to the fluid within the cochlea, can become fixed in position. This limits the displacement of the stapedial foot plate during vibration. Based on this mechanism, which of the following symptoms would most likely be seen in an individual with otosclerosis? A. An increase in the perceived volume of sounds B. A decrease in the perceived volume of sounds C. An increase in the perceived pitch of sounds D. A decrease in the perceived pitch of sounds

B. A decrease in the perceived volume of sounds (Physics Chapter 7)

Element X is radioactive and decays via α decay with a half-life of four days. If 12.5 percent of an original sample of element X remains after n days, what is the value of n? A. 4 B. 8 C. 12 D. 16

C. 12 (Physics Ch 9)

A child speaks in sentences of at least 3 words, but makes grammatical errors including misuse of the past tense. How old is this child likely to be? A. 14 months B. 22 months C. 30 months D. 5 years

C. 30 months (Behavioral sciences chapter 4)

A person proofreading a paper reads over a long, misspelled word in which an "e" is replaced with an "o." The person does not recognize the error and reads the word as correct. Which of the following could explain why the proofreader read the word as correct? A. Parallel processing B. Feature detection C. Top-down processing D. Bottom-up processing

C. Top-down processing (Behavioral Sciences Chapter 2)

Upon ovulation, the oocyte is released into the: A. fallopian tube B. follicle C. abdominal cavity D. uterus

C. abdominal cavity (Biology chapter 2)

When a sensory neuron receives a stimulus that brings it to threshold, it will do all of the following EXCEPT: A. become depolarized. B. transduce the stimulus to an action potential. C. inhibit the spread of the action potential to other sensory neurons. D. cause the release of neurotransmitters onto cells in the central nervous system.

C. inhibit the spread of the action potential to other sensory neurons. (Biology Chapter 4)

What is the chemical equation for the bicarbonate buffer system?

CO₂ (g) + H₂O (l)↔H₂CO₃ (aq)↔ H⁺ (aq) + HCO₃⁻ (aq)

What are some features of good leaving groups?

Can stabilize extra electrons from heterolysis, weak bases (conjugate bases of strong acids), accepts electrons, and resonance stabilization and inductive effects from electron withdrawing groups help delocalize and stabilize negative charge

Assuming the plates are attached by a conducting material, how does a capacitor behave after the voltage source has been removed from a circuit?

Capacitor discharges, providing a current in opposite direction of initial current

What are the two circulatory vessels in a villus and what does each absorb?

Capillaries (absorbs water soluble nutrients like monosaccharides, amino acid, short chain fatty acids, water soluble vitamins, plus water) Lacteals (absorbs fat soluble nutrients like fats, cholesterol, and fat soluble vitamins)

List at least one pancreatic enzyme that digests each of the three major classes of biomolecules

Carbohydrate: Pancreatic amylase Fats: Lipase Proteins: Trypsin

How does cholesterol play a role in the fluidity and stability of the plasma membrane?

Cholesterol moderates membrane fluidity by interfering with the crystal structure of the cell membrane and occupies space between phospholipid molecules at low temperatures, and by restricting excessive movement of phospholipids at high temperatures. Cholesterol also provides stability by cross linking adjacent phospholipid through interactions at the polar head group and hydrophobic interactions at the nearby fatty acid tails

Name this amino acid

Cysteine

In a protic solvent, which of the following halogens would be the best nucleophile? A. Br- B. Cl- C. F- D. I-

D. I- (Ochem Chapter 4)

Pure sodium metal spontaneously combusts upon contact with room temperature water. What is true about the equilibrium constant of this combustion reaction at 25°C? A. Keq < 0 B. 0 < Keq < 1 C. Keq = 1 D. Keq > 1

D. Keq > 1 (General Chemistry Chapter 7)

Some forms of pneumonia cause an excess of fluids such as mucus or pus to build up within an entire lobe of the lung. How will this affect the diffusion of gases within the affected area? A. Carbon dioxide can diffuse out, but oxygen will not be able to enter the blood. B. Oxygen can diffuse into the blood, but carbon dioxide cannot diffuse out. C. No change in diffusion will occur. D. No diffusion will occur in the affected area.

D. No diffusion will occur in the affected area. (Biology Chapter 6)

Imines naturally tautomerize to form: A. oximes B. hydrazones C. semicarbazones D. enamines

D. enamines (Ochem Chapter 6)

Substances A and B have the same freezing and boiling points. If solid samples of both substances are heated in the exact same way, substance A boils before substance B. Which of the following would NOT explain this phenomenon? A Substance B has a higher specific heat B. substance B has a higher heat of vaporization C. substance B has a higher heat of fusion D. substance B has a higher internal energy

D. substance B has a higher internal energy (Physics and Math Chapter 3)

How is sensory information integrated in bottom-up processing?

Data-driven; refers to object recognition by parallel processing & feature detection; brain takes individual sensory stimuli & combines together to create cohesive image before determining object

What does it mean for a device to provide mechanical advantage?

Decrease input force required to generate particular output force; ↑ distance

A person brings a parent, who is an older adult, to the doctor. During the past two days, the parent has been overheard speaking to a spouse who has been deceased for four years. Prior to that, the parent was completely normal. The parent most likely has:

Delirium

What does the threshold frequency depend on?

Depends of the identity of metal (chemical compositon)

What are the effects of increasing [S] on enzyme kinetics?

Depends on how much substrate is currently present; if [substrate] is low then it'll increase enzyme activity hence the kinetics but if [substrate] is already high after saturation point then increasing will not make a difference

What is the difference between determinate and indeterminate cleavage?

Determinate: Cell division; cells are committed to differentiating into certain cell types Indeterminate: cell division; cells can develop into organism; used for monozygotic twin

Which muscle(s) are used in inhalation?

Diaphragm + external intercostal muscles; muscles of neck and back

Which of the following might cause a person to eat more food during a meal: eating each course separately and moving to the next only when finished with the current course, or interrupting the main course several times by eating side dishes?

Eating each course before moving on will cause habituation so there will be less desire to eat. Therefore, interrupting main course by eating side dishes will help cause dishabituation and increase desire to eat.

Which periodic trend determines whether a covalent bond is polar or nonpolar?

Electronegativity

How do the initial length of an object and the amount it expands for a given temperature change relate to one another?

Expansion is a result of ↑ in dimension. If object is initially longer, it will experience a greater expansion. Direct relationship between length change and initial object length

True or False: Light waves are longitudinal because the direction of propagation is perpendicular to the direction of oscillation

False

True or False: Small changes in chemical structure only minimally impact light absorption and emission patterns

False

In your own words, provide a description of Newton's laws of motion:

First law: Object at rest stays at rest till force is acted on it; if net force= 0 then net velocity=0 Second law: Acceleration of an object depends on mass of object and amt of force applied; increase force= increases acceleration Third law: Every action has equal and opposite reaction

What are the four phases of the menstrual cycle?

Follicular Ovulation Luteal Menstruation

What are the features of each menstrual phase?

Follicular: egg develops, endometrial lining becomes vascularized and glandularized Ovulation: egg is released from follicle into peritoneal (abdomen) cavity Luteal: corpus luteum produces progesterone to maintain endometrium Menstruation: shedding of endometrial lining

What is the relative hormone concentrations of each menstrual phase?

Follicular: ↑FSH, =LH, ↓ then ↑ Estrogen, ↓Progesterone Ovulation: ↑FSH, ↑LH,↑ Estrogen, ↓Progesterone Luteal: ↓FSH, =LH, ↑ Estrogen, ↑Progesterone Menstruation: ↓FSH, ↓LH, ↓Estrogen,↓Progesterone

Why are proteins analyzed after isolation?

For protein structure, function and quantity

As the length of an inclined plane increases, what happens to the force required to move an object the same displacement?

Force decreases

What structures surround and protect the brain?

From most deep to superficial: meninges, bone, periosteum, and skin

What are the five histone proteins in eukaryotic cells? Which one is not part of the histone core around which DNA wraps to form chromatin?

H1, H2A, H2B, H3, and H4= histone proteins in eukaryotic cells H1 is not part of core that wraps DNA to form chromatin

What are the 7 universal emotions?

Happiness, Sadness, Contempt, Surprise, Fear, Disgust, and Anger

Why are proteins denatured by heat and solutes?

Heat: ↑ average kinetic energy; disrupts hydrophobic interactions Solutes: disrupts elements of 2°, 3°, and 4° structure like noncovalent bond and disulfide bond

What property of telomeres and centromeres allows them to stay tightly raveled, even when the rest of the DNA is uncondensed?

High content of C-G [this ↑ hydrogen bond]

What is the ideal temperature for most enzymes in the body? The ideal pH?

Ideal temperature: 37⁰C= 98.6⁰F= 310 K Ideal pH (most enzymes): 7.4 Ideal pH (gastric enzymes): 2 Ideal pH (pancreatic enzymes): 8.5

Which tautomer of aldehydes and ketones is thermodynamically favored: keto or enol?

Keto

On a reaction coordinate diagram, how would the kinetic pathway appear as compared to the thermodynamic pathway?

Kinetic pathways require a smaller gain in free energy to reach transition state. They also have a higher free energy of products, with a smaller difference in free energy between transition state and products

What is the sterochemistry of the chiral amino acids that appear in eukaryotic proteins?

L configuration All are S (counterclockwise) besides Cysteine

How do the lock and key theory and induced fit model differ?

Lock and key theory: active site of enzyme fits exactly around the substrate, no alterations to 3⁰ or 4⁰ structure, less accurate model Induced fit: active site of enzyme molds around the substrate only when substrate is present, 3⁰ or 4⁰ structure are modified for enzyme to function, more accurate model

What is the term for strengthening memory connections through increased neurotransmitter release and receptor density?

Long-term potentiation

Which cells are professional antigen-presenting cells?

Macrophage, dendritic cells in skin, some B cells, some epithelial cells

What does the following type of meter measure, where are they placed in circuits, and their ideal resistance? Ammeter

Measures: current Placed: in series with point of interest Ideal resistance: 0

What does the following type of meter measure, where are they placed in circuits, and their ideal resistance? Voltmeter

Measures: potential differences (voltage) Placed: parallel with circuit element of interest Ideal resistance: ∞

What does the following type of meter measure, where are they placed in circuits, and their ideal resistance? Ohmmeter

Measures: resistance Placed: two points in series with circuit element of interest Ideal resistance: 0

Which two hormones are most associated with maintaining circadian rhythms?

Melatonin and Cortisol

Which likely has a higher conductivity: 1 M glucose or 0.25 M NaCl? Why?

NaCl bc it is a salt that will ↑[ion]. Glucose does not dissolve so no impact on conductivity

What entity maintains the resting membrane potential? What is the approximate voltage of the resting membrane potential?

Na⁺/K⁺ ATPase; ~ -70 mV

List the structures in the olfactory pathway, from where odor molecules enter the nose to where olfactory signals project in the brain

Nostril → nasal cavity → olfactory chemoreceptors (olfactory nerves) on olfactory epithelium → olfactory bulb → olfactory tract → high order brain (including limbic system)

What are the three main structures in the mesolimbic reward pathway? What is this pathway's primary neurotransmitter?

Nucleus accumbens (NAc) Ventral tegmental area (VTA) Medial forebrain bundle (MFB) Neurotransmitter: Dopamine

How do the forces acting in free wall and projectile motion differ?

Only gravity is exerted considering no air resistance

What are the big five personality traits?

Openness Conscientiousness Extraversion Agreeableness Neuroticism

How does power relate to current, voltage, and resistance?

P= IV → P=I²R → P= V²/R

Define dynamic pressure

Pressure associated with flow; 1/2 pv²

What does it mean for a step in a mechanism to be the rate-determining step?

Slowest step of reaction. It determines the overall rate of the reaction because the reaction can only proceed as fast as the rate of this step

What is the term for removing weak neural connections?

Synaptic pruning

How must the nucleophile and leaving group be related in order substitution reaction to proceed?

The nucleophile must be a stronger base; more reactive than leaving group

True or false: Density is a scalar quantity

True

True or false: Incident angle is always measured with respect to the normal

True

True or false: Nuclear fission and nuclear fusion both release energy

True

True or False: Maxima in diffraction patterns are always equidistant between two minima

True (Max is equidistant btwn two min; Min is equidistant btwn two max)

Describe in words what is occurring in the following two-step mechanism: Step 1: A₂B+A₂B→A₄B₂ Step 2: A₄B₂→2A₂+B₂

Two molecules of A₂B come together in a combination reaction to form an intermediate (A₄B₂) which decomposes to produce the final products, two molecules of A₂ and one molecule of B₂

Which mRNA codons are the stop codons?

UAG, UAA, and UGA

In a hemiacetal, the central carbon is bonded to: a. -OH, -OR, -H, and -R b. -H, -OR, -OR, and -R c. -OH, -OR, -R, and -R d. -OR, -OR, -R, and -R

a. -OH, -OR, -H, and -R (Ochem Chapter 6)

For each phase of meiosis I listed below, what are the differences from the analogous phase of mitosis? a. Prophase I b. Metaphase I c. Anaphase I d. Telophase I

a. Prophase I: homologous chromosomes come together as tetrads during synapsis; crossing over b. Metaphase I: homologous chromosomes line up on opposite sides of metaphase plate, rather than individuals chromosomes lining up on the metaphase plate c. Anaphase I: homologous chromosomes separate from each other; centromeres do not break d. Telophase I: chromatin may or may not decondense; interkinesis occurs as the cell prepares for meiosis II

Describe each Gestalt principles: a. Proximity b. Similarity c. Good continuation d. Subjective contours e. Closure f. Prägnanz

a. Proximity: elements close to one another tend to be perceived as unit b. Similarity: objects that are similar tend to be grouped together; based on shape, color and size c. Good continuation: elements that appear to follow same pathway tend to be groups together d. Subjective contours: perceive contours & edges + shapes but no actual shapes or edges in stimulus e. Closure: when space is enclosed by contour, space tends to be perceives as complete figure; also refers to certain figures tend to be perceived as more complete (closed) f. Prägnanz: perceptual organization will always be regular, simple & symmetric as possible

Compare and contrast conservative forces: a. What will happen to total mechanical energy of the system b. Does the path taken matter c. What are some examples

a. Remains constant b. No c. Gravity, electrostatic force, elastic force

Which of the following sequences correctly shows the passage of blood through the vessels of the kidney? a. Renal artery → afferent arterioles → glomerulus → efferent arterioles → vasa recta → renal vein b. afferent arterioles → renal artery →glomerulus →vasa recta → renal vein → efferent arterioles c. glomerulus → renal artery →afferent arterioles → efferent arterioles → renal vein → vasa recta d. renal vein → efferent arterioles →glomerulus →afferent arterioles → vasa recta→ renal artery

a. Renal artery → afferent arterioles → glomerulus → efferent arterioles → vasa recta → renal vein (Biology Chapter 10)

Describe the key structural features of: a. alpha helix b. beta-pleated sheets

a. Rod-like where peptide chain coils clockwise around central axis b. Peptide chain lay alongside forming rows/strands held by hydrogen bonds between oxygen in carbonyl of one atom and hydrogen of amide in other atom

Define: a. Strong nuclear force b. Mass defect c. Binding energy

a. Strong nuclear force: provides the adhesive force between nucleons (protons and neutrons) within nucleus b. Mass defect: apparent loss of mass when nucleons come together, as some mass is converted to energy c. Binding energy: the amt of energy that is released when nucleons bind together

Mitochondrion

aka "power plant of the cell"; involved in ATP production and apoptosis

Order the following units from smallest to largest: centimeter, angstrom, inch, mile, foot

angstrom<cm<inch<foot<mile

What are some units for pressure?

atm (atmospheres), torr, mm Hg

Iodine deficiency may result in: a. galactorrhea b. cretinism c. gigantism d. hyperthyroidism

b. cretinism (Biology Chapter 5)

Omeprazole is a proton pump inhibitor commonly used in gastroesophageal reflux disease. When omeprazole, a racemic mixture, went off patent, pharmaceutical companies began to manufacture esomeprazole, the (S)- enantiomer of omeprazole, by itself. Given 1M solution of omeprazole and esomeprazole, which solution would likely exhibit optical activity? a. omeprazole only b. esomeprazole only c. Both omeprazole nor esomeprazole d. Neither omeprazole nor esomeprazole

b. esomeprazole only (Ochem Chapter 2)

According to Erickson's stages of psychosocial development, which of the following would be the most important for a recent college graduate to accomplish? a. Figuring out what identities are most important personally b. Feeling like a contributing member of society c. Forming an intimate relationship with a significant other d. Finding a feeling of accomplishment in life

c. Forming an intimate relationship with a significant other (Behavioral Science Chapter 6)

Which of the following best describes the number and character of the bonds in an ammonium cation? a. Three polar covalent bonds b. Four polar covalent, of which none are coordinate covalent bonds c. Four polar covalent, of which one is a coordinate covalent bond d. Four polar covalent, of which two are coordinate covalent bonds

c. Four polar covalent, of which one is a coordinate covalent bond (General Chem Ch 3)

A particular alpha-helix is known to cross the cell membrane. Which of the these amino acids is most likely to be found in the transmembrane portion of the helix? a. Glutamate b. Lysine c. Phenylalanine d. Aspartate

c. Phenylalanine *need to have a hydrophobic side chain* (Biochem Ch 1)

Which of the following is NOT cell-cell junction in animals? a. Desmosomes b. Gap junctions c. Plasmodesmata d. Tight junctions

c. Plasmodesmata (Biochem Chapter 8)

Which of the following is NOT a difference that would allow one to distinguish a prokaryotic and a eukaryotic cell? a. Ribosomal subunit weight b. Presence of a nucleus c. Presence of a membrane on the outside surface of the cell d. Presence of membrane-bound organelles

c. Presence of a membrane on the outside surface of the cell (Bio ch 1)

Rank the following in order of decreasing nucleophilicity in an aprotic solvent: RO⁻, RCOOH, ROH, and HO⁻ a. RCOOH > ROH> RO⁻ > HO⁻ b. HO⁻>ROH> RO⁻> RCOOH c. RO⁻> HO⁻>ROH>RCOOH d. RCOOH>RO⁻>HO⁻>ROH

c. RO⁻> HO⁻>ROH>RCOOH (Ochem Chapter 4)

The conversion of ubiquinone to ubiquinol requires what type of reactions? a. Condensation b. Oxidation c. Reduction d. Hydrolysis

c. Reduction (Ochem Chapter 5)

Arsenic mediated some of its toxic effects via the inhibition of acetyl-CoA formation and the inhibition of the enzyme succinic dehydrogenase to decrease ATP production. In addition to its metabolic effects, arsenic can also replace phosphorus in many reactions. Which of the following best explains the similarity between these two elements? a. Similar atomic numbers b. Similar number of electrons c. Similar valence electrons d. Similar atomic radius

c. Similar valence electons (General Chem Chapter 2)

Carboxylic acids can be reacted with one reagent (in addition to acid) to form all of the following compounds EXCEPT: a. esters b. amides c. alkenes d. alcohols

c. alkenes (Ochem Chapter 8)

For a compound to be aromatic, all of the following must be true EXCEPT: a. the molecule is cyclic b. the molecule contains 4n + 2 π electrons c. the molecule contains alternating single and double bonds d. the molecule is planar

c. the molecule contains alternating single and double bonds (Biochem Chapter 6)

Rough Endoplasmic Reticulum (RER)

contains ribosomes that allow translation of proteins

Nucleus

control center of the cell; contains all genetic material needed for cell replication

Which of the following statements regarding differences between DNA and RNA is FALSE? a. In cells, DNA is double-stranded, whereas RNA is single-stranded b. DNA uses the nitrogenous base thymine; RNA uses uracil c. The sugar in DNA is deoxyribose; the sugar in RNA is ribose d. DNA strands replicate in a 5' to 3' direction, whereas RNA synthesized in a 3' to 5' direction

d. DNA strands replicate in a 5' to 3' direction, whereas RNA synthesized in a 3' to 5' direction (Biochem Chapter 6)

The alpha-hydrogen of a carboxylic acid is: I. more acidic than the hydroxyl hydrogen II. less acidic than the hydroxyl hydrogen III. relatively acidic, as organic compounds go a. I only b. II only c. I and III only d. II and III only

d. II and III only (Ochem Chapter 8)

In a third-order reaction involving two reactants and two products, doubling the concentration of the first reactant causes the rate to increase by a factor of 2. What will happen to the rate of this reaction if the concentration of the second reactant is cut in half? a. It will increase by a factor of 2 b. It will increase by a factor of 4 c. It will decrease by a factor of 2 d. It will decrease by a factor of 4

d. It will decrease by a factor of 4 (Gen Chem Chapter 5)

Which of the following statements regarding prostaglandins is FALSE? a. prostaglandins regulate the synthesis of cAMP b. prostaglandins synthesis is inhibited by NSAIDs c. prostaglandins affect pain, inflammation, and smooth muscle function d. prostaglandins are endocrine hormones, like steroid hormones

d. prostaglandins are endocrine hormones, like steroid hormones (Biochem Chapter 5)

What is function of canal of Schlemm?

drains aqueous humor

What is function of cornea?

gather & focus on incoming light

What are the roles of id, ego, superego according to psychoanalytic perspective?

id: sum of basic urges to reproduce and survive ego: mediates anxieties caused by action of id and superego using defense mechanism superego: sense of perfectionism and idealism

What does PCR accomplish for a researcher?

increases the numbers of copies of DNA sequence and can be used for a sample containing very few copies of DNA sequence

How does the mass defect relate to the binding energy?

mass defect causes a decrease in mass as nuclear matter is transformed to energy; related through equation E=mc²

Define viscosity

measure of the resistance of a liquid to flow

What is the zeroth law of thermodynamics?

states the transitive property in thermal systems: If A = B and B = C, then A = C; no heat flow when at thermal equilibrium between two objects

What is the purpose of surfactant?

to ↓ surface tension preventing collapse

Which of the following statements about enzyme kinetics is FALSE? a. An increase in the substrate concentration (at constant enzyme concentration) leads to proportional increases in the rate of the reaction b. Most enzymes operating in the human body work best at a temperature of 37⁰C c. An enzyme-substrate complex can either form a product or dissociate back into the enzyme and substrate d. Maximal activity of many human enzymes occurs around pH 7.4

a. An increase in the substrate concentration (at constant enzyme concentration) leads to proportional increases in the rate of the reaction (Biochem Chapter 2)

The gaseous state of matter is characterized by which of the following properties? I. Gases are compressible II. Gases assume the volume of their containers III. Gas particles exist as diatomic molecules a. I only b. I and II only c. II and III only d. I, II, and III

b. I and II only (Gen Chem Chapter 8)

Classify the following elements as metal(M), nonmetals (NM) or metalloid (MO): a. Ag b. Pb c. O d. Si e. Li f. He g. As

a. Ag: M b. Pb: M c. O: NM d. Si: MO e. Li: M f. He: NM g. As:MO

While cleaning your house, you notice a large spider on the wall by your head and feel your heat rate jump up and your skin temperature grow warm. Which stage of stress response are you experiencing? a. Alarm b. Resistance c. Exhaustion d. Homeostasis

a. Alarm (Behavioral Science Chapter 5)

Which of the following elements, when paired together, would form ionic bonds? I. Mg II. Cl III. O IV. H a. II and IV b. I and II c. II and III d. III and IV

b. I and II (General Chem Ch 3)

What electrical phenomenon results from the application of the photoelectric effect?

The accumulation of moving e- creates a current during the photoelectric effect

In what ways are archaea similar to eukaryotes?

Start translation with methionine, contain similar RNA polymerases, and associate their DNA with histones; similar metabolic pathway

Each of the following theorists evaluates an individual and determines that the person has failed in completing one of the theorist's developmental stages. What would each say? 1. Freud 2. Erikson 3. Kohlberg

1. Freud: individual has become fixated in that stage and will display the personality traits for that fixation 2. Erikson: individual will still move through subsequent phases, but will be lacking the skills from that stage 3. Kohlberg: individual was incapable of reasoning at level of failure, and that individual would use reasoning from previous stages to solve moral dilemmas

List the structures in the visual pathway, from where light enters the cornea to the visual projection areas in the brain

Cornea → pupil → lens → vitreous → retina (rods and cones → bipolar cells → ganglion cells) → optic nerve → optic chiasm → optic tract → lateral geniculate nucleus (LGN) of thalamus → radiations through parietal and temporal lobes → visual cortex (occipital lobe)

Rank the major intermolecular forces from strongest to weakest.

Hydrogen bond > Dipole-dipole interaction> London dispersion

What would happen if an amphipathic molecule were placed in a nonpolar solvent rather than an aqueous solution?

Hydrophobic part would be exterior while hydrophilic part would be interior away from solvent

What is the purpose of a mesylate or tosylate?

Convert alcohol into a better LG, can be protecting group

Name the 6 simple machines

Inclined plane, Pulley, Wheel & axle, lever, wedge, screw

What are the traits described by Eyesenck's PEN theory and what does each describe?

P: psychoticism (measure of social deviance) E: extraversion (tolerance for social interaction) N: neuroticism (measure for emotional arousal during stressful situation)

In order to exhibit hydrogen bonding, what must be true of a given molecule?

Molecules needs to have a hydrogen bond to a very electronegative element like F, O or N.

How does a change in electric potential energy from -4 J to -7 J reflect on the stability of a system?

More negative so ↓ PE and ↑ stability

Provide an example of a genetic factor that appears to increase risk of Alzheimer's disease

Mutations and presenilin gene (chromosome 1 and 14) and Beta amyloid precursor protein gene (chromosome 21) increase risk of Alzheimer's disease

What are the requirements to have a nonzero electric force?

Need an external electric field acting on a charge moving any direction except parallel or antiparallel to external field

What are the requirements to have a nonzero electric field?

Need charge

What are some assumptions made by kinetic molecular theory?

Negligible volume of gas particles, no intermolecular forces, random motion, elastic collisions, and proportionality between absolute temp and energy

What parts of the nervous system are in the peripheral nervous system?

Nerve fibers (sensory, spinal, motor and cranial)

Categorize the following materials as either conductors or insulators: blood, hair, copper, glass, iron, sulfuric acid, distilled water

conductors: blood, copper, iron, sulfuric acid insulators: hair, glass, distilled water

What functions are accomplished by the autonomic nervous system?

involuntary action, like heartbeat, breathing, body temp and digestion

List the following membrane components in order from most plentiful to least plentiful: carbohydrates, lipids, proteins, nucleic acids

lipids > proteins > carbohydrates > nucleic acids

What do efferent neurons do?

motor info from brain (CNS) to body (periphery, effector)

Summarize quantum numbers: (symbol, name, describes, organizational level, and possible values)

n: Principal QN, size, shell, 1 to ∞ l: Azimuthal QN, shape, subshell, 0 to n-1 ml: Magnetic QN, orientation, orbital, -l to +l ms: Spin QN, spin, NA, ±½

What is the result when butanoic acid is reacted with sodium borohydride? With lithium aluminum hydride?

sodium borohydride: no rxn lithium aluminum hydride: 1-butanol

What effects do additional substituents have on the acidity of carboxylic acids?

EWG: ↑ acidity bc makes anion more stable EDG: ↓ acidity bc makes anion less stable

How do distance and charge relate to electrostatic force and electric field?

electrostatic force: directly related to charge and inversely related to distance electric field: not related to test charge and inversely related to distance

What are the effects of the parasympathetic nervous system?

"Rest and digest", ↓heart rate, constrict pupil, contract bladder, conserve energy

For each of the theories of language acquisition below, what is the primary motivation or trigger for language development? (1) Nativist (biological) (2) Learning (Behaviorist) (3) Social Interactionist

(1) Nativist (biological): innate ability to pick up language via language acquisition device (2) Learning (Behaviorist): operant conditions with reinforcement; reinforce sounds mostly heard (3) Social Interactionist: desire to communicate and act socially

Between a (CH3)2CHI and (F3)2CHI which one will be more favorable to Sn2?

(F3)2CHI; Sn2 is affected by steric hindrance and the LG is I; methyl is larger than F so the first structure has more steric hindrance causing Sn2 to be more hard therefore the second structure is more favorable

Consider the hypothetical reaction A <---> B+C For each of the following, determine if the amount of reactant A that has converted to product at equilibrium will be negligible compared to the starting concentration A a. Keq: 1.0 x10⁻¹²; initial [A]: 1 M b. Keq: 1.0x10⁻²; initial [A]: 0.1 M c. Keq: 1.0 X10⁻³ ;initial [A]: 0.001 M d. Keq: 1.0 X 10⁻¹⁵ ;initial [A]: 0.001 M

*If Keq is within 1-2 orders of magnitude of one or if [R] that goes to [P] is within 2 orders of magnitude of initial [R] this estimation is not valid* a. Yes b. No c. No d. Yes

For each of the sleep stages below, list its EEG waveforms and main features. - Awake - Stage 1 - Stage 2 - Stage 3 - Stage 4 - REM

- Awake: Beta and alpha wave; able to perceive, process, access information and express that info verbally - Stage 1: Theta wave; light sleep and dozing - Stage 2: Theta wave; sleep spindles and K complexes - Stage 3: Delta wave; slow-wave, declarative memory consolidation, sleep-wake disorders occur at this stage - Stage 4: Delta wave; slow-wave, declarative memory consolidation, sleep-wake disorders occur at this stage - REM: mostly Beta wave; appears awake physiologically, dreams, procedural memory consolidation, body is paralyzed

Describe the relationship between bond strength, bond length, and bond energy?

- Bond strength is defined by the electrostatic attraction between nuclei and electrons; multiple bonds (higher bond order) increases strength. - Bond length is a consequence of these attractions. The stronger bond the shorter bond is. - Bond energy is the minimum amount of energy needed to break a bond. The stronger the bond, the higher the bond energy

What are some of the key developmental features of each trimester of pregnancy?

- First Trimester: month 1-3; development of heart, eyes, gonads, liver and brain - Second Trimester: month 4-6; tremendous growth occurs, movement begins, face becomes human-like, toes + fingers elongate - Third Trimester: month 7-9; rapid growth, brain development continues, transfer of antibodies to fetus

What is the difference between ipsilateral and contralateral communication between the brain and the body?

- Ipsilateral: cerebral hemisphere communicates with the same side of the body - Contralateral: cerebral hemisphere communicates with opposite side of body

Based on the location in the periodic table, identify a few elements that likely possess the following properties: - Luster - Poor conductivity of heat and electricity - Good conductors but brittle

- Luster: Metals like Ti, V, Mg - Poor conductivity of heat and electricity: Nonmetals like N, O, I, Se - Good conductors but brittle: Metalloid like B, Si, Po

What is the difference between an oncogene and a tumor suppressor gene?

- Oncogene: promotes cell cycle, accumulation of mutations - Tumor Suppressor gene: encode proteins that inhibit cell cycle or participate in DNA repair processes

What are three main effects circulating antibodies can have on pathogens?

- can mark pathogens for destructions by phagocytic cells (opsonization) - cause agglutination of the pathogen into insoluble complexes that can be taken up by phagocytic cells - neutralize the pathogen by preventing it from invading tissues

A college student plays a prank on a roommate by popping a balloon behind the roommate's head after every time making popcorn. Before long, the smell of popcorn makes the roommate nervous. Which part of the story corresponds to each of the classical concepts below? - conditioned stimulus - unconditioned stimulus - conditioned response - unconditioned response

- conditioned stimulus: smell of popcorn - unconditioned stimulus: popping of balloon - conditioned response: being nervous to presence of popcorn - unconditioned response: fear towards balloon popping

For each Fischer projection manipulations listed below, is the stereochemistry retained or inverted? - switching a pair of substituents - switching two pairs of substituents - rotating the molecule 90 degrees - rotating the molecule 180 degrees

- switching a pair of substituents: inverted - switching two pairs of substituents: retained - rotating the molecule 90 degrees: inverted - rotating the molecule 180 degrees: retained

How does the transition state theory compare with the collision theory of chemical kinetics?

-Both theories require certain activation energy to be overcome in order for reaction to occur (therefore not all reactions will occur). - Transition state theory: focuses on forming a high-energy activated complex that can then proceed forward or backward, forming the products or reverting to reactants - Collision theory: focuses on the energy and orientation of reactants and considers each potential reaction to be "all-or-nothing" (either there is enough energy to form products or there is not)

In what ways is maintenance rehearsal different from elaborative rehearsal?

-Maintenance rehearsal is repetition of information to keep it within short-term memory for near immediate use. -Elaborative rehearsal is the association of information to other stored knowledge and it's a more effective way to move information from short-term to long-term memory

Of the four types of reversible inhibitors, which could potentially increase Km?

-Mixed inhibitors (only in inhibitor prefers to bind to enzyme over enzyme-substrate complex) -Competitive inhibitors (substrate concentration has to be higher to be more favorable to enzyme and reach point 1/2 active sites are bound by substrate)

Both smell and taste are sensitive to chemicals. What is different about the types of chemicals each one can sense?

-Smell is sensitive to volatile or aerosolized compounds - Taste is sensitive to dissolved compounds

What are the three types of potency? What lineages can a cell of each type differentiate into?

-Totipotent: any cell type, even embryo - Pluripotent: any cell type in embryo, primary germ layer - Multipotent: any cell type in particular lineage

When creating a DNA library, what are some of the advantages of genomic libraries? What about cDNA libraries?

-genomic libraries: includes all of the DNA in an organism's genome including non-coding regions; this might be useful for studying DNA in introns, centromeres and telomeres -cDNA libraries: includes only expressed genes from a given tissue but can be used to express recombinant proteins or to perform gene therapy

What is the key structural difference in the types of lesions corrected by nucleotide excision repair vs. those corrected by base excision repair?

-nucleotide excision repair: corrects large lesions that distort double helix -base excision repair: corrects small lesions that do not distort double helix

What are the three stages of general adaptation syndrome?

1. Alarm: activation of sympathetic nervous system, release of ACTH and cortisol, stimulation of adrenal medulla to secrete epinephrine and norepinephrine 2. Resistance: continuous release of hormones activates sympathetic nervous system 3. Exhaustion: can no longer maintain elevated sympathetic nervous system activity, more susceptible to illness and medical conditions, organ system deteriorate, death

What are the four fundamental tenets of the cell theory?

1. All living things are composed of cells 2. The cell is the basic functional unit of life 3. Cells arise only from preexisting cells 4. Cells cary genetic information in the form of deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA); it is passed from parent to daughter cell

Rank the following elements by decreasing first ionization energy: Ca, C, Ge, K

1. C 2. Ge 3. Ca 4. K

What are the three main classes of cell adhesion molecules? What types of adhesion does each class form?

1. Cadherin (Two cells of the same or simular type using calcium) 2. Integrin (One cell to protein in extracellular matrix) 3. Selectin (One cell to carbohydrate, usually on the surface of other cells)

Which two hormones are primarily involved in calcium homeostasis? Where does each come from, and what effect does it have on blood calcium concentrations?

1. Calcitonin from parafollicular (C)-cells of thyroid decrease blood [Ca²⁺] 2. Parathyroid hormone (PTH) from follicular cells of parathyroid increase blood [Ca²⁺]

During a test crash, a 500 kg car is driven at a constant velocity of 50 mph until it hits a wall without braking. Apply all three of Newton's laws to this situation.

1. Constant velocity meant no acceleration or net force 2. Collision with wall created deceleration. Since there is a change in acceleration there is change in net force 3. When car collides with wall it exerts force. Likewise, wall exerts equal magnitude but opposite direction force on car

What are the three major structural differences between DNA and RNA?

1. DNA= deoxyribose vs RNA= ribose 2. DNA has Thymine (T) vs RNA has Uracil (U) 3. DNA is double stranded vs RNA is single stranded

What are the three classes of membrane proteins? How are they each most likely to function?

1. Embedded membrane protein; mostly a catalytic activity linked to nearby enzymes 2. Transmembrane proteins; mostly serve as channels or receptors 3. Peripheral proteins; mostly involved in signaling or are recognition molecules on extracellular surface

The three steps in the information processing model are:

1. Encoding 2. Storage 3. Retrieval

What are the three main methods by which a neurotransmitter's action can be stopped?

1. Enzyme degradation 2. NT reuptake 3. NT diffusion

What are the three processes by which solute are exchanged between the filtrate and the blood? What happens in each?

1. Filtration: movement of solutes from blood into filtrate at Bowman's capsule 2. Secretion: movement of solutes from blood into filtrate anywhere besides Bowman's capsule 3. reabsorption: movement of solutes from filtrate into blood

List at least five common state functions

1. Gibbs free energy (G) 2. Internal energy (U) 3. Pressure (P) 4. Volume (V) 5. Temperature (T)

What are two main themes that dictate the stages of motor development in early childhood?

1. Gross and fine motor skills 2. From core to periphery

Match each sensory receptor to its function: 1. Hair Cell 2. Nociceptor 3. Olfactory Receptor 4. Osmoreceptor 5. Photoreceptor 6. Taste Receptor 7. Thermoreceptor A. Sense painful or bothersome physical stimuli. B. Sense changes in temperature. C. Sense electromagnetic radiation in the visible range. D. Sense changes in blood concentration. E. Sense volatile chemicals. F. Sense motion of fluid in the inner ear. G. Sense dissolved chemicals.

1. Hair Cell: f (Sense motion of fluid in the inner ear) 2. Nociceptor: a (sense painful or bothersome physical stimuli) 3. Olfactory Receptor: e (sense volatile chemicals) 4. Osmoreceptor: d (Sense changes in blood concentration) 5. Photoreceptor: c (Sense electromagnetic radiation in the visible range) 6. Taste Receptor: g (Sense dissolved chemicals) 7. Thermoreceptor: b (Sense changes in temperature)

Describe five characteristics of ionic compounds

1. High melting and boiling point 2. As liquid dissolve in water and other polar solvents 3. Atoms have ≥ ∆EN of 1.7 4. As solids form crystalline lattice 5. Electrons are transferred from one atom to other atom

List three elements that do not follow the octet rule and explain why:

1. Hydrogen (can have only 2 e⁻) 2. Phosphorus (can have only 10 e⁻) 3. Boron (can have 6 e⁻)

Which two pancreatic hormones are the major drivers of glucose homeostasis? Where does each come from, and what effect does each have on blood glucose concentrations?

1. Insulin from β cells; ↓ blood [glucose] 2. Glucagon from α cells; ↑ blood [glucose]

What are the three major posttranscriptional modifications that turn hnRNA into mature mRNA?

1. Intron/Exon splicing: Removal of introns and joining of exons 2. 5' cap: addition of 7-methylguanylate triphosphate to 5' of hnRNA 3. 3' Poly-A tail: addition of adenosine bases to 3' end to protect against degradation

What are the 6 steps for solving organic chemistry reactions?

1. Know nomenclature 2. Identify functional groups 3. Identify other reagents 4. Identify most reactive functional group(s) 5. Identify the first step of rxn 6. Consider stereoselectivity

List three factors that contribute to a person's ethnic identity. How are these factors different from those that determine national identity?

1. Language 2. Common ancestry 3. Cultural heritage National identity: depends on political borders and cultural identity of place of residence

What are the names and main functions of the 6 different classes of enzymes?

1. Ligase: addition or synthesis reactions, generally between large molecules; requires ATP 2. Isomerase: rearrangement of bonds within a compound 3. Lyase: cleavage or a single molecule into two products or synthesis of small organic molecules 4. Hydrolase: breaking of a compound into two molecules using the addition of water 5. Oxidoreductase: oxidation-reduction reactions (transferring electrons) 6. Transferase: movement of a functional group from one molecule to another *Mnemonic: LIL HOT*

What two main enzymes are found in saliva? What do these enzymes do?

1. Lipase (hydrolysis of lipids [fats]) 2. Salivary Amylase (hydrolysis of starch into smaller sugars)

What are the features of a manic epidosde?

3/7 symptoms present for at least 7 days; impair life; high serotonin and norepinephrine symptoms: distractibility, irresponsibility, grandiosity, flight of thoughts, activity, sleep, talkative

When an antibody binds to its antigen, what are the three possible outcomes of this interaction?

1. Neutralizing antigen (makes pathogen or toxin unable to exert its effect on body) 2. Opsonization (marking pathogen for destruction by other white blood cells) 3. Aggulatinating (clumping together antibody and antigen into large insoluble protein complex that is phagocytized and digested by macrophage)

Rank the following elements by decreasing electronegativity: Sb, Ne, O, TI

1. O 2. Sb 3.TI 4. Ne

A container with 4 moles of a gas at a pressure of 8 atm has a volume of 12 liters. What is its temperature? (Note: R=8.21 x 10^-2 L*atm/mol*K)

300 K

List the three modes in which information can be encoded, from strongest to weakest.

1. Semantic 2. Acoustic 3. Visual

List Piaget's four stages of cognitive development and the key features of each

1. Sensorimotor: Birth→ 2 years; focuses on manipulating the environment for physical needs, circular reactions, ends with object permanence 2. Preoperational: 2 years→7 years; focuses on symbolic thinking, egocentrism and centration 3. Concrete operational: 7 years→ 11 years; focuses on understanding conservation and the feeling of others, can manipulate concrete objects logically 4. Formal operational: 11 years→ onward; focuses on being able to think abstractly and problem solving

What are the four lobes of the cerebral cortex? Also, what is the function of each?

1. Temporal: Sound processing (auditory cortex), speech production (Wernicke's area), memory and emotion (limbic system) 2. Parietal: Sensation of touch, pressure, temperature, and pain (somatosensory cortex), spatial processing, orientation, and manipulation 3. Occipital: visual processing 4. Frontal: executive function, impulse control, long-term planning (prefrontal cortex), motor function (primary motor control), speech production (Brocas area)

If chymotrypsin cleaves at the carboxyl end of phenylalanine, tryptophan, and tyrosine, how many oligopeptides would be formed in enzymatic cleavage of the following molecule with chymotrypsin? Val-Phe-Glu-Lys-Tyr-Phe-Trp-Ile-Met-Tyr-Gly-Ala

1. Val-Phe-; 2. Glu-Lys-Tyr-; 3. Phe-Trp-Ile-Met-Tyr-;4. Gly-Ala 4 oligopeptides; a single a.a. on its own is not considered an oligopeptide

What are the names and functions of the four-soluble vitamins?

