MCAT Section Bank: Behavioral Science
Sensorimotor stage
0-2 years old Coordination of senses with motor response, sensory curiosity about the world. Language used for demands and cataloguing. Object permanence developed.
Formal operational stage
11+ years old Theoretical, hypothetical, and counterfactual thinking. Abstract logic and reasoning. Strategy and planning become possible. Concepts learned in one context can be applied to another.
Preoperational stage
2-7 years old Symbolic thinking, use of proper syntax and grammar to express full concepts. Imagination and intuition are strong, but complex abstract thought still difficult. Conservation developed.
Concrete operational stage
7-11 years old Concepts attached to concrete situations. Time, space, and quantity are understood and can be applied, but not as independent concepts.
Which psychological process is best represented in the hypothetical example at the end of the passage? A) Cognitive dissonance B) A self-fulfilling prophecy C) Confirmation bias D) The fundamental attribution error
A) Cognitive dissonance The correct answer is option A. The question refers to the passage's description of a hypothetical scenario in which family members ask a provider to withhold aspects of a cancer diagnosis from a patient. A provider may feel tension after fulfilling a family's request that conflicts with professional norms favoring disclosure. The resulting experience of psychological discomfort identifies cognitive dissonance, which can occur when there is a discrepancy among attitudes or an inconsistency between an attitude and a behavior.
Participants who reported personal memories about particular songs were retrieving which type of information? A) Episodic B) Semantic C) Implicit D) Sensory
A) Episodic The answer to this question is A because episodic information consists of the declarative information people have of specific experiences.
Which concept takes into account the negative impact of long-term exposure to stressful events addressed in the first paragraph? A) General adaptation syndrome B) Fight-or-flight response C) Activation synthesis model D) Long-term potentiation
A) General adaptation syndrome The answer to this question is A because the general adaptation syndrome (GAS) is a model of the body's stress response that consists of three stages: alarm, resistance, and exhaustion. An individual enters the stage of exhaustion only after that individual has encountered the stressor for a prolonged period of time.
Researchers hypothesized that cocaine is pharmacologically active in the primate fetal brain when pregnant primates are administered cocaine at doses typically used by human drug users. Which experimental observation best supports their hypothesis? A) Glucose metabolism in the fetal brain increased. B) Imaging studies showed that cocaine entered the fetal circulation. C) The fetus had an increase in tolerance to pain. D) Imaging studies showed increased internalization of dopamine receptors.
A) Glucose metabolism in the fetal brain increased. The answer to this question is A because cocaine is a stimulant and it would have a physiological effect similar to stress and hence glucose metabolism is expected to increase.
If the researchers were focused on an evolutionary perspective of human motivation, what aspect of the study results would be of most interest to them? A) Hunger ratings for images of food B) Fasting plasma glucose concentrations C) Activity in the anterior cingulate cortex D) Negative and positive affects
A) Hunger ratings for images of food The answer to this question is A because, from an evolutionary standpoint, humans have developed a preference for high caloric foods because they are a good source of fuel in the form of fat. Fat can sustain bodily functions through periods of time when food is scarce (a common problem throughout evolution).
Negative priming requires which type of memory process? A) Implicit memory B) Declarative memory C) Iconic memory D) Explicit memory
A) Implicit memory The answer to this question is A because negative priming requires the use of implicit memory. I
The experience that the items in Panel D are arranged in columns is best attributed to which principle of perceptual organization? A) Similarity B) Proximity C) Closure D) Continuity
A) Similarity The answer to this question is A because the principle of grouping by similarity states that things that look alike are more likely to be grouped together during perceptual processing. Thus, in this panel, people see columns of the same items.
The discussion of which topic in the passage is most consistent with social cognitive theory's emphasis on modeling? A) Smoking prevention by establishing norms against tobacco use B) Understanding the treatment implications of cultural differences C) Obtaining the skills and education required to practice medicine D) Supplementing the biomedical approach with other perspectives
A) Smoking prevention by establishing norms against tobacco use The correct answer is option A. Social cognitive theory (originally referred to as social learning theory) suggests that behaviors are learned through observing others and modeling their actions. Observational learning and modeling is consistent with the passage's discussion of smoking prevention. In that discussion, community norms against tobacco use are described as becoming established when children and adolescents observe health behaviors that are inconsistent with smoking.
Which major developmental milestone best explains the difference between the results seen for the 6- versus 9-month olds in Study 1? A) Stranger anxiety B) Critical period C) Object permanence D) Autonomy
A) Stranger anxiety The answer to this question is A because stranger anxiety is the fear of strangers (or other-race faces in the case of this passage) that infants commonly begin to express around 8 months of age.