1. Vitamin A (Carotene): As retinal for vision; As retinoic acid for epithelial development 2. Vitamin D (Cholecalciferol): As calcitriol for calcium and phosphate regulation; ↑ bone production 3. Vitamin E (Tocopherol): Antioxidants using aromatic ring 4. Vitamin K (Phylloquinone and Menaquinones): Posttranslational modification of prothrombin, addition of Ca binding on proteins

Rank the following elements by increasing atomic radius: Nb, Pr, Ta, Xe

1. Xe 2. Nb 3. Ta 4. Pr

What are the roles of the three main types of RNA?

1.mRNA: carries information from DNA (where it is transcribed) and nucleus to cytoplasm (where it is translated) 2. rRNA: forms much of structural and catalytic component of ribosome; Acts like a ribozyme to create peptide bonds between amino acids 3. tRNA: translates nucleic acid to amino acid by pairing its anticodon with mRNA; it is activated/charged with an amino acid which can be added to growing polypeptide chain

What is one method for forming an aldehyde?

1° alcohol oxidized with PCC

If the pressure of a sample of gas with a temperature of 227 °C is changed from 5atm to 2atm during cooling, what would be the final temperature?

200 K

If neon travels at 400 m/s at a given temp, calculate the average speed of krypton at same temp.

200 m/s

What are standard conditions? When are standard conditions used for calculations?

25°C used for kinetics, equilibrium and thermodynamics

What are the boundaries of the visible spectrum? How does the range of the visible spectrum compare to the range of the full electromagnetic spectrum?

400 nm to 700 nm; the full electromagnetic spectrum is from 10⁹ to 10⁻¹⁶ m

Balance the chemical equation: Na(s)+O₂(g)→Na₂O(s)

4Na(s)+1 O₂(g)→2Na₂O(s)

What are the features of a major depressive episode?

5/9 symptoms present for at least 2 weeks; impair daily life; low serotonin, dopamine and norepinephrine symptoms: Sadness, sleep, interest, guilt, energy, concentration, appetite, psychomotor, and suicidal thoughts

A 20 L sample at 300 °C and 5 atm of pressure contains 2 moles of a gas. If an additional 3 moles of gas at the same pressure and temperature are added, what is the final total volume of the gas?

50 L

What are the roles of each site in the ribosome?

A site: binds incoming aminoacyl tRNA using codon anticodon pairing P site: holds growing polypeptide until peptidyl transferase forms peptide bond and polypeptide is handed to A site E site: transiently holds uncharged tRNA as it exits the ribosome

Two wooden balls of equal volume but different density are held beneath the surface of a container of water. Ball A has a density of 0.5 g/cm^3, and ball B has a density of 0.7 g/cm^3. When the balls are released, they will accelerate upward to the surface. What is the relationship between the acceleration of ball A and that of ball B? A. Ball A has the greater acceleration. B. Ball B has the greater acceleration. C. Balls A and B have the same acceleration. D. It cannot be determined from information given.

A. Ball A has the greater acceleration. (Physics Chapter 4)

Researchers repeatedly startle a participant with a loud buzzer. After some time, the participant stops being startled by the buzzer. If the researchers interrupt the study with the sound of pans banging together, which of the following would likely be observed? A. Increased startle response to the buzzer B. Decreased startle response to the buzzer C. No change in the response to the buzzer D. Generalization to previously nonaversive stimuli

A. Increased startle response to the buzzer (Behavioral sciences chapter 3)

Under normal physiological circumstances, the primary function of the nephron is to create urine that is: A. hypertonic to the blood. B. hypotonic to the blood. C. isotonic to the filtrate. D. hypotonic to the vasa recta.

A. hypertonic to the blood. (Biology Chapter 10)

Some studies suggest that in patients with Alzheimer's disease, there is a defect in the way the spindle apparatus attaches to the kinetochore fibers. At which stage of mitotic division would one first expect to be able to visualize this problem? A. Prophase B. Metaphase C. Anaphase D. Telophase

A. Prophase (Biology chapter 2)

Stockholm Syndrome is a phenomenon in which a victim of a kidnapping or hostage situation may begin to identify with or even feel affection for his or her captors. A psychoanalyst might explain Stockholm Syndrome by citing which of the following defense mechanisms? A. Reaction formation B. Regression C. Projection D. Displacement

A. Reaction formation (Behavioral Science Chapter 6)

If the amount of acetylcholinesterase, an enzyme that breaks down acetylcholine, is increased, which of the following would likely be the result? A. Weakness of muscle movements B. Excessive pain or discomfort C. Mood swings and mood instability D. Auditory and visual hallucinations

A. Weakness of muscle movements (Behavioral sciences Ch 1)

The ability to sense stimuli against one's own skin is known as: A. somatosensation B. kinesthetic sense C. vestibular sense D. chemoreception

A. somatosensation (Behavioral Sciences Chapter 2)

How does adding or removing a resistor change the total resistance of a circuit with resistors in parallel?

Add resistor= ↓R Remove resistor= ↑ R

How does adding or removing a capacitor change the total capacitance of a circuit with capacitance in parallel?

Adding capacitor= ↑ capacitance Removing capacitor= ↓ capacitance

How does adding or removing a capacitor change the total capacitance of a circuit with capacitance in series?

Adding capacitor= ↓ capacitance Removing capacitor= ↑ capacitance

Which endocrine tissue synthesizes catecholamines? What are the two main catecholamines it produces?

Adrenal medulla Epinephrine and Norepinephrine

List the structure in the respiratory pathway, from where air enters the nares to the alveoli

Air→ Nares→ nasal cavity→ pharynx→ larynx→ trachea→bronchi→bronchioles→alveoli

In a molecule with two double bonds adjacent to each other and an alcohol, which functional group would take precedence in naming?

Alchohol

Which three drugs (or drug classes) are known to increase GABA activity in the brain?

Alcohol Barbiturates Benzodiazepines

Given an alkane, an aldehyde, and an alcohol with equal-length carbon chains, which will have the highest boiling point? Why?

Alcohol bc it can hydrogen bone which will ↑ boiling point most

For a molecule with a double bond, an aldehyde, and an alcohol, which functional group would determine the suffix when naming?

Aldehyde (Aldehyde>Ketone> Alcohol> Alkene)

When an aldehyde or ketone is reacted with one equivalent of an alcohol, what occurs?

Aldehyde + 1 eq alcohol yields Hemiacetal Ketone + 1 eq alcohol yields Hemiketal

When an aldehyde or ketone is reacted with two equivalents of an alcohol, what occurs?

Aldehyde + 2 eqs alcohol yields Acetal Ketone + 2 eqs alcohol yields Ketal

What is the name for a five carbon sugar with an aldehyde group?

Aldopentose

A doctor uses a flowchart to treat a patient with sepsis. Given its use in problem solving, a flowchart is an example of a(n):

Algorithm

What is the difference between apoptosis and necrosis?

Apoptosis: programmed cell death; internal substances are not leaked Necrosis: sudden cell death due to injury; internal substances are leaked

What are the positively charged/basic amino acids? (3)

Arginine, Lysine, Histidine

What are chemical properties?

Aspects of compound that change chemical composition, dictated by functional group reactivity

What are physical properties? Give three examples of physical properties.

Aspects of compound that do not change chemical composition. Examples: Melting & Boiling point, Color, and Odor

Which two types of glial cells, if not properly functioning will make an individual most susceptible to a CNS infection?

Astrocytes and Microglia

What is the function of a telomere?

At the end of eukaryotic chromosome, contains repetitive sequence of C-G; helps protect chromosome from losing info due to shortening chromosome after DNA replication

Mendeleev's table was arranged by atomic weight, but the modern periodic table is arranged by:

Atomic #

What are the four types of cell-cell communication?

Autocrine Paracrine Juxtacrine Endocine

What are the base-pairing rules according to the Watson-Crick model?

A→T or A→U (these have 2 hydrogen bonds) G→C (these have 3 hydrogen bonds)

An anchor made of iron weighs 833 N on the deck of a ship. If the anchor is now suspended in seawater by a massless chain, what is the tension in the chain? (Note: The density of iron is 7800 kg/m^3 and the density of seawater is 1025 kg/m^3) A. 100 N B. 724 N C. 833 N D. 957 N

B. 724 N (Physics Chapter 4)

Splitting is a defense mechanism commonly seen with which personality disorder? A. Antisocial personality disorder B. Borderline personality disorder C. Histrionic personality disorder D. Narcissistic personality disorder

B. Borderline personality disorder (Behavioral Sciences Chapter 7)

A water tower operator is interested in increasing the pressure of a column of water that is applied to a piston. She hopes that increasing the pressure will increase the force being applied to the piston. The only way to increase the pressure is to alter the speed of the water as it flows through the pipe to the piston. How should the speed of the water be changed to increase the pressure and force? A. Increase the speed B. Decrease the speed C. Release water intermittently against the pipe D. The speed of water will not change pressure at the piston.

B. Decrease the speed (Physics Chapter 4)

Collagen consists of three helices with carbon backbones that are tightly wrapped around one another in a "triple helix." Which of these amino acids is most likely to be found in the highest concentration in collagen? A. Proline B. Glycine C. Threonine D. Cysteine

B. Glycine *To reduce steric hindrance need to use small a.a.* (Biochem Ch 1)

Ideal gases: I. have no volume II. have particles with no attractive forces between them III. have no mass A. I only B. II only C. I and II only D. I, II, and III

B. II only (Gen Chem Chapter 8)

Studies have indicated that premature babies are often deficient in lysozyme. What is a possible consequence of this deficiency? A. Respiratory distress and alveolar collapse shortly after birth B. Increased susceptibility to certain infections C. Inability to humidify air as it passes through the nasal cavity D. Slowing of the respiratory rate in response to acidemia

B. Increased susceptibility to certain infections (Biology Chapter 6)

Testing of a novel hormone indicates nuclear localization and a composition of carbon, hydrogen, and oxygen. Based on these findings, how would this hormone most likely be classified? A. Peptide hormone B. Steroid hormone C. Amino acid derivative D. Direct hormone

B. Steroid hormone (Biology Chapter 5)

How does the inner mitochondrial membrane differ from the outer mitochondrial membrane? A. The inner mitochondrial membrane is more permeable and lacks cholesterol. B. The inner mitochondrial membrane is less permeable and lacks cholesterol. C. The inner mitochondrial membrane is more permeable and has cholesterol. D. The inner mitochondrial membrane is less permeable and has cholesterol.

B. The inner mitochondrial membrane is less permeable and lacks cholesterol. (Biochem Chapter 8)

A child is practicing the first overtone on his flute. If the child's sibling covers one end of the flute for a brief second, how will the sound change, assuming that the new pitch represents the first overtone in the new setup? A. The pitch of the sound will go up. B. The pitch of the sound will go down. C. The pitch of the sound will not change. D. The change in the pitch depends on the starting pitch.

B. The pitch of the sound will go down. (Physics Chapter 7)

Sn1 reactions show first order kinetics because: A. The rate limiting step is the first step to occur in the reaction B. The rate limiting step involves only one molecule C. There is only one rate limiting step D. The reaction involves only one molecule

B. The rate limiting step involves only one molecule (Ochem Chapter 4)

Some enzymes require the presence of a nonprotein molecule to behave catalytically. An enzyme devoid of this molecule is called a(n): A. holoenzyme. B. apoenzyme. C. coenzyme. D. zymoenzyme.

B. apoenzyme. (Biochem Chapter 2)

Having struggled for years through an economic recession, a young professional begins to buy lottery tickets every Friday. "If I won the lottery," he reasons, "I'd finally have the life I've always wanted. All my stress would go away and I could live comfortably." His thoughts regarding winning the lottery are most representative of: A. a cardinal trait. B. fictional finalism. C. functional autonomy. D. unconditional positive regard.

B. fictional finalism. (Behavioral Science Chapter 6)

How does the organization of the cochlea indicate the pitch of an incoming sound?

Basilar membrane is tonotopically organized; high frequency sounds cause vibrations @ oval window while low frequency sounds @ apex of ear

Be(OH)₂ is provided when water reacts with BeO. Starting with 2.5 kg BeO in excess water and producing 1.1 kg Be(OH)₂, what is the percent yield of this reaction?

BeO+H₂O→Be(OH)₂ 25%

In terms of recall, why might it be a bad idea to study for the MCAT while listening to music?

Because the MCAT is taken in a quiet room, studying under similar conditions will aid recall due to context effects. Music might compete for attention, reducing ability to focus on relevant study material.

A patient in a mental health facility believes that the sky is pink. Despite several trips outside, the patient still declares the sky is pink. Which psychological principle does this represent?

Belief perseverance

What are the main components of bile?

Bile salts, pigments (esp bilirubin) and cholesterol

What is a positive control system?

Binding of a protein to DNA increases transcription, requires binding the operator side

What is a negative control system?

Binding of a protein to DNA stops transcription, requires binding the operator side

During which stage of development does implantation occur?

Blastula (Blastocyst) stage

What differences would be observed in a molecule containing a double bond compared to the same molecule containing only single bonds?

Bond length (shorter in double bond than single) Bond energy (higher in double bond than single) Molecular rigidity (higher in double bond than single)

What do cofactors and coenzymes do? How do they differ?

Both act as activators of enzymes. Cofactors to be inorganic molecules or metal ions (dietary minerals) while coenzymes are small organic molecules (vitamins). In both cases, the regulators induce a conformational change in the enzyme that promotes its activity. Tightly bound cofactors or coenzymes that are necessary for enzyme function are termed "prosthetic groups".

Compare and contrast structural (constitutional) vs stereoisomers?

Both are isomers so have same molecular formula. Structural (constitutional) have different connectivity. Stereoisomers have the same connectivity.

Magnetic resonance angiography (MRA) is a technique that can resolve defects like stenotic (narrowed) arteries. A contrast agent like gadolinium or manganese injected into the blood stream interacts with the strong magnetic fields of the MRI device to produce such images. Based on their orbital configurations, are those contrast agents paramagnetic or diamagnetic?

Both these molecules have unfilled valence e- shell with few paired e- so the agents are paramagnetic

How do the number of molecules in 18 g of H2O compare to the number of formula units in 58.5 g of NaCl?

Both values equal one mole of given substance

List the structures in the excretory pathway, from where filtrate enters the nephron to the excretion of urine from the body

Bowman's capsule → Proximal convoluted tubule → Descending limb of loop of Henle → Ascending limb of loop of Henle → Distal convoluted tubule → Collecting duct→Renal pelvis→ureter→ bladder → urethra

Given that the gases at the center of the sun have an average molar mass of 2.00 g/mol, compressed to a density of 1.20 g/cm^3 under 1.30 x 10^9 atm of pressure, what is the temperature at the center of the sun? A. 2.6 x 10^4 K B. 2.6 x 10^6 K C. 2.6 x 10^7 K D. 2.6 x 10^10 K

C. 2.6 x 10^7 K (Gen Chem Chapter 8)

A student is volunteering in a hospital with a stroke center. When asked what he believes is the prevalence of stroke among those greater than 65 years old, the student states that it is probably about 40% even though data analysis indicates that it is significantly lower. What accounts for this error? A. Deductive reasoning B. Representativeness heuristic C. Base rate fallacy D. Confirmation bias

C. Base rate fallacy (Behavioral sciences chapter 4)

Which theory of dreaming states that dreams and thoughts during wakeful periods use the same stream-of-consciousness system? A. Activation-synthesis theory B. Problem-solving theory C. Cognitive process theory D. Neurocognitive theory

C. Cognitive process theory (Behavioral sciences chapter 4)

Due to kidney disease, a person is losing albumin into the urine. What effect is this likely to have within the capillaries? A. Increased oncotic pressure B. Increased hydrostatic pressure C. Decreased oncotic pressure D. Decreased hydrostatic pressure

C. Decreased oncotic pressure (Biology Chapter 7)

Certain ovarian tumors called granulosa cell tumors are known to produce excessive levels of estrogen. A physician who diagnoses a granulosa cell tumor should look for a secondary cancer in which of the following parts of the reproductive tract? A. Fallopian tube B. Cervix C. Endometrium D. Vagina

C. Endometrium (Biology chapter 2)

A child has experienced nervous system damage and can no longer coordinate the movements to dribble a basketball, although she can walk. Which region of the central nervous system was most likely affected? A. Forebrain B. Midbrain C. Hindbrain D. Spinal Cord

C. Hindbrain (Behavioral sciences Ch 1)

Researchers discover that polymorphisms in the DRD2 gene can be associated with thrill-seeking behavior, and that individuals with certain forms of the gene are more likely to become extreme athletes and have more dangerous hobbies. Which of the following theories is supported by this discovery? I. The social cognitive perspective II. The behavioral perspective III. The biological perspective A. I only B. III only C. I and III only D. II and III only

C. I and III only (Behavioral Science Chapter 6)

Hormones are found in the body in very low concentrations, but tend to have a strong effect. What type of receptor are hormones most likely to act on? I. Ligand-gated ion channels II. Enzyme-linked receptors III. G protein-coupled receptors A. I only B. III only C. II and III only D. I, II, and III

C. II and III only (Biochem Chapter 3)

Lymphoma is cancer of the cells of the lymphoid lineage. These cells often reside within lymph nodes. What type of cell is NOT likely to cause a lymphoma? A. CD8+ T-cells B. B-cells C. Macrophages D. Th1 cells

C. Macrophages (Biology Chapter 8)

Metals are often used for making wires that conduct electricity. Which of the following properties of metals explains why? A. Metals are malleable B. Metals have low electronegativities C. Metals have valence electrons that can move freely D. Metals have high melting points

C. Metals have valence electrons that can move freely (General Chem Chapter 2)

A cell releases a substance that diffuses through the environment, resulting in differentiation of a nearby cell. This is an example of what type of cell-cell communication? A. Autocrine B. Juxtacrine C. Paracrine D. Endocrine

C. Paracrine (Biology Chapter 3)

Upon which part of the eye are images projected and transduced into electrical signals? A. Cornea B. Pupil C. Retina D. Lens

C. Retina (Behavioral Sciences Chapter 2)

What are some characteristics of good reducing agents? List some examples

Characteristics: Low ionization energy, low electronegativity, have H⁻ ion Examples: Na, Mg, Al, Zn, NaH, CaH₂, LiAlH₄

What is the difference between mechanical and chemical digestion?

Chemical digestion: involves hydrolysis of bonds and breakdown of food into smaller biomolecules Mechanical digestion: like chewing, physically breaks down food into smaller pieces

Based on opponent-process theory, what clinical features would be expected with withdrawal from cocaine use?

Cocaine is a stimulant, causing euphoria, restlessness, increase heart rate, increased temperature, and anxiety. According to the theory, cocaine withdrawal should be the opposite: depressed mood, fatigue, decrease heart rate, decrease temperature, and apathy

Contrast cohesion and adhesion.

Cohesion: attractive force between molecules of same substance; intermolecular force; like molecules attract Adhesion: attractive force between molecules of liquid and another substance; intermolecular force; different molecules attract

What property or properties do structural isomers have in common?

Molecular formula, #carbons, #hydrogen, # atoms, molecular weight

When nitrogen or nitrogen-containing derivatives react with aldehydes and ketones, what type of reaction happens, and what function group is formed?

Condensation rxn and nucleophilic substitution rxn; for amine (nitrogen group) imine forms for ammonia derivatives oxime, hydrazone, and semicarbazone forms

What chemical properties of ubiquinone allow it to carry out its biological functions?

Conjugated rings that stabilize molecule when accepting e⁻; long alkyl chains allow to be lipid soluble and an e⁻ carrier

What wave phenomenon do diffraction fringes result from?

Constructive and deconstrutive interference between light rays

Which cell type(s) in blood contain nuclei and which do not?

Contain nuclei: Leukocytes Do not contain nuclei: platelets and RBC

What is a meso compound?

Contains chiral center but has internal plane of symmetry, achiral does not rotate plane-polarized light, not optically active

What factors would cause an activity assay to display lower activity than expected after concentration determination?

Contamination of the sample with detergent or SDS could yield an artificially increased protein level, leading to lower activity than expected. Also the enzyme could be denatured during isolation and analysis

Under what conditions could the continuity equation be applied to human circulation?

Continuity equation cannot be applied to human circulation. Instead use Poiseuille's law should be used

How do the following concepts relate to one another: Venturi effect, Bernoulli's equation, and continuity equation? What relationship does each describe?

Continuity equation describes the relationship of flow and cross sectional area in a tube while Bernoulli's equation described the relationship between height, pressure and flow. The Venturi effect is the direct relationship between cross sectional area and pressure, and results from the combined relationships of Bernoulli and continuity equations

How do cytoskeletal proteins differ from motor proteins?

Cytoskeletal proteins tend to be fibrous with repeating domains, while motor proteins tend to have ATPase activity and binding heads. Both types of proteins function in cellular motility.

Define "soma"

cell body; contains nucleus, ER, and ribosomes; gathers info from dendrites

An electron returns from an excited dtate to its ground state, emitting a photon at Y = 500 nm. What would be the magnitude of the energy change if one mole of these photons were emitted? (note; h-6.626x10^-34 J x s) A. 3.98 x 10^21 J B. 3.98 x 10^19 J C. 2.39 x 10^3 J D. 2.39 x 10^5 J

D. 2.39 x 10^5 J (E= hc/lambda) (Gen chem Ch1)

A cancer cell is removed from a patient and cultured. The cells in this culture seem to be able to divide indefinitely with no cellular senescence. Which protein is likely activated in these cells that accounts for this characteristic? A. Epidermal growth factor B. Sonic hedgehog C. Transforming growth factor beta D. Telomerase

D. Telomerase (Biology Chapter 3)

Upon encountering an antigen, only T-cells with a specific T-cell receptor are activated. This is an example of: A. innate immunity B. a cytotoxic T-cell response C. humoral immunity D. clonal selection

D. clonal selection (Biology Chapter 8)

As a gender identity, androgyny is defined as: A. low femininity, low masculinity B. high femininity, low masculinity C. low femininity, high masculinity D. high femininity, high masculinity

D. high femininity, high masculinity (Behavioral Science Chapter 6)

During DNA sequencing, why does the DNA polymer stop growing once a dideoxyribonucleotide is added?

Dideoxyribonucleotide lack the 3' OH group that is required for DNA strand elongation. So once it is added to a growing DNA molecule no more nucleotides can be added

What is the difference between sphingolipid that is also a phospholipid and one that is NOT?

Difference: bond btwn sphingosine backbone and head group If has phosphodiester then phospholipid otherwise has glycosidic linkage and is a glycerol

What is the behavior of an electric dipole when exposed to an external electric field?

Dipole will rotate within an external electric field to align dipole moment with electric field

When calculating frictional forces, how is directionality assigned?

Direction of frictional force always opposes movement

How is the dominant hemisphere typically defined?

Dominant hemisphere is typically defined by the one that is heavily stimulated during language reception and production

What causes the relatively high acidity of carboxylic acids?

Due to EWG (oxygen) in functional group, and the high stability of carboxylate anion, which is resonance stabilized by delocalization with two electronegative Oxygen atom

What are the three sections of small intestine?

Duodenum, Jejunum, and Ileum

Explain the relationship between carbonyl carbon, anomeric carbon, and the alpha and beta forms of a sugar molecule

During hemiacetal or hemiketal formation, the carbonyl carbon becomes chiral and is termed anomeric carbon. The orientation of the -OH substituent on that carbon determines if sugar is alpha or beta anomer.

The valence electron in a lithium atom jumps from energy levels n=2 to n=4. What is the energy of this transition in joules? in eV? (Note: RH= 2.8x10^-18 J/e-= 13.6eV/e-)

E= Rh[1/ni^2-1/nf^2] 3.75 x 10^-19 J 2.6 eV

Calculate the energy of a photon of a wavelength 662 nm. (Note: h= 6.626 x 10^-34 J*s and 1 nm=10^-9 m)

E= hc/lambda 3 x10^-19 J

If an electron emits 3 eV of energy, what is the corresponding wavelength of the emitted photon? (Note: 1 eV= 1.6 x 10^-19 J, h=6.626 x 10^-34 J*s)

E= hc/lambda 4.14x 10^-7 m

As the effort decreases in a pulley system, what happens to the effort distance to maintain the same work output?

Effort distance increases

What is the difference between electric potential and voltage?

Electric potential is the ratio of a charge's electrical potential energy to the magnitude of the charge itself. Voltage, aka potential difference, is a measure of the charge in electric potential between two points which provides indication of the tendency toward movement in one direction or the other

Compare the relationship between electric potential energy and Coulomb's law to the relationship between gravitational potential energy and the universal law of gravitation

Electrical potential energy is Coulomb's law multiplied by distance. Gravitational potential energy is universal law of gravitation multiplied by distance

Why is the electrical potential at points along the perpendicular bisector of a dipole zero?

Electrical potential of dipole is found using V=(kqd)/r²cosθ and at this point θ=90° and cos(90°)=0

Is the carbon of a carbonyl electrophilic or nucleophilic? Why?

Electrophilic since it is partially positively charged (δ⁺) since oxygen is highly e⁻ withdrawing

Which hormone and neurotransmitter concentrations are elevated in depression? Which ones are reduced?

Elevated: Cortisol Reduced: Dopamine, NE, and Serotonin

The accessory organs of digestion originate from which primary germ layer?

Embryonic endoderm

What is the primary thermodynamic factor responsible for passive transport?

Entropy (∆S)

Describe entropy in terms of energy dispersal and disorder

Entropy increases as system has more disorder or freedom of movement, and energy is dispersed in a spontaneous system. Entropy of the universe cannot decrease spontaneously

In what ways do enzymes affect the thermodynamics vs the kinetics of a reaction?

Enzymes do not affect thermodynamics of reaction but by lowering activation energy they lower kinetics (rate)

How does gauge pressure relate to the pressure exerted by a column of fluid?

Equals the pressure exerted by a column of fluid + ambient pressure above fluid; when atmospheric pressure is the only one above fluid; Pgauge=fluid pressure

What bonds are broken during saponification?

Ester bonds of triglycerides are broken to glycerol + salt fatty acids (soap)

How do the structures of eukaryotic and prokaryotic flagella differ?

Eukaryote: 9+2; 9 pairs of microtubules with 2 microtubule in center Prokaryote: filament, basal body and hook

True or False: The sum of the voltage sources in a circuit is equal to the sum of the voltage drops in that circuit

False

True or False: To determine the volume of an object by fluid displacement it must have a specific gravity greater than 1.

False

True or False: Motor proteins are not enzymes.

False. They are considered non-enzymatic but still have catalytic activity like enzymes

True or False: If C=A x B, where A is directed toward the right side of the page and B is directed to the top of the page, then C is directed midway between A and B at a 45 degree angle

False; C is out of page

True or False: The Earth create a larger force on you than you create on the Earth

False; Person exerts equal magnitude but opposite direction on Earth

True or False. The Kelvin scale is the most accurate measurement method for temperature because it is based on absolute zero.

False; The Kelvin and Celsius scale is the same

True or False: The Edman degradation proceeds from the carboxy (C-) terminus

False; it proceeds from the Amino terminus

How do bile and pancreatic lipase work together to digest fats?

Fat digestion depends on both bile (mechanical digestion into micelles) and lipase (chemical digestion by hydrolyzing ester bond holding lipid together)

What is the equation for circular motion?

Fc = mv^2/r

Experimental data from the combustion of an unknown compound indicates that it is 28.5% iron, 24% sulfur, and 49.7% oxygen by mass. What is its empirical formula?

Fe₂S₃0₁₂

Given that [product] = 0.075 M and [reactant] = 1.5 M, determine the direction of the reaction and the sign of the free energy change for reactions with the following Keq values; a.5.0 x 10^-2 b. 5.0 x 10^-3 c. 5.0 x 10^-1

Find Q: [product]/[reactant] so 5x10⁻² a. Direction: Keq= 0 @ equilibrium, no net rxn;∆G= 0 b. Direction: Q> Keq towards reactant ;∆G= + c. Direction: Q < Keq towards products;∆G= -

Describe the process of neurulation

Furrow is produced from ectoderm overlying the notochord and consists of a neural groove and two neural folds. As the neural fold grows, the cells at their leading edge are called neural crusts cells. When the neural folds fuse, this creates a neural tube that forms CNS.

A child plays with a tool set, noting that a nail can only be hit with a hammer. When a friend suggests that the handle of a screwdriver can be used to hit a nail, the child passionately objects. This is an example of:

Functional fixedness

What functional group is formed when an aldehyde and ketones are reduced? What are some common reducing agents that assist this reaction?

Functional group: Alcohol Oxidizing agent: LiAlH₄ and NaBH₄

What functional group is formed when an aldehyde is oxidized? What are some common oxidizing agents that assist this reaction?

Functional group: Carboxylic acid Oxidizing agent: KMnO₄, H₂O₂, Ag₂O, and CrO₃

What are the five stages of cell cycle? What happens in each stage?

G1: Cell grows and performs its normal functions. DNA is examined and repaired S: DNA is repaired G2: Cell continues to grow and replicates organelles in preparation of mitosis. Cell continues to perform its normal functions M: Mitosis (Cell division) occurs G0: Cell performs its normal functions and is not preparing to divide

Which type of nuclear decay could be detected in an atomic absorption spectrum?

Gamma radiation

Order the types of electromagnetic radiation from highest energy to lowest energy. What other property of light follows the same trend?

Gamma ray > X ray > UV > Visible light > Infrared > Microwave > Radiowave *Frequency follows same trend as energy

Contrast gap junctions and tight junctions.

Gap junctions: allow for the intercellular transport of materials and do not prevent paracellular transporting materials; Discontinuous bunches around the cell Tight junctions: are not used for intercellular transport but to prevent paracellular transport; Form bands around the cell

At what angle of launch is a projectile going to have the greatest horizontal displacement? What angle will result in the greatest vertical displacement, assuming a level surface?

Horizontal: 45 degree angle Vertical: 45 degree angle

How does the human body store spare energy? Why doesn't the human body store most energy as sugar?

Glycogen and Triacylglycerol Triacylglycerol has ↑ reduced carbons and this yields ↑ energy yield

Regarding glycogen and amylopectin, which of these two polymers should experience a higher rate of enzyme activity from enzymes that cleave side branches? Why?

Glycogen; it has ↑ branching than amylopectin which ↑ enzyme activity

What trends increase electrophilicity?

Greater positive charge; better leaving group increase electrophilicity by making reaction likely to happen

By what histone and DNA modification can genes be silent in eukaryotic cells? Would these processes includes the proportion of heterochromatin or euchromatin?

Histone deacetylation and DNA methylation will both downregulate the transcription of a gene. These processes allow the relevant DNA to be clumped more tightly, increasing the proportion of heterochromatin.

Which endocrine organ influence behavior? What hormones do they use, and what do they accomplish?

Hypothalamus controls pituitary gland which releases pituitary hormones. The adrenal medulla produces epinephrine and norepinephrine. The adrenal cortex produces cortisol, estrogen and testosterone.

If all autonomic input to the heart were cut, what would happen?

If all autonomic innervation to the heart were lost, the heart would continue beating at the intrinsic rate of the pacemaker (SA node). The individual would be unable to modify the heart rate via the sympathetic or parasympathetic nervous system, but the heart would not stop beating

What could permit a binding protein involved in sequestration to have a low affinity for its substrate and still have a high percentage of substrate bound?

If binding protein is present in high quantities relative to the substrate then almost all substrate will be bound despite low affinity

How does electric potential energy change between two particles as the distance between them increases?

If both particles have the same charge, ↑ distance= ↓U If both particles have the opposite charge, ↑ distance= ↑U

What are some of the mechanisms used in respiratory system to prevent infection?

Immune mechanisms in the respiratory system include vibrissae in the nares, lysozyme in mucous membrane, mucociliary escalator, macrophages in lungs, mucosal IgA antibodies, and mast cells

How is work calculated in P-V diagrams?

In a P-V diagram, work is the area under curve

If two waves are out of phase at any interval besides 180 degrees, how does the amplitude of the resultant wave compare to the amplitudes of the two interfering waves?

In phase= sum of amplitude Out of phase= difference of amplitude Resultant wave has amplitude btwn sum and difference of amplitudes

Respiratory failure refers to inadequate ventilation to provide oxygen to the tissues. How would the pH change in respiratory failure?

In the respiratory failure, ventilation slows, and less carbon dioxide is blown off. As this occurs, the buffer equations shifts to the right and more hydrogen ions are generated. This results in lower pH of the blood

What is the primary motivation for hydrophobic residues in a polypeptide to move to the interior of the protein?

Increase entropy (+ ∆S); ∆G<0; stabilizes protein

What are the differences between innate and adaptive immunity?

Innate immunity: consists of defenses that are always active against pathogens, but that are not capable of targeting specific invaders Adaptive immunity: response takes longer, but it targets a specific pathogen and maintains immunologic memory of infection to mount a faster response during subsequent infections

Where do hydophobic amino acids tend to reside within a protein?

Interior of protein, away from water

What are the requirements to have a nonzero magnetic field?

Need a charge that is moving

During the action potential, what ion channel opens second? How is this ion channel regulated? What effect does the opening of this channel have on the polarization of the cell?

Ion channel: K⁺ Regulation: closes at low potentials (below -70 mV) Effect on polarization: Repolarization and hyperpolarization

During the action potential, what ion channel opens first? How is this ion channel regulated? What effect does the opening of this channel have on the polarization of the cell?

Ion channel: Na⁺ Regulation: At peak (~+35 mV) inactivated, closed at -70 mV, open after threshold Effect on polarization: depolarization

What separation methods can be used to isolate a protein on the basis of isoelectric point?

Ion-exchange chromatography and Isoelectric focusing

Describe the atomic difference between ionic and covalent compounds:

Ionic: The e⁻ are transferred from one atom to another; creates an electrostatic attraction; between metal and non-metal Covalent: The e⁻ are shared between atoms; could be nonpolar, polar, or coordinate covalent; between two nonmetals

What is the acrosome? What organelle forms the acrosome?

It covers the head of sperm; contains modified Golgi apparatus

From a metabolic standpoint, does it make sense for carbohydrates to get oxidized or reduced? Purpose?

It makes sense for carbohydrates to become oxidized while reducing other groups. This is the case because aerobic metabolism requires reduced forms of electron carriers to facilitate processes such as oxidative phosphorylation. Because carbohydrates are a primary energy source, they are oxidized.

The following reaction has a Keq of 2.1x10⁻⁷. Given an initial concentration for A equal to 0.1 M and an initial concentration of B equal to 0.2 M, what is the equilibrium concentration of C? Is the approximation that x is negligible valid for this calculation?

Kc for C= 4.2 x 10⁻⁹ M Yes x is negligible

What is the name for a six carbon sugar with an ketone group?

Ketohexose

What does Km present? What would an increase in Km signify?

Km is the substrate concentration when 1/2 enzymes's active sites are bound; aka enzyme affinity and so a high Km would mean that there is less enzyme affinity to bind to substrate

What are the four phases of the bacterial growth curve? What are the features of each phase?

Lag phase: bacteria get used to environment; little growth Exponential/ Log phase: bacteria use available resources to multiply at an exponential rate Stationary phase: bacteria multiplication slows as resources are used up; plateau Death: bacteria die as resources become insufficient to support the colony

Between the leading strand and lagging strand, which is more prone to mutations? Why?

Lagging strand; it has to constantly start and stop DNA replication process and needs more RNA primer since 1 per Okasaki fragment

A schizophrenic patient is started on the atypical antipsychotic risperidone, which is effect for treatment of the positive symptoms of schizophrenia, but not the negative symptoms. Which of the patient's symptoms are likely to improve, and which are not?

Likely to improve: hallucinations, delusions, disorganized thought and disorganized behavior Not likely to improve: disturbance of affect and avolition

List three different prosthetic groups that can be attached to a protein and name three conjugated protein

Lipoprotein: protein with lipid Glycoprotein: protein with carbohydrate Nucleoprotein: protein with nucleic acid

What are the differences between MHC-I and MHC-II?

MHC-I: found in all nucleated cells and present pieces of proteins (peptides) created within the cell (endogenous antigens); this can allow for detection of cells infected with intracellular pathogens (especially viruses) MHC-II: found in only antigen-presenting cells and presents proteins that result from digestion of extracellular pathogens that have been brought in by endocytosis (exogenous antigens)

Describe entropy on a macroscopic level and in statistical terms.

Macroscopic: Tendency toward disorder; degree of energy spread Statistical: measure of spontaneous dispersal of energy @ specific temperature, ↑ the number of available microstates for a given molecule

How are amino acid-derivatives hormones synthesized?

Made by 1-2 amino acids + additional modifications

What does a hematocrit measure? What are the units for hematocrit?

Measures % of blood sample occupied by red blood cells; measured in % points

What is the number and ploidy of the daughter cells produced from meiosis I and meiosis II?

Meiosis I: 2 haploid daughter cells Meiosis II: up to 4 haploid daughter cells

How is the resting membrane potential maintained?

Membrane potential, which results from a difference in the number of positive and negative charges on either side of the membrane, is maintained primarily by the sodium potassium pump, which moves three sodium ions out of the cell for every two potassium ions pumped in and to a minor extent by the leak channels that allow passive transport of ions

Which cells account for the fact that the secondary response to a pathogen is much more rapid and robust than the primary response?

Memory cells allowed immune system to carry out a much more rapid and robust secondary response

Why do ionic bonds tend to form between metals and nonmetals?

Metals lose e⁻ since they have low ionization energy; forms cations. Nonmetals gain e⁻ because they have high e⁻ affinity; forms anions. This makes it easier for transfer of e⁻ between atoms.

During what phase of meosis is a secondary oocyte arrested?

Metaphase II

What amino acid abbreviations spell "MCAT"?

Methionine (M) Cysteine (C) Alanine (A) Threonine (T)

What are some factors that might cause eyewitness courtroom testimony to be unreliable?

Misinformation effect maybe in wording of question, source-monitoring error and time between trial and event

What are the relative benefits of native PAGE compared to SDS-PAGE?

Native PAGE allows a complete protein to be removed after analysis; it also more accurately determines the relative globular size of proteins. SDS-PAGE can be used to eliminate combination from mass-to-charge ratios

Briefly discuss the influence of nature vs nurture on behavior

Nature is hereditary while nurture is influence of environment and physical surroundings on behavior. Both influence person

What is neuroplasticity? How does neuroplasticity change during life?

Neuroplasticity refers to ability of brain to form new connections rapidly. Children have ↑ plasticity and this decreases by adulthood.

What is the maximum distance that two objects can be from one another and still adhere to the zeroth law of thermodynamics?

No theoretical max distance. As long as two objects are in thermal contact and at the same temperature, they are in thermal equilibrium

What is the voltage between two points on an equipotential line? Will this voltage cause a charge to move along the line?

No voltage change between 2 points on equipotential line. However, there is potential difference between different equipotential lines that might cause particle to move

If a strand of RNA contained 15% cytosine, 15% adenine, 35% guanine, and 35% uracil, would this violate Chargaff's rules? Why or why not?

No, Chargaff's rule is only for DNA

What account for the difference between work input and work output in a system that operates at less than 100% efficiency?

Nonconservative forces that dissipate or generate energy

Briefly describe the mechanism of nucleophilic acyl substitution reactions

Nucleophilic acyl substitution is the substitution of attacking nucleophile for the LG of an acyl compound, which includes carboxylic acids, amides, esters, and anhydrides. The nucleophile attacks, opens the carbonyl and forms a tetrahedral intermediate. The carbonyl then reforms, kicking off the LG. This reaction is favored by acidic or basic conditions

How do the definitions of nucleophile and electrophile differ from those of Lewis Acids and Lewis Base?

Nucleophilicity and electrophilicity are based on relative rate of reactions and are therefore kinetic properties. Acidity and basicity are measured by the position of equilibrium in a protonation or deprotonation reaction and are therefore thermodynamics properties. However, electrophiles behave like Lewis acids while nucleophiles behave like Lewis base.

A vessel contains 8 mol O2, 3 mol CH4, and 1 mol CO2 at a total pressure of 240 atm. What is the partial pressure of each gas?

O2: 160 atm CO2: 20 atm CH4: 60 atm

Write out and compare an orbital diagram for a neutral oxygen (O) atom and an O2- ion.

O: 1s²2s²2p⁴ O2-: 1s²2s²2p⁶ The 1s and 2s are the same but the neutral oxygen has unpaired in 2p while the anion has full 2p.

A patient with obsessive-compulsive disorder believes that the latch on the apartment door must be checked five times before it is okay to go to bed. Without checking the latch five times, the patient cannot sleep for fear that someone will break into the apartment. Identify the patient's obsession, the patient's compulsion, and how they are related and obsessive-compulsive disorder.

Obsession: someone will break into apartment Compulsion: checking door latch 5 times before bed Relationship: obsession raises tension while compulsion lowers tension

In bacterial sepsis (overwhelming bloodstream infection), a number of capillary beds throughout the body open simultaneously. What effect would this have on the blood pressure? Besides the risk of infection, why might sepsis be dangerous for the heart?

Opening up more capillary beds which are parallel will decrease overall resistance of the circuit. The cardiac output will therefore increase in an attempt to maintain constant blood pressure. There is a risk to the heart because the increased demand on the heart will eventually tire it, will cause a heart attack or sudden drop in blood pressure

Trace the pathway of food through the body, starting with ingestion and ending with excretion of feces

Oral cavity (mouth)→ Pharynx → Esophagus→ Stomach → Small intestine → large intestine→ rectum→ anus

What is the product when 1-butanol is treated with PCC? With chromium trioxide

PCC: Aldehyde (1-butanal) Chromium trioxide: Carboxylic acid (Butanoic acid)

Predict the molecular geometries of the following molecules: PCl5 MgF2 AlF3 UBr6 SiH4

PCl₅: Trigonal bipyramidal MgF₂: linear AlF₃: trigonal planar UBr₆: octahedral SiH₄: tetrahedral

What are the layers of the dermis, from superficial to deep?

Papilllary layer Reticular layer

What arm of the nervous system is responsible for contraction of the detrusor muscle?

Parasympathetic

What is the SI unit for pressure?

Pascal

What difference between envelopes of gram-positive and gram-negative bacteria make gram-positive bacteria more susceptible to antibiotics such as penicillin?

Penicillin attacks enzyme that helps form peptidoglycan. Gram-positive: easier to break down Gram- negative: has an outer membrane that prevents damage

What tissues do neural crest cells develop into?

Peripheral N.S. (sensory ganglia, autonomic ganglia, adrenal medulla, Schwann cells); specific cell types (Calcitonin- producing cell of thyroid, melanocyte)

A child is diagnosed with an enzyme deficiency that prevents the production of hydrogen peroxide. What would the likely outcome be of such a deficiency?

Peroxisomes produce hydrogen peroxide so in this case it will prevent digestion/breakdown of long fatty acid chains resulting in cell death

What are the aromatic amino acids? (3)

Phenylalanine, Tyrosine, Tryptophan

List Maslow's Hierarchy of Needs in decreasing priority

Physiological Safety Love & Belonging Esteem Self-actualization

List the structures in the auditory pathway, from where sound enters the pinna to the auditory projection areas in the brain?

Pinna → External auditory canal → tympanic membrane → malleus → incus → stapes → oval window → perilymph in cochlea → basilar membrane → hair cells → vestibulocochlear nerve → brainstem → medial geniculate nucleus (MGN) of thalamus → auditory cortex (temporal lobe)

If you have an object three times as heavy as you can lift, how could a lever be used to life the object? Where would the fulcrum need to be placed?

Place the fulcrum 1/4 of the way across lever closer to object. Ratio of lever arms would be 3:1 only 1.3 of original force is needed

How does the application of a polarized filter impact the wavelength of light passing through the filter?

Plane polarization has no effect on the wavelength, frequency, or speed of light. Polarization does affect the amount of light passing through medium and light intensity (amplitude).

A T-cell appropriately passes though positive selection, but then inappropriately passes though negative selection. What will this T cell be reactive toward?

Positive selection occurs when T cells in the thymus that are able to respond to the antigen presented on MHC are allowed to survive. Negative selection occurs when T cells that respond to self antigens undergo apoptosis before leaving the thymus. A T cell that appropriately passes through positive solution but then inappropriately passive negative selection will be reactive to self antigens.

Describe the three major phases of Kohlberg's theory of moral development

Preconventional: reasoning is based on individual rewards and punishments Conventional: reasoning is based on the relationship of the individual to society Postconventional: reasoning is based on abstract principles

What phenomena can be detected or treated using ultrasound?

Prenatal screening, diagnose gallstones, breast and thyroid mass, and blood clot. Used to remove kidney stones, tumors, and treat deep tissue injury

Define static pressure

Pressure associated with position

Compare the two types of active transport. What is the difference between symport and antiport?

Primary active transport uses ATP as an energy source for the movement of molecules against a concentration gradient, while secondary active transport uses an electrochemical gradient to power that transport. Symport moves both molecules in secondary active transport across the membrane in the same direction, while antiport moves particles across the cell membrane opposite directions

How do prions cause disease?

Prions cause disease by triggering a change in the conformation of a protein from an alpha helix to a beta pleated sheet. This change reduces solubility of the protein and makes it highly resistant to degradation.

Complete and classify the most likely reactions in the table below: a. 2H₂+O₂ → b. Al(OH)₃+H₃PO₄ → c. 2H₂O → (electricity) d. NaNO₃+CuOH → e. Zn+ AgCl →

Products/Reaction type: a. 2H₂O; Combination b. AlPO₄+ 3H₂O; Neutralization (double displacement) c. 2H₂+O₂; Decomposition d. CuNO₃+NaOH; Double displacement e. ZnCl+ Ag; Simple displacement

What role does proline serve in secondary structure?

Proline has a rigid structure and so in alpha helix it causes a kink and in beta-pleated sheets it causes turns

What are the major posttranslational modifications that occur in proteins?

Proper folding by chaperones, formation of quaternary structure, cleavage or proteins or signal sequences, and addition of other biomolecules (phosphorylation, carboxylation, glycosylation, and prenylation)

If there are no reaction conditions listed, what determines how the reaction will proceed?

Properties of the functional groups on reactants(acid-base; nucleophile-electrophile) will determine outcome

During what phase of meosis is a primary oocyte arrested?

Prophase I

What are the four phases of mitosis? What happens in each phase?

Prophase: Chromosomes condense, spindle forms, centriole move to opposite poles Metaphase: chromosomes align at metaphase plate in center of cell Anaphase: sister chromatids separate Telophase & Cytokinesis: new nuclear membrane forms around each individual daughter cell

When starting transcription, where does RNA polymerase bind?

RNA polymerase II binds to TATA box, which is located within the promoter region of a relevant gene at - 25

Briefly describe the pathway of retroviral nucleic acids from infection of a host cell to release of viral progeny

RNA uses reverse transcription to form DNA. The DNA enters host cell and replicates. mRNA is formed from DNA to make proteins. The mRNA and structural proteins make virions (viral progeny) that are released to infect other cells.

What favors the kinetic enolate?

Rapid, less heat, irreversible, strong base with steric hindrance rxn

In what ways do real gases differ from ideal gases?

Real gas have non-negligible volume and attractive forces. Real gases deviate from ideal gases at high pressure, low temp and low volume

How do enzymes function as biological catalysts?

Reduce activation energy of reaction (by ↑ rate) and are not used up

From 5' to 3' what are the components of the operon and what are their roles?

Regulator gene: transcribed to form repressor protein Promoter site: site of RNA polymerase binding Operator site: binding site of repressor protein Structural gene: the gene of interest, transcribed only if repressor is NOT bound to operator site

List the vessels in the renal vascular pathway, starting from the renal artery and ending at the renal vein.

Renal artery → afferent arterioles → glomerulus → efferent arterioles→ vasa recta → renal vein

What are the resonance structures? How does the true electron density of a compound relate to its resonance structures?

Resonance structures differ in placement of e⁻ in hybridized p-orbital and require bond conjugation to delocalize electrons. The true e⁻ density is a weighted average of resonance structures; favors most stable.

Describe the role of flippase

Responsible for movement of phospholipids between layers of plasma membrane because it is otherwise energetically unfavorable, flips phospholipid

Which of the following organelles is surrounded by a single membrane? a. Lysosomes b. Mitochondria c. Nuclei d. Ribosomes

a. Lysosomes (Bio ch 1)

Define the term and provide SI unit: Conductivity

S; opposite of resistance, measure of permissiveness to current flow

Starting with the site of impulse initiation, what are the structures in the conduction system of the heart?

SA node→ AV noce→ Bundle of His→ Purkinje fibers

How is a scalar calculated from the product of two vectors? How is a vector calculated?

Scalar: dot product Vector: cross product

How are dopamine levels related in schizophrenia and Parkinson's disease?

Schizophrenia: elevated dopamine Parkinson's disease: decreased dopamine

Guillain-Barre Syndrome (GBS) is an autoimmune disease that causes demyelination in the peripheral nervous system. What type of glial cell is being targeted in GBS?

Schwann cells

What is the difference between self-concept and identity?

Self-concept describes sum of who we are, used to be, want to be; feelings and thoughts Identity describes behaviors when associating with a particular group or relationship with them

What is the pathway of neural impulses in a polysynaptic reflex?

Sensory (afferent, presynaptic) neuron→Interneuon→Motor (efferent, postsynaptic) neuron in spinal cord→ Reflex response

What is the pathway of neural impulses in a monosynaptic reflex?

Sensory (afferent, presynaptic) neuron→Motor (efferent, postsynaptic) neuron in spinal cord→ Reflex response

What is the pathway for a stimulus to reach conscious perception?

Sensory receptor → afferent neuron → sensory ganglion → spinal cord → brain

Define electric dipole

Separation of charge within molecule so that there is temporary or permanent region of equal and opposite charge at particular distance

What are the polar amino acids? (5)

Serine, Threonine, Cysteine, Asparagine, Glutamine

Define equipotential lines

Set of points in space at which potential difference is zero

A circuit is set up with three resistors. The circuit has one branch through R₁, then splits with R₂ and R₃ set up in parallel to each other. If R₁= 3 Ω, R₂= 2 Ω, and R₃= 6 Ω, then what proportion of the total current will travel through each resistor? What will be the total resistance of the circuit?

Since R₂: R₃ is 1:3 then I₂:I₃ is 3:1 so 1/4 through R₃ Total resistance: (1/R₂ +1/R₃)⁻¹+ R₁ = 4.5 Ω

Which gas will exert a higher pressure under the same, nonideal conditions: methane or chloromethane?

Since a (attractive force) is smaller for methane it will have larger pressure

If methane and isobutane are placed in the same size container under the same conditions, which will exert the higher pressure (consider both as having negligible attractive forces)?

Since b (volume) is large for isobutane it will have larger pressure

In what ways are Archaea similar to bacteria?

Single cell, no nucleus, no membrane- bound organelles

How does the diffraction pattern for a single slit differ from a slit with a thin lens?

Single slit: does not create characteristic fringes when projected on a screen, although the light does spread out Slit-lens system: create characteristic fringes from refraction of light of constructive and destructive interference when projected on a screen

What favors the thermodynamic enolate?

Slow, more heat, reversible, weaK base rxn

To which side of a hydraulic lift would the operator usually apply a force - the side with the larger cross-sectional area or the side with the smaller cross-sectional area? Why?

Smaller cross-sectional area; pressure is the same for the two sides so if small area then smaller force needed

Why does soap appear to dissolve in water, and how is this fact important in cleaning?

Soap dissolves in water because amphipathic free fatty acid salts form micelles (hydrophobic interior and hydrophilic exterior). Fat soluble particles dissolve inside micelle bc both nonpolar. Water soluble compounds can freely dissolve in water

Rank the phases of matter from lowest to highest entropy.

Solide, liquid, gas

Contrast specific heat and heat capacity

Specific heat is "c"; the energy required to raise 1 gram of substance by 1 °C Heat capacity is "mc"; the energy required to raise any given amount of substance by 1°C

Which of the following is NOT a state function? a. internal temperature b. heat c. temperature d. entropy

b. heat (Physics and Math Chapter 3)

What is the difference between a state function and a process function?

State function: variables independent from path taken to achieve particular equilibrium; properties of system of equilibrium; may be dependent on one another Process function: variables define the path of how system got to its state (Ex: work and heat)

How does steric hindrance affect the relative reactivity of aldehydes and ketones?

Steric hindrance is one of the two reasons that aldehydes are slightly more reactive than ketones. The additional alkyl group gets in the way and makes for a higher energy crowded intermediate

What is the difference between a steroid and steroid hormone?

Steroid hormone is secreted by endocrine system into bloodstream; affects gene expression and metabolism; steroid that acts like a hormone

What are the layers of the epidermis? (From superficial to deep)

Stratum corneum Stratum lucidum Stratum granulosum Stratum spinosum Stratum basale

What are the four fundamental forces of nature?

Strong nuclear force, Weak nuclear force, Electrostatic force, and Gravitation force

What are some of the methods using for mapping the brain?

Studying human brain with lesions, extirpation, stimulation or recording with electrodes (cortical mapping, single cell electrode recording, and EEG), rCBF, CT, PET, and MRI

What physical qualities contribute to the capacitance of a capacitor?

Surface area, distance and dielectric constant

Where do hydophilic amino acids tend to reside within a protein?

Surface of protein, in contract with water

Where is bile synthesized, stores and carry out its function?

Synthesized in liver stored in gallbladder carries out function in duodenum

A person snaps an ice pack and pushes it onto their leg. In terms of energy transfer, what would be considered the system and what would be the surroundings in this scenario?

System: Ice pack (uses energy) Surrounding: Person (provides heat)

What four physical quantities determine the resistance of a resistor?

Temperature, Resistivity, Length and surface area

What are the effects of temperature, pH and salinity on the function on enzymes?

Temperature: ↑ Temp= ↑ enzyme activity until you reach optimum temperature and after that enzyme will denature while temp increases pH: the ideal pH is 7.4 and at that pH there is ionization of enzymes but too far from ideal will lead to enzyme denaturation Salinity: ↑ salinity= disruption of hydrogen and ionic bonds, causing partial charge leading to enzyme denaturation

What is alternative splicing and what does it accomplish?

The ability of some genes to use various combinations of exons to create multiple proteins from one hnRNA transcript. This increases protein diversity and allows a species the max number of proteins from limited number of genes; only eukaryotes

Where should you look on the oxyhemoglobin dissociation curve to determine the amount of oxygen that has been delivered to tissues?

The amount of oxygen delivery can be seen as drop in Y value (percent hemoglobin saturation) and oxyhemoglobin dissociation curve. For example, if the blood is 100% saturated while in the lungs (100 mmHg) and only 80% saturated in tissues (at 40 mmHg oxygen) then 20% of the oxygen has been released to tissues

A block fully submerged three inches below surface of a fluid, but is not experiencing any acceleration. What can be said about the displaced volume of fluid and the buoyant force?

The displaced volume is equal to volume of block. The buoyant force is equal to weight of block, and is equal to weight of displaced fluid. By extension, the block and the fluid in which it is immersed must have same density.

Describe what occurs during dipole-dipole interactions

The partial negative and positive segments come in close contact and create electrostatic attraction

What distinguishes the inner mitochondrial membrane from other biological membranes? What is the pH gradient between the cytoplasm and the intermembrane space?

The inner mitochondrial membrane last cholesterol, which differentiates from other most biological membranes. There is no pH gradient between the cytoplasm and the intermembrane space because the outer membrane mitochondrial membrane has such high permeability to biomolecules (the proton motive force of the mitochondria is across the inner mitochondrial membrane not the outer mitochondrial membrane)

Which would experience a larger magnetic field: an object placed five meters to the left of a current carrying wire, or an object placed at the center of a circle with a radius of 5 meters? (Note: assume the current is constant)

The object at the center of circle must have larger magnetic field bc it is not divided by π

How does applying a force at the natural frequency of a system change the system?

The object will resonate bc the force frequency equals the natural (resonant) frequency. The amplitude of oscillation will increase

Why does the right side of the heart contain less cardiac muscle than the left side?

The right side of the heart pumps blood in a lower resistance circuit and must do so at lower pressure; therefore, it needs less muscle. The left side of the heart pumps into a higher resistance circuit at higher pressures; therefore, it requires more muscle

Define dispersion

The tendency for different wavelengths of light to experience different degrees of refraction in a medium, leading to separation of light into the visible spectrum (a rainbow)

What structure is primarily responsible for returning materials from lymphatic circulation to the cardiovascular system?

The thoracic duct carries lymphatic fluid into the left subclavian vein

If you were to suddenly flood the reaction vessel with significant amounts of ammonia, what would occur?

The value of Q would increase significantly, causing the system to shift left forming more reactants until the system again reached equilibrium

How does the work function relate to the energy necessary to emit an electron from a metal?

The work function describes the minimum amount of energy necessary to emit an electron. Any additional energy from photon will be converted to excess KE during photoelectric effect

Which has a lower pKa: 3-pentanone or pentanal? Why?

The α-hydrogens of aldehyde are slightly more acidic than those of ketones due to the electron donating characteristic of the second alkyl group and ketones. This extra alkyl group destabilizes the carbanion, which typically this favors a loss of α-hydrogens and ketones compared to aldehydes. Therefore, pentanal is stronger acid than 3-pentanone and will have a lower PKA.

Why are the α-hydrogens of aldehydes and ketones acidic?

The α-hydrogens of aldehydes and ketones are acidic, or deprotonate easily, due to both inductive effects and resonance effects. The electronegative oxygen atom pulls the electron density from C-H bond, weakening it. Once deprotonated, the resonance stabilization of the negative charge between the α-carbon, carbonyl carbon, and electron withdrawing carbonyl oxygen increases the stability of this form

What purpose do Tollens' reagent and Benedict's reagent serve? How do they differ from each other?

Tollens' reagent and Benedict's reagent are used to detect the presence of reducing sugars. Tollens' reagent is reduced to produce a silvery mirror when aldehydes are present whereas Benedict's reagent is indicated by a reddish precipitate of Cu₂O

What is the difference between a transgenic and knockout mouse?

Transgenic mouse: have a gene introduced into their germ line or embryonic stem cells to look at effects of that gene they are therefore best suited for studying the effects of dominant alleles Knockout mouse: are those in which a gene of interest has been removed rather than added

What are some examples of transient and covalent enzyme modifications?

Transient: Allosteric activation or inhibition Covalent: Phosphorylation, dephosphorylation, and glycosylation

Why are viruses considered obligate intracellular parasites?

Viruses have no organelles, no nucleus to produce independently

True or False: The internal resistance of a battery will lower the amount of current it can provide.

True

True or False: Total distance traveled can never be less than total displacement

True

What type of ion channel is always open?

Ungated channel

Provide a brief definition of representativeness heuristic

Used for making decisions based on how much a particular item or situation fits a given stereotype

Provide a brief definition of availability heuristic

Used to make decisions based on how easily similar instances can be imagined

Define the term and provide SI unit: Voltage

V or J/C; potential difference between two points

Define the term and provide SI unit: Electromotive force (emf)

V or J/C; potential difference of voltage source for a circuit, usually battery, no current flow

What is the mathematical relationship between vital capacity (VC), inspiratory reserve volume (IRV), expiratory reserve volume (ERV), and tidal volume (TV)?

VC= IRV + ERV + TV

Provide a definition for displacement or velocity in terms of the other variable

Velocity: rate of change of displacement of object Displacement: function of velocity acting over period of time

Provide three methods for calculating the work done on or by a system

W=Fdcosθ W=P∆V Wnet= Kf-Ki

What molecule is released during formation of a peptide bond?

Water

What aspect of thresholds do Weber's law and signal detection theory focus on?

Weber's law: Just-noticeable difference; use % or fraction to get range of noticeable difference Signal detection theory: threshold is influenced by internal (psychological) & external (environmental) factors

If blood levels of CO2 become too low, how does the brain alter the respiratory rate to maintain homeostasis?

When CO2 levels become too low, the brain can decrease respiratory rate in order to raise CO2 levels

What is the difference between the biomedical and biopsychosocial models of psychological disorders?

Whereas the biomedical model only considers the physical, pathological mechanisms that underline mental illness, the biopsychosocial model considers the contributions of these biological factors along with psychology (thoughts, emotions, or behaviors) and social situation (environment, social class, discrimination or stigmatization)

What is wobble and what role does it play?

Wobble refers to third base in codon that plays no role in determining which amino acid is translated from that codon. It serves a protective role because mutations to that position are not changing protein translated

From zygote to gastrula, what are the various stages of development?

Zygote→2-, 4-, 8-, 16-cell embryo→morula→blastula (blastocyte)→gastrula

A low-pressure weather system can decrease the atmospheric pressure from 1 atm to 0.99 atm. By what percent will this decrease the force on a rectangular window from the outside? (Note: Assume the window is 6 m by 3 m and the glass is 3 cm thick) a. 1 % b. 10 % c. 1/3 % d. 30 %

a. 1 % (Physics Chapter 4)

At sea level and 25 degrees celsius the solubility of oxygen gas in water is 1.25 x 10^-3 M. In Denver, a city in the US that lies high above sea level, the atmospheric pressure is .800 atm. What is the solubility of oxygen in water in Denver? a. 1.00 x 10^-3 M b. 1.05 x 10^-3 M c. 1.50 x 10^- 3 M d. 2.56 x 10^-3 M

a. 1.00 x 10^-3 M (Gen Chem Chapter 8)

Write the equilibrium expression for the following reactions: a) CO (g) + 2H2 (g) <---> CH3OH (g) b) H3PO4 (aq) + H2O (l) <---> H2PO4 (aq) + H3O (aq)

a) Keq= [CH₃OH]/[CO][H₂]² b) Keq= [H₃O]⁺[H₂PO₄]/[H₃PO₄]

Do the following situations result in an increase or decrease in entropy? a) Liquid water --> Ice b) dry ice sublimates into carbon dioxide c) solid salt --> aquous salt d) 1 mole Nitrogen gas + 3 moles Hydrogen gas --> 2 moles Ammonium gas e) an ice pack is placed on a wound

a) ↓ entropy (freezing) b) ↑ entropy (sublimation) c) ↑ entropy (dissolution) d) ↓ entropy (fewer moles) e) ↑ entropy (heat is transferred)

A district attorney with an internal locus of control wins an important court trial. Which of the following best represents the lawyer's attribution of the events? a. "I won because I made great arguments and had more experience than the defense". b. "I won because the jury was on my side from the beginning and believed my arguments". c. "I won because the defense did not adequately present their side of the case". d. "I shouldn't have won because I don't deserve to be successful".

a. "I won because I made great arguments and had more experience than the defense". (Behavioral Science Chapter 6)

In a sealed 1 L container, 1 mole of nitrogen gas reacts with 3 moles of hydrogen gas to form 0.05 moles of NH3 at equilibrium. Which of the following is the closest to the Kc of the reaction? a. 0.001 b. 0.001 c. 0.01 d. 0.1

a. 0.001 (General Chemistry Chapter 6)

During an interview with this schizophrenic patient, a psychiatrist notices that the patient keeps repeating with the psychiatrist says this phenomenon is known as: a. echolalia b. echopraxia c. loosening of associations d. neologisms

a. echolalia (Behavioral Sciences Chapter 7)

What is the equation for centripetal acceleration?

ac = v^2/r

What is the difference between active and passive immunity?

active immunity: refers to a stimulation of the immune system to produce antibodies against a pathogen passive immunity: refers to a transfer of antibodies to prevent infection, without stimulation of the plasma cells that produce these antibodies

Describe the role of lipid rafts

aggregates of specific lipids in the membrane that function as attachment points for other biomolecules; play a role in signaling

What is difference threshold?

aka "just-noticeable difference"; minimum difference between two stimuli that can be detected by brain

What is the relationship between osmotic pressure and the direction of osmosis through semipermeable membrane?

as osmotic pressure increases, more water will tend to flow into the counterpart to decrease solute concentration. Osmotic pressure is often considered a "sucking" pressure because water will move toward the compartment with the highest osmotic pressure (this is where water is the lowest)

Define atomic weight

average mass of all isotopes; seen on periodic table

In which neural structure are ribosomes primarily located? a) dendrites b) soma c) axon hillock d) axon

b) soma (Biology Chapter 4)

Which of the following indicates the pattern of sleep stages during a complete sleep cycle early in the night? a. 1-2-3-4-1-2-REM b. 1-2-3-4-3-2-REM c. 4-3-2-1-2-3-REM d. 4-3-2-4-3-1-REM

b. 1-2-3-4-3-2-REM (Behavioral sciences chapter 4)

The p character of the bonds formed by the carbon atom in HCN is: a. 25% b. 50% c. 67% d. 75%

b. 50% (Ochem Chapter 3)

To form a geminal diol, which of the following could attack a carbonyl carbon? a. Hydrogen peroxide b. water c. potassium dichromate d. Ethanol

b. water (Ochem Chapter 6)

A 10 g sample of water is brought from 40°C to boiling and is completely boiled to the gas phase. Which of the following expressions represents the total amount of energy required if the final temperature of the vapor is 100 °C? (The heat of vaporization of water is 2,260 J/g) a. (10 g) (40°C)(4.2 J/g°C)+ (2,260 J/g)(10 g) b. (10 g) (40°C)(4.2 J/g°C)+ (2,260 J/g)(60°C) c. (10 g) (60°C)(4.2 J/g°C)+ (2,260 J/g)(10 g) d. (10 g) (60°C)(4.2 J/g°C)+ (2,260 J/g)(60°C)

c. (10 g) (60°C)(4.2 J/g°C)+ (2,260 J/g)(10 g) (General Chemistry Chapter 7)

The negative charge in the figure below (-1 µC) moves from y=-5 to y=+5 and is made to follow the dashed line. What is the work required to move the negative charge along this dashed line? a. -10 J b. -5 J c. 0 J d. 10 J

c. 0 J (Physics and Math Chapter 5)

Which of the following molecules could be classified as a soap? a. CH3(CH2)19COOH b. CH3COOH c. CH3(CH2)19COO- Na+ d. CH3COO- Na+

c. CH3(CH2)19COO- Na+ (Ochem Chapter 8)

Which of the following hormones increases feeding behavior? a. Leptin b. Cholecystokinin c. Ghrelin d. Gastrin

c. Ghrelin (Biology Chapter 9)

Which amino acids contribute most significantly to the pI of a protein? I. Lysine II. Glycine III. Arginine a. I only b. I and II only c. I and III only d. II and III only

c. I and III only (Biochem Chapter 3)

In feature detection, what types of cells are responsible for color, form, motion, and depth?

color: cones form: parvocellular cell motion: magnocellular cell depth: binocular neurons

Compare and contrast controlled (effortful) processing and automatic processing

controlled (effortful) processing: used when manipulating undivided attention on a task, and it is usually used for new or complex actions automatic processing: used for less critical stimuli in divided attention, and is usually used for familiar or repetitive actions

What is function of iris?

controls size of pupil using muscles; eye color

Of the compounds cycopropanol, 2-propanol, acetone, and prop-2-ene-1-ol, which are structural isomers of each other?

cycopropanol, acetone, and prop-2-ene-1-ol All have C₃H₆O

Which of the following does NOT show optical activity? a. (R)-2-butanol b. (S)-2-butanol c. A solution containing 1 M (R)-2-butanol and 2 M (S)-2-butanol d. A solution containing 2 M (R)-2-butanol and 2 M (S)-2-butanol

d. A solution containing 2 M (R)-2-butanol and 2 M (S)-2-butanol (Ochem Chapter 2)

What is the density of neon gas in g/L at STP? a. 452.3 b. 226.0 c. 1.802 d. 0.9018

d. 0.9018 (Gen Chem Chapter 8)

Which of the following neurotransmitters is NOT classified as a catecholamine? a. Epinephrine b. Norepinephrine c. Dopamine d. Acetylcholine

d. Acetylcholine (Behavioral sciences Ch 1)

What is the difference between determination and differentiation?

determination: cell is committed to particular cell lineage but no action differentiation: the change in structure, biochemistry and function to match cell type

Among a monocarboxylic acid, a dicarboxylic acid and a dicarboxylic acid that has been deprotonated once, which will be the most acidic? Why?

dicarboxylic acid > monocarboxylic acid > dicarboxylic acid that has been deprotonated

What is the difference between a direct and tropic hormone?

direct hormone: secreted in bloodstream and travel to target tissue where they have direct effects tropic hormone: causes secretion of another hormone that then travels to target tissue to cause an effect

How does double-slit diffraction and interference differ from single-slit diffraction?

double-slit: the image form contains fringes because light rays constructively and deconstructive only interfere single-slit: forms an image of a wide band of light, spread out from its original beam

What is the difference between a dyssomnia and a parasomnia? Provide an example for each

dyssomnia: duration or timing of sleep is disturbed Ex: insomnia, narcolepsy & sleep apnea parasomnia: disorders in which abnormal behaviors occur during sleep Ex: night terrors & sleepwalking (somnambulism)

Describe kinetic energy

energy of motion; K=1/2mv²

Describe potential energy

energy of object in space; U=mgh

Contrast enzyme-linked receptors with G-protein coupled receptors

enzyme-linked receptors: autoactivity, enzymatic activity G-protein coupled receptors: 2 protein complex, dissociation upon activation, and trimer Both: ETC domain, ligand binding, transmembrane domain

If two objects are traveling away from each each, how does the apparent frequency differ from the original frequency?

f'< f f'=f[(v-vd)/(v+vs)]

If one object is following the other, how does the apparent frequency differ from the original frequency?

f'> f, f'<f, or f'=f depending on relative speed of detector and source f'=f[(v+vd)/(v+vs)] or f'=f[(v-vd)/(v-vs)]

For each of the hypothalamic-releasing hormones listed below, what hormone(s) does each affect in the anterior pituitary? On which organ does each pituitary hormone act? What hormone(s) are released by the target organs? a. Gonadotropin-releasing hormone (GnRH) b. Corticotropin-releasing factor (CRF) c. Thyroid-releasing hormone (TRH) d. Dopamine e. Growth hormone-releasing hormone (GHRH)

from anterior pituitary: a. FSH and LH b. ACTH c. TSH d. Prolactin e. Growth hormone target organ and the hormone released from it: a. gonad; testosterone, estrogen and progesterone b. adrenal cortex; glucocorticoid c. Thyroid, T3 and T4 d. Breast tissue; NA e. Bone and muscle; NA

Compare and contrast heterochromatin and euchromatin based on the following characteristics: a. Density of chromatin packing b. Appearance under light microscopy c. Transcriptional activity

heterochromatin: a. dense b. dark c. silent euchromatin: a. loose b. light c. expressed (active)

What is the difference between homologous chromosomes and sister chromatids?

homologous chromosomes: related chromosomes of opposite parental origin sister chromatids: identical copies of same DNA that are held together at centrosome

Which muscle(s) are used in exhalation?

if passive: recoil of Diaphragm + external intercostal muscles if active: internal intercostal muscles and abdominal muscles

Define aberration

is the alteration or distortion of an image as a result of an imperfection in the optical system; can be spherical or chromatic

Which cells are considered agranulocytes?

lympocyte (B cell and T cell) monocyte (macrophage)

What are the differences between lytic and lysogenic cycle?

lytic cycle: Bacteriophage replicate in host cell in high numbers and lyse cell releasing virions lysogenic cycle: Bacteriophage enters host cell and replicates with it as a provirus. The provirus can leave cell and infect other cells or enter lytic cycle

What is function of sclera?

provides structural support; maintain eye shape; white part

Lysosome

membrane-bound organelle containing hydrolytic enzymes that are capable of breaking down substrates, involved in apoptosis

What is absolute threshold?

minimum stimulus that can evoke an action potential in sensory receptor

What is threshold of conscious perception?

minimum stimulus that can evoke enough action potentials for brain to perceive stimulus

What is the difference between negative reinforcement and positive punishment? Provide an example of each

negative reinforcement: ↓ stimulus to enhance (↑) behavior; remove unpleasant stimulus Ex: manager stops nagging behavior→ employee starts being more productive positive punishment: ↑ stimulus to decrease (↓) behavior; add unpleasant stimulus Ex: Getting detention at school for bad behavior

For what values of ∆EN will a nonpolar covalent bond, polar covalent bond and ionic bond form?

nonpolar covalent bond: ∆EN 0-0.5 polar covalent bond: ∆EN 0.5-1.7 ionic bond form: ∆EN larger than 1.7

When placed one meter apart from each other, which will experience a greater acceleration: one coulomb of electrons or one coulomb of protons?

one coulomb of electrons bc smaller mass

Golgi apparatus

packages, modifies and distributes cellular products

Contrast plane-polarized and circularly polarized light:

plane-polarized light: contains light waves with parallel electric field vectors circularly polarized light: selects for a given amplitude and has a continuously rotating electric field direction

What will happen to primary and secondary alcohols, respectively in the presence of strong oxidizing agents?

primary alcohols: Aldehyde (with PCC) and COOH (with Na₂Cr₂O₇ and K₂Cr₂O₇) secondary alcohols: Ketone (with PCC)

What are the key features of primary and secondary cognitive appraisal of stress?

primary cognitive appraisal: initial evaluation of the environment and associated threat; can be benign, irrelevant or stressful secondary cognitive appraisal: begins if primary appraisal reveals a threat; directed at evaluating if organism can cope with stress based on its harm, threat and challenge

What is function of ciliary body?

produces aqueous humor; accommodation of lens (focus near and focus far)

What is feedback inhibition?

refers to product of pathway doing negative feedback to enzymes prior in pathway to maintain homeostasis

What is function of lens?

refracts the incoming light to focus it on retina

What do afferent neurons do?

sensory info from body (periphery) to brain +spinal cord (CNS)

What are some similarities and differences between molecular and empirical formulas?

similarities: Contain same elements in same ratio; express formula of compound differences: molecular formula gives actual # of atoms of each element of compound; empirical formula gives only ratio & may/may not give actual # of atoms

Draw the field line for the electric field generated by an alpha particle

since it is positive charge and the test charge is also positive the field will be pointing outwards for all arrows

What parts of the nervous system are in the peripheral nervous system (PNS)?

spinal and cranial nerves, all fibers around body

What is the suffix and prefix used for aldehyde?

suffix: -al prefix: oxo-

What is the suffix and prefix used for ketone?

suffix: -one prefix: oxo- or keto-

Rank the following molecules in order of increasing nucleophilicity: methoxide, t-butoxide, isopropanolate, ethoxide

t-butoxide < isopropanolate < ethoxide < methoxide

What is the difference between temporal and spatial summation?

temporal summation: integration of multiple signals close to each other in time spatial summation: integration of multiple signals close to each other in space

Between a tertiary structure and secondary structure which one will be more likely to undergo Sn1 more quickly?

tertiary structure; it forms a 3° carbocation which is more stable

What is parallel processing?

the ability to simultaneously analyze & combine info regarding multiple aspects of a stimulus such as color, shape, motion, form and depth; uses individual pathways in brain; Ex:recognizes moving car from distance

Define "axon"

transmit an electrical signal (action potential) from the soma to the axon terminal

Rank the following orbitals in decreasing order of strength: σ bond, π bond, double bond, and triple bond

triple bond> double bond> σ bond>π bond

What type of operon is the trp operon and lac operon?

trp operon: Negative repressor system lac operon: Negative inducible system

What are the oxygenation status of the blood in the umbilical arteries and umbilical veins?

umbilical arteries: deoxygenated blood; from fetus to placenta umbilical veins: oxygenated blood; to fetus from placenta

What is the equation for dot product?

uses cosine

What is the equation for cross product?

uses sine

What is the relationship between weight and density?

weight is density times acceleration due to gravity

Vibrio chloera causes a severe infection in the intestines, leading to massive volumes of watery diarrhea- up to 20 liters per day. Given these symptoms, does chloera likely impact the small intestine or large intestine?

while the large intestine's main function is to absorb water, the small intestine actually absorbs a much larger volume of water. Thus, massive volumes of watery diarrhea are more likely to arise from infections in the small intestine than the large intestine

What are the effects of increasing [E] on enzyme kinetics?

will always increase enzyme kinetics because it will allow more substrates to bind increasing vmax

What do the x and y intercepts in a Lineweaver-Burk plot represent?

x-intercept: -1/km y-intercept: 1/vmax

How can the concentration of carbon dioxide in sodas or other carbonated beverages be so much higher than that of atmospheric carbon dioxide?

↑ P=↑[ ]; high pressures of CO2 has are formed on top of the liquid in sodas, increasing its concentration in liquid

While driving a vehicle at a constant velocity on a flat surface, the accelerator must be slightly depressed to overcome resistive forces. How does the amount of work done by the engine (via accelerator) compare to the amount of work done by resistance?

↑Work=↑KE The net work is zero in this case since work done by engine is positive and equal to work done by resistance which is negative

What effect would increasing each of the following have on flow rate: radius of the tube, pressure gradient, viscosity, and length of tube?

↑radius of the tube= ↑ flow rate ↑ pressure gradient= ↑ flow rate ↑ viscosity= ↓ flow rate ↑ length of tube= ↓ flow rate

What effect does the sympathetic nervous system have on the digestive system?

↓ digestive system secretion, inhibit peristalsis

Resting membrane potential depends on: I. differential distribution of ion across the axon membrane II. the opening of voltage calcium channels . III. active transport of ions across the membrane . a.I only b.I and II only c.I and III only d. II and III only

(Biology Chapter 4)

Explain the difference between esterification and glycoside formation

-Esterification is the reaction by which a hydroxyl group reacts with either a carboxylic acid or its derivatives to form an ester. -Glycoside formation refers to the reaction between an alcohol and a hemiacetal (or hemiketal) group on a sugar to yield an alkoxy group

Which three hormones are primarily involved in water homeostasis? Where does each come from, and what effect does each have on blood volume and osmolarity?

1. ADH (antidiuretic hormone) or vasopressin; from hypothalamus released by posterior pituitary; ↑ blood volume and ↓ blood osmolarity 2. Aldosterone; from adrenal cortex; ↑ blood volume and no effect on blood osmolarity 3. ANP (atrial natriuretic peptide); from heart; ↓ blood volume and no effect on blood osmolarity

Rank the following elements by increasing electron affinity energy: Ba, Cu, S, Y

1. Ba 2. Y 3. Cu 4. S

What are the three fetal shunts? What vessels or heart chambers do they connect? What organ does each shunt bypass?

1. Foramen ovale: connects right atrium to left atrium shunting blood from lungs 2. Ductus arteriosus: connects pulmonary artery to aorta shunting blood from lungs 3. Ductus venosus: connects umbilical vein to inferior vena cava shunting blood from liver

What are the three steps of translation?

1. Initiation 2. Elongation 3. Termination

What are the three elements of emotion? Describe each

1. Physiological response (autonomic nervous system); heart rate, breathing rate, skin temp and blood pressure 2.Behavioral response: facial expression, body language 3. Cognitive response: subjective interpretation, memories of past experiences, perception of cause of emotion

What are the 4 main modalities of somatosensation?

1. Pressure 2. Pain 3. Temperature 4. Vibration

List at lease 4 functions of liver

1. Produce bile 2. Produce urea 3. Detoxifies chemicals 4. Synthesizes albumin and clotting factors

What are two potential drawbacks of affinity chromatography?

1. Protein of interest may not elute from column because its affinity is too high 2. Protein of interest may permanently be bound to free receptor in the eluent

Name the three main types of sphingolipids and their characteristics:

1. Sphingomyelin; is phospholipid; main function group is Phosphatidylethanolamine and Phosphatidylcholine 2. Glycosphingolipid; is glycolipid; main function group is Sugars 3. Ganglioside; is glycolipid; main function group is Oligosaccharides and NANA

What is one method for forming an ketone?

2° alcohol oxidized with PCC

Describe the structure and function of triacylglycerols

3 fatty acids + glycerol using ester linkages; function is to store energy

Can a moving object be in equilibrium? Why or why not?

A moving object can be in translational or rotational equilibrium (or both). Velocity needs to be constant so net force is zero for translational and net torque is zero for rotational.

Define the term and provide SI unit: current

A or C/S; movement of positive charges through conductive material over time

What is a retro-aldol reaction? What conditions favor retro-aldol reactions?

A retro-aldol reaction is the reverse of an aldol reaction where inside a bond between the alpha and beta carbon of the carbonyl is broken. This can be formed by the addition of base and heat. In this reaction a bond between the alpha and beta carbons of a carbonyl is broken

Sarin is a potent organophosphate that can be used in chemical warfare. As an inhibitor of acetylcholinesterase, sarin causes excessive buildup of acetylcholine in all synapses where it is the neurotransmitter. Which of the following symptoms would be most likely to be seen in an individual with sarin poisoning? A. Increased urination and increased sweating B. Increased urination and decreased sweating C. Decreased urination and increased sweating D. Decreased urination and decreased sweating

A. Increased urination and increased sweating (Biology Chapter 10)

Ketose sugars may have the ability to act as reducing sugars. Which process explains this? A. Ketose sugars undergo tautomerization B. The ketone group is oxidized directly C. Ketose sugars undergo anomerization D. The ketone group is reduced directly

A. Ketose sugars undergo tautomerization (Biochem Chapter 4)

Matt and Cati discuss the reasons why they avoid driving above the speed limit. Matt says that he wants to avoid a traffic fine, while Cati says that speeding is dangerous and, if everyone did it, there would be more accidents and people would get hurt. According to Kohlberg, which of the following describes the phases of moral reasoning demonstrated by Matt and Cati, respectively? A. Preconventional; conventional B. Preconventional; postconventional C. Conventional; preconventional D. Postconventional; conventional

A. Preconventional; conventional (Behavioral Science Chapter 6)

How does adding or removing a resistor change the total resistance of a circuit with resistors in series?

Add resistor= ↑R Remove resistor= ↓ R

What are the four groups attached to the central (alpha) carbon of a proteinogenic amino acid?

Amino group (-NH2), Carboxylic acid group (-COOH), R group, and H atom

Describe in words what occurs when Zn(NO₃)₂ is dissolved in (NH₄)₂S:

Ammonium cations swap places with/displace zinc cations yielding ammonium nitrate and zinc (II) sulfide then precipitates out of solution as a solid salt

Which three drugs (or drug classes) are known to increase dopamine, norepinephrine, and serotonin activity in the brain?

Amphetamine Cocaine Ecstasy (MDMA)

To which property of a sound do amplitude and frequency correspond?

Amplitude: Intensity (sound level- volume) Frequency: Pitch

Which of the two forms of starch is more soluble in the solution? Why?

Amylopectin because it has branched structure which ↑ interaction with solution

What are the components of plasma?

An aqueous mixture of nutrients, salts, respiratory gases, hormones and blood proteins

How does the aromaticity of purines and pyrimidines underscore their genetic function?

Aromaticity makes nucleic acid very stable and unreactive, ↑ stability allows storing genetic info without spontaneous mutations

What are the negatively charged/acidic amino acids? (2)

Aspartate (Aspartic Acid) Glutamate (Glutamic Acid)

What direction does a negative electrostatic force point?

Attraction force so →←

Following a myocardial infarction, the heart often heals by the creation of a scar by fibroblasts. This is an example of: A. complete regeneration B. incomplete regeneration C. competency D. multipotency

B. incomplete regeneration (Biology Chapter 3)

Prolonged vitamin B12 deficiency can be associated with subacute combined degeneration of the spinal cord. Patients with this disease have difficulty walking because they lose the ability to feel where their feet are in space. This represents a loss of: A. vestibular sense. B. kinesthetic sense. C. parallel processing. D. feature detection.

B. kinesthetic sense. (Behavioral Sciences Chapter 2)

Some people with anxiety disorders respond to stress by hyperventilating. It is recommended that these people breathe into a paper bag and then re-breathe this air. Why is this treatment appropriate? A. Hyperventilation causes an increase in blood carbon dioxide, and breathing the air in the bag helps to readjust blood levels of carbon dioxide. B. Hyperventilation causes a decrease in blood carbon dioxide, and breathing the air in the bag helps to readjust blood levels of carbon dioxide. C. Hyperventilation causes an increase in blood oxygen, and breathing the air in the bag helps to readjust blood levels of oxygen. D. Hyperventilation causes a decrease in blood oxygen, and breathing the air in the bag helps to readjust blood levels of oxygen.

B. Hyperventilation causes a decrease in blood carbon dioxide, and breathing the air in the bag helps to readjust blood levels of carbon dioxide. (Biology Chapter 6)

Why is the α-anomer of d-glucose less likely to form than the β-anomer? A. The β-anomer is preferred for metabolism. B. The β-anomer undergoes less electron repulsion. C. The α-anomer is the more stable anomer. D. The α-anomer forms more in L-glucose.