The researchers' conclusion in Study 2 is most consistent with which public health strategy in SB states? A) Targeting the formation of health behaviors in social networks B) Eliminating prejudice and ethnocentrism in health care delivery C) Reducing role conflict and supporting psychosocial development D) Increasing social and cultural capital in low income communities
A) Targeting the formation of health behaviors in social networks The correct answer is Option A. Based on the Study 2 findings, the researchers concluded that the significance of adolescence may be related to establishing norms that will affect stroke risk in adulthood. This conclusion suggests targeting the formation of norms during adolescence.
Which characteristic collectively best describes the three molecules (dopamine, serotonin, and norepinephrine) that are functionally altered in offspring as a result of fetal exposure to cocaine? Each molecule: A) is only manufactured in endocrine glands throughout the body B) binds to a receptor on a postsynaptic membrane within the CNS C) is distributed to target neurons within the cerebrospinal fluid D) transmits signals between two neurons at a faster speed than through gap junctions.
B) binds to a receptor on a postsynaptic membrane within the CNS The answer is B because this is the mechanism by which neurotransmitters function.
The types of perceptual experiences, illustrated in Panel A, that are not relevant to a person's judgment and decision making processes, but can still have a biasing impact on those processes, are best described as: A) recall cues B) context effects C) feature detectors D) practice effects
B) context effects The answer to this question is B, because the phenomena discussed in the passage reflect how both the context in which stimuli are presented and the processes of perceptual organization contribute to how people perceive those stimuli (and also that the context can establish the way in which stimuli are organized).
The passage's description of delivering culturally competent care advocates for: A) social support rather than social stigma B) cultural relativism rather than ethnocentrism C) symbolic culture rather than material culture D) the front stage self rather than the back stage self
B) cultural relativism rather than ethnocentrism This idea is best represented by the contrast in option B. Ethnocentrism involves relying too heavily on one's own cultural standards to judge those from another culture. Cultural relativism, on the other hand, raises awareness of the fact that cultures have different standards and biases.
The reminiscence bump observed in older adults is an atypical finding because it represents: A) enhanced memory performance in an otherwise increasing retention function. B) enhanced memory performance in an otherwise decreasing retention function. C) reduced memory performance in an otherwise increasing retention function. D) reduced memory performance in an otherwise decreasing retention function.
B) enhanced memory performance in an otherwise decreasing retention function. The answer to this question is B because the reminiscence effect is an increase in early memories above what would be expected by a monotonically decreasing retention function, as normally seen with forgetting over time.
Which technique was most likely used to measure increased neural activation of specific brain regions when viewing the images of food? A) MRI B) fMRI C) CT D) PET
B) fMRI The answer to this question is B because an fMRI is an imaging technique that measures brain activity by detecting associated changes in brain flow.
As shown in Study 1, the correlation between age and ability to recognize emotions on other-race faces was: A) positive B) negative C) zero D) curvilinear
B) negative The answer to this question is B because as the age of the infants increased (from 3- to 9-month olds) their ability to recognize the emotions of other-race faces decreased.
The aggression scale in Study 1 allowed the researchers to isolate socially-influenced aggressive behaviors. Which alternative method would best determine if aggression was actually being modeled as opposed to already learned? A) The observations of teachers unfamiliar with the children B) A different rating scale including relational aggression and obedience C) A biographical sketch of the children's social life up until the study D) A heritability ratio for aggression as determined by behavioral genetics
C) A biographical sketch of the children's social life up until the study The answer to this question is C because a biographical sketch of the children's sociality is most useful because prior research has found that aggression is very much environmentally influenced.
Similar activation levels in which brain region were LEAST likely in S and TSD participants when they were viewing the images presented in the study? A) Nucleus accumbens B) Hypothalamus C) Cerebellum D) Amygdala
C) Cerebellum The answer to this question is C because the cerebellum is not a primary structure of the reward system.
Inverse pyramid demographic pyramid
An aging population As the size of the population increases with age, the older groups are larger than younger groups and the overall size of the population is likely to decrease over time.
Recordings of brain wave activity revealed that the participants in the S groups spent the most time in the stage of sleep characterized by sleep spindles. This observation indicates that they were in which stage of sleep? A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 4
B) 2 The answer to this question is B because stage 2 of sleep is characterized by sleep spindles.
Which term is used to describe a memory report that is inaccurate, but expressed with extreme confidence? A) Autobiographical memory B) False memory C) Amnesia D) Recovered memory
B) False memory The answer to this question is B because so-called false memories can be observed both in real-world and laboratory settings, and they are generally given with high confidence.