B. The β-anomer undergoes less electron repulsion. (Biochem Chapter 4)

A person suffers from food poisoning after eating a spoiled lemon, and later finds that the smell of limes and other citrus fruits make her nauseous. This is an example of: A. acquisition. B. generalization. C. discrimination. D. negative reinforcement.

B. generalization. (Behavioral sciences chapter 3)

What parts of the nervous system are in the central nervous system (CNS)?

Brain and spinal cord

What parts of the nervous system are in the central nervous system?

Brain and spinal cord

Peroxisomes

Break down long fatty acid chains, synthesize lipids and contribute to pentose phosphate pathway

How is sound produced and transmitted?

By mechanical vibrations; sound is propagated as longitudinal waves in matter

A patient has a very high TSH level. Which of the following would NOT cause a high TSH level? A. Autoimmune destruction of thyroid cells that produce T3 and T4. B. A tumor in the hypothalamus that secretes high levels of TRH. C. High levels of T4 from thyroid replacement medications. D. Cancerous growth of parafollicular cells in the thyroid, destroying other cell types in the organ.

C. High levels of T4 from thyroid replacement medications. (Biology Chapter 5)

Why are triacylglycerols used in the human body for energy storage? A. They are highly hydrated, and therefore can store lots of energy. B. They always have short fatty acid chains, for easy access by metabolic enzymes. C. The carbon atoms of the fatty acid chains are highly reduced, and therefore yield more energy upon oxidation. D. Polysaccharides, which would actually be a better energy storage form, would dissolve in the body.

C. The carbon atoms of the fatty acid chains are highly reduced, and therefore yield more energy upon oxidation. (Biochem Chapter 5)

What is the order of priority for functional groups?

Carboxylic acid> Anhydride> Ester> Amide> Aldehyde> Ketone> Alcohol> Alkene or Alkyne> Alkane

What ion is primarily responsible for the fusion of neurotransmitter-containing vesicles with the nerve terminal membrane?

Ca²⁺

What are the three sections of large intestine?

Cecum, Colon, and Rectum

What tissues do neural tube cells develop into?

Central N.S.

How do the cytoskeletal structures of centrioles and flagella differ?

Centrioles: 9 microtubules triplets with hollow center Flagella: 9+2; 9 pairs of microtubules forming outer ring and 2 microtubule pair in center

Describe the relationship between internal energy, work and heat in words

Change in internal energy is equal to heat put into system minus work done by system

What are some characteristics of good oxidizing agents? List some examples

Characteristics: High affinity for e-; high unusual oxidation state Examples: O₂, O₃, Mn⁺⁷ in MnO₄⁻, Cr⁺⁶ in CrO₄²⁻

What feature describes each cluster of personality disorders? Which personality disorders falls into each clusters?

Cluster A: odd; Paranoid, Schizotypic, and Schizoid Cluster B: emotional, and dramatic; Antisocial, Boarderline, Histrionic, and Narcissistic Cluster C: fearful, and anxious; Avoidant, Dependent and Obsessive-Compulsive

An individual with B+ blood is in an automobile accident and requires blood transfusion. What blood types could this person receive? After recovery, the same individual, thankful for the transfusion, decides to donate blood. To which blood types could this person donate?

Could receive from: O⁻, B⁻, O⁺, B⁺ Could donate to: B⁺ or AB⁺

How can aldehydes or ketones be protected using alcohols?

Create acetal and ketal that does not react with strong reducing agent like LiAlH₄

When HCN reacts with an aldehyde or ketone, what functional group is produced? Is the product stable?

Cyanohydrin is formed, yes it is stable

How does flow in the venae cavae relate to flow in the main pulmonary artery?

Flow in venae cavae is slightly less than in the pulmonary artery because some of the blood entering right side of heart is from coronary circulation not systemic circulation

Filariasis is the name for an infection with a member of a certain group of parasites, most notably Wuchereria bancrofti. This parasite resides in lymph nodes and causes blockage of flow. If an individual had W. bancrofti infection in the lymph nodes of the thigh, what would likely happen?

Fluid would be unable to return from the lower leg, and edema would result. This infection leads to elephantiasis, severe swelling of the limb and with thickening of the skin.

What causes fluorescence?

Fluorescence is a special stepwise photo emission in which an excited electron returns to the ground state through one or more intermediate excited states. Each energy transition release is a photon of light. With smaller energy transitions than the initial energy absorbed, these materials can release photons of light in the visible range

Name some characteristics that make gas phase unique

Gas is compressible

What are tautomers?

Isomers that can be interconverted by movement of hydrogen and double bond

Identify the limiting reagent, and find the mass of the excess reagent left over once the reaction has run to completion

Limiting reagent: Na Excess reagent mass: 16 g O₂

Describe the bending of light when moving from a medium with low refractive index to high refractive index and from a medium with high refractive index to low refractive index:

Low n to high n: n₂ >n₁ ∴ θ₂<θ₁; light bends towards normal High n to low n: n₂ <n₁ ∴ θ₂>θ₁; light bends away from normal

Which has lower pKa; ethanol or p-ethylphenol? Why?

P-ethylphenol; has a lower pka due to having a more acidic H in OH and resonance. There is also EWG behavior which increases acidity

What is the role of each eukaryotic RNA polymerase?

RNA polymerase I: synthesizes most rRNA RNA polymerase II: synthesizes mRNA and snRNA; only one involved in transcription RNA polymerase III: synthesize this tRNA and some rRNA

NSAIDs block prostaglandin production in order to reduce pain and inflammation. What do prostaglandins do to bring about these symptoms?

Regulate synthesis of cAMP which is involved in pathway of pain and inflammation

What direction does a positive electrostatic force point?

Repulsive force so ←→

In an enhancer, what are the differences between signal molecules, transcription factors, and response elements?

Signal molecules include steroid hormones and second messengers which bind to the receptors in the nucleus. These receptors are transcription factors that use their DNA binding domain to attach to a particular sequence and DNA called a response element. Once bound to the response element, these transcription factors can then promote increased expression of the relevant gene

Exposure of which subendothelial compounds start the coagulation cascade? What protein helps stabilize the clot?

Starts the cascade: exposure of collagen and tissue factor to platelets and coagulation factors Stabilizes the clot: fibrin

By what factor would electric potential energy change if the magnitude of both charges were doubled and the distance between them was halved?

The electrical potential energy increases by factor of 8 bc U=2*2/(1/2)

What determines the absorption spectrum of a single atom?

The energy differences btwn ground-state electron and higher level electron orbits determine the frequencies of light a particular material absorbs (its absorption spectrum)

When calculating the sum of vectors A and B (A+B), we put the tail of B at the tip of A. What would be the effect of reversing this order (B+A)?

There is no difference in A+B or B+A

Why are some enzymes released as zymogens?

They are precursors of active enzymes kept inactive to prevent damage (ex: dietary enzymes)

During exhalation, how does the total resistance of the encountered airways change as air leaves the alveoli to escape the nose and mouth?

Total resistance increases as air exits the body despite increase in diameter of airways because there are fewer airways parallel to each other

Coronavirus, which causes the common cold, is described as an enveloped, single-stranded positive-sense RNA virus. What does this description indicate about the virus?

Virus has outer later made of phospholipids and inside capsid. Capsid has RNA that host cell can translate into protein

During which electronic transitions is photon emission most common?

When e- move from higher energy state to a lower state energy state

Under what conditions will a carboxylic acid spontaneously decarboxylate?

When heated will spontaneously decarboxylate due to stable cyclic intermediate step

What are the units for work? How are work and energy different?

Work unit= Joule (J) Work is a form of energy transfer Energy is ability to do work

While molar mass is typically written in grams per mole, is the ration moles per gram also acceptable?

Yes

What is the electric field midway between two negative charges in isolation?

Zero bc the two charges are the same so they cancel @ midpoint and no electric field

Describe the effects the following conditions would have on the initial rate of reaction, given the reaction order: Conditions: a. Temperature lowered b. All reactants' concentrations doubled c. Catalyst added

Zero order: a. Decrease b. No change c. Increase First order: a. Decrease b. Increase 2x c. Increase Second order: a. Decrease b. Increase 4x c. Increase

The reaction of ammonia with caprylic acid, found in coconuts, would produce a(n): a. ester b. anhydride c. alcohol d. water molecule

d. water molecule (Ochem Chapter 8)

Consider a reaction catalyzed by enzyme A with a Km value of 5 x 10^-6 M and vmax if 20 mmol/min At concentration of 5x10^-6 M substrate, the rate of the reaction will be: a. 10 mmol/min b. 20 mmol/min c. 30 mmol/min d. 40 mmol/min

a. 10 mmol/min (Biochem Chapter 2)

A 1000 kg rocket ship, travelling at 100 m/s, is acted upon by an average force of 20 kN applied in the direction of its motion for 8 s. What is the change in velocity of the rocket? a. 160 m/s b. 260 m/s c. 160,000 m/s d. 260,000 m/s

a. 160 m/s (Physics Ch 1)

In the reaction shown, if 39.05 g of Na₂S are reacted with 85.5 g of AgNO₃, how much of the excess reagent will be left over once the reaction has gone to completion? Na₂S + 2 AgNO₃→Ag₂S+ 2 NaNO₃ a. 19.5 g Na₂S b. 26 g Na₂S c. 41.4 g Na₂S d. 74.3 g Na₂S

a. 19.5 g Na₂S (Gen Chem Chapter 4)

A transformer is a device that takes an input voltage and produces an output voltage that can be either larger or smaller than input voltage, depending on the transformer design. Although the voltage is changed by the transformer, energy is not, so the input power equals the output power. A particular transformer produces an output voltage that is 300 percent of the input voltage. What is the ratio of the output current to the input current? a. 1:3 b. 3:1 c. 1:300 d. 300:1

a. 1:3 (Physics Chapter 6)

Which of the following is the correct electron configuration for Zn2+? a. 1s²2s²2p⁶3s²3p⁶4s⁰3d¹⁰ b. 1s²2s²2p⁶3s²3p⁶4s²3d⁸ c. 1s²2s²2p⁶3s²3p⁶4s²3d¹⁰ d.1s²2s²2p⁶3s²3p⁶4s⁰3d⁸

a. 1s²2s²2p⁶3s²3p⁶4s⁰3d¹⁰ (Gen chem Ch1)

If two waves with the same frequency are 180 degrees out of phase, what is the amplitude of the resultant wave if the amplitude of the original wave are 5 cm and 3 cm? a. 2 cm b. 3 cm c. 5 cm d. 8 cm

a. 2 cm (Physics Chapter 7)

Determine how many valence e- come from each subshell in the following atoms: a. P in [PO4] 3- b. Ir c. Cf

a. 2 s; 6 p; 2 d; 0 f = 10 e- b. 2 s; 0 p; 7 d; 0 f = 9 e- c. 2 s; 0 p; 0 d; 12 f = 12 e-

Treating 2-methyl-1-propanol with methysulfonyl chloride in base, followed by reaction with pyridinium chlorochromate and a final step in strong acid, will give an end product of: a. 2-methyl-1-propanol b. 2-methylpropanal c. 2-methylpropanoic acid d. 2-methyl-1-propane

a. 2-methyl-1-propanol (Ochem Chapter 5)

Which of the following are representative elements (A) and which are non-representative (B)? a. Ag b. Pb c. Cu d. N e. P f. He g. K

a. Ag: B b. Pb: A c. Cu: B d. N: A e. P: A f. He: A g. K: A

Balance the following reactions: a. Fe+ Cl→FeCl₃ b. Zn+ HCl→ZnCl₂+H₂ c. C₅H₁₂+O₂→CO₂+H₂O d. Pb(NO₃)₂+AlCl₃→PbCl₂+Al(NO₃)₃

a. 2Fe+ 3Cl→2FeCl₃ b. 1Zn+ 2HCl→1ZnCl₂+1H₂ c. 1C₅H₁₂+8O₂→5CO₂+6H₂O d. 3Pb(NO₃)₂+2AlCl₃→3PbCl₂+2Al(NO₃)₃

If given the following quantum numbers, which element(s) do they likely refer to? a. n: 2, l: 1 b. n: 3, l: 0 c. n: 5, l: 3 d. n: 4, l: 2

a. 2p: B, C, N, O, F, Ne b. 3s: Na, Mg c. 5f: Actinide series d. 4d: Y, Zr, Nb, Mo, Tc, Ru, Pd, Ad, Cd

Provide definition, subtypes, and stabilizing bonds for: a. tertiary structure b. quaternary structure

a. 3D shape of protein; Hydrophobic interaction, acid/base salt bridges, and disulfide links are subtypes; uses Van der Waals, hydrogen bonds, ionic bonds, and covalent bond b. Interaction between separate subunits of multisubunit protein; no subtypes; uses Van der Waals, hydrogen bonds, ionic bonds, and covalent bond

Diethyl zinc is a very unstable compound. When exposed to air, it reacts with oxygen to produce zinc oxide, carbon dioxide, and water. The unbalanced reaction is shown below: Zn(C₂H₅)₂+O₂→ ZnO +CO₂ +H₂O What is the coefficient for carbon dioxide in the balanced reaction? a. 4 b. 5 c. 6 d. 7

a. 4 (Gen Chem Chapter 4)

Which of the following is the gram equivalent weight of H₂SO₄ with respect to protons? a. 49.1 g b. 98.1 g c. 147.1 g d. 196.2 g

a. 49.1 g (Gen Chem Chapter 4)

A ray of light (f= 5 x 10¹⁴ Hz) travels from air into crystal into chromium. If the indices of refraction of air, crystal, and chromium are 1, 2, and 3, respectively, and the incident angle is 30°, then which of the following describes the frequency and the angle of refraction in the chromium? a. 5 x 10¹⁴ Hz; 9.6° b. 5 x 10¹⁴ Hz; 57° c. 1.0 x 10¹⁰ Hz; 9.6° d. 1.0 x 10¹⁰ Hz; 57°

a. 5 x 10¹⁴ Hz; 9.6° (Physics Chapter 8)

How many moles of electrons pass through a circuit containing a 100 V battery and a 2 Ω resistor over a period of 10 seconds? (Note: F= 9.65 x 10⁴ C/mol e-) a. 5.18 x10⁻³ moles b. 500 moles c. 5.18 x10³ moles d. 5.2 x 10⁶ moles

a. 5.18 x10⁻³ moles (Physics Chapter 6)

How many total electrons are in a Cs-133 cation? a. 54 b. 55 c. 78 d. 132

a. 54 (P:55 but cation so one less) (Gen chem Ch1)

In nuclear medicine, isotopes are created and used for various purposes; for instance, 18-O is created from 18-F. Determine the number of protons, neutrons, and electrons in each of these species a. 18-O b. 18-F

a. 8 p+, 10 n, 8 e- b. 9 p+, 9 n, 9 e-

Determine the number of protons, neutrons, and electrons in each of these species a. 19-O b. 16-O c. 238-U d. 240-U e. 16-F

a. 8 p+, 11 n, 8 e- b. 8 p+, 8 n, 8 e- b. 92 p+, 146 n, 92 e- d. 92 p+, 148 n, 92 e- e. 9 p+, 7 n, 9 e-

Carbon disulfide and nitrous oxide, when ignited, react exothermically to produce elemental sulfur, nitrogen, and carbon dioxide. Since this reaction produces a "woof" sound, it is sometimes referred to as the Barking Dog reaction. Which of the following represents the balanced chemical reaction? a. 8N₂O+ 4CS₄→ S₈ + 4CO₂ + 8N₂ b. 6N₂O+ 4CS₄→ S₈ + 4CO₂ + 6N₂ c. 8N₂O+ 2CS₄→ S₈ + 2CO₂ + 8N₂ d. 7N₂O+ 5CS₄→ S₈ + 4CO₂ + 7N₂

a. 8N₂O+ 4CS₄→ S₈ + 4CO₂ + 8N₂ (Gen Chem Chapter 4)

For each of the ages below, list the expected milestone(s) of language development: a. 9-12 months b. 12-18 months c. 18-20 months d. 2-3 years e. 5 years

a. 9-12 months: babbling b. 12-18 months: increase of about one word per month c. 18-20 months: "explosion of language", combining words (2 word sentences) d. 2-3 years: longer sentence of three or more words, increase in grammatical errors e. 5 years: language rules largely mastered

Which of the following lists the correct common names for ethanal, methanal, and ethanol respectively? a. Acetaldehyde, formaldehyde, ethyl alcohol b. ethyl alcohol, propionaldehyde, isopropyl alcohol c. ethyl alcohol, formaldehyde, isopropyl alcohol d. isopropyl alcohol, ethyl alcohol, formaldehyde

a. Acetaldehyde, formaldehyde, ethyl alcohol (OChem Ch 1)

In which of the following compounds is the percent composition of carbon by mass closest to 62%? a. Acetone b. Ethanol c. Propane d. Methanol

a. Acetone (Gen Chem Chapter 4)

Which of the following neurotransmitters is used in the ganglia of both the sympathetic and parasympathetic nervous system? a. Acetylcholine b. Dopamine c. Norepinephrine d. Serotonin

a. Acetylcholine (Biology Chapter 4)

What are the predominant proteins in each cytoskeletal element: a. Microfilaments b. Microtubules c. Intermediate filaments

a. Actin b. Tubulin c. Keratin, Desmin, Vimentin, and Lamins

Which of the following is true regarding passive and active immunity? a. Active immunity requires weeks to build, whereas passive immunity is acquired immediately b. Active immunity is short lived, whereas passive immunity is long lived c. Active immunity may be acquired during pregnancy through the placenta d. Passive immunity is acquired through vaccination

a. Active immunity requires weeks to build, whereas passive immunity is acquired immediately (Biology Chapter 8)

For each of the properties listed below, write down the groups of the periodic table that exhibit those properties. a. High reactivity with water b. Six valence electrons c. Contain at least one metal d. Multiple oxidation states e. Negative oxidation states f. Possess a full octet in the neutral state

a. Active metals Group 1 & 2 b. Group 6 & 16 c. Group 1-15 d. Transition metals Group 3-12 e. Group 14-17 f. Noble gas Group 18

Which of the following characteristics is NOT attributed to antibodies? a. Antibodies bind to more than one distinct antigen b. Antibodies level antigens for targeting by other immune cells c. Antibodies can cause agglutination by interaction with antigen d. Antibodies have two heavy chains and two light chains

a. Antibodies bind to more than one distinct antigen (Biochem Chapter 3)

Which of the following will convert a cyclic acetal to a carbonyl and a dialcohol? a. Aqueous acid b. LiAlH₄ c. CrO₃ d. Acetone

a. Aqueous acid (Ochem Chapter 5)

Given the following pka values, what is the value for the pI for each amino acid? a. Aspartic acid (pka1= 1.88, pka2= 3.65, pka3= 9.60) b. Arginine (pka1= 2.17, pka2= 9.04, pka3= 12.48) c. Valine (pka1= 2.32, pka2= 9.62)

a. Aspartic acid (1.88 + 3.65)/2 = 2.765 b. Arginine (9.04+12.48)/2 = 10.76 c. Valine (2.32+9.62)/2= 5.97

For B cell and T cells: a. where is site of development b.site of maturation c. major function d. specific or nonspecific e. humoral or cell mediated

a. B cell= bone marrow; T cell= bone marrow b. B cell= bone marrow but activates in spleen or lymph node; T cell= thymus c. B cell= produce antibodies; T cell= coordinate immune system and directly kills infected cells d. B cell= specific; T cell= specific e. B cell= humoral ; T cell= cell mediated

What are the main functions of the following subdivisions: a. Hindbrain b. Midbrain c. Forebrain

a. Balance, motor coordination, breathing, digestion, general arousal processes (sleeping and waking); vital functioning b. Receives sensory and motor information from the rest of the body, reflexes to auditory and visual stimuli c. Complex perceptual, cognitive, and behavioral processes; emotion and memory

What is the major function of each segment of nephron? a. Bowman's capsule b. proximal convoluted tubule c. descending limb of the loop of Henle d. ascending limb of the loop of Henle e. distal convoluted tubule f. collecting duct

a. Bowman's capsule: site of filtration, through which water, ions, amino acids, vitamins, and glucose pass (essentially everything besides cells and proteins) b. proximal convoluted tubule: controls solute identity, reabsorbing vitamins, amino acids and glucose while secreting potassium and hydrogen ions, ammonia and urea c. descending limb of the loop of Henle: important for water reabsorption, and uses medullary concentration gradient d. ascending limb of the loop of Henle: important for salt reabsorption and dilution of urine in the diluting segment e. distal convoluted tubule: like PCT, is important for solute identity by reabsorbing salt while secretly potassium and hydrogen ions, ammonia, and urea f. collecting duct: important for urine concentration; Its variable permeability allows water to be reabsorbed based on the needs of the body

A stroke patient comprehends speech but cannot properly move the mouth to form words. Which of the following brain areas is likely affected? a. Broca's area b. Wernicke's area c. Arcuate fasciculus d. Superior temporal gyrus

a. Broca's area (Behavioral sciences chapter 4)

Butanoic anhydride can be produced by the reaction of butanoic acid with which of the following compounds? a. Butanoic acid b. Ethanoic acid c. Butanol d. Methanal

a. Butanoic acid (Ochem Chapter 8)

Which of the following isotopes of carbon is LEAST likely to be found in nature? a. C-6 b. C-12 c. C-13 d. C-14

a. C-6 (Gen chem Ch1)

Which of the following DNA sequences would have the highest melting temperature? a. CGCAACCATCCG b. CGCAATAATACA c. CGTAATAATACA d. CATAACAAATCA

a. CGCAACCATCCG (Biochem Chapter 6)

A consumer is comparing two news cars. Car A exerts 250 horsepower, while Car B exerts 300 horsepower. The consumer is most concerned about the peak velocity that the car can reach. If nonconservative forces can be ignored, which of the following statements is true? (Note: 1 horsepower= 745.7 W) a. Car A and Car B both have unlimited velocities b. Car A will reach its peak velocity more quickly than Car B c. Car A will dissipate less energy to the surroundings than Car B d. Car A will have a lower peak velocity than Car B

a. Car A and Car B both have unlimited velocities (Physics ch 2)

Carbon and Silicon are the basis of biological life an synthetic computing, respectively. While these elements share many chemical properties, which of the following best describes a difference between the two elements? a. Carbon has a smaller atomic radius than silicon b. Silicon has a smaller atomic radius than carbon c. Carbon has fewer valence electrons than silicon d. Silicon has fewer valence electrons

a. Carbon has a smaller atomic radius than silicon (General Chem Chapter 2)

Which of the following biomolecules does NOT drain into the liver before arriving at the right side of the heart? a. Cholecalciferol (vitamin D) b. Threonine (an amino acid) c. Fructose (a monosaccharide) d. Pantothenic acid (Vitaimin B5)

a. Cholecalciferol (vitamin D) (Biology Chapter 9)

Which of the following correctly pairs the molecule with its primary site of absorption? a. Chylomicrons- lacteal b. Amino acid- large intestine c. vitamin A and E- stomach d. cholesterol - ascending colon

a. Chylomicrons- lacteal (Biology Chapter 9)

Which of the following thermodynamic systems transfer matter and/or energy? a. Closed b. Isolated c. Open

a. Closed: no matter, yes energy b. Isolated: no matter, no energy c. Open: yes matter, yes energy

A person sits at a terminal of the airport and works on a challenging sudoku puzzle. The individual ignores most of the intercom announcements but, after an announcement indicates that boarding for the flight has begun, quickly gets in line. Which of the following best explains the person's rapid response for boarding? a. Cocktail party phenomenon b. Divided attention c. Automatic processing d. Effortful processing

a. Cocktail party phenomenon (Behavioral sciences chapter 4)

A bacterial cell is noted to be resistant to penicillin. The bacterium is transferred to a colony that lacks the fertility factor, and the rest of the colony does not become resistant to penicillin. However, the penicillin-resistant cells has also started to exhibit other phenotypic characteristics, including secretion of a novel protein. Which of the following methods of bacterial recombination is NOT likely to account for this change? a. Conjugation b. Transformation c. Transduction d. Infection with a bacteriophage

a. Conjugation (Bio ch 1)

What is the difference between a nucleoside and a nucleotide?

nucleoside: nitrogenous base + sugar (pentose; 5 sugar) nucleotide: nucleoside + phosphate group

Classify each of the following cells as epithelial cells or connective tissue: a. Fibroblasts, which produce collagen in a number of organs b. Endothelial cells, which line blood vessels c. Alpha-cells, which produce glucagon in the pancreas d. Osteoblasts, which produce osteoid, the material that hardens into bone e. Chondroblasts, which produce cartilage

a. Connective tissue b. Epithelial cells c. Epithelial cells d. Connective tissue e. Connective tissue

For each of the repair mechanisms below, in which phase of the cell cycle does the repair mechanism function? What are the key enzymes or genes specifically associated with each mechanism? a. DNA Polymerase (proofreading) b. Mismatch Repair c. Nucleotide Excision Repair d. Base Excision Repair

a. DNA Polymerase (proofreading): S; DNA Polymerase b. Mismatch Repair: G₂: Eukaryote= MSH2 and MLH1, Prokaryote= MutS and MutL c. Nucleotide Excision Repair: G₁ and G₂; Excision endonuclease d. Base Excision Repair: G₁ and G₂; Glycosylase and AP endonuclease

Topoisomerase are enzymes involved in: a. DNA replication and transcription b. posttranscriptional processing c. RNA synthesis and translation d. posttranslational processing

a. DNA replication and transcription (Biochemistry Chapter 7)

FeI (aq) + I2 (g) = FeI3 (aq) Which of the following would increase the formation of product? a. Decreasing the volume of the container b. Decreasing the pressure of the container c. Increasing the volume of the container d. Decreasing the volume of the container while maintaining a constant pressure

a. Decreasing the volume of the container (General Chemistry Chapter 6)

Which of the following is true of diffusion and osmosis? a. Diffusion and osmosis rely on the concentration gradient of only the compound of interest b. diffusion and osmosis rely on the concentration gradient of all compounds in a cell c. diffusion and osmosis will proceed in the same direction if there is only one solute d. diffusion and osmosis cannot occur simultaneously

a. Diffusion and osmosis rely on the concentration gradient of only the compound of interest (Biochem Chapter 8)

Neurofibromatosis type I, or von Recklinghausen's disease, is a disorder that causes formation of tumors in multiple nervous system structures as well as the skin. While all cells carry the same mutation on chromosome 17, selective transcription of the genome appears to cause the most significant tumorigenesis in which of the following primary germ tissue layers? a. Ectoderm b. Mesoderm c. Endoderm d. Notochord

a. Ectoderm (Biology Chapter 3)

For each of the following combinations of velocity and magnetic field direction, determine the direction of the magnetic force on given particle: a. V: up the page; B: left; Particle: electron b. V: into the page; B: out of the page; Particle: proton c. V: right; B: into the page; Particle: proton d. V: out of the page; B: left; Particle: electron e. V: down the page; B: right; Particle: neutron

a. F: into page b. F: none (sin 180°= 0) c. F: up the page d. F: up the page e. F: none (q=0)

Which of the following activities would be most likely completed by the right hemisphere of a left-handed person? a. Finding a car in a parking lot b. Learning a new language c. Reading a book for pleasure d. Jumping rope with friends

a. Finding a car in a parking lot (Behavioral sciences Ch 1)

What is the common names for: a. Methanal b. Ethanal c. Propanal d. Propanone

a. Formaldehyde b. Acetaldehyde c. Propionaldehyde d. Acetone

In each of the following pairs, which has the largest radius? a. F or F⁻ b. K or K⁺

a. F⁻ b. K *Anions are larger than neutral; cations are smaller than neutral*

The three-base sequences listed below are DNA sequences. What amino acid is encoded by each of these sequences, after transcription and translation? a. GAT b. ATT c. CGC d. CCA

a. GAT → Isoleucine (AUC) b. ATT → Asparagine (AAU) c. CGC → Alanine (GCG) d. CCA → Tryptophan (UGG)

Diabetic nephropathy is commonly detected by finding protein in the urine of a patient. In such a disease, where is the likely defect in the nephron? a. Glomerulus b. Proximal convoluted tubule c. Loop of Henle d. Collecting duct

a. Glomerulus (Biology Chapter 10)

Name two forces in addition to mechanical manipulation (pushing or pulling forces created by contact with an object):

a. Gravitiational b. Frictional

A person with high left frontal lobe activity is most likely experiencing which emotion? a. Happiness b. Sadness c. Surprise d. Disgust

a. Happiness (Behavioral Science Chapter 5)

For each of the enzymes listed below, list the function of the enzyme and if it is found in prokaryotes, eukaryotes, or both. a. Helicase b. Single-stranded DNA binding protein c. Primase d. DNA Polymerase III e. DNA Polymerase α f. DNA Polymerase I g. RNase H h. DNA Ligase i. DNA topoisomerases

a. Helicase: Both; unwinds DNA double helix b. Single-stranded DNA binding protein: prevents reannealing of DNA double helix during replication c. Primase: Both; places ~ 10 nucleotide RNA primer to begin DNA replication d. DNA Polymerase III: Prokaryote; adds nucleotide to growing daughter strand e. DNA Polymerase α: Eukaryote; adds nucleotide to growing daughter strand f. DNA Polymerase I: Prokaryote; fills in the gap left behind after RNA primer removal g. RNase H: Eukaryote; removes RNA primer h. DNA Ligase: Both; seal DNA strands into continuous i. DNA topoisomerases: Both; reduces torsional strain from positive supercoiling and uses nicks in DNA strand

Which of the following statements regarding polymerase chain reaction is FALSE? a. Human DNA polymerase is used because it is the most accurate b. A primer must be prepared with a complementary sequence to part of the DNA of interest c. Repeated heating and cooling cycles allow the enzymes to act specifically and replaces helicase d. Each cycle of the polymerase chain reaction doubles the amount of DNA of interest

a. Human DNA polymerase is used because it is the most accurate (Biochem Chapter 6)

Rank the following in order of decreasing leaving group ability: H₂O, HO⁻ , Br⁻, H⁻ a. H₂O > Br⁻>HO⁻>H⁻ b. H₂O> HO⁻ >Br⁻>H⁻ c. HO⁻>Br⁻>H₂O>H⁻ d. HO⁻>H⁻>H₂O>Br⁻

a. H₂O > Br⁻>HO⁻>H⁻ (Ochem Chapter 4)

A certain substance has a specific heat of 1 J/mol*K and a melting point of 350 K. If one mole of the substance is currently at a temperature of 349 K, how much energy must be added in order to melt it? a. More than 1 J b. Exactly 1 J c. Less than 1 J but more than 0 J d. Less than 0 J

a. More than 1 J (Physics and Math Chapter 3)

A certain chemical reaction has the following rate law: rate= k[NO₂][Br₂] Which of the following statements necessarily describe(s) the kinetics of this reaction? I. The reaction is second-order II. The amount of NO₂ consumed is equal to the amount of Br₂ consumed III. The rate will not be affected by the addition of a compound other than NO₂ and Br₂ a. I only b. I and II only c. II and III only d. I, II, and III

a. I only (Gen Chem Chapter 5)

As a teacher approaches a student who is studying with the ratio playing loudly nearby, the teacher experiences the Doppler effect. Which of the following statements remains true while the teacher moves closer to the student? I. The apparent frequency of the music is increased II. The same apparent frequency would be produced if the teacher were stationary and the student approached at the same speed III. The apparent velocity of the wave is decreased a. I only b. II only c. I and III only d. I, II, and III

a. I only (Physics Chapter 7)

Which of the following choices correctly identifies the following three heat transfer processes? I. Heat transferred from the Sun to the Earth II. A metal spoon heating up when placed in a pot of hot soup III. A rising plume of smoke from a fire a. I. Radiation; II. Conduction; III. Convection b. I. Conduction; II. Radiation; III. Convection c. I. Radiation; II. Convection; III. Conduction d. I. Convection; II. Conduction; III. Radiation

a. I. Radiation; II. Conduction; III. Convection (Physics and Math Chapter 3)

Many kinases have divalent cation cofactors to stabilize their interaction with ATP. If the electric potential energy of the cation and ATP is -3.3 x 10⁻¹⁹ J, how would the electric potential energy change if the distance between the cation and ATP were doubled? a. Increase by a factor of 2 b. Increase by a factor of 4 c. Decrease by a factor of 2 d. Decrease by a factor of 4

a. Increase by a factor of 2 (Physics and Math Chapter 5)

In emphysema, the alveolar walls are destroyed, decreasing the recoil of the lung tissue. Which of the following changes may be seen in a patient with emphysema? a. Increased residual volume b. Decreased total lung capacity c. Increased blood concentration of oxygen d.Decreased blood concentration of carbon dioxide

a. Increased residual volume (Biology Chapter 6)

Human DNA polymerase is removed from the freezer and placed in a 60⁰C water bath. Which of the following best described the changes in enzyme activity as the polymerase sample comes to thermal equilibrium with the water bath? a. Increases then decreases b. Decreases then plateaus c. Increases then plateaus d. Decreases then increases

a. Increases then decreases (Biochem Chapter 2)

How does each theory create motivation? a. Instinct theory b. Arousal theory c. Drive reduction theory d. Need-based theory

a. Instinct theory: Instincts; innate, fixed patterns of behavior in response to stimuli b. Arousal theory: maintaining a constant level of arousal, the physiological and psychological state or being awake and reactive to stimuli c. Drive reduction theory: driven by internal states of tension or discomfort that can be relieved with a particular action d. Need-based theory: factors needed for physiological function or emotional fulfillment

What are the common names for: a. 2-propanol b. Ethanol

a. Isopropyl alcohol b. Ethyl alcohol

A pot of water boils at 100°C sits on a heating element and boils. Which of the following best characterizes this phase change process? a. Isothermal expansion b. Adiabatic expansion c. Isovolumetric heating d. Adiabatic compression

a. Isothermal expansion (General Chemistry Chapter 7)

What is unique about each of the following types of processes: a. Isothermal b. Adiabatic c. Isobaric d. Isovolumetric (isochoric)

a. Isothermal: No temp change; so ∆U=0 ∴ Q=W b. Adiabatic: No heat transfer; so Q=0 ∴ ∆U=-W c. Isobaric: No pressure change d. Isovolumetric (isochoric): no volume change; so work=0 and ∆U=Q

An object is placed at the center of curvature of a concave mirror. Which of the following is true about the image? a. It is real and inverted b. It is virtual and inverted c. It is real and upright d. It is virtual and upright

a. It is real and inverted (Physics Chapter 8)

Provide definition, subtypes, and stabilizing bonds for: a. Primary structure b. Secondary structure

a. Linear sequence of a.a. in a chain; no subtypes; uses peptide bonds b. Local structure determined by nearby a.a.; alpha helix and beta-pleated sheet are subtype; hydrogen bonds

A physician is attempting to diagnose a patient's mental disorder based on a set of symptoms. The confirmed symptoms currently include appetite disturbance, substantial weight change, decreased energy, and a feeling of worthlessness, and excessive guilt. What two disorders could these symptoms indicate? a. Major depressive and bipolar disorders b. Dissociative amnesia and depersonalization/derealization disorder c. Alzheimer's disease and Parkinson's disease d. Specific phobia and panic disorder

a. Major depressive and bipolar disorders (Behavioral Sciences Chapter 7)

For each of the following disorders, briefly describe their makeup with respect to depressive episodes, manic episodes, and other mood disturbances: a. Major depressive disorder b. Bipolar I disorder c. Bipolar II disorder d. Cyclothmic disorder

a. Major depressive disorder: at least one depressive episode but no manic episode b. Bipolar I disorder: manic episode and can have depressive episode but not necessary c. Bipolar II disorder: both depressive episode and hypomanic (manic symptoms for at least four days, does not impact life) episode are needed d. Cyclothmic disorder: both depressive episode and manic symptoms but not severe enough to be an episode; Symptoms last at least two years

Which of the following conclusions would William James most likely support? a. Mental processes help individuals adapt to their environments b. Psychological attributes could be measured by feeling the skull c. Specific functional impairments could be linked to specific lesions in the brain d. Synaptic transmission is an electrical process

a. Mental processes help individuals adapt to their environments (Behavioral sciences Ch 1)

What would be the names of the ester, amide, and anhydride derivatives of pentanoic acid? Assume R group on ester is Ch3- and that the amide is unsubstituted. a. Ester b. Amide c. Anhydride

a. Methyl pentanoate b. Pentanamide c. Pentanoic anhydride

If the electric field at a distance r away from charge Q is 36 N/C, what is the ratio of the electric fields at r, 2r, and 3r? a. 9:3:1 b. 36:9:4 c. 36:18:9 d. 36:18:12

b. 36:9:4 (Physics and Math Chapter 5)

What is the major secretion and function of these cells? a. Mucous cells b. Chief cells c. Parietal cells d. G-cells

a. Mucous cells: produce mucus made primarily of bicarbonate; protects lining of stomach, increases pH b. Chief cells: produce pepsinogen; digests proteins, activated by H⁺, low pH c. Parietal cells: produces HCl (decrease pH, kills microbes, denatures proteins, break intramolecular bonds= chemical digestion) and Intrinsic factor (absorption of B₁₂) d. G-cells: produces gastrin; increases HCl production and gastric motility (contractions)

Calculate the number of moles in 100 g of each of the following substances: a. NaBr b. SrCl₂ c. C₆H₁₂O₆

a. NaBr: 1 mol b. SrCl₂: 0.625 mol c.C₆H₁₂O₆: 0.55 mol

Calculate the molar mass of the following substances: a. NaBr b. SrCl₂ c.C₆H₁₂O₆

a. NaBr: 100 g/mol b. SrCl₂: 160 g/mol c.C₆H₁₂O₆: 180 g/mol

What stimulus activates each of the following types of cells? a. Natural killer cells b. Neutrophils c. Eosinophils d. Basophils and mast cells

a. Natural killer cells: cells that do not present MHC b. Neutrophils: opsonized bacteria c. Eosinophils: invasive parasites + allergies d. Basophils and mast cells: allergens

During uniform circular motion, which of the following relationships is necessarily true? a. No work is done b. The centripetal force does work c. The velocity does work d. Potential energy depends on position of the object around the circle

a. No work is done (Physics ch 2)

Consider the two sets of quantum number shown in the table, which describes two different electrons in the same atom? n l ml ms 2 1 1 +1/2 3 1 -1 +1/2 Which term best describes these two electrons? a. Parallel b. Opposite c. Antiparallel d. Paired

a. Parallel (Gen chem Ch1)

Which of the following compounds would be most reactive toward a nucleophile? a. Pentanal b. 3-Pentanone c. Pentane d. 2-Nonanone

a. Pentanal (Ochem Chapter 7)

List the main contribution that each of the following scientists made to neuropsychology: a. Franz Gall b. Pierre Flourens c. William James d. John Dewey e. Paul Broca f. Hermann von Helmholtz g. Sir Charles Sherrington

a. Phrenology; associated development of a trait with the growth of its relevant part of the brain b. Extirpation/Ablation; concluded that different brain regions have specific functions c. Founder of American psychology; pushed for the importance of studying adaptions of people to their environment d. Functionalism; argued for studying the entire organism as a whole as it adapted to the environment e. Correlated pathology with specific brain regions, such as speech production from Broca's area, located on frontal cortex f. measured speed of nerve impulse g. inferred existence of synapse but thought they were mainly electrical

For each of the lymphocytes listed below, what are its main functions? a. Plasma cell: b. Memory B-cell: c. Helper T-cell: d. Cytotoxic T-cell: e. Suppressor (regulatory) T-cell: f. Memory T-cell:

a. Plasma cell: formed by B cells exposed to antigen and produce antibodies b. Memory B-cell: formed by B cells exposed to antigen and lie in wait for a second exposure to a given antigen to mount a rapid, robust response c. Helper T-cell: coordinate the immune system through lymphokines and respond to antigen bound MHC-II; CD4 d. Cytotoxic T-cell: directly kill virally infected cells and respond to antigen bound MHC-I; CH8 e. Suppressor (regulatory) T-cell: end the immune response after a pathogen has been cleared and promote self tolerance f. Memory T-cell: lie in wait for a second exposure to a given antigen to mount a rapid, robust response

Which of the following are involved in antibody production? a. Plasma cells b. Memory cells c. Helper T cells d. Cytotoxic cells

a. Plasma cells (Biology Chapter 8)

Premature infants with respiratory distress are often placed on ventilators. Often, the ventilators are set to provide positive end-expiratory pressure. Why might this setting be useful for a premature infant? a. Premature infants lack surfactant b. Premature infants lack lysozyme c. Premature infants cannot thermoregulate d. Premature infants are unable to control pH

a. Premature infants lack surfactant (Biology Chapter 6)

Scientists discovered a cDNA sequence for an uncharged protein in their initial studies, they use a computer program designed to predict protein structure. Which of the following levels of protein structure can be most accurately predicted? a. Primary structure b. Secondary structure c. Tertiary structure d. Quaternary structure

a. Primary structure (Biochem Ch 1)

Describe how each would define personality: a. Psychoanalytic b. Humanistic c. Type d. Trait e. Behaviorist f. Social cognitive g. Biological

a. Psychoanalytic: personality is result of unconscious urges and desires b. Humanistic: personality comes from conscious feelings about oneself c. Type: personalities are set of distinct qualities into which can be grouped d. Trait: personalities are assembled from having different degrees of certain qualities e. Behaviorist: personality is result of behavioral responses to stimuli based on rewards+ punishment f. Social cognitive: personality comes from interactions between individual and their environment g. Biological: personality is based on genetic influence and brain anatomy

Enhancers are transcriptional regulatory sequences that function by enhancing the activity of: a. RNA polymerase at a single promoter site b. RNA polymerase at multiple promoter sites c. Spliceosomes and a lariat formation of the ribosome d. Transcription factors that bind to the promoter but not to RNA polymerase

a. RNA polymerase at a single promoter site (Biochemistry Chapter 7)

What is the main function of nucleolus? a. Ribosomal RNA synthesis b. DNA replication c. Cell division d. Chromosome assembly

a. Ribosomal RNA synthesis (Bio ch 1)

Which of the following correctly traces the circulatory pathway? a. SVC → RA → RV → Pulmonary artery → Lungs → pulmonary veins →LA→ LV→ aorta b. SVC → LA → LV→ Pulmonary artery→ Lungs → pulmonary veins →RA→ RV→ aorta c. Aorta → RA → RV → Pulmonary artery → Lungs → pulmonary veins →LA→ LV→ SVC d. SVC → RA → RV → Pulmonary veins → Lungs → pulmonary artery →LA→ LV→ aorta

a. SVC → RA → RV → Pulmonary artery → Lungs → pulmonary veins →LA→ LV→ aorta (Biology Chapter 7)

Tumor suppressor genes are most likely to result in cancer through: a. loss of function mutations b. gain of function mutations c. overexpression d. proto-oncogene formation

a. loss of function mutations (Biochem Chapter 6)

In the following study what is the sample and control group: a. Family study b. Twin study c. Adoption study

a. Sample group: Genetically related family Control group: Unrelated people aka general public b. Sample group: Monozygotic twins Control group: Dizygotic twins c. Sample group: Adoptive family Control group: Biological family

Josh, who has a mass of 80 kg, and Sarah, who has a mass of 50 kg, jump off a 20 m tall building and land on a fire net. The net compresses, and they bounce back up at the same time. Which of the following statements is NOT true? a. Sarah will bounce higher than Josh b. For Josh, the change in speed from the start of the jump to contacting the net is 20 m/s c. Josh will experience a greater force upon impact than Sarah d. The energy in this event is converted from potential to kinetic to elastic to kinetic

a. Sarah will bounce higher than Josh (Physics ch 2)

What property of protein-digesting enzymes allows for a sequence to be determined without fully degrading the protein? a. Selectivity b. Sensitivity c. Turnover d. Inhibition

a. Selectivity (Biochem Chapter 3)

Which of the following accurately describes sensory neurons? a. Sensory neurons are afferent and enter the spinal cord on the dorsal side b. Sensory neurons are efferent and enter the spinal cord on the dorsal side c. Sensory neurons are afferent and enter the spinal cord on the ventral side d. Sensory neurons are efferent and enter the spinal cord on the ventral side

a. Sensory neurons are afferent and enter the spinal cord on the dorsal side (Biology Chapter 4)

Describe what would happen in the following situation: a. In the reaction H₂SO₄ (aq)↔ H⁺(aq)+HSO⁴⁻ (aq), the pH has been increased: b. In the reaction 2C (s)+ O₂ (g)↔ 2CO (g), the pressure of the reaction vessel is decreased: c. In the reaction CH₄ (g) +2O₂ (g)↔ CO₂ (g)+ 2H₂O (l) + heat, the reaction vessel is warmed: d. In the reaction H₃PO₄ (aq) + H₂O (l)↔H₃O₊ (aq)+ H₂PO₄⁻ (aq), water is removed (without changing temperature):

a. Since ↓ [H₊] ∴ shift rxn towards right b. So ↓P ∴ shift rxn toward right (more moles) c. Exothermic, ↑ temp ∴ shift rxn towards left d. ↓ water ∴ Rxn shifts to left

How many σ bonds and π bonds are there in the following compound acetaldehyde? a. Six σ bonds and one π bond b. Six σ bonds and two π bonds c. Five σ bonds and one π bond d. Five σ bonds and two π bonds

a. Six σ bonds and one π bond (Ochem Chapter 3)

Find the percent composition by mass of sodium, carbon, and oxygen in a sodium carbonate molecule (Na₂CO₃): a. Sodium b. Carbon c. Oxygen

a. Sodium: 46% b. Carbon: 12% c. Oxygen: 48%

Aldehydes are generally more reactive than equivalent ketone to nucleophiles. This is likely due to differences in: a. Steric hindrance b. Leaving group ability c. Resonance stabilization d. Electron-withdrawing character

a. Steric hindrance (Ochem Chapter 4)

Which of the following choices INCORRECTLY pairs a digestive enzyme with its site of secretion? a. Sucrase- salivary glands b. Carboxypeptidase- pancreas c. Trypsin- pancreas d. Lactase- duodenum

a. Sucrase- salivary glands (Biology Chapter 9)

For each of the following substances, determine whether it is a digestive enzyme or a hormone; and briefly summarize its functions a. Sucrase b. Secretin c. Dipeptide d. Cholecytoskinin e. Enteropeptidase

a. Sucrase: enzyme; brush border enzyme that breaks/digest sucrase into sucrose b. Secretin: peptide hormones; increases pancreatic secretions esp bicarbonate; reduce HCl secretion and decreases motility c. Dipeptide: enzyme; brush border enzyme that breaks/digest peptide bonds in dipeptide into free amino acid d. Cholecytoskinin: peptide hormones; stimulate bile and pancreatic juices in response to chyme; induces satiety e. Enteropeptidase: enzyme; activates trypsinogen into trypsin, activates procarboxypeptidase A and B into active form

Carbonated beverages are produced by dissolving carbon dioxide in water to produce carbonic acid: CO₂ (g)+ 2H₂O (l) ↔H₂CO₃ (aq) When a bottle containing carbonated water is opened, the taste of the beverage gradually changes as the carbonation is lost. Which of the following statements best explains this phenomenon? a. The change in pressure and volume causes the reaction to shift to the right, thereby decreasing the amount of aqueous carbonic acid b. The change in pressure and volume causes the reaction to shift to the right, thereby decreasing the amount of gaseous carbon dioxide c. Carbonic acid reacts with environmental oxygen and nitrogen d. Carbon dioxide reacts with environmental oxygen and nitrogen

a. The change in pressure and volume causes the reaction to shift to the right, thereby decreasing the amount of aqueous carbonic acid (General Chemistry Chapter 6)

A hydraulic lever is used to life a heavy hospital bed, requiring an amount of work W. When the same bed with a patient is lifted, the work required is doubled. How can the cross-sectional area of the platform on which the bed is lifted be changed so that the pressure on the hydraulic lever remains constant? a. The cross-sectional area must be doubled b. The cross-sectional area must be halved c. The cross-sectional area must be divided by four d. The cross-sectional area must remain constant

a. The cross-sectional area must be doubled (Physics Chapter 4)

If Kc >> 1: a. The equilibrium mixture will favor products over reactants b. The equilibrium mixture will favor reactants over products. c. The equilibrium concentrations of reactants and products are equal. d. The reaction is essentially irreversible

a. The equilibrium mixture will favor products over reactants (General Chemistry Chapter 6)

A firefighter jumps horizontally from a burning building with an initial speed of 1.5 m/s. At what time is the angle between the firefighter's velocity and acceleration vectors the greatest? a. The instant the firefighter jumps b. When the firefighter reaches terminal velocity c. Halfway through the firefighter's fall d. Right before the firefighter lands on the ground

a. The instant the firefighter jumps (Physics Ch 1)

A researcher uses partial-report procedure after presenting participants with an array of nine numbers for a fraction of a second. Which of the following is the most likely to result of this procedure? a. The participants will be able to recall any of the rows or column in great detail but only immediately after presentation b. The participants will only be able to recall the first few numbers in the array due to the serial position effect c. The participants will be able to recall approximately seven of the numbers for a few seconds following presentation of the stimulus d. The participants will not be able to recall any of the numbers verbally, but will be able to draw the full array under hypnosis

a. The participants will be able to recall any of the rows or column in great detail but only immediately after presentation (Behavioral sciences chapter 3)

In PO₄³⁻ what atom(s) have the most positive charge? a. The phosphorus atom has the most positive charge b. All atoms share the charge equally c. The four oxygen atoms share the highest charge d. The oxygen atom at the peak of the trigonal pyramidal geometry has the most positive charge

a. The phosphorus atom has the most positive charge (General Chem Ch 3)

An elevator is designed to carry a maximum weight of 9800 N (including its own weight), and to move upward at a speed of 5 m/s after an initial period of acceleration. What is the relationship between the maximum tension in the elevator cable and the maximum weight of the elevator while the elevator is accelerating upward? a. The tension is greater than 9800 N b. The tension is less than 9800 N c. The tension equals 9800 N d. It cannot be determined from the information given

a. The tension is greater than 9800 N (Physics Ch 1)

Which of the following factors determine an enzyme's specificity? a. The three-dimensional shape of the active site b. The Michaelis constant c. The type of cofactor required for the enzyme to be active d. The prostethic group on the enzyme

a. The three-dimensional shape of the active site (Biochem Chapter 2)

Which of the following does NOT describe connective tissue cells? a. They account for most cells in muscles, bones, and tendons b. They secrete substances to form the extracellular matrix c. In organs, they tend to form the stroma d. In organs, they provide support for epithelial cells

a. They account for most cells in muscles, bones, and tendons (Bio ch 1)

Which of the following is FALSE with regard to adult stem cells? a. They retain inherent pluripotency if harvested from selected organs. b. They are less controversial than embryonic stem cells c. They require treatment with various transcription factors d. There is a reduced risk of rejection if the patient's own stem cells are used

a. They retain inherent pluripotency if harvested from selected organs. (Biology Chapter 3)

Which of the following is LEAST likely to be required for a series for metabolic reactions? a. Triacylglycerol acting as a coenzyme b. Oxidoreductase enzymes c. Magnesium acting as a cofactor d. Transferase enzymes

a. Triacylglycerol acting as a coenzyme (Biochem Chapter 2)

What is the behavior for each primitive behavior: a. Rooting b. Moro c. Babinski d. Grasping

a. Turn head towards direction of object touching cheek b. In response to sudden head movement, arms extend and slowly retract; baby usually cries c. Extension of big toe and fanning of other toes in response to brushing the sole of foot d. Holding onto any object placed in hand

Which ion channels are responsible for maintaining the resting membrane potential? a. Ungated channels b. Voltage-gated channels c. Ligand-gated channels d. No ion channels are involved in maintenance of the resting membrane potential

a. Ungated channels (Biochem Chapter 3)

Using a given mass of KClO3, how would one calculate the mass of oxygen produced in the following reaction, assuming it goes to completion? 2 KClO₃→ 2 KCl + 3 O₂ a. [(grams KClO₃ consumed) (3 moles O₂) (molar mass O₂)]/ [(molar mass KClO₃)(2 moles KClO₃)] b. [(grams KClO₃ consumed) (molar mass O₂)]/ [(molar mass KClO₃)(2 moles KClO₃)] c. [(molar mass KClO₃ ) (2 moles KClO₃)]/ [(grams KClO₃ consumed)(molar mass O₂) ] d. [(grams KClO₃ consumed) (3 moles O₂)]/ [(molar mass KClO₃)(2 moles KClO₃) (molar mass O₂)]

a. [(grams KClO₃ consumed) (3 moles O₂) (molar mass O₂)]/ [(molar mass KClO₃)(2 moles KClO₃)] (Gen Chem Chapter 4)

Which of the following statements best describes the effect of lowering the temperature of the following reaction? A +B ↔ C+D ∆H= -1.12 kJ/mol a. [C] and [D] would increase b. [A] and [B] would increase c. ∆H would increase d. ∆H would decrease

a. [C] and [D] would increase (General Chemistry Chapter 6)

Reaction of 1-phenylethanone with ethylene glycol, also known as ethane-1,2-diol in aqueous H₂SO₄ will result in the formation of: a. a ketal b. a carboxylic acid c. an aldehyde d. a hemiacetal

a. a ketal (Ochem Chapter 5)

A person is at a restaurant and orders a spicy entrée. After the first bite, the person experiences burning in the mouth and becomes concerned that food is too hot. The next few bites are similarly uncomfortable, but after a while the spiciness seems to subside somewhat, and by the end of the meal, the person doesn't notice the spice level. The end of the meal experience is best described as: a. adaptation b. signal detection c. a difference threshold d. pain perception

a. adaptation (Behavioral Sciences Chapter 2)

What is the cyclic form called for: a. amide b. ester

a. amide: lactam b. ester: lactone

Describe the following for peptide hormone: a. chemical precursor b. location of receptor c. mechanism of action d. method of travel in the bloodstream e. speed of onset f. duration of action

a. amino acid (polypeptide) b. extracellular (cell membrane) c. stimulates receptor, has 1st messenger to 2nd messenger, signaling cascade, amplification d. dissolves and travels freely e. fast f. short-lived

What is the function of each part of the limbic system? a. amygdala b. thalamus c. hypothalamus d. hippocampus e. Ventromedial prefrontal cortex

a. amygdala: attention and emotions (fear); helps interpret facial expression; part of intrinsic memory b. thalamus: sensory processing system c. hypothalamus: releases neurotransmitters that affect mood and arousal; maintain homeostasis d. hippocampus: creates long-term memories which can be explicit (episodic) memories e. Ventromedial prefrontal cortex: decision-making and controlling emotional response from amygdala

In a reaction between ammonia and glutaraldehyde, what is the major product? a. an imine b. a cyanohydrin c. a semicarbazone d. a hydrazone

a. an imine (Ochem Chapter 6)

Increased synthetic activity of the parathyroid glands would lead to: a. an increase in renal calcium and reabsorption b. a decrease in the rate of bone resorption c. a decrease in basal metabolic rate d. a decrease in blood glucose concentration

a. an increase in renal calcium and reabsorption (Biology Chapter 5)

What is the highest priority function group from below? a. anhydride b. carbonyl c. ketone d. alkyl chain

a. anhydride (OChem Ch 1)

For artery, capillary and vein: 1. carries blood in what direction 2. relative wall thickness 3. smooth muscle present 4. contains valves a. artery b. capillary c. vein

a. artery: away from heart, thick, yes, no b. capillary: from arterioles to venules, very thin, no, no c. vein: towards heart, thin, yes, yes

In a reaction between hydrogen cyanide, butyraldehyde, and ethylmethylketone which compounds will come together to form the major product? a. butyraldehyde and Hydrogen cyanide b. ethylmethylketone and butyraldehyde c. Hydrogen cyanide and ethylmethylketone d. No reaction will occur

a. butyraldehyde and Hydrogen cyanide (Ochem Chapter 6)

How does a dielectric material impact: a. capacitance b. Voltage c. Charge

a. capacitance: always increase b. Voltage: if isolated= decrease voltage; if in circuit= constant voltage c. Charge: if isolated= constant charge; if in circuit= increase charge

Describe the following for steroid hormone: a. chemical precursor b. location of receptor c. mechanism of action d. method of travel in the bloodstream e. speed of onset f. duration of action

a. cholesterol b. intracellular (cytosol) or intranuclear c. binds receptor, induces conformational change, regulates transcription @ DNA level d. binds to protein carrier e. slow f. long-lived

A patient comes to the doctor with a two-week history of complete paralysis of the left arm. The patient has had no injury to the extremity, and full neurological work of failed to demonstrate any underlying cause. The patient seemed surprisingly unconcerned about the paralysis and seems more worried about an argument that happened about a month ago in which the patient had a family member. Based on this information, the patient's most likely diagnosis is: a. conversion disorder b. generalized anxiety disorder c. illness anxiety disorder d. histrionic personality disorder

a. conversion disorder (Behavioral Sciences Chapter 7)

Compare and contrast nonconservative forces: a. What will happen to total mechanical energy of the system b. Does the path taken matter c. What are some examples

a. decreases (energy dissipated) b. yes c. friction and air resistance

Successfully converting 3-phenylpropanol to 3-phenylpropanoic acid by the jones oxidation requires the oxidizing agent, the solent, and: a. dilute sulfuric acid b. dilute sodium hydroxide c. anhydrous conditions d. high temperature

a. dilute sulfuric acid (Ochem Chapter 5)

Which subatomic particle is the most important for determining each of the following properties of an atom: a. charge b. atomic number c. isotope

a. electron b. proton c. neutron

(+)- Glyceraldehyde and (-)-Glyceraldehyde refer to the (R) and (S) forms of 2,3-dihydroxyproponal, respectively. These molecules are considered: a. enantiomers b. diastereomers c. meso compounds d. structural isomers

a. enantiomers (Ochem Chapter 2)

The following molecules are considered to be: a. enantiomers b. diastereomers c. meso compounds d. structural isomers

a. enantiomers (Ochem Chapter 2)

A college student strives for excellent grades and hopes to graduate with a better GPA than an older sibling. This type of motivation is considered: a. extrinsic motivation b. intrinsic motivation c. a primary drive d. a secondary drive

a. extrinsic motivation (Behavioral Science Chapter 5)

Anencephaly is a rare physiological abnormality in which the cerebellum fails to develop. During which trimester of pregnancy would this disorder manifest? a. first trimester b. second trimester c. third trimester d. any trimester

a. first trimester (Biology Chapter 3)

On a very cold day, a person waits for over an hour at the bus stop. Which of the following structures helps the person's body set and maintain a normal temperature? a. hypothalamus b. kidneys c. posterior pituitary d. brainstem

a. hypothalamus (Biology Chapter 10)

The half-life of carbon-14 is approximately 5,730 years, while the half-life of carbon-12 is essentially infinite. If the ratio of carbon-14 to carbon-12 in a certain sample is 25% less than the normal ratio in nature, how old is the sample? a. less than 5,730 years b approximately 5,730 years c. significantly greater than 5,730 years, but less than 11,460 years d. approximately 11,460 years

a. less than 5,730 years (Physics Ch 9)

The presynaptic neuron becomes more efficient at releasing neurotransmitters while receptors density increases on the postsynaptic neuron. These changes are consistent with: a. long term potentiation b. synaptic pruning c. an increase in neuroplasticity d. amnesia

a. long term potentiation (Behavioral sciences chapter 3)

Which cell type is a phagocyte that attacks bacterial pathogens in the bloodstream? a. neutrophils b. eosinophils c. basophils d. dendritic cells

a. neutrophils (Biology Chapter 8)

If oxygen is absent, can the following carryout aerobic metabolism: a. obligate aerobe b. facultative anaerobe c. obligate anaerobe d. aerotolerant anaerobe

a. no b. yes c. yes d. yes

If oxygen is absent, can the following survive: a. obligate aerobe b. facultative anaerobe c. obligate anaerobe d. aerotolerant anaerobe

a. no b. yes c. yes d. yes

A 42-year-old patient has always been extremely neat and tidy. This person works as a secretary and stays long after normal working hours to check the punctuation and spelling of letters prepared during the day. The patient was referred for counseling by supervisor after repeatedly getting in fights with coworkers. "They don't take the job to heart," the patient says. "They just joke around all day." The most likely preliminary diagnosis for this patient is: a. obsessive-compulsive personality disorder b. antisocial personality disorder c. narcissistic personality disorder d. borderline personality disorder

a. obsessive-compulsive personality disorder (Behavioral Sciences Chapter 7)

For a generic amino acid NH2CRHCOOH, with an uncharged side chain, what would be the predominant form at each of the following pH values? a. pH = 1 b. pH = 7 c. pH = 11

a. pH = 1 : +NH3CRHCOOH b. pH = 7 : +NH3CRHCOO- c. pH = 11 : NH2CRHCOO-

Chemicals that compel behavior after binding with chemoreceptors are known as: a. pheromones b. olfactory receptors c. somatostimuli d. papillae

a. pheromones (Behavioral Sciences Chapter 2)

The dynamic properties of molecules in the cell membrane are most rapid in: a. phospholipids moving within the plane of the membrane b. phospholipids moving between the layers of the membrane c. proteins moving within the plane of the membrane d. proteins exiting the cell through exocytosis

a. phospholipids moving within the plane of the membrane (Biochem Chapter 8)

Define: a. equilibrium position b. amplitude c. traveling wave d. standing wave

a. point with zero displacement in oscillating system b. A; max displacement from equilibrium system c. moving wave with different nodes and antinodes; crest and troughs change but amplitude stays the same d. still wave with fixed nodes and antinodes; amplitude changes but same frequency

The adrenal glands do all of the following EXCEPT: a. promote the fight-or-flight response via estrogen b. produce stress responses via cortisol c. produce both hormones and neurotransmitters d. release estrogen in males and testosterone in females

a. promote the fight-or-flight response via estrogen (Behavioral sciences Ch 1)

A eukaryotic cell has been found to exhibit a truncation mutation that creates an inactive RNA polymerase I enzyme. Which type of RNA will be affected by this inactivation? a. rRNA b. tRNA c. snRNA d. hnRNA

a. rRNA (Biochemistry Chapter 7)

At any given time, there is more blood in the venous system than the arterial system. Which of the following features of veins allow for this? a. relative lack of smooth muscle in the wall b. presence of valves c. proximity of veins to lymphatic vessels d. Thin endothelial lining

a. relative lack of smooth muscle in the wall (Biology Chapter 7)

Within one principal energy level, which subshell has the least energy? a. s b. p c. d d. f

a. s (Ochem Chapter 3)

Which of the following correctly indicates the response of CD8+ T-cells when activated? a. secretion of cytotoxic chemicals b. causing isotope switching c. presentation of antigens d. activation of B-cells

a. secretion of cytotoxic chemicals (Biology Chapter 8)

Which of the following methods of encoding is most conductive to later recall? a. semantic b. visual c. iconic d. Acoustic

a. semantic (Behavioral sciences chapter 3)

A student making a coffee cup calorimeter fails to use a second coffee cup and inadequately seals the lid. What was her initial goal, and what was the result of this mistake? a. she was trying to create an isolated system but created an open system instead b. she was trying to create an isolated system but created a closed system instead c. she was trying to create a closed system but created an open system instead d. she was trying to create a closed system but created an isolated system instead

a. she was trying to create an isolated system but created an open system instead (Physics and Math Chapter 3)

Describe the immunological function each of the following: a. skin b. defensins c. lysozyme d. mucus e. stomach acid f. normal gastrointestinal flora g. complement

a. skin: provides the physical barrier and secrete antimicrobial enzymes b. defensins: examples of anti-bacterial enzymes on the skin c. lysozyme: antimicrobial and is present in tears and saliva d. mucus: present on mucous membranes and traps incoming pathogens; in the respiratory system cilia propel the mucus upward so it can be swallowed or expelled e. stomach acid: an anti-microbial substance in the digestive system f. normal gastrointestinal flora: provides competition, making it hard for pathogenic bacteria to grow in gut g. complement set proteins in blood that can create holes in bacteria

What is the appropriate function for the brain part: a. Basal ganglia b. Cerebellum c. Cerebral cortex d. Hypothalamus e. Inferior and superior colliculi f. Limbic system g. Medulla oblongata h. Reticular formation i. Thalamus

a. smooth movement b. coordinated movement c. complex perceptual, cognitive, and behavioral processes d. hunger and thirst; emotion e. sensorimotor reflexes f. emotion and memory g. vital function (breathing, digestion) h. arousal and alertness i. sensory relay station

Which of the following hybridizations does the Be in BH₂ assume? a. sp b. sp² c. sp³ d. sp³d

a. sp (Ochem Chapter 3)

The kinetic molecular theory states that: a. the average kinetic energy of a molecule of gas is directly proportional to the temperature of the gas in kelvin b. collisions between gas molecules are inelastic c. gas particles occupy discrete areas of space d. all gas molecules have the same kinetic energy at the same temperature

a. the average kinetic energy of a molecule of gas is directly proportional to the temperature of the gas in kelvin (Gen Chem Chapter 8)

Which of the following statements conflicts with the fluid mosaic model? a. the cell membrane is static and structure b. membrane components can be derived from multiple biomolecules c. hydrophobic interaction stabilize the lipid bilayer d. proteins are asymmetrically distributed within the cell membrane

a. the cell membrane is static and structure (Biochem Chapter 8)

All of the following statements about the photoelectric effect are true EXCEPT: a. the intensity of the light beam does not affect the photocurrent b. the kinetic energy of the emitted electrons do not depend on the light intensity c. a weak beam of light of frequency greater than the threshold frequency yields more current than an increase beam of light of frequency lower than the threshold frequency d. for light of a given frequency, the kinetic energy of emitted electrons increases as the value of the work function decreases

a. the intensity of the light beam does not affect the photocurrent (Physics Ch 9)

Tertiary alcohols are oxidized with difficulty because: a. there is no hydrogen attached to the carbon with the hydroxyl group b. there is no hydrogen attached to the alpha-carbon of the carbonyl c. tertiary alcohols contain hydroxyl groups with no polarization d. they are relatively inert

a. there is no hydrogen attached to the carbon with the hydroxyl group (Ochem Chapter 5)

Define: a. wave speed b. frequency c. angular frequency d. period

a. v, v= λf; rate at which wave transmit energy or matter it is carrying b. f; measure of # of wavelength cycles in given time interval; in Hz c. ω; measure of frequency of how fast object rotates; in radians/second d. T; T= 1/f ; time necessary to complete wave cycle, opposite of frequency

In DiGeorge syndrome, the thymus can be completely absent. The absence of the thymus would leave an individual unable to mount specific defenses against which of the following types of pathogens? a. viruses b. bacteria c. parasites d. fungi

a. viruses (Biology Chapter 8)

What is the function of each of the following neurotransmitters: a. Acetylcholine b. Dopamine c. Endorphins d. Epinephrine/ Norepinephrine e. GABA/ Glycine f. Glutamate g. Serotonin

a. voluntary muscle control b. smooth movements and steady posture c. natural painkiller d. wakefulness and alertness, fight-or-flight responses e. brain "stabilizer" f. brain excitation g. mood, sleep, eating and dreaming

Monochromatic red light is allowed to pass between two different media. If the incident angle in medium 1 is 30° and the incident angle in medium 2 is 45°, what is the relationship between the speed of the light in medium 2 compared to that in medium 1? a. v₂=v₁√2 b. v₂√2=v₁ c. v₂=v₁√3 d. v₂√3=v₁

a. v₂=v₁√2 (Physics Chapter 8)

If oxygen is present, can the following carry out aerobic metabolism: a. obligate aerobe b. facultative anaerobe c. obligate anaerobe d. aerotolerant anaerobe

a. yes b. yes c. no d. no

If oxygen is present, can the following survive: a. obligate aerobe b. facultative anaerobe c. obligate anaerobe d. aerotolerant anaerobe

a. yes b. yes c. no d. yes

A mercury barometer is primarily affected by atmospheric pressure. What would happen to the level of the mercury in the column if: a. the barometer was moved to the top of a mountain b. the barometer was placed ten meters under water

a. ↓ atmospheric pressure ∴ mercury level fell b. ↑ atmospheric pressure ∴ mercury level rose

Explosions are necessarily characterized by: a. ∆G<0 b. ∆H <0 c. ∆S <0 d. T<0

a. ∆G<0 (General Chemistry Chapter 7)

Suppose ∆G°rxn= -2000 J/mol for a chemical reaction. At 300 K, what is the change in Gibbs free energy in J/mol? a. ∆G= -2000 + (300 K)(8.314)(ln Q) b. ∆G= -2000 - (300 K)(8.314)(ln Q) c. ∆G = -2000 + (300 K)(8.314)(log Q) d. ∆G= -2000 - (300 K)(8.314)(log Q)

a. ∆G= -2000 + (300 K)(8.314)(ln Q) (General Chemistry Chapter 7)

What is the difference between an amino acid, dipeptide, tripeptide, oligopeptide, and polypeptide?

amino acid: molecules that form protein dipeptide: 2 a.a. tripeptide: 3 a.a. oligopeptide: <20 a.a. polypeptide: >20 a.a.

What does it mean for a molecule to be amphoteric? What biologically relevant molecules are also characteristically amphoteric?

amphoteric: can act as acid or base examples: Water, HCO₃⁻ (bicarbonate), H₂PO₄⁻(dihydrogen phosphate)

The aldol condensation can be classified under many categories of reaction. List some of these reaction types, and provide a short description of each

an aldol condensation is a condensation reaction in which two molecules are joined to form a single molecule with the loss of a small molecule; dehydration reaction in which a molecule of water is lost; in nucleophile-electrophile reaction in which a nucleophile pushes an electron pair to form a bond with an electrophile

At pH 7, the charge on a glutamic acid molecule is: a. -2 b. -1 c. 0 d. +1

b. -1 There are 2 COO- and 1 NH3+ = -2+1= -1 (Biochem Ch 1)

A graph of an exponential decay process is created. The y-axis is the natural logarithm of the ratio of the number of intact nuclei at a given time t=0. The x-axis is time. What does the slope represent? a. lambda b. -lambda c. e^-lambda *t d. n/no

b. -lambda (Physics Ch 9)

When a hydrogen atom electron falls to the ground state from the n=2 state, 10.2 eV of energy is emitted. What is the wavelength of this radiation? (Note: 1 eV= 1.60 x 10⁻¹⁹ J, h= 6.626 x 10⁻³⁴ J*s) a. 5.76 x 10⁻⁹ m b. 1.22 x 10⁻⁷ m c. 3.45 x 10⁻⁷ m d. 2.5 x 10¹⁵ m

b. 1.22 x 10⁻⁷ m (Physics Ch 9)

A physics major builds a potato launcher and tests it in an open field. The student launches a potato with a velocity of 12 m/s at an angle of 30 degrees. The potato is found 60 meters from the launch site. Which of the following represents the maximum height achieves by the potato? (Note: cos(60 degrees)= 0.866) a. 0.3 m b. 1.8 m c. 5 m d. 18 m

b. 1.8 m (Physics Ch 1)

An object with a density of 2 g/cm^3 is submerged to a depth of 25 cm in a container of dichloromethane is 1.33, what is the total pressure exerted on the submerged object? a. 3.3 kPa b. 104 kPa c. 332 kPa d. 433 kPa

b. 104 kPa (Physics Chapter 4)

The resistance of two conductors of equal cross-sectional area and equal lengths are compared, and are found to be in ratio 1:2. The resistivities of the material from which they are constructed must therefore be in what ratio? a. 1:1 b. 1:2 c. 2:1 d. 4:1

b. 1:2 (Physics Chapter 6)

In order to convert phenols into hydroxyquinones, how many steps of oxidation or reduction are required? a. 1 oxidation step b. 2 oxidation steps c. 1 reduction step d. 2 reduction steps

b. 2 oxidation steps (Ochem Chapter 5)

A person walks 30 m east and then 40 m north. What is the difference between the traveled distance and the displacement? a. 0 m b. 20 m c. 50 m d. 70 m

b. 20 m (Physics Ch 1)

Consider a reaction catalyzed by enzyme A with a Km value of 5 x 10^-6 M and vmax if 20 mmol/min At concentration of 5x10^-4 M substrate, the rate of the reaction will be: a. 10 mmol/min b. 20 mmol/min c. 15 mmol/min d. 30 mmol/min

b. 20 mmol/min (Biochem Chapter 2)

Which of the following reactions has the greatest decrease in entropy? a. 2NH₃ (g)→3H₂ (g) + N₂ (g) b. 2Na (s) + Cl₂ (g)→2 NaCl (s) c. 2H₂O₂ (l)→ 2H₂O (l) + O₂ (g) d. Zn (s)+CuSO₄ (aq)→ ZnSO₄ (aq) + Cu (s)

b. 2Na (s) + Cl₂ (g)→2 NaCl (s) (General Chemistry Chapter 7)

What is the wavelength of a photon that causes an electron to be emitted from a metal with a kinetic energy of 50 J? (Note: The work function of the metal is 16 J, and h= 6.626 x 10⁻³⁴ J*s ) a. 1.0 x 10⁻³⁴ m b. 3.0 x 10⁻²⁷ m c. 3.0 x 10⁻²⁶ m d. 1.0 x 10³⁵ m

b. 3.0 x 10⁻²⁷ m (Physics Ch 9)

A 0.10 g piece of magnesium is placed in a beaker of HCL. Hydrogen gas is generated according to the following equation: Mg(s)+2HCl (aq) → MgCl₂ (aq) + H₂ (g) The gas is collected over water at 25°C, and the gauge pressure during the experimenter reads 784 mmHg. The gas displaces a volume of 100 mL. The vapor pressure of water at 25°C is approximately 24 mmHg. Based on this data, how many moles of hydrogen are produced? a. 4.04 x 10^-5 moles hydrogen b. 4.09 x 10^-3 moles hydrogen c. 3.07 x 10^-2 moles hydrogen d. 3.11 moles hydrogen

b. 4.09 x 10^-3 moles hydrogen (Gen Chem Chapter 8)

A gene encodes a protein with 150 amino acids. There is one intron of 1000 base pairs (bp), a 5'-untranslated region of 100 bp and a 3'-untranslated region of 200 bp. In the final mRNA, about how many bases lie between the start AUG codon and the final termination codon? a. 150 b. 450 c. 650 d. 1750

b. 450 (Biochemistry Chapter 7)

A 10 kg wagon rests on an inclines plane. The plane makes an angle of 30 degrees with the horizontal. Approximately how large is the force required to keep the wagon from sliding down the plane (Note: sin 30 degrees= 0.5, cos 30 degrees= 0.866)? a. 10 N b. 49 N c. 85 N d. 98 N

b. 49 N (Physics Ch 1)

Which of the following equations describes the maximum number of electrons that can fill a subshell? a. 2l+2 b. 4l+2 c. 2l² d. 2l²+2

b. 4l+2 (Gen chem Ch1)

You have just sequenced a piece of DNA that reads as follows: 5' -TCTTTGAGACATCC- 3' What would the base sequence of the mRNA transcribed from this DNA be? a. 5' -AGAAACUCUGUAGG- 3' b. 5' -GGAUGUCUAAAGA- 3' c. 5' -AGAAACTCTGTAGG- 3' d. 5' -GGATCTCTCAAAGA- 3'

b. 5' -GGAUGUCUAAAGA- 3' (Biochemistry Chapter 7)

In the process of photosynthesis, carbon dioxide and water combine with energy to form glucose and oxygen, according to the following equation: CO₂ + H₂O→ C₆H₁₂O₆ +O₂ What is the theoretical yield of glucose if 30 grams of water are reacted with excess carbon dioxide and energy, according to the equation above? a. 30 g b. 50 g c. 300.1 g d. 1801 g

b. 50 g (Gen Chem Chapter 4)

In a double-slit experiment, what wavelength of light must be used for the second dark fringe to be at an angle of 30° given that the distance between the two slits is 0.3 mm? a. 1 x 10⁻⁵ m b. 6 x 10⁻⁵ m c. 3.6 x 10⁻² m d. 6 x 10⁻² m

b. 6 x 10⁻⁵ m (Physics Chapter 8)

In the pulley system, which of the following is closest to the tension force in each rope if the mass of the object is 10 kg and the object is accelerating upwards at 2 m/s²? a. 50 N b. 60 N c. 100 N d. 120 N

b. 60 N (Physics ch 2)

A 30 kg child sits on a seesaw at a distance of 2 m from the fulcrum. Where must the child's parent sit to balance the seesaw if the parent has a mass of 90 kg? a. 67 cm from child b. 67 cm from the fulcrum c. 133 cm from the child d. 267 cm from the fulcrum

b. 67 cm from the fulcrum (Physics Ch 1)

How many stereoisomers exist for the following aldehyde? a. 2 b. 8 c. 9 d. 16

b. 8 (Ochem Chapter 2)

The atomic weight of hydrogen is 1.008 amu. What is the percent composition of hydrogen by isotope, assuming that hydrogen's only isotopes are H-1 and D-2? a. 92% H, 8% D b. 99.2% H, 0.8% D c. 99.92% H, 0.08% D d. 99.992% H, 0.008% D

b. 99.2% H, 0.8% D (Gen chem Ch1)

The reaction of formic acid with sodium borohydride will yield what final product? a. An aldehyde b. A carboxylic acid c. A ketone d. An alcohol

b. A carboxylic acid (Ochem Chapter 8)

Which of the following would an older adult be most likely to have trouble recalling? a. The circumstance of meeting a significant other in college b. A doctor's appointment scheduled for 1:00 pm c. The names of the characters in a favorite television show d. That a library book needs to be returned when passing by the library on a morning walk

b. A doctor's appointment scheduled for 1:00 pm (Behavioral sciences chapter 3)

Suppose an electron falls from n=4 to its ground state, n=1. which of the following effects is most likely to happen? a. A photon is absorbed b. A photon is emitted c. The electron moves into a p-orbital d. the electron moves into a d-orbital

b. A photon is emitted (Gen chem Ch1)

Which of the following actions does NOT affect the equilibrium position of a reaction? a. Adding or removing heat b. Adding or removing catalysts c. Increasing or decreasing concentrations of reactants d. Increasing or decreasing volumes of reactants

b. Adding or removing catalysts (General Chemistry Chapter 6)

Which of the following electronic transitions would result in the greatest gain in energy for a single hydrogen electron? a. An electron moves from n=6 to n=2 b. An electron moves from n=2 to n=6 c. An electron moves from n=3 to n=4 d.An electron moves from n=4 to n=3

b. An electron moves from n=2 to n=6 (Gen chem Ch1)

A gas at a temperature of 27°C has a volume of 60.0 mL. What temperature change is needed to increase this gas to a volume of 90.0 mL? a. A reduction of 150 °C b. An increase of 150 °C c. A reduction of 13.5 °C d. An increase of 13.5 °C

b. An increase of 150 °C (Gen Chem Chapter 8)

Which of the following would make the strongest electrolyte solution? a. A nonpolar covalent compound with significant solubility b. An ionic compound composed of one cation with +3 charge and three anions with -1 charge c. A polar covalent compound with a small dissociation constant d. An ionic compound composed of two cation with +1 charge and one anion with -2 charge

b. An ionic compound composed of one cation with +3 charge and three anions with -1 charge (Gen Chem Chapter 4)

A young person moves to a new city to start work on accelerated degree program. After a few months this individual visits the doctor complaining of stress and isolation and is diagnosed with depression. The doctor describes to cause to low levels of serotonin and prescribes an SSRI for treatment. Which of the following best subscribes the physician's approach to diagnosis and treatment? a. Biomedical approach with indirect therapy b. Biomedical approach with direct therapy c. Biopsychsocial approach with indirect therapy d. Biopsychsocial approach with direct therapy

b. Biomedical approach with direct therapy (Behavioral Sciences Chapter 7)

In the following reaction: Au₂S₃ (s) + H₂ (g)→ Au (s)+ H₂S (g) If 2 moles of Au₂S₃ (s) are reacted with 5 moles of hydrogen gas, what is the limiting reagent? a. Au₂S₃ (s) b. H₂ (g) c. Au (s) d. H₂S (g)

b. H₂ (g) (Gen Chem Chapter 4)

The last step in the Grignard reaction is acidification, in which the alkoxide ion is protonated to form the final alcohol product. During this reaction, the alkoxide ion acts as a: a. Lewis base only b. Bronsted-Lowry base and Lewis base c. Bronsted-Lowry base and Lewis acid d. Bronsted-Lowry base only

b. Bronsted-Lowry base and Lewis base (Ochem Chapter 4)

What is the final product of the following reaction? CH3(CH2)4CH2OH ---> (using CrO3, H2SO4 and acetone) a. CH3(CH2)4CHO b. CH3(CH2)4COOH c. CH3(CH2)4CH3 d. HOOC(CH2)4COOH

b. CH3(CH2)4COOH (Ochem Chapter 8)

Which of the following molecules contains the oxygen atoms with the most negative average formal charge? a. H₂O b. CO₃²⁻ c. O₃ d. CH₂O

b. CO₃²⁻ (General Chem Ch 3)

Which of the following best describes the purpose of a catalyst? a. Catalysts are used up in the reaction, increasing reaction efficiency b. Catalysts increase the rate of reaction by lowering the activation energy c. Catalysts alter the thermodynamics of the reaction to facilitate the formation of products or reactants d. Catalysts stabilize the transition state by bringing it to a higher energy

b. Catalysts increase the rate of reaction by lowering the activation energy (Gen Chem Chapter 5)

Which of the following is NOT part of the small intestine? a. Ileum b. Cecum c. Jejunum d. Duodenum

b. Cecum (Biology Chapter 9)

Which component of the nervous system is NOT involved in the initial reflexive response to pain? a. Spinal cord b. Cerebral cortex c. Interneuron d. Motor neurons

b. Cerebral cortex (Behavioral sciences Ch 1)

Which of the following best describes the structure and mechanism of action of a peptide hormone? a. Cholesterol derivative that binds to a receptor on the cell surface b. Chain of amino acids that signals through a second messenger c. Chain of amino acids that directly binds to DNA to alter gene expression d. Cholesterol derivative that binds to an intracellular receptor and alters gene expression

b. Chain of amino acids that signals through a second messenger (Biology Chapter 5)

Which of the following associations correctly matches a gastric cell with a compound it secretes? a. G cells- HCl b. Chief cells- Pepsinogen c. Parietal cells- alkane mucus d. Mucous cells- intrinsic factor

b. Chief cells- Pepsinogen (Biology Chapter 9)

Which of the following is true about cholesterol? a. Cholesterol always increases membrane fluidity in cells b. Cholesterol is a steroid hormone precursor c. Cholesterol is a precursor for Vitamin A, which is produced in the skin d. Cholesterol interacts only with the hydrophobic tails of phosholipids

b. Cholesterol is a steroid hormone precursor (Biochem Chapter 5)

Which of the following elements has the highest electronegativity? a. Mg b. Cl c. Zn d. I

b. Cl (General Chem Chapter 2)

After completing final exams, a student reports to student health complaining of paranoia, lack of appetite, and elevated heart rate. After some questioning, the student admits to having been awake for over 48 hours after having bought pills from another student in the library. Which of the following drugs has this student likely taken? a. Phenobarbitol b. Dextroamphetamine c. Oxycodone d. Lysergic acid diethylamide

b. Dextroamphetamine (Behavioral sciences chapter 4)

Many medications have anticholinergic side effects, which block the activity of parasympathetic neurons throughout the body. Individuals who are older may be on many such medications simultaneously, exacerbating the side effects. Which of the following would NOT be expected in an individual taking medications with anticholinergic activity? a. Dry mouth b. Diarrhea c. Slow gastric emptying d. Decreased gastric acid production

b. Diarrhea (Biology Chapter 9)

What is the last point in the meiotic cycle in which the cell has a diploid number of chromosomes? a. During interphase b. During telophase I c. During inteerkinesis d. During telophase II

b. During telophase I (Biology chapter 2)

Which of the following best describes the change in entropy that occurs during protein folding? a. Entropy of both water and the protein decreases b. Entropy of water increases; entropy of the protein decreases c. Entropy of water decreases; entropy of the protein increases d. Entropy of both water and the protein increases

b. Entropy of water increases; entropy of the protein decreases *Protein becomes more organized* (Biochem Ch 1)

3-hydroxybutanal can be formed by the reaction of: a. Methanol in diethyl ether b. Ethanal in base, then in acid c. Butanal in strong acid d. Methanal and ethanal in catalytic base

b. Ethanal in base, then in acid (Ochem Chapter 7)

In the figure, the magnitude of the electric force on R due to S is: a. F/2 b. F c. 2F d. 4F

b. F (Physics and Math Chapter 5)

When dissolved in water, which of the following ions is most likely to form a complex ion with H₂O? a. Na⁺ b. Fe²⁺ c. Cl⁻ d. S²⁻

b. Fe²⁺ (General Chem Chapter 2)

An autoimmune disease attacks the voltage-gated calcium channels in the synaptic terminal of an excitatory neuron? What is a likely symptom of this condition? a. Spastic paralysis (inability to relax the muscles) b. Flaccid paralysis (inability to contract the muscles) c. Inability to reuptake neurotransmitters once released d. Retrograde flow of action potentials

b. Flaccid paralysis (inability to contract the muscles) (Biology Chapter 4)

Which of the following is an ethical concern of gene sequencing? a. Gene sequencing is invasive, thus the potential health risks must be thoroughly explained b. Gene sequencing impacts relatives, thus privacy concerns may be raised c. Gene sequencing is very inaccurate, which increases anxiety related to findings d. Gene sequencing can provide false-negative results, giving false sense of security

b. Gene sequencing impacts relatives, thus privacy concerns may be raised (Biochem Chapter 6)

Which of the following is true about glycerophospolipids? a. Glycerophospholipids can sometimes be sphingolipids, depending on the bones in their head groups b. Glycerophospholipids are merely a subset of phospholipids c. Glycerophospholipids are used in the ABO blood typing system d. Glycerophospholipids have one glycerol, one polar head group, and one fatty acid tail

b. Glycerophospholipids are merely a subset of phospholipids (Biochem Chapter 5)

Hemiacetals and Hemiketals usually keep reacting to form acetals and ketals. Why is it difficult to isolate hemiacetals and hemiketals. I. These molecules are unstable II. The hydroxyl group is rapidly protonated and lost as water under acidic conditions, leaving behind a reactive carbocation III. The molecules are extremely basic and react rapidly with one another. a. I only b. I and II only c. II and III only d. I, II, and III

b. I and II only (Ochem Chapter 6)

Which of the following species is represented by the electron configuration 1s²2s²2p⁶3s²3p⁶4s¹3d⁵? I. Cr II. Mn+ III. Fe2+ a. I only b. I and II only c. II and III only d. I, II, and III

b. I and II only (Gen chem Ch1)

The aldol condensation is an example of which reaction type(s)? I. Dehydration II. Cleavage III. Nucleophilic addition a. I only b. I and III only c. II and II only d. I, II and III

b. I and III only (Ochem Chapter 7)

α-hydrogens of a ketone are acidic due to: I. resonance stabilization II. the electron-withdrawing properties of the alkyl groups III. the electronegative carbonyl oxygen a. I only b. I and III only c. II and II only d. I, II and III

b. I and III only (Ochem Chapter 7)

A parachutist jumps from a plane. Beginning at the point when the jumper reaches terminal velocity (constant velocity during freefall), which of the following is true? I. The jumper is in translational equilibrium II. The jumper is not being acted upon by any forces III.There is an equal amount of work being done by gravity and air resistance a. I only b. I and III only c. II, and III only d. I,II, and III

b. I and III only (Physics ch 2)

Which of the following is/are true regarding bipolar disorders? I. They have little, if any genetic heritability II. They are associated with increased levels of serotonin in the brain III. They all require at least one depressive episode for diagnosis a. I only b. II only c. I and III only d. I, II, and III

b. II only (Behavioral Sciences Chapter 7)

Idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis (IPF) is a disease in which scar tissue forms in the alveolar walls, making the lung tissue significantly more stiff. Which of the following findings would likely be detected through spirometry in a patient with IPF? I. Decreased total lung capacity II. Decreased inspiratory reserve volume III. Increased residual volume a. I only b. II only c. I and II only d. I, II, and III

b. II only (Biology Chapter 6)

A resonance structure describes: I. the hybrid of all possible structures that contribute to the electron distribution II. a potential arrangement of electrons in a molecule III. the single form that the molecule most often takes a. I only b. II only c. I and III only d. I, II, and III

b. II only (Ochem Chapter 3)

Why is a single bond stronger than a π bond? I. π bonds have greater orbital overlap II. s-orbitals have more overlap than p-orbital III. sp³ hybridization is always unstable a. I only b. II only c. I and III only d. II and III only

b. II only (Ochem Chapter 3)

Which of the following will convert CH₃CH₂CH₂OH to CH₃CH₂CHO? I. CrO₃ II. PCC III. Kr₂Cr₂O₇ a. I only b. II only c. I and III only d. I, II, and III

b. II only (Ochem Chapter 5)

Which of the following statements is true of movement on a plane with friction? I. Acceleration is a function of applied force only II. More force is needed to accelerate a stationary object than an identical moving object III. The force of friction is independent of the mass of objects a. I only b. II only c. I and II only d. I and III only

b. II only (Physics Ch 1)

Which of the following is/are true with regard to neurulation? I. The neural tube differentiates from endoderm II. The neural tube becomes the peripheral nervous system III. Neural crest cells migrate from their original site a. I only b. III only c. II, and III only d. I, II, and III

b. III only (Behavioral sciences Ch 1)

Which of the following is/are true about sphingolipids? I. They are all phospholipids II. They all contain a sphingosine backbone III. They can have either phosphodiester or glycosidic linkages to their polar head groups a. I only b. III only c. II and III only d. I, II, and III

b. III only (Biochem Chapter 5)

Acetic acid dissociates in solution according to the following equation; CH3COOH = CH3COO- + H+ If sodium acetate, is added to a solution of acetic acid in excess water, which of the following effects would be observed in the solution? a. Decreased pH b. Increased pH c. Decreased pKeq (pKa) d. Increased pKeq (pKa)

b. Increased pH (General Chemistry Chapter 6)

Which of the following is true regarding pancreatic somatostatin? a. Its secretion is increased by low blood glucose b. It is always inhibitory c. It is regulated by cortisol levels d. It stimulates insulin and glucagon secretion

b. It is always inhibitory (Biology Chapter 5)

Which of the following is an example of a semantic memory? a. Having the ability to drive a car b. Knowing the parts of a car engine c. Remembering the experience of learning to drive d. Associating a car with other vehicles in a semantic network

b. Knowing the parts of a car engine (Behavioral sciences chapter 3)

Which language theory states that language development occurs due to preferential reinforcement of certain phonemes by parents and caregivers? a. Nativist theory b. Learning theory c. Social interactionist theory d. Neurocognitive theory

b. Learning theory (Behavioral sciences chapter 4)

Lithium and sodium have similar chemical properties. For example, both can form ionic bonds with chloride. Which of the following best explains this similarity? a. Both lithium and sodium ions are positively charged b. Lithium and sodium are in the same group of the periodic table c. Lithium and sodium are in the same period of the periodic table d. Both lithium and sodium have low atomic weights

b. Lithium and sodium are in the same group of the periodic table (General Chem Chapter 2)

Which of the following best describes how to favor the production of the kinetic product over the thermodynamic product? a. High temperature and short reaction time b. Low temperature and short reaction time c. High temperature and long reaction time d. Low temperature and long reaction time

b. Low temperature and short reaction time (General Chemistry Chapter 6)

Mechanical advantage and efficiency are both ratios. Which of the following is true regarding the quantities used in these ratios? a. Mechanical advantage compares values of work; efficiency compared values of power b. Mechanical advantage compares values of force; efficiency compared values of power c. Mechanical advantage compares values of power; efficiency compared values of energy d. Mechanical advantage compares values of work; efficiency compared values of forces

b. Mechanical advantage compares values of force; efficiency compared values of power (Physics ch 2)

From which of the following layers does the notochord form? a. Ectoderm b. Mesoderm c. Endoderm d. Archenteron

b. Mesoderm (Biology Chapter 3)

Antimony is used in some anti parasitic medication specifically those targeting Leishmania Donovani What type of element is it? a. Metal b. Metalloid c. Halogen d. Nonmetal

b. Metalloid (General Chem Chapter 2)

Soap bubbles form because fatty acid salts organize into: a. Lysosomes b. Micelles c. Phospholipid bilayers d. Hydrogen bonds

b. Micelles (Biochem Chapter 5)

Which of the following compounds has the highest melting point? a. Sucrose b. NaCl c. Glycerol d. H₂O

b. NaCl (General Chem Ch 3)

Which of the following best explains the difference in ideal behavior between nitrogen and fluoromethane gas? a. Nitrogen gas is more ideal because it is smaller and forms stronger intermolecular interactions b. Nitrogen gas is more ideal because it is smaller and forms weaker intermolecular interactions c. Fluoromethane is more ideal because it is larger and forms stronger intermolecular interactions d. Fluoromethane is more ideal because it is smaller and forms weaker intermolecular interactions

b. Nitrogen gas is more ideal because it is smaller and forms weaker intermolecular interactions (Gen Chem Chapter 8)

which sensory receptors send signals in response to tissue damage? a. Chemoreceptors b. Nociceptors c. Osmoreceptors d. Photoreceptors

b. Nociceptors (Behavioral Sciences Chapter 2)

A moving negative charge placed in an external magnetic field circulates counterclockwise in the place of the paper. In which direction is the magnetic field pointing? a. Into the page b. Out of the page c. Toward the center of the circle d. Tangent to the circle

b. Out of the page (Physics and Math Chapter 5)

A patient presents with muscle weakness, slow movement, and calcium deposits in some tissues. A blood test reveals very low calcium levels in the blood. Administration of which of the following would be an appropriate treatment for the blood test findings? a. Calcitonin b. Parathyroid hormone c. Aldosterone d. Thymosin

b. Parathyroid hormone (Biology Chapter 5)

A scientist discovers a new hormone that is relatively large in size and triggers the conversion of ATP to cAMP. Which of the following best describes the type of hormone that was discovered? a. Amino acid-derivative hormone b. Peptide hormone c. Steroid hormone d. Tropic hormone

b. Peptide hormone (Biology Chapter 5)

A researcher deletes a gene from an organism to determine the gene's function. This approach is most analogous to the work of which of the following scientists? a. Paul Broca b. Pierre Flourens c. Franz Gall d. Sir Charles Sherrington

b. Pierre Flourens (Behavioral sciences Ch 1)

Which of the following are NOT involved in cell-mediated immunity? a. Memory cells b. Plasma cells c. Cytotoxic cells d. Supressor cells

b. Plasma cells (Biology Chapter 8)

What is the character of the bonds in carbon dioxide? a. Ionic b. Polar covalent c. Nonpolar covalent d. Coordinate covalent

b. Polar covalent (General Chem Ch 3)

Which of the following INCORRECTLY pairs a structure of the male reproductive system with a feature of the structure? a. Seminal vesicles- produce alkaline fructose-containing secretions b. Prostate gland- surrounded by muscle to raise and lower the testes c. Vas deferens- tube connecting the epididymis to the ejaculatory duct d. Cowper's glands- produce a fluid to clear traces of urine in the urethra

b. Prostate gland- surrounded by muscle to raise and lower the testes (Biology chapter 2)

A two-week old infant is brought to the emergency room period the infants caregiver reports that the infant has been unable to keep any milk down somewhere going shortly after nursing, the infant has sudden projectile vomiting. During exam, an olive-shaped mass can be felt in the infant's upper abdomen. It is determined that there is a constriction in the digestive system that prevents food from reaching the small intestine from the stomach. Which structure is most likely the site of the problem? a. Cardiac sphincter b. Pyloric sphincter c. Ileocecal valve d. Internal anal sphincter

b. Pyloric sphincter (Biology Chapter 9)

What is the function of sodium dodecyl sulfate (SDS) in SDS-PAGE? a. SDS stabilizes the gel matrix, improving resolution during electrophoresis b. SDS solubilizes proteins to give them uniformly negative charges, so the separation is based purely on size c. SDS raises the pH of the gel, separating multiunit proteins into individual subunits d. SDS solubilizes proteins to give them uniformly positive charges, so separation is based purely on pH

b. SDS solubilizes proteins to give them uniformly negative charges, so the separation is based purely on size (Biochem Chapter 3)

Determination of intensity and risk of a stressor occurs during which stage(s) of stress appraisal? a. Primary appraisal only b. Secondary appraisal only c. Both primary and secondary appraisal d. Neither primary and secondary appraisal

b. Secondary appraisal only (Behavioral Science Chapter 5)

Which of the following methods would be best to separate large quantities of the following proteins? (Note: MM= molar mass) Protein A: pI= 6.5; MM= 28,000 Protein B: pI= 6.3; MM= 70,000 Protein C: pI= 6.6; MM= 200,000 a. Ion-exchange chromatography b. Size-exclusion chromatography c. Isoelectric focusing d. Native PAGE

b. Size-exclusion chromatography (Biochem Chapter 3)

Which of the following four fundamental forces is primarily responsible for holding the nucleons together? a. Binding energy b. Strong nuclear force c. Electrostatic force d. Gravitational force

b. Strong nuclear force (Physics Ch 9)

Consider the following two reactions: 3A + 2B ↔ 3C + 4D (reaction 1) 4D + 3C ↔ 3A +2B (reaction 2) If Keq for reaction 1 is equal to 0.1, what is the Keq for reaction 2? a. 0.1 b. 1 c. 10 d. 100

c. 10 (General Chemistry Chapter 6)

A protein collected through affinity chromatography displays no activity even though it is found to have a high concentration using the Bradford protein assay? What best explains these findings? a. The Bradford reagent was prepared incorrectly b. The active site is occupied by free ligands c. The protein is bound to the column d. The protein does not catalyze the reaction of interest

b. The active site is occupied by free ligands (Biochem Chapter 3)

How does the ideal temperature for a reaction change with and without an enzyme? a. The ideal temperature is generally higher with a catalyst than without. b. The ideal temperature is generally lower with a catalyst than without. c. The ideal temperature is characteristic of the reaction, not enzyme d. No conclusion can be made without knowing the enzyme type

b. The ideal temperature is generally lower with a catalyst than without. (Biochem Chapter 2)

Increasing temperature can alter the Keq of a reaction. Why might increasing temperature indefinitely be unfavorable for changing reaction conditions? a. The equilibrium constant has a definite limit that cannot be surpassed b. The products or reactants can decompose at high temperatures c. Increasing temperature would decrease pressure, which may or may not alter reaction conditions d. If a reaction is irreversible, its Keq will resist changes in temperature

b. The products or reactants can decompose at high temperatures (General Chemistry Chapter 6)

Which of the following best characteristics the work energy theorem? a. The work done by any force is proportional only to the magnitude of that force. b. The total work done on any object is equal to the change in kinetic energy for that object. c. The work done on an object in kinetic energy for that object d. The work done by an applied force on an object is equal to the change in kinetic energy of that object

b. The total work done on any object is equal to the change in kinetic energy for that object. (Physics ch 2)

When reacted with ammonia (NH3) at 200 degrees celsius., which enolate of a carbonyl containing compound would predominate? a. Kinetic enolate b. Thermodynamic enolate c. Neither enolate; they would be present in roughly equal proportions d. Neither enolate; these reaction conditions would not form either enolate

b. Thermodynamic enolate (Ochem Chapter 7)

Which of the following is an important property of Group 2? a. These elements are the best electrical conductors b. These elements form divalent cations c. The second ionization energy for these elements is lower than the first ionization energy d. The atomic radii of these elements decrease as one moves down the column

b. These elements form divalent cations (General Chem Chapter 2)

In which of the following segments of the nephron is sodium NOT actively transported out of the nephron? a. Proximal convoluted tubule b. Thin portion of the ascending limb of the loop of Henle c. Distal convoluted tubule d. Thick portion of the ascending limb of the loop of Henle

b. Thin portion of the ascending limb of the loop of Henle (Biology Chapter 10)

Which of the following best describes the structure of steroids? a. Three cyclopentane rings, one cyclohexane ring b. Three cyclohexane rings, one cyclopentane ring c. Four carbon rings, differing in structure for each steroid d. Three cyclic carbon rings and a functional group

b. Three cyclohexane rings, one cyclopentane ring (Biochem Chapter 5)

During Saponification: a. Triaclyglycerols undergo a condensation reaction b. Triaclyglycerols undergo ester hydrolysis c. Fatty acid salts are produced using a strong acid d. Fatty acid salts are bound to albumin

b. Triaclyglycerols undergo ester hydrolysis (Biochem Chapter 5)

Which of the following refers to temperature and pressure at which all three phases exist in equilibrium? a. Critical point b. Triple point c. Deposition d. State function

b. Triple point (General Chemistry Chapter 7)

Which of the following describes the image formed by an object placed in front of a convex lens at a distance smaller than the focal length? a. Virtual and inverted b. Virtual and upright c. Real and upright d. Real and inverted

b. Virtual and upright (Physics Chapter 8)

Which of the statements regarding waxes is FALSE? a. Waxes generally have melting points above room temperature b. Waxes are produced only in plants and insects and therefore must be consumed by humans c. Waxes protect against dehydration and parasites d. Waxes are esters of long-chain fatty acids and long-chain alcohols

b. Waxes are produced only in plants and insects and therefore must be consumed by humans (Biochem Chapter 5)

Peptidyl transferase connects the carboxylate group of one amino acid to the amino group of an incoming amino acid. What type of linkage is created in this peptide bond? a. ester b. amide c. anhydride d. ether

b. amide (Biochemistry Chapter 7)

In an experiment, enteropeptidase secretion was blocked. As a direct result, levels of all the following active enzymes would likely be affected EXCEPT: a. trypsin b. aminopeptidase c. chymotrypsin d. carboxypeptidase A

b. aminopeptidase (Biology Chapter 9)

A person keeps an extremely tidy desk and becomes nervous whenever things are disorganized or out of place. In which of the following stages would a psychodynamic therapist say this person had become fixated? a. oral stage b. anal stage c. phallic stage d. genital stage

b. anal stage (Behavioral Science Chapter 6)

Double-stranded RNA cannot be translated by the ribosome and is marked for degradation in the cell. Which of the following strands of RNA would prevent mature mRNA in the cytoplasm from being translated? a. identical mRNA to the one produced b. antisense mRNA to the produced c. mRNA with thymine substituted for uracil d. sense mRNA to the produced

b. antisense mRNA to the produced (Biochemistry Chapter 7)

Given an electric dipole, the electric potential is zero: a. only at the midpoint of the dipole axis b. anywhere on the perpendicular bisector of the dipole axis and at infinity c. anywhere on the dipole axis d. only for points at infinity

b. anywhere on the perpendicular bisector of the dipole axis and at infinity (Physics and Math Chapter 5)

Which vascular structure creates the most resistance to blood flow? a. aorta b. arterioles c. capillaries d. veins

b. arterioles (Biology Chapter 7)

A certain sound level is increased by 20 dB. By what factor does its intensity increase? a. 2 b. 20 c. 100 d. log 2

c. 100 (Physics Chapter 7)

How is cDNA best characterized? a. cDNA results from a DNA transcript with noncoding regions removed. b. cDNA results from the reverse transcription of processesd mRNA c. cDNA is the abbreviation for deoxycytosine d. cDNA is the circular DNA molecule that from the bacterial gene

b. cDNA results from the reverse transcription of processesd mRNA (Biochem Chapter 6)

Rank the following in order of decreasing oxidation state: amine, carboxylic acid, aldehyde, alkane a. aldehyde, amine, alkane, carboxylic acid b. carboxylic acid, aldehyde, amine, alkane c. carboxylic acid, amine, aldehyde, alkane d. alkane, amine, aldehyde, carboxylic acid

b. carboxylic acid, aldehyde, amine, alkane (Ochem Chapter 4)

The cleavage of fats into glycerol and fatty acids catalyzed by lipases in the lumen of the duodenum is best described as: a. mechanical digestion b. chemical digestion c. intracellular digestion d. absorption

b. chemical digestion (Biology Chapter 9)

Which of the following correctly lists hexanol, phenol, and cyclohexanol by increasing acidity of the hydroxyl hydrogen? a. Phenol < hexanol < cyclohexanol b. cyclohexanol < hexanol < phenol c. cyclohexanol < phenol < hexanol d. Phenol < cyclohexanol < hexanol

b. cyclohexanol < hexanol < phenol (Ochem Chapter 5)

All of the following are risk factors or diagnostic criteria for Alzheimer's disease EXCEPT: a. Extra copies of the B amyloid precursor protein gene b. decrease abundance of serotonin and norepinephrine c. neurofibrillary tangles of the hyperphosphorylated Tau protein d. deficient blood flow to the parietal lobes

b. decrease abundance of serotonin and norepinephrine (Behavioral Sciences Chapter 7)

The entropy of a system can: a. never decrease b. decrease when the entropy of the surroundings increases by at least as much c. decrease when the system is isolated and the process is irreversible d. decrease during an adiabatic reversible process

b. decrease when the entropy of the surroundings increases by at least as much (Physics and Math Chapter 3)

(R)-2-chloro-(S)-3-bromobutane and (S)-2-chloro-(S)-3-bromobutane are: a. enantiomers b. diastereomers c. meso compounds d. the same molecule

b. diastereomers (Ochem Chapter 2)

Shock waves have the greatest impact when the source is traveling: a. just below the speed of sound b. exactly at the speed of sound c. just above the speed of sound d. well above the speed of sound

b. exactly at the speed of sound (Physics Chapter 7)

Which of the following is NOT a taste modality? a. sweet b. floral c. savory d. bitter

b. floral (Behavioral Sciences Chapter 2)

The common names for the aldehydes and carboxylic acids that contain only one carbon start with which prefix? a. para- b. form- c. meth- d. acet-

b. form- (OChem Ch 1)

What type of immunity is likely to be affected by removal of the spleen? a. cytotoxic immunity b. humoral immunity c. innate immunity d. passive immunity

b. humoral immunity (Biology Chapter 8)

A carbon atom participates in one double bond. As such, this carbon contains orbitals with: a. hybridization between the s-orbital and one p-orbital b. hybridization between the s-orbital and two p-orbital c. hybridization between the s-orbital and three p-orbital d. unhybridized s-character

b. hybridization between the s-orbital and two p-orbital (Ochem Chapter 3)

Alcohols have higher boiling points than their analogous hydrocarbons because: a. the oxygen atoms in alcohols have shorter bond lengths b. hydrogen bonding is present in alcohols c. alcohols are more acidic than their analogous hydrocarbons d. alcohols can be oxidized to ketones

b. hydrogen bonding is present in alcohols (Ochem Chapter 5)

When the potential across the axon membrane is more negative than the normal resting potential, the neuron is said to be in a state of: a. depolarization b. hyperpolarization c. repolarization d. polarization

b. hyperpolarization (Biology Chapter 4)

A drug is used to prevent the conversion of angiotensin I to angiotensin II. What is a likely effect of this drug? a. increased sodium reabsorption b. increased potassium reabsorption c. increased blood pressure d increased blood pH

b. increased potassium reabsorption (Biology Chapter 10)

In an adiabatic compression process, the internal energy of the gas: a. increases because the work done on the gas is negative b. increases because the work done on the gas is positive c. decreases because the work done on the gas is negative d. decreases because the work done on the gas is positive

b. increases because the work done on the gas is positive (Physics and Math Chapter 3)

The intrapleural pressure is necessarily lower than the atmospheric pressure during: a. inhalation, because the expansion of the chest cavity causes compression of the intrapleural space, decreasing its pressure b. inhalation, because the expansion of the chest cavity causes expansion of the intrapleural space, decreasing its pressure c. exhalation, because the compression of the chest cavity causes compression of the intrapleural space, decreasing its pressure d. exhalation, because the compression of the chest cavity causes expansion of the intrapleural space, decreasing its pressure

b. inhalation, because the expansion of the chest cavity causes expansion of the intrapleural space, decreasing its pressure (Biology Chapter 6)

A high school student struggles consistently with math and feels that no amount of studying will help because "I just don't get it". Which of the following is the most likely short-term result with respect to the student's ability to do math? a. low self-esteem b. low self-efficacy c. learned helplessness d. an external locus of control

b. low self-efficacy (Behavioral Science Chapter 6)

Which of the following would most likely be filtered through the glomerulus into Bowman's capsule? a. erythrocytes b. monosaccharides c. platelets d. proteins

b. monosaccharides (Biology Chapter 10)

The formation of α-D-glucopyranose from β-D-glucopyranose is called: a. glycosidation b. mutarotation c. enantiomerization d. racemization

b. mutarotation (Biochem Chapter 4)

Which of the following quantum number sets is possible? a. n=2; l=2; mi= 1; ms= +½ b. n=2; l=2; mi= -1; ms= +½ c. n=2; l=2; mi= -1; ms= -½ d. n=2; l=2; mi= 1; ms= -½

b. n=2; l=2; mi= -1; ms= +½ (Gen chem Ch1)

A person who works as an EMT identifies as a bit of a rebel, but is highly sociable and is able to keep calm in an emergency. This person would likely score in the lower range of which of the following traits? a. psychoticism b. neuroticism c. extraversion d. conscientiousness

b. neuroticism (Behavioral Science Chapter 6)

What is the most specific characterization of the reaction shown? Ca(OH)₂ (aq)+ H₂SO₄ (aq)→ CaSO₄ (aq)+H₂O (l) a. single-displacement b. neutralization c. double-displacement d. oxidation-reduction

b. neutralization (Gen Chem Chapter 4)

In a single strand of a nucleic acid, nucleotides are linked by: a. hydrogen bond b. phosphodiester bond c. ionic bonds d. van der Waals force

b. phosphodiester bond (Biochem Chapter 6)

The bulk movement of liquid into a cell through vesicular infoldings is known as: a. phagocytosis b. pinocytosis c. exocytosis d. drinking

b. pinocytosis (Biochem Chapter 8)

In experiment A, student mixes ink with water and notices, that the two liquids mix evenly. In experiment B, the student mixes oil with water; in this case, the liquids separate into two different layers. The entropy change is: a. positive in experiment A and negative in experiment B b. positive in experiment A and zero in experiment B c. negative in experiment A and positive in experiment B d. zero in experiment A and negative in experiment B

b. positive in experiment A and zero in experiment B (Physics and Math Chapter 3)

Which of the following is NOT a function of the cell membrane? a. Cytoskeleton attachment b. protein synthesis c. transport regulation d. second messenger reservoir

b. protein synthesis (Biochem Chapter 8)

The catalytic production of dihydroxyacetone and glyceraldehyde 3-phosphate (2-hydroxy-3-oxopropyl diahydrogen phosphate) from fructose-1,6-bisphosphate ([(2S,3S,4S,5R)-2,3,4-trihydroxy-5-(phosphonooxymethyl)oxolan-2-yl]methyl dihydrogen phosphate) is what type of reaction? a. Aldol condensation b. retro-aldol reaction c. dehydration d. nucleophilic attack

b. retro-aldol reaction (Ochem Chapter 7)

Which of the following is the correct sequence of the development of a mature sperm cell? a. Spermatid → 1° Spermatocyte → spermatogonium → 2° spermatocyte → spermatozoan b. spermatogonium → 1° Spermatocyte→ 2° spermatocyte → Spermatid → spermatozoan c. spermatozoan → 1° Spermatocyte→ 2° spermatocyte→ spermatogonium→Spermatid d. spermatogonium→ 1° Spermatocyte→ 2° spermatocyte→ spermatozoan →Spermatid

b. spermatogonium → 1° Spermatocyte→ 2° spermatocyte → Spermatid → spermatozoan (Biology chapter 2)

A neuron only fires an action if multiple presynaptic cells release neurotransmitters onto the dendrites of the neuron. This is an example of: a. saltatory conduction b. summation c. a feedback loop d. inhibitory transmission

b. summation (Biology Chapter 4)

Following translation and folding, many receptor tyrosine kinases exist as monomers in their inactive state on the cell membrane. Upon the binding of a ligand, these proteins dimerize and initiate a signaling cascade. During this process, their highest element of protein structure changes from: a. secondary to tertiary b. tertiary to quaternary c. primary to secondary d. secondary to quaternary

b. tertiary to quaternary (Biochem Ch 1)

Each of the following is considered a part of a person's self-concept EXCEPT: a. the past-self b. the ought-self c. the future-self d. self-schemata

b. the ought-self (Behavioral Science Chapter 6)

A patient presents to the emergency room with a stab wound to the left side of the chest. On a chest X-ray, blood is noted to be collecting in the chest cavity, causing collapse of both lobes of the left lung. The blood is most likely located between: a. the parietal pleura and the chest wall b. the visceral pleura and the parietal pleura c. the visceral pleura and the lung d. the alveolar walls and the lung surface

b. the visceral pleura and the parietal pleura (Biology Chapter 6)

Assume the direction of F is the same direction as the electric field between R and S. If an electron were placed midway between R and S, the resultant electric force on the electron would be: a. toward R b. toward S c. upward in the plane of the page d. downward in the plane of the page

b. toward S (Physics and Math Chapter 5)

Which lipid type is LEAST likely to contribute to membrane fluidity? a. unsaturated glycerophospholipids b. trans glycerophospholipids c. cholesterol d. unsaturated sphingolipids

b. trans glycerophospholipids (Biochem Chapter 8)

The lymphatic system: a. transports hormones throughout the body b. transports chylomicrons to the circulatory system c. causes extravasation of fluid into tissues d. is the site of mast cell activation

b. transports chylomicrons to the circulatory system (Biology Chapter 8)

Ultrasound machines calculate distance based upon: a. intensity of the reflected sound b. travel time of the reflected sound c. angle of incidence of the sound d. the detected frequency of the sound

b. travel time of the reflected sound (Physics Chapter 7)

When trypsin convert chymotrypsinogen to chymotrypsin, some molecules of chymotrypsin bind to a repressor, which is turn binds to an operator region and prevents further transcription of trypsin. This is most similar to which of the following operons? a. trp operon during lack of tryptophan b. trp operon during abundance of tryptophan c. lac operons during lack of lactose d. lac operon during abundance of lactose

b. trp operon during abundance of tryptophan (Biochemistry Chapter 7)

Molecular orbitals can contain a maximum of: a. one electron b. two electrons c. four electrons d. 2n² electrons, where n is the principal quantum number of the combining atomic orbitals

b. two electrons (Ochem Chapter 3)

π bonds are formed by which of the following orbitals? a. two s-orbitals b. two p-orbitals c. One s- and one p-orbital d. Two sp²-hybridized orbitals

b. two p-orbitals(Ochem Chapter 3)

A patient's chart indicates a cardiac output of 7500 mL per minute and a stroke volume of 50 mL. What is the patient's pulse, in beats per minute? a. 100 b. 50 c. 150 d. 400

c. 150 (Biology Chapter 7)

A certain 9 V battery is used as a power source to move a 2 C charge. How much work is done by the battery? a. 4.5 J b. 9 J c. 18 J d. 36 J

c. 18 J (Physics and Math Chapter 5)

A physician is attempting to diagnose a patient's mental disorder based on a set of symptoms. The confirmed symptoms currently include appetite disturbance, substantial weight change, decreased energy, and a feeling of worthlessness, and excessive guilt. What should the physician ask about to distinguish between the two possible disorders affecting that patient? a. Whether the patient has amnesia b. whether the patient has also had manic episodes c. whether the patient is irrationally afraid of anything d. whether the patient has experienced difficulty performing familiar tasks

b. whether the patient has also had manic episodes (Behavioral Sciences Chapter 7)

In a neutral solution, most amino acids exist as: a. positively charged compounds b. zwitterions c. negatively charged compounds d. hydrophobic molecules

b. zwitterions (Biochem Ch 1)

Which of the following enzymes cleaves polysaccharise chains and yields maltose exclusively? a. α-Amylase b. β-Amylase c. Debranching enzyme d. Glycogen phosphorylase

b. β-Amylase (Biochem Chapter 4)

What is function of retina?

back of eye; converts incoming photons of light to electrical signals to detect image

5m³ of a gas are brought from an initial pressure of 1 kPa to a pressure of 3 kPa through an isochoric process. During this process, the work performed by gas is: a. -10 kJ b. -10 J c. 0 J d. +10 kJ

c. 0 J (Physics ch 2)

Which of the following is LEAST likely to be the resting membrane potential of a cell? a. -70 mV b. -55 mV c. 0 mV d. +35 mV

c. 0 mV (Biochem Chapter 8)

The energy stored in a fully charged capacitor is given by U= 1/2 CV². In a typical cardiac defribrillator, a capacitor charged to 7500 V has a stored energy of 400 J. Based on this information, what is the charge on the capacitor in the cardiac defribillator? a. 1.1 x 10⁻⁵ C b. 5 x 10⁻² C c. 1.1 x 10⁻¹ C d. 3.1 x 10⁶ C

c. 1.1 x 10⁻¹ C (Physics Chapter 6)

If an object with an initial temperature of 300 K increases its temperature by 1°C every minute, by how many degrees Fahrenheit will its temperature have increased in 10 minutes? a. 6 °F b. 10 °F c. 18 °F d. 30 °F

c. 18 °F (Physics and Math Chapter 3)

Two parallel conducting plates are separated by a distance d. One plate carries a charge of +Q and the other carrier a charge -Q. The voltage between the plates is 12 V. If a +2µC charge is released from rest at the positive plate, how much kinetic energy does it have when it reaches the negative plate? a. 2.4 x 10⁻⁶ J b. 4.8 x 10⁻⁶ J c. 2.4 x 10⁻⁵ J d. 4.8 x 10⁻⁵ J

c. 2.4 x 10⁻⁵ J (Physics and Math Chapter 5)

Consider the following fission reaction. n (1.0087) + B (10.0129) → Li (7.01060) + alpha decay (4.0026) The masses of the species involved are given in atomic mass units below each species and 1 amu can create 932 MeV of energy. What is the energy liberated due to the transformation of mass into energy during this reaction? a. 0.003 MeV b. 1.4 MeV c. 2.8 MeV d. 5.6 MeV

c. 2.8 MeV (Physics Ch 9)

A car is traveling at 40 km/hr and the driver puts on the brakes, bringing the car to rest in a time of 6 s. What is the magnitude of the average acceleration of the car? a. 240 km/hr^2 b. 12,000 km/hr^2 c. 24,000 km/hr^2 d. 30,000 km/hr^2

c. 24,000 km/hr^2 (Physics Ch 1)

A weight lifter is just able to tell the difference between 100 and 125 pounds. According to Weber's law, the lifter would notice a difference between: a. 125 and 150 pounds b. 5 and 6 pounds c. 25 and 35 pounds d. 225 and 275 pounds

c. 25 and 35 pounds (Behavioral Sciences Chapter 2)

What is the maximum number of electrons allowed in a single atomic energy level in terms of the principal quantum number n? a. 2n b. 2n+2 c. 2n² d. 2n²+2

c. 2n² (Gen chem Ch1)

If the rate law for a reaction is rate= k[A]⁰[B]²[C]¹ What is the overall order of the reaction? a. 0 b. 2 c. 3 d. 4

c. 3 (Gen Chem Chapter 5)

A certain carbon nucleus dissociates completely into alpha-particles. How many particles are formed? a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d. 4

c. 3 (Physics Ch 9)

Objects A and B are submerged at a depth of 1 m in a liquid with a specific gravity of 0.877. Given that the density of object B is one-third that of object A and that the gauge pressure of object A is 3 atm, what is the gauge pressure of object B? (Note: assume atmospheric pressure is 1 atm and g= 9.8 m/s^2) a. 1 atm b. 2 atm c. 3 atm d. 9 atm

c. 3 atm (Physics Chapter 4)

What is the binding energy of the argon-40 isotope in MeV? (note: mproton= 1.0073 amu, mneutron= 1.0087 amu, m ar-40 nucleus= 39.9132 amu, c²= 932 MeV/ amu) a. 0.4096 MeV b. 40.3228 MeV c. 381.7 MeV d. 643.8 MeV

c. 381.7 MeV (Physics Ch 9)

Water flows from a pipe of diameter of 0.15 m into one diameter of 0.2 m. If the speed in the 0.15 m pipe is 8 m/s, what is the speed in 0.2 m pipe? a. 3 m/s b. 3.7 m/s c. 4.5 m/s d. 6 m/s

c. 4.5 m/s (Physics Chapter 4)

A tractor pulls a log with a mass of 500 kg along the ground for 100 m. The rope (between the tractor and the log) makes an angle of 30° with the ground and is acted on by a tensile force of 5000 N. How much work does the tractor perform in this scenario? (Note: sin 30°= 0.5, cos 30°= 0.866, tan 30°= 0.577) a. 250 kJ b. 289 kJ c. 433 kJ d. 500 kJ

c. 433 kJ (Physics ch 2)

An individual who is phenotypically female is found to have only one copy of a disease- carrying recessive allele on the X chromosome, yet demonstrates all of the classic symptoms of the disease. Geneticists determine that the individual has a genotype that likely arose from nondisjunction in one parent. What is the likely genotype of their individual? a. 46 XX (46 chromosomes with XX for sex chromosomes) b. 46, XY c. 45, X d. 47, XXY

c. 45, X (Biology chapter 2)

How many distinct tripeptides can be formed from one valine molecule, one alanine molecule, and one leucine molecule? a. 1 b. 3 c. 6 d. 27

c. 6 VAL, VLA, ALV, AVL, LVA, LAV (Biochem Ch 1)

What is the final temperature of a 3 kg wrought iron fireplace tool that is left in front of an electric heater, absorbing heat energy at a rate of 100 W for 10 minutes? Assume the tool is initially at 20°C and that the specific heat of wrought iron is 500 J/ kg *K. a. 40 °C b. 50 °C c. 60 °C d. 70 °C

c. 60 °C (Physics and Math Chapter 3)

A weightlifter a 275 kg barbell from the ground to a height of 2.4 m. How much work has the weightlifter done in lifting the barbell, and how much work is required to hold the weight at that height? a. 3234 J and 0J, respectively b. 3234 J and 3234J, respectively c. 6468 J and 0J, respectively d. 3234 J and 6468 J, respectively

c. 6468 J and 0J, respectively (Physics ch 2)

If the work function of a metal is 6.622 x 10⁻²⁰ J and a ray of electromagnetic radiation with a frequency of 1.0 x 10¹⁴ Hz is incident on the metal, what will be the speed of the electrons ejected from the metal? (Note: h= 6.626 x 10⁻³⁴ J*s and me⁻= 9.1 x 10⁻³¹ kg) a. 2.62 x 10⁻⁶ m/s b. 1.07x10⁻⁴ m/s c. 9.38x 10³ m/s d. 3.81 x 10⁵ m/s

c. 9.38x 10³ m/s (Physics Ch 9)

Which of the following processes is LEAST likely to be accompanied by a change in temperature? a. The kinetic energy of a gas is increased through a chemical reaction b. Energy is transferred to a solid via electromagnetic waves c. A boiling liquid is heated on a hot plate d. A warm gas is mixed with a cold gas

c. A boiling liquid is heated on a hot plate (Physics and Math Chapter 3)

Which of the following statements about terpenes is FALSE? a. Terpenes are strongly scented molecules that sometimes serve protective functions b. Terpenes are steroid precursors c. A triterpene is made of three isoprene moities, and therefore 15 carbons d. Terpenes are made by plants and insects

c. A triterpene is made of three isoprene moities, and therefore 15 carbons (Biochem Chapter 5)

Which of the following statements is false? a. ADH increases water reabsorption in the kidney b. Aldosterone indirectly increases water reabsorption in the kidney c. ADH acts directly on the proximal convoluted tubule d. Aldosterone stimulates reabsorption of sodium from the collecting duct

c. ADH acts directly on the proximal convoluted tubule (Biology Chapter 10)

Which of the following associations between a hormone and its category is INCORRECT? a. Aldosterone- mineralocorticoid b. Testosterone- cortical sex hormone c. ADH- mineralocorticoid d. Cortisone- glucocorticoid

c. ADH- mineralocorticoid (Biology Chapter 5)

Which of the following correctly pairs the stage of development of an egg cell with the relevant point in the life cycle? a. From birth to menarche- prophase II b. At ovulation- metaphase I c. At ovulation- metaphase II d. At fertilization- prophase II

c. At ovulation- metaphase II (Biology chapter 2)

Although the octet rule dictates much of molecular structure, some atoms can violate the octet rule by being surrounded by more than eight electrons. Which of the following is the best explanation for why some atoms can exceed the octet? a. Atoms that exceed the octet already have eight electrons in their outmost electron shell b. Atoms that exceed the octet do so when bonding with transition metals c. Atoms that exceed the octet do so because they have d-orbitals in which extra electrons can reside d. Some atoms can exceed the octet because they are highly electronegative

c. Atoms that exceed the octet do so because they have d-orbitals in which extra electrons can reside (General Chem Ch 3)

Which of the following statements regarding fetal circulation is FALSE? a. In the umbilical cord, there are more arteries than veins b. The foramen ovale is the only shunt that connects two chambers of the heart c. Blood flow in the ductus arteriosus is from the aorta to the pulmonary artery d. the ductus venosus is the only shunt that bypasses the liver

c. Blood flow in the ductus arteriosus is from the aorta to the pulmonary artery (Biology Chapter 3)

Which of the following biomolecules is LEAST likely to contain an aromatic ring? a. Proteins b. Purine c. Carbohydrates d. Pyrimidines

c. Carbohydrates (Biochem Chapter 6)

The theory of spontaneous generation states that living organisms can arise from nonliving material. In 1859, Pasteur demonstrated that no organisms emerged from sterilized growth media, weakening the theory of spontaneous generation and supporting which tenet of cell theory? a. All living things are composed of cells b. The cell is the basic functional unit of life c. Cells arise only from preexisting cells d. Cells carry genetic information in the form of DNA

c. Cells arise only from preexisting cells (Bio ch 1)

Centrifugal force is an apparent outward force during circular motion. It has been described as a reaction force according to Newton's third law. Which of the following statements is most likely to be correct regarding centrifugal force? a. Centrifugal force exists only for uniform circular motion, not nonuniform circular motion b. Centrifugal force exists only when a tension of a normal force provides centripetal acceleration. c. Centrifugal force will always act antiparallel to the centripetal force vector d. Centrifugal force is a result of repulsive electrostatic interactions

c. Centrifugal force will always act antiparallel to the centripetal force vector (Physics Ch 1)

Both CO₃²⁻ and ClF₃ have three atoms bonded to a central atom. What is the best explanation for why CO₃²⁻ has trigonal planar electronic geometry, while ClF₃ has trigonal bipyramidal electronic geometry? a. CO₃²⁻ has multiple resonance structures, while ClF₃ does not b. CO₃²⁻ gas a charge of -2, while ClF₃ has no charge c. ClF₃ has lone pairs on its central atom, while CO₃²⁻ has none d. CO₃²⁻ has lone pairs on its central atom, while ClF₃ has none

c. ClF₃ has lone pairs on its central atom, while CO₃²⁻ has none (General Chem Ch 3)

Which of the following proteins is most likely to be found extracellularly? a. Tubulin b. Myosin c. Collagen d. Actin

c. Collagen (Biochem Chapter 3)

Which of the following is the best name for the new bond formed in the reaction shown? a. Nonpolar covalent bond b. Ionic bond c. Coordinate covalent bond d. Hydrogen bond

c. Coordinate covalent bond (General Chem Ch 3)

Why might uracil be excluded from DNA but not RNA? a. Uracil is much more difficult to synthesis than thymine b. Uracil binds adenine too strongly for replication c. Cytosine degradation results in uracil d. Uracil is used as a DNA synethesis activator

c. Cytosine degradation results in uracil (Biochem Chapter 6)

Which of the following is NOT used by eukaryotes to increase the transcription of a gene a. Gene duplication b. Histone acetylation c. DNA methylation d. Enhancers

c. DNA methylation (Biochemistry Chapter 7)

Which of the following types of intermolecular forces provides the most accurate explanation for why noble gases can liquefy? a. Hydrogen bonding b. Ion-dipole interactions c. Dispersion forces d. Dipole-dipole interactions

c. Dispersion forces (General Chem Ch 3)

Which of thee following associations of a primary germ layer and an adult organ is correct? a. Endoderm- cardiac muscle b. Endoderm- lens of the eye c. Ectoderm- fingernails d. Mesoderm- lining of digestive tract

c. Ectoderm- fingernails (Biology Chapter 3)

Which of the following is the best explanation of the phenomenon of hydrogen bonding? a. Hydrogen has a strong affinity for holding onto valence electrons b. Hydrogen can only hold two valence electrons c. Electronegative atoms disproportionately carry shared electron pairs when bonded to hydrogen d. Hydrogen bonds have ionic character

c. Electronegative atoms disproportionately carry shared electron pairs when bonded to hydrogen (General Chem Ch 3)

Which of the following is considered a tautomer of imine functional group? a. Cyanohydrin b. Hydrazone c. Enamine d. Semicarbazone

c. Enamine (Ochem Chapter 7)

Which of the following best describes the difference between endolymph and perilymph? a. Endolymph is found in the vestibule, while perilymph is found in the cochlea b. Endolymph is found in the cochlea, while perilymph is found in the vestibule c. Endolymph is found in the membraneous labyrinth, while perilymph is found in the bony labyrinth d. Endolymph is found in the bony labyrinth, while perilymph is found in the membraneous labyrinth

c. Endolymph is found in the membraneous labyrinth, while perilymph is found in the bony labyrinth (Behavioral Sciences Chapter 2)

Resistance to antibiotics is a well-recognized medical problem. Which mechanisms can account for a bacterium's ability to increase its genetic variability and this adapt itself to resist different antibiotics? I. Binary fission II. Conjugation III. Transduction a. I and II only b. I and III only c. II and III only d. I, II, and III

c. II and III only (Bio ch 1)

Which of the following best describes the inability to measure position and momentum exactly and simultaneously according to the Heinsenberg uncertainty principle? a. Imprecision in the definition of the meter and kilogram b. Limits on accuracy of existing scientific instruments c. Error in one variable is increased by attempts to measure the other d. Discrepancies between the masses of nuclei and of their component particles

c. Error in one variable is increased by attempts to measure the other (Gen chem Ch1)

To increase the capacitance of a given capacitor, a dielectric is inserted between the two plates. Dielectrics are materials that block the flow of charge. Which of the following materials would be the best dielectric? a. Salt water b. Steel, an alloy primarily composed of iron c. Glass, an oxide of silica d. Copper

c. Glass, an oxide of silica (Physics and Math Chapter 5)

Which of the following is a conservative force? a. Air resistance b. Friction c. Gravity d. Convection

c. Gravity (Physics ch 2)

Herpes simplex virus (HSV) enters the human body and remains dormant in the nervous system until it produces an outbreak after exposure to heat, radiation, or other stimuli. Which of the following statements correctly describes HSV? a. While it remains dormant in the nervous system, the virus is in its lytic cycle. b. During an outbreak, the virus is in the lysogenic cycle. c. Herpes simplex virus adds its genetic information to the genetic information of a cell d. The herpes simplex virus contains a tail sheath and tail fibers

c. Herpes simplex virus adds its genetic information to the genetic information of a cell (Bio ch 1)

If 1-Hexanol was treated with Pyridinium Chlorochromate (PCC) what would be the end result? a. 2-Hexanol b. 2-Hexanone c. Hexanal d. Hexanoic acid

c. Hexanal (Ochem Chapter 4)

Which part of the brain deals with both homeostasis and emotions? a. Cerebellum b. Pons c. Hypothalamus d. Thalamus

c. Hypothalamus (Behavioral sciences Ch 1)

Mitochondrial DNA is: I. circular II. self-replicating III. single-stranded a. I only b. II only c. I and II only d. I, II, and III

c. I and II only (Bio ch 1)

The cyclic forms of monosaccharides are: I. hemiacetals II. hemiketals III. acetals a. I only b. III only c. I and II only d. I,II, and III

c. I and II only (Biochem Chapter 4)

Steroid hormones are steroids that: I. have specific high-affinity receptors II. travel in the bloodstream from endocrine glands to distant sites III. affect gene transcription by binding directly to DNA a. I only b. III only c. I and II only d. I and III only

c. I and II only (Biochem Chapter 5)

A surgeon accidentally slips a dorsal root ganglion during a spinal surgery. What is a likely consequence of this error? I. Loss of reflexes at that level II. Loss of sensation at that level III. Loss of cognitive function a. I only b. II only c. I and II only d. I, II, and III

c. I and II only (Biology Chapter 4)

Which of the following types of reactions generally have the same number of reactants and products? I. double-displacement reaction II. single-displacement reaction III. Combination reaction a. I only b. II only c. I and II only d. II and III only

c. I and II only (Gen Chem Chapter 4)

NADH is a coenzyme that releases high-energy electrons into the electron transport chain. It is known as nicotinamide adenine dinucleotide or diphosphopyridine nucleotide. What functional groups exist in this molecule? I. Phosphate II. Amide III. Anhydride a. I only b. II only c. I and II only d. I, II and III

c. I and II only (OChem Ch 1)

(2R,3S)- 2,3-dihydroxybutanedioic acid and (2S,3R)- 2,3-dihydroxybutanedioic acid are: I. meso compounds II. the same molecule III. enantiomers a. I only b. III only c. I and II only d. I and III only

c. I and II only (Ochem Chapter 2)

Consider (E)-2-butene and (Z)-2-butene. This is a pair of what type of isomers? I. Cis-trans isomers II. Diastereomers III. Enantiomers a. I only b. II only c. I and II only d. I and III only

c. I and II only (Ochem Chapter 2)

Nucleophilic Acyl Substitution is favored by: I. basic solution II. acidic solution III. leaving groups that are strong bases a. I only b. II only c. I and II only d. I, II, and III

c. I and II only (Ochem Chapter 8)

The properties of atoms can be predicted to some extent by their location within the periodic table. Which property or properties increase in the directions of the arrows listed? *Arrows going up and right.* I. Electronegativity II. Atomic Radius III. First Ionization energy a. I only b. I and II only c. I and III only d. I, II, and III

c. I and III only (General Chem Chapter 2)

Which of the following are considered terminal functional groups? I. aldehydes II. ketones III. carboxylic acids a. I only b. III only c. I and III only d. I, II, and III

c. I and III only (OChem Ch 1)

When succinaldehyde is treated with lithium diisopropylamide (LDA), it: I. becomes more nucleophilic II. becomes less nucleophilic III. generates a carbanion a. I only b. II only c. I and III only d. I, II and III

c. I and III only (Ochem Chapter 7)

Which of these amino acids has a chiral carbon in its side chain? I. Serine II. Threonine III. Isoleucine a. I only b. II only c. II and III only d. I,II, and III

c. II and III only (Biochem Ch 1)

Which of the following describe(s) pyridinium chlorochromate (PCC)? I. An oxidant that can form aldehydes from primary alcohols II. An oxidant that can completely oxidize primary alcohols III. An oxidant that can completely oxidize secondary alcohols a. I only b. I and II only c. II and III only d. I, II, and III

c. II and III only (Ochem Chapter 6)

Which of the following is an example of a circumstance that could cause a state-dependent recall effect? I. The individual is outside on a rainy day II. The individual is intoxicated on cannabis III. The individual is experiencing a manic episode a. I only b. III only c. II and III only d. I, II, and III

c. II and III only (Behavioral sciences chapter 3)

Which of the following are Lewis bases? I. Ag⁺ II. H₂O III. NH₃ a. I only b. I and II only c. II and III only d. I, II, and III

c. II and III only (Ochem Chapter 4)

Which of the following is correct about fat-soluble vitamins? I. Vitamin E is important for calcium regulation II. Vitamin D protects against cancer because it is a biological antioxidant III. Vitamin K is necessary for the posttranslational introduction for calcium-binding sites IV. Vitamin A is metabolized to retinal, which is important for sight a. III only b. I and II only c. III and IV only d. II, III and IV only

c. III and IV only (Biochem Chapter 5)

Which of the following best characterizes ideal voltmeter and ammeter? a. Ideal voltmeter and ammeter have infinite resistance b. Ideal voltmeter and ammeter have no resistance c. Ideal voltmeter have infinite resistance and ideal ammeter have no resistance d. Ideal voltmeter have no resistance and ideal ammeter have infinite resistance

c. Ideal voltmeter have infinite resistance and ideal ammeter have no resistance (Physics Chapter 6)

Excessive levels of dopamine in the brain are associated with psychosis. Accordingly, many antipsychotic medications block dopamine receptors. Which of the following effects may be seen in an individual taking antipsychotics? a. Increased secretion of growth hormone b. Decreased secretion of growth hormone c. Increased secretion of prolactin d. Decreased secretion of prolactin

c. Increased secretion of prolactin (Biology Chapter 5)

Which theory of motivation is most significantly informed by Darwin's theory of evolution? a. Arousal theory b. Drive reduction theory c. Instinct theory d. Incentive theory

c. Instinct theory (Behavioral Science Chapter 5)

How does the gel for isoelectric focusing differ from the gel for traditional electrophoresis? a. Isoelectric focusing uses a gel with much larger pore sizes to allow for complete migration b. Isoelectric focusing uses a gel with SDS added to encourage a uniform negative charge c. Isoelectric focusing uses a gel with a pH gradient that encourages a variable charge. d. The gel is unchanged in isoelectric focusing; the protein mixture is treated before loading

c. Isoelectric focusing uses a gel with a pH gradient that encourages a variable charge. (Biochem Chapter 3)

Which of the following is true of controlled processing? a. It is the means through which information enters short-term memory b. Information that requires controlled processing cannot become automatic c. It always requires active attention to the information being encoded d. Most information we can later recall is encoded using controlled processing

c. It always requires active attention to the information being encoded (Behavioral sciences chapter 3)

Which of the following is true with regard to a major depressive episode? a. It may last less than two weeks b. It must involve thoughts of suicide or a suicide attempt c. It may involve a decrease in sleep d. It must involve feelings of sadness

c. It may involve a decrease in sleep (Behavioral Sciences Chapter 7)

Which of the following can be used to reduce a ketone to a secondary alcohol? a. CrO₃ b. KMNO₄ c. LiAlH₄ d. Ag₂O

c. LiAlH₄ (Ochem Chapter 6)

During which phase of menstrual cycle does progesterone concentration peak? a. Follicular phase b. Ovulation c. Luteal phase d. Menses

c. Luteal phase (Biology chapter 2)

The conversion of ATP to cyclic AMP and inorganic phosphate is most likely catalyzed by which class of enzyme? a. Ligase b. Hydrolase c. Lyase d. Transferase

c. Lyase (Biochem Chapter 2)

Which of the following is digestible by humans and is made up of only one type of monosaccharides? a. Lactose b. Sucrose c. Maltose d. Cellobiose

c. Maltose (Biochem Chapter 4)

Which of the following is an example of adaptive immunity? a. PRRs recognize that a pathogen is an invasive parasite and eosinophils are recruited to the area b. Complement is activated, causing osmotic instability in a bacterium c. Memory B-cells generated through vaccination are activated when their antigen is encountered d. Dendritic cells sample bacteria within a laceration and travel to the lymph nodes to present the antigen

c. Memory B-cells generated through vaccination are activated when their antigen is encountered (Biology Chapter 8)

Which of the following does NOT contain tubulin? a. Cilia b. Flagella c. Microfilaments d. Centrioles

c. Microfilaments (Bio ch 1)

Which of the following statements about saturation is FALSE? a. It can describe the number of double or triple bonds in a fatty acid tail b. It determines at least one of the properties c. More saturated fatty acids make for a more fluid solution d. Fully saturated fatty acids have only single bonds

c. More saturated fatty acids make for a more fluid solution (Biochem Chapter 5)

Which of the following would NOT likely lead to elevated levels of bilirubin in the blood? a. Cholangiocarcinoma, a cancer of the bile ducts that can ultimately lead to full occlusion of the duct lumen b. Autoimmune hemolytic anemia, a disease in which the red blood cells are attacked by antibodies and are lysed c. Ménétrier's disease, in which rugae thicken and overlying glands lose secretory ability d. Acetaminophen (Tylenol) overdose, in which the accumulation of toxic metabolites can cause rapid liver failure

c. Ménétrier's disease, in which rugae thicken and overlying glands lose secretory ability (Biology Chapter 9)

Both BF₃ and NH₃ have three atoms bonded to the central atom. Which of the following is the best explanation for why the geometry of these two molecules is different? a. BF₃ has three bonded atoms and no lone pairs, which makes its geometry trigonal pyramidal b. NH₃ is nonpolar, while BF₃ is polar c. NH₃ has three bonded atoms and one lone pair, which makes its geometry trigonal pyramidal d. BF₃ is nonpolar, while NH₃ is polar

c. NH₃ has three bonded atoms and one lone pair, which makes its geometry trigonal pyramidal (General Chem Ch 3)

Which of the following elements does NOT break the octet rule? a. Be b. S c. Na d. P

c. Na (General Chem Ch 3)

What is the response of the immune system to downregulation of MHC molecules on somatic cells? a. B cells are activated and antibodies are released b. T cells are activated, resulting in a cytotoxic response c. Natural killer cells induce apoptosis of affected cells d. Macrophages engulf the pathogen and display its antigens

c. Natural killer cells induce apoptosis of affected cells (Biology Chapter 8)

Which of the following correctly describes a difference between nerves and tracts? a. Nerves are seen in the central nervous system; tracts are seen in the peripheral nervous system b. Nerves have cell bodies in nuclei; tracts have cell bodies in ganglia c. Nerves may carry more than one type of information; tracts can only carry one type of information d. Nerves contain only one neuron; tracts contain many neurons

c. Nerves may carry more than one type of information; tracts can only carry one type of information (Biology Chapter 4)

A 20 m steel rod at 10°C is dangling from the edge of a building and is 2.5 cm from the ground. If the rod is heated to 110 °C, will the rod touch the ground? (Note: α= 1.1x 10⁻⁵ K⁻¹) a. Yes, because it expands by 3.2 cm b. Yes, because it expands by 2.6 cm c. No, because it expands by 2.2 cm d. No, because it expands by 1.8 cm

c. No, because it expands by 2.2 cm (Physics and Math Chapter 3)

In the genetic code of human nuclear DNA, one of the codons specifying the amino acid tyrosine is UAC. If one nucleotide is changed and the codon is mutated to UAG, what type of mutation will occur? a. Silent mutation b. Missense mutation c. Nonsense mutation d. Frameshift mutation

c. Nonsense mutation (Biochemistry Chapter 7)

If 2-Butanol was treated with dichromate what reaction would occur? a. Reduction resulting in the formation of butene b. Oxidation, resulting in the formation of butanoic acid c. Oxidation, resulting in the formation of butanone d. no reaction would occur

c. Oxidation, resulting in the formation of butanone (Ochem Chapter 4)

A laceration cuts down into a layer of loose connective tissue in the skin. Which layer of the skin is this? a. Stratum corneum b. Stratum lucidum c. Papillary layer d. Reticular layer

c. Papillary layer (Biology Chapter 10)

A rat is trained to press a lever to obtain food under a fixed-interval schedule. Which of the following behaviors would the rat most likely exhibit? a. Pressing the lever continuously whenever it is hungry b. Pressing the lever exactly once and waiting for the food pellet before pressing it again c. Pressing the lever slowly at first, but with increasing frequency as the end of the interval approaches d. None of the above; the association formed by fixed-interval schedules is too weak to increase behavior

c. Pressing the lever slowly at first, but with increasing frequency as the end of the interval approaches (Behavioral sciences chapter 3)

In Alzheimeer's disease, a protein called the amyloid precursor protein (APP) is cleaved to form a protein called B-amyloid. This protein has a B-pleated sheet structure and precipitates to form plaques in the brain. This mechanism of disease is most similar to which of the following pathogens? a. Bacteria b. Viruses c. Prions d. Viroids

c. Prions (Bio ch 1)

Which of the following is NOT a function of the smooth endoplasmic reticulum? a. Lipid synthesis b. Poison detoxification c. Protein synthesis d. Transport of proteins

c. Protein synthesis (Bio ch 1)

Which protein properties allow UV spectroscopy to be used as a method of determining concentration? a. Proteins have partially planar characteristics in peptide bonds b. Globular proteins cause scattering of light c. Proteins contain aromatic groups in certain amino acids d. All organic macromolecules can be asserted with UV spectroscopy

c. Proteins contain aromatic groups in certain amino acids (Biochem Chapter 3)

Which of the following enzymes is NOT involved in DNA replication? a. Primase b. DNA ligase c. RNA polymerase I d. Telomerase

c. RNA polymerase I (Biochem Chapter 6)

Which of the following is the correct sequence of cardiac impulse? a. SA node → AV node → Purkinje fibers → bundle of His → ventricles b. AV node → bundle of His → Purkinje fibers → ventricles → atria c. SA node → atria → AV node → bundle of His → Purkinje fibers → ventricles d. SA node → AV node → atria → bundle of His → Purkinje fibers → ventricles

c. SA node → atria → AV node → bundle of His → Purkinje fibers → ventricles (Biology Chapter 7)

In which layer of the skin can the stem cells of keratinocytes be found? a. Stratum lucidum b. Stratum granulosum c. Stratum basale d. Stratum corneum

c. Stratum basale (Biology Chapter 10)

Language consists of multiple components. Which of the following involves the order in which words are put together? a. Phonology b. Semantics c. Syntax d. Pragmatics

c. Syntax (Behavioral sciences chapter 4)

A student must lift a mass of 4 kg a distance of 0.5 m. The ambient temperature is 298 K and the student must life the mass in 30 seconds. Which of the following values is NOT necessary to calculate power? a. Mass b. Distance c. Temperature d. Time

c. Temperature (Physics Ch 1)

A woman advances through the ranks of a company, eventually becoming the CEO. Which of the following Jungian archetypes reflects this woman's drive to be successful within the company? a. The persona b. The anima c. The animus d. The shadow

c. The animus (Behavioral Science Chapter 6)

Which of the following is true regarding arteries and veins? a. Arteries are thin-walled, muscular, and elastic, whereas veins are thick-walled and inelastic b. Arteries always conduct oxygenated blood, whereas veins always carry deoxygenated blood c. The blood pressure is the aorta is always higher than the pressure in the superior vena cava d. Arteries facilitate blood transport using skeletal muscle contractions, whereas veins make use of the pumping of the heart to push blood

c. The blood pressure is the aorta is always higher than the pressure in the superior vena cava (Biology Chapter 7)

A hemisphere of brain can be removed to prevent the recurrence of severe seizures. How would the ability of the other hemisphere to adopt functionalities of the removed section differ between a two year old and a twenty year old? a. The brain of the twenty year old would be more adaptable due to higher neuroplasticity b. The brain of the twenty year old would be more adaptable due to lower neuroplasticity c. The brain of the two year old would be more adaptable due to higher neuroplasticity d. The brain of the two year old would be more adaptable due to lower neuroplasticity

c. The brain of the two year old would be more adaptable due to higher neuroplasticity (Behavioral sciences chapter 3)

If an area of a capacitor's plates is doubled while the distance between them is halved, how will the final capacitance (Cf) compare to the original capacitance (Ci)? a. Cf= Ci b. Cf= 1/2Ci c. Cf= 2Ci d. Cf= 4Ci

d. Cf= 4Ci (Physics Chapter 6)

A student is analyzing the behavior of a light ray that is passed through a small opening and a lens and allowed to project on a screen a distance away. What happens to the central maximum (the brightest spot on the screen) when the slit becomes narrower? a. The central maximum remains the same b. The central maximum becomes narrower c. The central maximum becomes wider d. The central maximum divides into smaller light fringes

c. The central maximum becomes wider (Physics Chapter 8)

The speed of blood in the aorta is much higher than the speed of blood through a capillary bed. How can this fact be explained using the continuity equation, assuming that we are interested in average flow and there is no net fluid loss? a. The aorta is located higher than the capillary bed b. The pressure in the aorta is the same as the pressure in the capillary bed c. The cross-sectional area of all the capillaries added together is much greater than the cross-sectional area of the aorta d. The cross-sectional area of a capillary is much smaller than the cross-sectional area of the aorta

c. The cross-sectional area of all the capillaries added together is much greater than the cross-sectional area of the aorta (Physics Chapter 4)

FeI (aq) + I2 (g) = FeI3 (aq) If this reaction were exothermic, what effect would decreasing the temperature have on the equilibrium? a. The forward reaction rate and the reverse reaction rate both increase. b. The forward reaction rate decreases while the reverse rate increases c. The forward reaction rate increases while the reverse reaction rate decreases d. The forward reaction rate and the reverse reaction rate both decrease

c. The forward reaction rate increases while the reverse reaction rate decreases (General Chemistry Chapter 6)

In which of the following situations is it impossible to predict how the pressure will change for a gas sample? a. The gas is cooled at constant volume b. The gas is heated at constant volume c. The gas is heated, and the volume is simultaneously increased d. The gas is cooled, and the volume is simultaneously increased

c. The gas is heated, and the volume is simultaneously increased (Gen Chem Chapter 8)

If the gravitational potential energy of an object has doubled in the absence of nonconservative forces, which of the following must be true, assuming the total mechanical energy of the object is constant? a. The object has been lifted to twice its initial height b. The kinetic energy of the object has been halved c. The kinetic energy has decreased by the same quantity as the potential energy has increased d. The mass of the object has doubled

c. The kinetic energy has decreased by the same quantity as the potential energy has increased (Physics ch 2)

Which of the following is necessarily true regarding frequency, angular frequency, and period of a given wave? a. The magnitude of the angular frequency is larger than the magnitude of the period b. The product of the frequency and period is equal to the angular frequency c. The magnitude of the angular frequency is larger than the magnitude of the frequency d. The product of the angular frequency and period is 1

c. The magnitude of the angular frequency is larger than the magnitude of the frequency (Physics Chapter 7)

Which of the following is a FALSE statement regarding erythrocytes? a. Erythrocytes contain hemoglobin b. Erythrocytes are anaerobic c. The nuclei of erythrocytes are located in the middle of the biconcave disc d. Erythrocytes are phagocytized in the spleen and liver after a certain period of time

c. The nuclei of erythrocytes are located in the middle of the biconcave disc (Biology Chapter 7)

A patient presents to the emergency room with an asthma attack. The patient has been hyperventilating for the past hour and has a blood pH of 7.52. The patient is given treatment and does not appear to respond, but a subsequent blood pH reading is 7.42. Why might this normal blood pH NOT be a reassuring sign? a. The patient's kidneys may have compensated for the alkalemia b. The normal blood pH reading is likely inaccurate c. The patient may be descending into respiratory failure d. The patient's blood should ideally become acidemic for some time to compensate for the alkalemia

c. The patient may be descending into respiratory failure (Biology Chapter 6)

Which of the following data sets is sufficient to determine the linear speed through an area of a rigid pipe? a. The cross-sectional area in another segment of pipe and the cross sectional area in the region of interest b. The Reynold's number, viscosity of the fluid, density, and diameter of the pipe c. The radius of the pipe, pressure gradient, viscosity, and length of pipe d. The absolute pressure and density

c. The radius of the pipe, pressure gradient, viscosity, and length of pipe (Physics Chapter 4)

A reaction is found to stop just before all reactants are converted to products. Which of the following could be true about this reaction? a. The reaction is irreversible and the forward rate is greater than the reverse rate b. The reaction is irreversible and the reverse rate is too large for products to form. c. The reaction is reversible, and the forward rate is equal to the reverse rate. d. The reaction is reversible, and the reverse rate is greater than the forward rate

c. The reaction is reversible, and the forward rate is equal to the reverse rate. (General Chemistry Chapter 6)

Which of the following correctly describes blood flow through the circulatory system? a. The flow rate is constant b. Pressure created by the heart moves blood through venous circulation c. The volume of blood entering and exiting the heart in a single cycle is equal d. The resistance of an artery is greater than the resistance of an arteriole

c. The volume of blood entering and exiting the heart in a single cycle is equal (Physics Chapter 4)

As part of an organic chemistry lab, a student must determine the specific rotation of a chiral product. The student uses a plane polarizer, but accidentally inserts a second polarizer at a 90° angle to the first. What is true of the resulting light it is passes through both polarizers? a. It is circularly polarized b. It is twice as plane polarized c. There is no light d. It is the same as when passed through a single polarizer

c. There is no light (Physics Chapter 8)

Which of the following statements is most likely to be true of nonpolar R groups in aqueous solution? a. They are hydrophilic and found buried within proteins b. They are hydrophilic and found on protein surfaces c. They are hydrophobic and found buried within proteins d. They are hydrophobic and found on protein surfaces

c. They are hydrophobic and found buried within proteins (Biochem Ch 1)

Which of the following processes has the most exothermic standard heat of combustion? a. Combustion of ethane b. Combustion of propane c. Combustion of n-butane d. Combustion of n-pentane

d. Combustion of n-pentane (General Chemistry Chapter 7)

Which of the following is true of amphipathic molecules? a. They form protective spheres in any solvent, with hydrophobic molecules interior and hydrophilic molecules exterior b. They have two fatty acid chains and a polar head group c. They are important to the formation of the phospholipid bilayer and soap bubbles d. They have a glycerol base

c. They are important to the formation of the phospholipid bilayer and soap bubbles (Biochem Chapter 5)

A positive charge of +Q is fixed at point R a distance d away from another positive charge of +2Q fixed at point S. Point A is located midway between the charges, and point B is a distance d/2 from +2Q, as shown below. In which direction will a positive charge move if placed at point A and point B, respectively? a. Toward the +Q charge for both b. Toward the +2Q charge for both c. Toward the +Q charge at point A, and toward the right at point B d. Toward the +2Q charge at point A, and toward the right at point B

c. Toward the +Q charge at point A, and toward the right at point B (Physics and Math Chapter 5)

A researcher treats a solution containing animal cells with ouabain, a poisonous substance that interferes with the sodium potassium ATPase embedded in the cell membrane, and the cell lyses as a result. Which of the following statements best describes ouabain's effort? a. Treatment with ouabain results in high levels of extracellular calcium b. Treatment with ouabain results in high levels of extracellular sodium and potassium c. Treatment with ouabain increases intracellular concentrations of sodium d. Treatment with ouabain decreases intracellular concentrations of sodium

c. Treatment with ouabain increases intracellular concentrations of sodium (Biochem Chapter 8)

Val-tRNA^val is the tRNA that carries valine to the ribosome during translation. Which of the following sequences gives an appropriate anticodon for this tRNA? a. CAU b. AUC c. UAC d. GUG

c. UAC (Biochemistry Chapter 7)

Two fluids A and B have densities of x and 2x, respectively. They are tested independently to assess absolute pressure at varying depths. At what depths will the pressure below the surface of these two fluids be equal? a. whenever the depth of fluid A is one half that of fluid B b. Whenever the depth of fluid A equals that of fluid B c. Whenever the depth of fluid A is 2 times that of fluid B d. Whenever the depth of fluid A is 4 times that of fluid B

c. Whenever the depth of fluid A is 2 times that of fluid B (Physics Chapter 4)

A child is born with an imperforate anus, in which the anal canal fails to form correctly and the rectum is not connected to the outside world. This pathology is most likely accounted for by a failure of: a. cell differentiation b. cell determination c. apoptosis d. neuraltion

c. apoptosis (Biology Chapter 3)

All of the following brain regions are primarily responsible for the experience of emotions EXCEPT the: a. amygdala b. prefrontal cortex c. basal ganglia d. thalamus

c. basal ganglia (Behavioral Science Chapter 5)

A person has a heart attack that primarily affects the wall between two ventricles. Which portion of the electrical conduction system is most likely affected? a. AV node b. SA node c. bundle of His d. left ventriclular muscle

c. bundle of His (Biology Chapter 7)

Which of the following is involved in the body's primary blood-buffering mechanism? a. fluid intake b. absorption of nutrients in the gastrointestinal system c. carbon dioxide produced from metabolism d. hormones released by the kidneys

c. carbon dioxide produced from metabolism (Biology Chapter 7)

Many pets will run toward the kitchen when they hear the sound of a can opener opening a can of pet food. The sound of the can opener is a: a. conditioned response. b. unconditioned response. c. conditioned stimulus. d. unconditioned stimulus.

c. conditioned stimulus. (Behavioral sciences chapter 3)

A thick metal container with two compartments. Compartment A is full of a hot gas, while compartment B is full of a cold has. What is the primary mode of transfer in this system? a. radiation b. convection c. conduction d. enthalpy

c. conduction (Physics and Math Chapter 3)

3-methylpentane and hexane are related in that they are.. a. enantiomers b. diastereomers c. constitutional isomers d. conformational isomers

c. constitutional isomers (Ochem Chapter 2)

What is the highest energy orbital of elements with valence electrons in n=3 shell? a. s-orbital b. p-orbital c. d-orbital d. f-orbital

c. d-orbital (General Chem Chapter 2)

Hemoglobin's affinity for oxygen: a. increases in exercising muscle tissue b. decreases as blood PaCO₂ decreases c. decreases as blood pH decreases d. is higher in maternal blood than in fetal blood

c. decreases as blood pH decreases (Biology Chapter 7)

Which of the following is an example of a negative symptom seen in schizophrenia? a. auditory hallucinations b. disorganized behavior c. disturbance of affect d. delusions

c. disturbance of affect (Behavioral Sciences Chapter 7)

A patient is taken to the doctor after starting to move the fingers in such a way that it looks like rolling something, despite nothing actually being there. The patient also exhibits slowed movement and a shuffling gait. Which neurotransmitter is likely to be present in decreases levels in the patient's brain? a. epinephrine b. histamine c. dopamine d. serotonin

c. dopamine (Behavioral Sciences Chapter 7)

Experimenters notice that the molar concentration of dissolved oxygen in an enclosed water tank has decreased to one-half its original value. In an attempt to counter this decrease, they quadruple the partial pressure of oxygen in the container. What is the final concentration of the gas? a. half of the original concentration b. the same as the original concentration c. double the original concentration d. quadruple the original concentration

c. double the original concentration (Gen Chem Chapter 8)

Which of the following correctly identifies the following process? ⁶⁷₃₁Ga + e− → ⁶⁷³₀Zn a. B- decay b. B+ decay c. e- capture d. gamma decay

c. e- capture (Physics Ch 9)

A scientist designs a study to determine if different regions of the brain are activated when a person speaks their native language vs a second language. Which of the following methods would the scientist most likely choose? a. MRI b. CT scan c. fMRI d. EEG

c. fMRI (Behavioral sciences Ch 1)

A student is trying to determine the type of membrane transport occurring in a cell. The student finds that the molecule to be transported is very large and polar, and when transported across the membrane, no energy is required which of the following is most likely mechanism of transport? a. active transport b. simple diffusion c. facilitated diffusion d. exocytosis

c. facilitated diffusion (Biochem Chapter 8)

A person is looking for change to do laundry and decides to look under the seats of the household car. Even using a flashlight allows no more than an obscured look at the space below. There are various items such as wrappers and papers, but the person sees the glint of silver from an object laying flat and determines it to be a coin. To make this determination, this person used: a. signal detection b. sensory adaptation c. feature detection d. kinesthetic sense

c. feature detection (Behavioral Sciences Chapter 2)

Ionization energy contributes to an atom's chemical reactivity. Which of the following shows an accurate ranking of ionization energies from lowest to highest? a. First ionization energy of Be < second ionization energy of Be< first ionization energy of Li b. First ionization energy of Be < first ionization energy of Li < second ionization energy of Be c. first ionization energy of Li < First ionization energy of Be < second ionization energy of Be d. first ionization energy of Li < second ionization energy of Be< First ionization energy of Be

c. first ionization energy of Li < First ionization energy of Be < second ionization energy of Be (General Chem Chapter 2)

Aldonic acids are compounds that a. can be oxidized, and therefore act as reducing agents b. can be reduced, and therefore act as reducing agents c. have been oxidized and have acted as reducing agents d. have been oxidized and have acted as oxidizing agents

c. have been oxidized and have acted as reducing agents (Biochem Chapter 4)

An alpha-helix is most likely to be held together by: a. disulfide bonds b. hydrophobic effects c. hydrogen bonds d. ionic attraction between side chains

c. hydrogen bonds (Biochem Ch 1)

All of the following are associated with myelin sheath EXCEPT: a. faster conduction of nerve impulses b. nodes of Ranvier forming gaps along the axon c. increased magnitude of the potential difference during an action potential d. saltatory conduction of action potentials

c. increased magnitude of the potential difference during an action potential (Biology Chapter 4)

Destruction of all B-cells in the pancreas would cause: a. glucagon secretion to stop and an increase in blood glucose concentration b. glucagon secretion to stop and a decrease in blood glucose concentration c. insulin secretion to stop and an increase in blood glucose concentration d. insulin secretion to stop and a decrease in blood glucose concentration

c. insulin secretion to stop and an increase in blood glucose concentration (Biology Chapter 5)

Which of the following correctly lists methanol, isobutyl alcohol, and propanol by decreasing boiling point? a. methanol > isobutyl alcohol > propanol b. isobutyl alcohol > methanol > propanol c. isobutyl alcohol > propanol > methanol d. methanol > propanol > isobutyl alcohol

c. isobutyl alcohol > propanol > methanol (Ochem Chapter 5)

Which of the following expressions correctly illustrates the SI base units for each of the variables in the formula below? m delta v= F delta t a. lb x mph= ft x lb x s b. kg x m/s= N x s c. kg x m/s= kg*m/s^2 x s d. g x m/s= g*m/s^2 x s

c. kg x m/s= kg*m/s^2 x s (Physics Ch 1)

The intramolecular reaction of 5-aminopentanoic acid through nucleophilic acyl substitution would result in a(n): a. anhydride b. lactone c. lactam d. carboxylic acid

c. lactam (Ochem Chapter 8)

Allergic reactions occur due to an overactive immune response to a substance. Which cells within the respiratory tract play the largest role in the generation of allergic reactions? a. Alveolar epithelial cells b. macrophages c. mast cells d. ciliated epithelial cells

c. mast cells (Biology Chapter 6)

If the methyl groups of butane are 120 degrees apart as seen in a Newman projection this molecule is in its: a. highest-energy gauche form b. lowest-energy staggered form c. middle-energy eclipsed form d. highest-energy eclipsed form

c. middle-energy eclipsed form (Ochem Chapter 2)

Which of the following shows the correct order of early developmental milestones during embryogenesis? a. Blastula → gastrula → morula b. Morula → gastrula → blastula c. morula → blastula → gastrula d. gastrula → blastula → morula

c. morula → blastula → gastrula (Biology Chapter 3)

Which of the following is least likely to cause denaturation of proteins? a. Heating the protein to 100°C b. adding 8 M urea c. moving it to a more hypotonic environment d. adding a detergent such as sodium dodecyl sulfate

c. moving it to a more hypotonic environment (Biochem Ch 1)

An opera singer has precisely two identical glasses. The singer produces as pure tone as possible and shatters the first glass at a frequency of 808 Hz. The singer then sings a frequency of 838 Hz in the presence of the second glass. The second glass will likely: a. shatter after a longer amount of time because the applied frequency is higher b. shatter after a shorter amount of time because the applied frequency is higher c. not shatter because the applied frequency is not equal to the natural frequency of the glass d. not shatter because the higher-frequency sounds are not associated with more attenuation

c. not shatter because the applied frequency is not equal to the natural frequency of the glass (Physics Chapter 7)

Oxytocin and antidiuretic hormone are: a. peptide hormones produced and released by the pituitary b. steroid hormones produced and released by the pituitary c. peptide hormones produced by the hypothalamus and released by the pituitary d. steroid hormones produced by the hypothalamus and released by the pituitary

c. peptide hormones produced by the hypothalamus and released by the pituitary (Biology Chapter 5)

Experiencing emotion involves three component, which are: a. behavioral, reactionary, and cognitive b. emotional, physical, and mental c. physiological, cognitive, and behavioral d. emotional, cognitive, and behavioral

c. physiological, cognitive, and behavioral (Behavioral Science Chapter 5)

Which of the following are able to produce a virtual image? I. Convex lens II. Concave lens III. Plane mirror a. I only b. III only c. II and IIII d. I, II, and III

d. I, II, and III (Physics Chapter 8)

Which of the following is likely to be found in the blood of a person who is pregnant? a. Immunoglobulins produced by fetus b. fetal hemoglobin released from fetal red blood cells c. progesterone produced by placental cells d. carbon dioxide exhaled from fetal lungs

c. progesterone produced by placental cells (Biology Chapter 3)

Each of the following responses to stress is considered maladaptive EXCEPT: a. drug use b. social withdrawal c. progressive muscle relaxation d. avoiding the stressor

c. progressive muscle relaxation (Behavioral Science Chapter 5)

A mutation in which of the following components of the lac operon would lead to a significant reduction in the expression of lactase (one of these structural genes)? a. Operator b. regulatory gene c. promoter d. structural genes

c. promoter (Biochemistry Chapter 7)

Glucose reabsorption in the nephron occurs in the: a. loop of Henle b. distaL convoluted tubule c. proximal convoluted tubule d. collecting duct

c. proximal convoluted tubule (Biology Chapter 10)

The following data shown in the table were collected for the combustion of the theoretical compound XH₄: XH₄ +2O₂→ XO₂ + 2H₂O Trial 1: [XH₄]= 0.6; [O₂]= 0.6; Rate= 12.4 Trial 2: [XH₄]= 0.6; [O₂]= 2.4; Rate= 49.9 Trial 3: [XH₄]= 1.2; [O₂]=2.4; Rate= 198.3 What is the rate law for the reaction described here? a. rate= k [XH₄][O₂] b. rate= k [XH₄] [O₂]² c. rate= k [XH₄]² [O₂] d. rate= k [XH₄]² [O₂]²

c. rate= k [XH₄]² [O₂] (Gen Chem Chapter 5)

Which of the following is NOT true of the innate immune system? a. includes macrophages to mediate inflammation b. is always active against infection c. recognizes unique features of a pathogen d. contains cells derived from a hematopoietic stem cell

c. recognizes unique features of a pathogen (Biology Chapter 8)

Total lung capacity is equal to the vital capacity plus the: a. tidal volume b. expiratory reserve volume c. residual volume d. inspiratory reserve volume

c. residual volume (Biology Chapter 6)

The following reaction results in: a. retention of relative configuration and a change in the absolute configuration b. a change in the relative and absolute configuration c. retention of the relative and absolute configurations d. retention of absolute configuration and a change in the relative configuration

c. retention of the relative and absolute configurations (Ochem Chapter 2)

Which of the following RNA molecules or proteins is NOT found in the spliceosome during intron exclusion? a. snRNAS b. hnRNAS c. shRNAS d. snRNPS

c. shRNAS (Biochemistry Chapter 7)

The four C-H bonds of CH₄ point toward the vertices of a tetrahedron. This indicates that the hybridization of the carbon atom in methane is: a. sp b. sp² c. sp³ d. sp³d

c. sp³ (Ochem Chapter 3)

Which of the following correctly lists two organs in which proteins are digested? a. mouth and stomach b. stomach and large intestine c. stomach and small intestine d. small intestine and large intestine

c. stomach and small intestine (Biology Chapter 9)

A person feels extremely guilty after having an extramarital affair. According to the psychodynamic perspective, which of the following is responsible for this anxiety? a. id b. ego c. superego d. libido

c. superego (Behavioral Science Chapter 6)

A rock (m= 2 kg) is shot up vertically at the same time that a ball (m= 0.5 kg) is projected horizontally. If both start from the same height: a. the rock and ball will reach the ground at the same time b. the rock will reach the ground first c. the ball will reach the ground first d. the rock and ball will collide in the air before reaching the ground

c. the ball will reach the ground first (Physics Ch 1)

Each of the following statements regarding the anatomy of the respiratory system is true EXCEPT: a. the epiglottis covers the glottis during swallowing to ensure that food does not enter the trachea b. the trachea and bronchi are lined by ciliated epithelial cells c. the pharynx contains two vocal cords, which are controlled by skeletal muscle and cartilage d. the nares are lined with vibrissae, which help filter out particulate matter from inhaled air

c. the pharynx contains two vocal cords, which are controlled by skeletal muscle and cartilage(Biology Chapter 6)

If a light ray has a frequency of 5.0 x 10¹⁴ Hz, in which region of the electromagnetic spectrum is it located? a. X-ray b. UV c. visible d. infrared

c. visible (Physics Chapter 8)

Which of the following best describes the final product of an aldol condensation? a. 1,3-dicarbonyl b. 1,2-dicarbonyl c. α,β-unsaturated carbonyl d. β,γ-unsaturated carbonyl

c. α,β-unsaturated carbonyl (Ochem Chapter 7)

Which of the following statements is true of a process that is spontaneous in the forward direction? a. ∆G>0 and Keq >Q b. ∆G>0 and Keq <Q c. ∆G<0 and Keq >Q d. ∆G<0 and Keq <Q

c. ∆G<0 and Keq >Q (General Chemistry Chapter 7)

Where do platelets come from?

cellular fragments that are given off megakaryocytes in bone marrow

What direction is charging and discharging in circuit?

charging: - → + discharging: + → -

How is sensory information integrated in top-down processing?

conceptually driven; uses memories and expectations that allow brain to recognize object then recognize parts; recognizes whole object without analyzing specific parts

What is the difference between a conformational and a configurational isomer?

conformational isomer: stereoisomers with same molecular connectivity with different rotation around a single (σ) bond configurational isomer: stereoisomers with differing molecular connectivity, interconnected only by breaking bonds

Contrast constant-volume and constant-pressure calorimetry

constant-volume calorimetry: Ex= bomb calorimeter; heat of rxn is measured indirectly by assessing ∆T in water bath around rxn vessel; useful for high temp and gas constant-pressure calorimetry: Ex= coffee cup calorimeter; temp of contents is measured to determine heat of rxn

For most cells, the extracellular calcium concentration is around 10,000 times higher than the intracellular calcium concentration. What is the membrane potential established by this electrochemical gradient? a. -123 mV b. -61.5 mV c. +61.5 mV d. +123 mV

d. +123 mV (Biochem Chapter 8

A scientist takes 0.5 g/ml solution of an unknown pure dextrorotatory organic molecule and places it in a test tube with a diameter of 1 cm. He observes that a place of polarized light is rotated 12° under these conditions. What is the specific rotation of this molecule? a. -240° b. -24° c. +24° d. +240°

d. +240° [α]=α/c*l [α]=12/(0.5*0.1) (Ochem Chapter 2)

A voltaic cell provides a current of 0.5 A when in a circuit with a 3 Ω resistor. If the internal resistance of the cell is 0.1 Ω, what is the voltage across the terminals of the battery when there is no current flowing? a. 0.05 V b. 1.5 V c. 1.505 V d. 1.55 V

d. 1.55 V (Physics Chapter 6)

An electron is known to be in the n=4 shell and l= 2 subshell. How many possible combinations of quantum numbers could this electron have? a. 1 b. 2 c. 5 d. 10

d. 10 (Ochem Chapter 3)

An electron is accelerated over a distance d by an electric potential V. The electric potential applied to this electron is then increased by a factor of 4 and the electron is accelerated over the same distance d. The speed of the electron at the end of the second trial will be larger than at the end of the first trial by a factor of: a. 16 b. 8 c. 4 d. 2

d. 2 (Physics and Math Chapter 5)

A 2000 kg experimental car can accelerate from 0 to 30 m/s in 6 s. What is the average power of the engine to achieve this acceleration? a. 0 J b. 400 J c. 800 J d. 2000 J

d. 2000 J (Physics ch 2)

If the magnetic field a distance r away from a current-carrying wire is 10 T, what will be the net magnetic field at r if another wire is placed a distance 2r from the original wire (with r in the middle) and has a current twice as strong flowing in the opposite direction? a. 0 T b. 15 T c. 20 T d. 30 T

d. 30 T (Physics and Math Chapter 5)

What is the angular frequency of the third harmonic in a pipe of a length 1.5 m with one closed end? (Note: The speed of the sound is approximately 340 m/s) a. 170 radians per second b. 170π radians per second c. 340 radians per second d. 340π radians per second

d. 340π radians per second (Physics Chapter 7)

A scientist looks through a microscope with two thin lenses with m₁= 10 and m₂=40. What is the overall magnification of this microscope? a. 0.25 b. 30 c. 50 d. 400

d. 400 (Physics Chapter 8)

A submarine is inspecting the surface of the water with a laser that points from the submarine to the surface of the water and through the air. At what angle will the laser not penetrate the surface of the water but rather reflect entirely back into the water? (Assume nwater= 1.33 and nair= 1) a. 19° b. 29° c. 39° d. 49°

d. 49° (Physics Chapter 8)

If the distance between the centers of the spheres is halved, the magnitude of the force on S due to R will be: a. F/2 b. F/4 c. 2F d. 4F

d. 4F (Physics and Math Chapter 5)

A researcher is interested in studying fear responses to a variety of different stimuli. To rule out potential confounding variables, the research excludes individuals with phobias from the study. In the sample of 50 participants, how many will likely be excluded from the study, assuming that the sample is representative of the overall population? a. 45 b. 15 c. 10 d. 5

d. 5 (9% of people have phobia so 50 * 9%= 4.5 so 5 people) (Behavioral Sciences Chapter 7)

At what pH can protein A best be obtained through Electrophoresis? A - pI= 4.5; MM= 25,000 B - pI= 6.0; MM= 10,000 C - pI= 9.5; MM= 12,000 a. 2.5 b. 3.5 c. 4.5 d. 5.5

d. 5.5 (Biochem Chapter 3)

A nuclide undergoes two alpha decays, two positron decays, and two gamma decays. What is the difference between the atomic number of the parent nuclide and the atomic number of the daughter nuclide? a. 0 b. 2 c. 4 d. 6

d. 6 (Physics Ch 9)

In lysine, the pka of the side chain is about 10.5. Assuming that the pka of the carbonyl and amino groups are 2 and 9, respectively, the pI of lysine is closest to: a. 5.5 b. 6.2 c. 7.4 d. 9.8

d. 9.8 *the side chain is basic so (9+10.5)/2= 9.75* (Biochem Ch 1)

How much heat is required to completely melt a pair of gold earrings weighing 500 g, given that their initial temperature is at 25 °C? (The melting point of gold is 1064°C, its heat of fusion is 6.37x10⁴ J/kg, and its specific heat is 126 J/kg*K.) a. 15 kJ b. 32 kJ c. 66 kJ d. 97 kJ

d. 97 kJ (Physics and Math Chapter 3)

Which of the following is FALSE regarding aldosterone regulation? a. Renin converts the plasma protein angiotensinogen to angiotensin I b. Angiotensin II stimulates the adrenal cortex to secrete aldosterone c. Angiotensin I is converted to angiotensin II by angiotensin-converting enzyme d. A decrease in blood oxygen concentrations stimulates renin production

d. A decrease in blood oxygen concentrations stimulates renin production (Biology Chapter 5)

A student is measuring sound frequencies from the side of a road while walking east. For which of the following situations could the student determine that the difference between the perceived frequency and the actual emitted frequency is zero? a. A plane flying directly above the student from east to west b. A police car passing the student with its sirens on c. A person playing piano in a house on the street d. A dog barking in a car that moves east

d. A dog barking in a car that moves east (Physics Chapter 7)

Which of the following terms describes how existing schemata are modified to incorporate new information: a. Assimilation b. Adaptation c. Affirmation d. Accommodation

d. Accommodation (Behavioral sciences chapter 4)

When benzaldehyde is reacted with acetone, which will act as the nucleophile? a. Benzaldehdye, after addition of strong acid b. Benzaldehyde after reaction with strong base c. Acetone, after addition of strong acid d. Acetone, after reaction with strong base

d. Acetone, after reaction with strong base (Ochem Chapter 7)

Which of the following will most likely increase the electric field between the plates of a parallel plate capacitor? a. Adding a resistor that is connected to the capacitor in series b. Adding a resistor that is connected to the capacitor in parallel c. Increasing the distance between the plates d. Adding an extra battery to the system

d. Adding an extra battery to the system (Physics Chapter 6)

A genotypically female infant is born with ambiguous genitalia. Soon after birth, the infant suffers from hypoatremia, or low blood concentrations of sodium. Which endocrine organ is most likely to be affected? a. Hypothalamus b. Pituitary c. Kidneys d. Adrenal cortex

d. Adrenal cortex (Biology Chapter 5)

Which of the following compounds possesses at least one σ bond? a. CH₄ b. C₂H₂ c. C₂H₄ d. All of the above contain at least one σ bond

d. All of the above contain at least one σ bond (Ochem Chapter 3)

Which of the following processes would increase the likelihood of a behavior? a. Extinction b. Negative punishment c. Positive punishment d. Avoidance learning

d. Avoidance learning (Behavioral sciences chapter 3)

How do a significant decrease in temperature and volume affect ideal gas behavior, respectively? a. Both lead to more ideal behavior b. A lower temperature leads to more deviations from ideal behavior, while lower volume causes more ideal behavior c. A lower temperature leads to more ideal behavior, while lower volume causes more ideal behavior d. Both lead to deviations in ideal behavior

d. Both lead to deviations in ideal behavior (Gen Chem Chapter 8)

Which of the following solvents would be LEAST useful for a nucleophile-electrophile reaction? a. H₂O b. CH₃CH₂OH c. CH₃SOCH₃ d. CH₃CH₂CH₂CH₂CH₂CH₃

d. CH₃CH₂CH₂CH₂CH₂CH₃ (Ochem Chapter 4)

Rank the following in order of decreasing electrophilicity: CR₃⁺, CH₃OH, CH₃OCH₃, CH₃Cl a. CH₃OCH₃> CR₃⁺> CH₃OH>CH₃Cl b. CR₃⁺>CH₃OH> CH₃OCH₃>CH₃Cl c. CH₃OCH₃>CH₃Cl> CR₃⁺> CH₃OH d. CR₃⁺>CH₃Cl>CH₃OH>CH₃OCH₃

d. CR₃⁺>CH₃Cl>CH₃OH>CH₃OCH₃ (Ochem Chapter 4)

Which of the following is most likely to be found bound to a protein in the body? a. Sodium b. Potassium c. Chloride d. Calcium

d. Calcium (Biochem Chapter 3)

Simultaneous processing of conscious emotions and physiological activation is the defining feature of which theory of emotion? a. Schancter-Singer theory b. James-Lange theory c. Incentive theory d. Cannon-Bard theory

d. Cannon-Bard theory (Behavioral Science Chapter 5)

Which of the following is NOT involved in cell migration? a. Dynein b. Flagella c. Actin d. Centrioles

d. Centrioles (Biochem Chapter 3)

Which of the following is NOT an example of a nonspecific defense mechanism? a. Skin provides a physical barrier against invasion b. Macrophages engulf and destroy foreign particles c. An inflammatory response is initiated in response to physical damage d. Cytotoxic T cells destroy cells displaying foreign antigens

d. Cytotoxic T cells destroy cells displaying foreign antigens (Biology Chapter 8)

Which of the following is a function of the parasympathetic nervous system? a. Increasing blood sugar during periods of stress b. Dilating the pupils to enhance vision c. Increasing oxygen delivery to muscles d. Decreasing heart rate and blood pressure

d. Decreasing heart rate and blood pressure (Biology Chapter 4)

Which of the following statements correctly identifies a key difference between mitosis and meiosis? a. In metaphase of mitosis, replicated chromosomes line up in a single file; in metaphase II of meiosis, replicated chromosomes line up on opposite sides of the metaphase plate b. During anaphase of mitosis, homologous chromosomes separate; during anaphase of meiosis I, sister chromatids separate c. At the end of telophase of mitosis, the daughter cells are identical to each other; at the end of meiosis I the daughter cells are identical to the parent cell d. During metaphase of mitosis, centromeres are present directly on the metaphase plate; during metaphase of meiosis I, there are no centromeres on the metaphase plate

d. During metaphase of mitosis, centromeres are present directly on the metaphase plate; during metaphase of meiosis I, there are no centromeres on the metaphase plate (Biology chapter 2)

A medical student is feeling a high level of stress due to upcoming exams and pressure from family to engage in activities at home. The student chooses to go to the gym for a workout to help relax. This workout is which type of stress? a. Hassle b. Frustration c. Distress d. Eustress

d. Eustress (Behavioral Science Chapter 5)

Which of the following associations correctly pairs a stage of respiration with the muscle actions occurring during that stage? a. Exhalation- diaphragm relaxes b. Inhalation- internal intercostal muscles c. Exhalation- diaphragm contracts d. Exhalation- external intercostal muscles

d. Exhalation- external intercostal muscles (Biology Chapter 6)

Which of the following is NOT a component of all trimeric G proteins? a. G(alpha) b. G(beta) c. G(gamma) d. G(inhibitory)

d. G(inhibitory) (Biochem Chapter 3)

Which of the following hormones directly stimulates a target tissue that is NOT an endocrine organ? a. ACTH b. TSH c. LH d. GH

d. GH (Biology Chapter 5)

Which of the following is a sphingolipid? a. Lecithin b. Phosphatidylinositol c. Cholesterol d. Ganglioside

d. Ganglioside (Biochem Chapter 8)

A corporate logo uses five unconnected angles equally spaces in a circular fashion. When viewed, it appears to be a star. Which of the following is the logo artist using to create a complete pattern to viewers? a. Bottom-up processing b. Top-down processing c. Gate theory d. Gestalt principles

d. Gestalt principles (Behavioral Sciences Chapter 2)

Which two polysaccharides share all of their glycosidic linkage types in common? a. Cellulose and Amylopectin b. Amylose and Glycogen c. Amylose and Cellulose d. Glycogen and Amylopectin

d. Glycogen and Amylopectin (Biochem Chapter 4)

During the fall, the leaves of some trees change in color from green to red because chlorophyll breaks down, leaving the secondary anthocyanin pigments. Which of the following best describes the light reflected by anthocyanin? a. Has a wavelength of 700 m b. Has a wavelength of 580 nm c. Has a frequency of 4.2 x 10⁶ Hz d. Has a frequency of 4.2 x 10¹³ Hz

d. Has a frequency of 4.2 x 10¹³ Hz (Physics Chapter 8)

Which of the following atoms only has paired electrons in its ground state? a. Sodium b. Iron c. Cobalt d. Helium

d. Helium (Gen chem Ch1)

Which of the following is NOT a difference between heterochromatin and euchromatin? a. Euchromatin has areas that can be transcribed whereas heterochromatin is silent b. Heterochromatin is tightly packed, whereas euchromatin is less dense c. Heterochromatin stains darkly, whereas euchromatin stains lightly d. Heterochromatin is found in the nucleus, whereas euchromatin is in the cytoplasm

d. Heterochromatin is found in the nucleus, whereas euchromatin is in the cytoplasm (Biochem Chapter 6)

Which of the following would NOT be seen during pregnancy? a. High levels of hCG in the first trimester b. High levels of progesterone throughout the pregnancy c. Low levels of FSH in the first trimester d. High levels of GnRH throughout the pregnancy

d. High levels of GnRH throughout the pregnancy (Biology chapter 2)

Endonuclease are used for which of the following? I. Gene therapy II. Southern blotting III. DNA repair a. I only b. II only c. II and III only d. I, II and III

d. I, II and III (Biochem Chapter 6)

How does prokaryotic DNA differ from eukaryotic DNA? I. Prokaryotic DNA lacks nucleosome II. Eukaryotic DNA has telomeres III. Prokaryotic DNA is replicated by a different DNA polymerase IV. Eukaryotic DNA is circular when not restricted by centromeres a. I only b. IV only c. II and III only d. I, II, and III only

d. I, II and III only (Biochem Chapter 6)

During which of the following stages does dreaming occur? I. Stage 3 II. Stage 4 III. REM a. I only b. II only c. III only d. I, II, and III

d. I, II, and III (Behavioral sciences chapter 4)

Resting membrane potential depends on: I. the differential distribution of ions across the membrane II. active transport processes III. selective permeability of the phospholipid bilayer a. I only b. I and III only c. II and III only d. I, II, and III

d. I, II, and III (Biochem Chapter 8)

Cancer cells are cells in which mitosis occurs continuously, without regard to quality or quantity of the cells produced. For this reason, most chemotherapies attack rapidly dividing cells. At which point(s) in the cell cycle could chemotherapy effectively prevent cancer cell division? I. S Stage II. Prophase III. Metaphase a. I only b. I and II only c. II and III only d. I, II, and III

d. I, II, and III (Biology chapter 2)

Which of the following will convert cyclohexanol to cyclohexanone? I. Chromium trioxide II. Pyridinium chlorochromate III. Sodium dichromate a. I only b. II only c. I and III only d. I, II, and III

d. I, II, and III (Ochem Chapter 5)

Which of the following types of nucleic acid could form the genome of a virus? I. Single-stranded RNA II. Double-stranded DNA III. Single-stranded DNA a. I only b. II only c. I and II only d. I, II, and III

d. I, II, and III (Bio ch 1)

Which of the following is a reason for conjugating proteins? I. To direct their delivery to a particular organelle II. To direct their delivery to the cell membrane III. To add a cofactor needed for their activity a. I only b. II only c. II and III only d. I,II, and III

d. I,II, and III (Biochem Ch 1)

Two atomic orbitals may combine to form: I. a bonding molecular orbital II. an anitbonding molecular orbital III. Hybridized orbitals a. I only b. III only c. I and II only d. I, II, and III

d. I,II, and III (Ochem Chapter 3)

Aluminum metal can be used to remove tarnish from silver when the two solid metals are placed in water, according to the following reaction: 3AgO + 2 Al → 3 Ag + Al₂O₃ This reaction is a : I. double-displacement reaction II. single-displacement reaction III. oxidation-reduction reaction IV. Combination reaction a. II only b. IV only c. I and III only d. II and III only

d. II and III only (Gen Chem Chapter 4)

A reactant in a second-order reaction at a certain temperature is increased by a factor of 4. By how much is the rate of the reaction altered? a. It is unchanged b. It is increased by a factor of 4 c. It is increased by a factor of 16 d. It cannot be determined from the information given

d. It cannot be determined from the information given (Gen Chem Chapter 5)

Ignoring attenuation, how does the intensity of a sound change as the distance from the source doubles? a. It is four times as intense b. It is twice as intense c. It is half as intense d. It is one-quarter as intense

d. It is one-quarter as intense (Physics Chapter 7)

Which of the following statements concerning the somatic division of the peripheral nervous system is INCORRECT? a. Its pathways innervate skeletal muscle b. Its pathways are usually voluntary c. Some of its pathways are referred to as reflex arcs d. Its pathways always involve more than two neurons

d. Its pathways always involve more than two neurons (Biology Chapter 4)

The statement "I noticed my heart racing and breathing rate increasing when I saw a bear, so I am afraid" corresponds most closely with which theory of emotion? a. Schancter-Singer theory b. Yerkes-Dodson theory c. Cannon-Bard theory d. James-Lange theory

d. James-Lange theory (Behavioral Science Chapter 5)

Which of the following atoms or ions has the largest effective nuclear charge? a. Cl b. Cl⁻ c. K d. K⁺

d. K⁺ (General Chem Chapter 2)

A child cannot make an origami swan alone, but is able to do so when observing and being assisted by an adult. This scenario is described in the ideas of which of the following theorists? a. Albert Bandura b. Alfred Adler c. B.F. Skinner d. Lev Vgotsky

d. Lev Vgotsky (Behavioral Science Chapter 6)

Which of the following is likely to be seen in a patient with liver failure? a. High concentrations of urea in the blood b. High concentrations of albumin in the blood c. Low concentrations of ammonia in the blood d. Low concentrations of clotting factors in the blood

d. Low concentrations of clotting factors in the blood (Biology Chapter 9)

During which phase of the cell cycle are DNA repair mechanisms least active? a. G₁ b. S c. G₂ d. M

d. M (Biochem Chapter 6)

In the equation below, substrate C is an allosteric inhibitor to enzyme 1. Which of the following is another mechanism necessarily caused by substrate C? A→(enzyme 1)→B → (enzyme 2)→ C a. Competitive inhibition b. Irreversible inhibition c. Feedback enhancement

d. Negative feedback (Biochem Chapter 2)

A leak of helium gas through a small hole occurs at a rate of 3.22 x 10^-5 mol/s. How will the leakage rates of neon and oxygen gases compare to helium at the same temperature and pressure? a. Neon will leak faster than helium; oxygen will leak faster than helium b. Neon will leak faster than helium; oxygen will leak slower than helium c. Neon will leak slower than helium; oxygen will leak faster than helium d. Neon will leak slower than helium; oxygen will leak slower than helium

d. Neon will leak slower than helium; oxygen will leak slower than helium (Gen Chem Chapter 8)

Despite the fact that both C₂H₂ and HCN contain triple bonds, the lengths of these triple bonds are not equal. Which of the following is the best explanation for this finding? a. In C₂H₂, the bond is shorter because it is between atoms of the same element b. The two molecules have different resonance structures c. Carbon is more electronegative than hydrogen d. Nitrogen is more electronegative than carbon

d. Nitrogen is more electronegative than carbon (General Chem Ch 3)

A student places an ammeter with negligible resistance in parallel with a resistor to determine the amount of current that passes through the resistor. Does the student obtain an accurate reading? a. Yes, because the student used an ammeter with negligible resistance b. Yes, because the current going through parallel paths is equal c. No, because the ammeter should have infinite resistance d. No, because an ammeter in parallel changes the current through the resistor

d. No, because an ammeter in parallel changes the current through the resistor (Physics Chapter 6)

Which of the following is true with regard to the action potential? a. All hyperpolarized stimuli will be carried to the axon terminal without a decrease in size b. The size of the action potential is proportional to the size of the stimuli that produced it c. Increasing the intensity of the depolarization increases the size of the impulse d. Once an action potential is triggered, an impulse of a given magnitude and speed is produced

d. Once an action potential is triggered, an impulse of a given magnitude and speed is produced (Biology Chapter 4)

An unconscious patient is rushed into the emergency room and needs an immediate blood transfusion. Because there is no time to check the patient's medical history or determine blood type, which type of blood should the patient receive? a. AB⁺ b. AB⁻ c. O⁺ d. O⁻

d. O⁻ (Biology Chapter 7)

In addition to being a freestanding diagnosis, agoraphibia is most often seen in association with which other psychiatric diagnosis? a. Obsessive-compulsive disorder b. Avoidant personality disorder c. Generalized anxiety disorder d. Panic disorder

d. Panic disorder (Behavioral Sciences Chapter 7)

An individual memorizes a shopping list by associating each item with an image that corresponds with a number. This individual is using which of the following mnemonics? a. Clustering b. Method of loci c. Elaborative rehearsal d. Peg-words

d. Peg-words (Behavioral sciences chapter 3)

Which of the following is a correct sequence of passageways through which air travels during inhalation? a. Pharynx → trachea → broncioles → bronchi→alveoli b. Pharynx → trachea → larynx → bronchi → alveoli c. Larynx → pharynx → trachea → bronchi → alveoli d. Pharynx → larynx → trachea → bronchi → alveoli

d. Pharynx → larynx → trachea → bronchi → alveoli (Biology Chapter 6)

Which of the following will not result in the splitting of white light into its component colors? a. Dispersion through a prism b. Diffraction through a grating c. Refraction within a thin film d. Reflection from an ideal convex mirror

d. Reflection from an ideal convex mirror (Physics Chapter 8)

Which of the following experimental methods should NEVER affect the rate of a reaction? a. Placing an exothermic reaction in an ice bath b. Increasing the pressure of a reactant in a closed container c. Putting the reactants into an aqueous solution d. Removing the product of an irreversible solution

d. Removing the product of an irreversible solution (Gen Chem Chapter 5)

A researcher wishes to incorporate a radiolabeled deoxyadenine into the genome of one of the two daughter cells that would arise as a result of mitosis. What is the latest stage of cellular development during which the radiolabeled deoxyadenine could be added to achieve this result? a. G₁ b. G₂ c. M d. S

d. S (Biology chapter 2)

Which of the following is NOT a type of glycolipid? a. Cerebroside b. Globoside c. Ganglioside d. Sphingomyelin

d. Sphingomyelin (Biochem Chapter 5)

A certain enzyme that displays positive cooperativity has four subunits, two of which are bound to substrate. Which of the following statements must be true? a. The affinity of the enzyme for the substrate has just increased b. The affinity of the enzyme for the substrate has just decreased c. The affinity of the enzyme for the substrate is half of what it would be if four sites had substrate bound. d. The affinity of the enzyme for the substrate is greater than with one substrate bound

d. The affinity of the enzyme for the substrate is greater than with one substrate bound (Biochem Chapter 2)

Consider the biochemical reaction A→B, which is catalyzed by A-B dehydrogenase. Which of the following statements is true? a. The reaction will proceed until the enzyme concentration decreases b. The reaction will be most favorable at 0⁰C c. A component of the enzyme is transferred from A to B d. The free energy change (∆G) of the catalyzed reaction is the same as for the uncatalyzed reaction

d. The free energy change (∆G) of the catalyzed reaction is the same as for the uncatalyzed reaction (Biochem Chapter 2)

How does the change in free energy compare between the kinetic and thermodynamic product? a. The free energy change for the kinetic product is greater since it is less stable b. The free energy change for the kinetic product is greater since it is more stable c. The free energy change for the thermodynamic product is greater since it is less stable d. The free energy change for the thermodynamic product is greater since it is more stable

d. The free energy change for the thermodynamic product is greater since it is more stable (General Chemistry Chapter 6)

Why do halogens often form ionic bonds with alkaline earth metals? a. The alkaline earth metals have much higher electron affinities than the halogens b. By sharing electrons equally, the alkaline earth metals and halogens form full octets c. Within the same row, the halogens have smaller atomic radii than the alkaline earth metals d. The halogens have much higher electron affinities than the alkaline earth metals

d. The halogens have much higher electron affinities than the alkaline earth metals (General Chem Chapter 2)

Which of the following is true regarding prophase? a. The chromosomes separate and move to opposite poles of the cell b. The spindle apparatus disappears c. The chromosomes uncoil d. The nucleoli disappear

d. The nucleoli disappear (Biology chapter 2)

How many valence electrons are present in elements in the third period? a. 2 b. 3 c. The number decreases as the atomic number increases d. The number increases as the atomic number increases

d. The number increases as the atomic number increases (General Chem Chapter 2)

A massless spring initially compressed by a displacement of two centimeters is now compressed by four centimeters. How has the potential energy of this system changed? a. The potential energy has not changed b. The potential energy has doubled c. The potential energy has increased by two joules d. The potential energy has quadrupled

d. The potential energy has quadrupled U=1/2kx² (Physics ch 2)

What would increasing the concentration of reactants accomplish in a solution containing a saturated catalyst? a. It would increase the rate constant but not the reaction rate b. It would decrease the rate constant but increase the reaction rate c. It would increase the rate constant and increase the reaction rate d. The reaction would be unaffected

d. The reaction would be unaffected (Gen Chem Chapter 5)

What is the equilibrium expression for the reaction Cu₂SO₄ (s)↔ 2Cu⁺ (aq) + SO₄²⁻ (aq)? a. [Cu₊]²[SO₄²⁻]/ [Cu₂SO₄] b. 2x[Cu₊][SO₄²⁻]/ [Cu₂SO₄] c. [Cu₊][SO₄²⁻] d. [Cu₊]²[SO₄²⁻]

d. [Cu₊]²[SO₄²⁻] (General Chemistry Chapter 6)

Which of the following is a conclusion that can be made from research in role-taking and observational learning? a. young children will only model actions performed by their parents b. celebrities and athletes are an adolescent's most important role models c. children who role-take identities that are not gender typical are more likely to take on those roles later in life d. a female child is more likely to model the behavior of another female than a male

d. a female child is more likely to model the behavior of another female than a male (Behavioral Science Chapter 6)

All of the following facilitate gas exchange in lungs EXCEPT: a. thin alveolar walls b. multiple subdivisions of the respiratory tree c. differences in the partial pressures of O2 and CO2 d. active transporters in the alveolar cells

d. active transporters in the alveolar cells (Biology Chapter 6)

Which of the following is NOT a method by which enzymes decrease the activation energy for biological reactions? a. modifying the local charge environment b. forming transient covalent bonds c. acting as electron donors or receptors d. breaking bonds in the enzyme irreversibly to provide energy

d. breaking bonds in the enzyme irreversibly to provide energy (Biochem Chapter 2)

The world record for the longest-held breath is 22 minutes and 0 seconds. If a sample were taken from this individual during the last minute of breath-holding, which of the following might be observed? a. Increased hemoglobin affinity to oxygen b. decreased PaCO2 c. Increased hematocrit d. decreased pH

d. decreased pH (Biology Chapter 7)

A young person of unknown age is brought by the Philadelphia police and local emergency department for evaluation after being found wandering in a park. The patient carries no identification and is unable to provide a first or last name or any live details, except for but the name phoenix sounds familiar. The police in Arizona are contacted and finding missing persons report matching the patient's description. Based on this information, the most likely diagnosis for this patient is: a. depersonalization/derealization disorder b. dissociative identity disorder c. somatic symptom disorder d. dissociative amnesia with dissociative fugue

d. dissociative amnesia with dissociative fugue (Behavioral Sciences Chapter 7)

Which of the following quantities is NOT a vector? a. velocity b. displacement c. force d. distance

d. distance (Physics Ch 1)

Which conversion between carboxylic acid derivatives is NOT possible by a nucleophilic reaction? a. carboxylic acid to ester b. ester to carboxylic acid c. anhydride to amide d. ester to anhydride

d. ester to anhydride (Ochem Chapter 4)

In which of the following media does sound travel the fastest? a. vacuum b. air c. water d. glass

d. glass (Physics Chapter 7)

Anderson's disease (glycogen storage disease type IV) is a condition characterized by a deficiency in glycogen branching enzyme. Absence of this enzyme would be likely to cause all of the following effects EXCEPT: a. decreased glycogen solubility in human cells b. slower action of glycogen phosphorylase c. less storage of glucose in the body d. glycogen devoid of α-1,4-linkages

d. glycogen devoid of α-1,4-linkages (Biochem Chapter 4)

Carboxylic acids have higher boiling points than their corresponding alcohols primarily because: a. molecular weight is increased by the additional carboxyl group b. the pH of the compound is lower c. acid salts are soluble in water d. hydrogen bonding is much stronger than in alcohols

d. hydrogen bonding is much stronger than in alcohols (Ochem Chapter 8)

The influence of a specific group of cells on the differentiation of another group of cells is called: a. competence b. senescene c. determination d. induction

d. induction (Biology Chapter 3)

Which of the following best describes ionic compounds? a. ionic compounds are formed from molecules containing two or more atoms b. ionic compounds are formed of charged particles and are measured by molecular weight c. ionic compounds are formed of charged particles that share electrons equally d. ionic compounds are three-dimensional arrays of charged particles

d. ionic compounds are three-dimensional arrays of charged particles (Gen Chem Chapter 4)

When glucose is in a straight-chain formation, it: a. is an aldoketose b. is a pentose c. has five chiral carbons d. is one of a group of 16 stereoisomers

d. is one of a group of 16 stereoisomers (Biochem Chapter 4)

Which of the following is true with respect to a micelle in a hydrophilic environment? a. the interior is hydrophilic b. the structure, as a whole, is hydrophobic c. it is composed of short-chain fatty acids with polar heads d. it can dissolve nonpolar molecules deep in its core

d. it can dissolve nonpolar molecules deep in its core (Ochem Chapter 8)

What role does peptidyl transferase play in protein synthesis? a. It transports the initiator aminoacyl tRNA complex b. it helps the ribosome to advance three nucleotides along the mRNA in the 5' to 3' direction c. it holds the protein in its tertiary structure d. it catalyzes the formation of a peptide bond

d. it catalyzes the formation of a peptide bond (Biochemistry Chapter 7)

A source of light (f= 6 x 10¹⁴ Hz) passes through three plane polarizers. The first two polarizers are in the same direction, while the third is rotated 90° with respect to the second polarizer. What is the frequency of the light that comes out of the third polarizer? a. 3 x 10¹⁴ Hz b. 6 x 10¹⁴ Hz c. 9 x 10¹⁴ Hz d. light does not pass through the third polarizer

d. light does not pass through the third polarizer (Physics Chapter 8)

Which of the following INCORRECTLY pairs a digestive enzyme with its function? a. trypsin- hydrolyzes specific peptide bonds b. lactase- hydrolyzes lactose to glucose and galactose c. pancreatic amylase- hydrolyzes starch to maltose d. lipase- emulsifies fats

d. lipase- emulsifies fats (Biology Chapter 9)

A patient comes in with a tumor of the pituitary gland which has grown upward into the optic chiasm and caused a visual field defect. The most likely defect from compression of the optic chiasm is: a. complete blindness in one eye b. loss of the upper visual fields in both eyes c. loss of the nasal visual fields in both eyes d. loss of the temporal visual fields in both eyes

d. loss of the temporal visual fields in both eyes (Behavioral Sciences Chapter 2)

Compared to single bonds, triple bonds are: a. weaker b. longer c. made up of fewer σ bonds d. more rigid

d. more rigid (Ochem Chapter 3)

The temporal lobe deals with all of the following EXCEPT: a. language comprehension b. memory c. emotion d. motor skills

d. motor skills (Behavioral sciences Ch 1)

In a certain equilibrium process, the activation energy of the forward reaction is greater than the activation energy of the reverse reaction. This reaction is: a. endothermic b. exothermic c. spontaneous d. nonspontaneous

d. nonspontaneous (Gen Chem Chapter 5)

A membrane receptor is most likely to be a(n): a. embedded protein with catalytic activity b. transmembrane protein with sequestration activity c. membrane-associated protein with sequestration activity d. transmembrane protein with catalytic activity

d. transmembrane protein with catalytic activity (Biochem Chapter 8)

During a physician examination, a physician brushes the bottom of the foot of a patient who is fifty years old with multiple sclerosis. The patient's toes are observed to curl toward the bottom of the foot, with no fanning of the toes. This response is: a. abnormal, and evidence that the patient is exhibiting a primitive reflex b. normal, and evidence that the patient is exhibiting a primitive reflex c. abnormal, and evidence that the patient is not exhibiting a primitive reflex d. normal, and evidence that the patient is not exhibiting a primitive reflex

d. normal, and evidence that the patient is not exhibiting a primitive reflex (Behavioral sciences Ch 1)

Hyperbaric oxygen may be used as a treatment for certain types of bacterial infections. In this therapy, the patient is placed in a chamber in which the partial pressure of oxygen is significantly increased, increasing the partial pressure of oxygen in the patient's tissues. This treatment is most likely used for infections with? a. obligate aerobic bacteria b. facultative anaerobic bacteria c. aerotolerant anaerobic bacteria d. obligate anaerobic bacteria

d. obligate anaerobic bacteria (Bio ch 1)

Which of the following signaling molecules coordinate uterine contractions during childbirth? a. oxytocin and prolactin b. progesterone and prostaglandins c. oxytocin and progesterone d. oxytocin and prostaglandins

d. oxytocin and prostaglandins (Biology Chapter 3)

In the presence of an acid catalyst, the major product of butanoic acid and 1-pentanol is: a. 1-butoxy-1-pentanol b. butyl pentanoate c. 1-pentoxy-1-butanol d. pentyl butanoate

d. pentyl butanoate (Ochem Chapter 8)

The following system obeys second- order kinetics 2NO2--> NO3 + NO (Slow) NO3 +CO --> NO2 + CO2 (fast) What is the rate law for this reaction? a. rate= k[NO2][CO] b. rate= k [NO2]²CO] c. rate= k {NO2][NO3 d. rate= k [NO2]²

d. rate= k [NO2]² (Gen Chem Chapter 5)

In the nephron, amino acids enter the vasa recta via the process of: a. filtration b. secretion c. excretion d. reabsorption

d. reabsorption (Biology Chapter 10)

Which of the following does NOT contribute to genetic variability? a. random fertilization of an egg by a sperm b. random segregation of homologous chromosomes c. crossing over between homologous chromosomes during meiosis d. replication of the DNA during S stage

d. replication of the DNA during S stage (Biology chapter 2)

A women who is pregnant is accidentally given a single dose of a teratogenic drug late in the third trimester. The baby is born three days later. Which of the following is the most likely outcome? a. complete failure of organ development and death of the fetus b. partial failure of organ development with survival of the fetus c. serious disfigurement of the fetus d. respiratory distress at birth, but no long-term effects

d. respiratory distress at birth, but no long-term effects (Biology Chapter 3)

The tricupid valve prevents backflow of blood into where? a. left ventricle into the left atrium b. aorta into the left ventricle c. pulmonary artery into the right ventricle d. right ventricle into the right atrium

d. right ventricle into the right atrium (Biology Chapter 7)

A person is at a party with a friend. There is loud music in the background and the location is crowded. While listening to the music, the person hears what seems like the friend's laughter and turns around to investigate. The person is exhibiting: a. feature detection b. bottom-up processing c. vestibular sense d. signal detection

d. signal detection (Behavioral Sciences Chapter 2)

The hybridization of the carbon and nitrogen atoms in CN⁻ are: a. sp³ and sp³, respectively b. sp³ and sp, respectively c. sp and sp³, respectively d. sp and sp, respectively

d. sp and sp, respectively (Ochem Chapter 3)

A 19-year-old college student with bloodshot eyes is picked up by campus police after shoplifting a large bag of corn chips and a dozen ice cream sandwiches. During questioning, the student cannot stop giggling and repeatedly asks for water, complaining of dryness in the mouth. What is the psychoactive substance in the drug this student has most likely recently taken? a. Alprozolam b. 3,4-Methylenedioxy-N-methylamphetamine c. diacetylmorphine d. tetrahydrocannabinol

d. tetrahydrocannabinol (Behavioral sciences chapter 4)

When practicing a recital song at home, a student sounds perfectly in pitch to family and friends. However, when performing at the recital in front of a large audience of peers, strangers, and coaches, the student's pitch and tone are off, resulting in a poor performance. This sound performance is best explained by: a. drive reduction theory b. instinct approach theory c. Maslow's hierarchy of needs d. the Yerkes-Dodson law

d. the Yerkes-Dodson law (Behavioral Science Chapter 5)

All of the following are true with respect to carbonyls EXCEPT: a. the carbonyl carbon is electrophilic b. the carbonyl oxygen is electron-withdrawing c. the resonance structure of the functional group places a positive charge on the carbonyl carbon d. the π electrons are mobile and are pulled towards the carbonyl carbon

d. the π electrons are mobile and are pulled towards the carbonyl carbon (Ochem Chapter 6)

All of the following are true of epimers EXCEPT: a. they differ in configuration about only one carbon b. they usually have slightly different chemical and physical properties c. they are diastereomers (with the exception of glyceraldehyde) d. they have equal but opposite optical activities

d. they have equal but opposite optical activities (Biochem Chapter 4)

Where are most self-reactive T cells eliminated? a. spleen b. lymph nodes c. bone marrow d. thymus

d. thymus (Biology Chapter 8)

Which of the following statements is inconsistent with the Bohr model of the atom? a. Energy levels of the electron are stable and discrete b. An electron emits or absorbs radiation only when making a transition from one energy level to another c. To jump from lower energy to a high energy orbit, an electron must absorb a photon of precisely the right frequency such that the photon's energy equals the energy difference between the two orbits d. to jump from a higher energy to a lower energy orbit, an electron absorbs a photon of a frequency such that the photon's energy is exactly the energy difference between the two orbits

d. to jump from a higher energy to a lower energy orbit, an electron absorbs a photon of a frequency such that the photon's energy is exactly the energy difference between the two orbits (Physics Ch 9)

Imagine that a beam of monochromatic light originates in air and is allowed to shine upon the flat surface of a piece of an angle of 60° with the normal. The reflected and refracted beams are perpendicular to each other. What is the index of refraction of the glass? a. √3/3 b. 1 c. 2 d. √3

d. √3 (Physics Chapter 8)

Define the following form of heat transfer: Conduction

heat exchange by direct molecular interaction/collision

Define the following form of heat transfer: Radiation

heat exchange by electromagnetic waves; does not depend on matter

Define the following form of heat transfer: Convection

heat exchange by fluid movement; heated fluid is moved away from heat source

What is the relationship between instantaneous velocity and instantaneous speed? Between average velocity and average speed?

instantaneous velocity EQUAL instantaneous speed average velocity DO NOT EQUAL average speed

Define "axon hillock"

integration point of all excitatory and inhibitory signals from dendrite and if excitatory enough (reaches threshold) fires an AP

A high school student fails a history test. How might a student with an internal locus of control interpret this event? What about a student with external locucs on control?

internal locus of control: did not study enough or hard enough external locus of control: Test was too hard, bad luck

What are the functions of intestinal cells of Leydig and Sertoli cells?

intestinal cells of Leydig: secrete testosterone and other androgen (sex hormones) Sertoli cells: nourish sperm during development

Define "synaptic bouton"

lies at the end of axon and releases neurotransmitters into synaptic cleft; aka axon terminal

Hydrogen Sulfide (H2S) has a very strong rotten egg odor. Methyl salicylate (C8H8O) has a wintergreen odor and benzaldehyde (C7H7O) has a pleasant almond odor. If the vapors for these substances were released at the same time from across a room, in which order would one smell these odors?

lightest molecule travels fastest ∴ egg then almond then wintergreen

What structures are used to detect linear acceleration and rotational acceleration?

linear acceleration: Vestibule (Utricle and Saccule) rotational acceleration: Semicircular canals

Which is more stable: a bonding orbital or an antibonding orbital? Which has higher energy?

more stable: a bonding orbital higher energy: antibonding orbital

Which role does the enolate carbanion play in organic reactions: nucleophile, electrophile, oxidizing agent, or reducing agent?

nucleophile

How are hydroxyquinones produced?

oxidation of quinones adding variable # of hydroxyl groups

How is pKa defined, and what does a low pKa indicate?

pKa: acid strength pKa=-logKa low pKa= strong acid

What is induction and how does it influence development?

process by which nearby cells influence differentiation of adjacent cells; it ensures proper spatial location and orientation of cells that share function or have complementary functions; allows selective transcription

Define "dendrite"

receive incoming signals and carry them to soma

What is function of pupil?

regulates amount of light entering eye (from anterior to posterior chamber)

What is the s character of sp-, sp2-, and sp3-hybridized orbitals?

sp-: 50% s, 50% p sp2-: 33% s, 67% p sp3-: 25% s, 75% p

What is irreversible inhibition?

the prolonged or permanent inactivation of an enzyme, such that it cannot be easily renatured to gain function

Given the following reactions, determine the enthalpy of: C (s, graphite) + 1/2 O₂ → CO C (s, graphite) + O₂ → CO₂ ∆H= -393.5 kJ/mol CO + 1/2 O₂ →CO₂ ∆H= -393.5 kJ/mol

∆Hrxn= -110 kJ/mol

What is the enthalpy of reaction for the reaction? 2H₂O (g) → 2H₂ (g) + O₂ (g) bond enthalpies: H-H: 436 kJ/mol O=O: 498 kJ/mol O-O: 146 kJ/mol O-H: 463 kJ/mol

∆Hrxn= -430 kJ/mol