Under certain circumstances, such as having received news about something traumatic on a particular day, many people claim that they remember every detail of what they were doing when they received the news. Psychologists use which term to describe this unusual phenomenon? A) Repression B) Flashbulb memory C) Recency effect D) Spacing effect
B) Flashbulb memory The answer to this question is B because Brown and Kulik (1977) coined the term "flashbulb memory" when they found that people claimed to remember detail of what they were doing when they received news about an emotionally arousing event.
The principles of perceptual organization are most closely related to which psychological theory? A) Behaviorist B) Gestalt C) Humanistic D) Cognitive
B) Gestalt The answer to this question is B because Gestalt psychology was the theoretical approach that emphasized the idea that ways in which people's perceptual experience is organized is a result from how human brains are organized.
In which situation is neurotransmitter release from a presynaptic cell most likely to stimulate an action potential in a postsynaptic cell? A) In any excitable cell, if neurotransmitter binding opens ligand-gated channels at the synapse B) In a postsynaptic neuron where a depolarizing change in membrane potential exceeds threshold C) In a postsynaptic neuron that expresses a high density of neurotransmitter receptors D) In any excitable cell, if the neurotransmitter released into the synaptic cleft is acetylcholine
B) In a postsynaptic neuron where a depolarizing change in membrane potential exceeds threshold The answer to this question is B because action potentials are only generated in postsynaptic neurons when the depolarization stimulus exceeds threshold.
The study in the passage best supports identifying popular culture as: A) a subset of counterculture B) an agent of socialization C) a subset of material culture D) an agent of social reproduction
B) an agent of socialization The answer to this question is B because music is an important part of popular culture, which is an agent of socialization. Besides popular culture, other agents of socialization include schools, family, and religion. Sociologists use the term agents of socialization to refer to parts of society that are important for socialization (the process of learning the norms and values in a society).
Two male children with different biological parents are adopted in infancy and raised together. Which observation best supports the idea that heredity is an important determiner of intelligence? The two boys' IQs: A) are more similar to each other than to their own biological siblings B) are less similar to each other than to their own biological siblings C) are more similar to their adoptive parents than to their biological parents D) are less similar to each other than to their adoptive siblings
B) are less similar to each other than to their own biological siblings The answer to this question is B because the situation describes an outcome that disconfirms a strong environmental influence.
A manuscript reviewer requested that the researchers in this study justify counterbalancing the tasks. Which of the following is NOT an appropriate justification for counterbalancing? A) Participants may become fatigued causing performance to decline as the experiment progresses. B) Some tasks may be more exciting or boring than others and may affect how participants respond to subsequent tasks. C) It is an effective method for controlling the order in which stimuli are presented. D) It ensures that all participants are presented with the same variables.
D) It ensures that all participants are presented with the same variables. The answer to this question is D because counterbalancing is a method to control for any effect that the order of presenting stimuli might have on the dependent variable.
Which observation disconfirms the theory that the hunger drive is based on a person's interpretation of stomach contractions, while satiety is based on stomach distension? A) Stomach contractions do not correlate with the experience of hunger. B) Stomach distension does not correlate with satiety. C) Rats without stomachs cannot learn mazes when rewarded with food. D) People whose stomachs have been removed still experience hunger.
D) People whose stomachs have been removed still experience hunger. The answer to this question is D because such patients, who are incapable of interpreting any signals from a nonexistent stomach, do experience hunger.
Which concept CANNOT explain the ability of the participants in both studies to visually process the faces they were shown? A) Parallel processing B) Interposition C) Accommodation D) Place theory
D) Place theory The answer to this question is D because place theory posits that one is able to hear different pitches because different sound waves trigger activity at different places along the cochlea's basilar membrane.
Parallel processing
ability of the brain to simultaneously process incoming stimuli of differing quality
Demographic transition theory
addresses change in the birth rate and the death rate that are associated with economic development (specifically, related to industrialization) The typical pattern begins with a drop in the death rate, leading to population growth, followed by a drop in the birth rate, leading to population stabilization.
Hindsight bias
also known as the knew-it-all-along effect or creeping determinism inclination, after an event has occurred, to see the event as having been predictable, despite there having been little or no objective basis for predicting it
Exchange theory
an application of the rational choice theory onto societal interactions
Hypothalamus function
concerned largely with the maintenance of homeostatic equilibrium
independent stressors
ex. death in the family a stressor that happens regardless of personal behavior, feelings, attitude, etc.
dependent stressor
ex. relationship problems or failing a test events that are due, at least in part, to an individual's characteristics or behaviors, and they have been shown to be more predictive of depression than independent stressors
Pathway of verbal inputs to the left ear
first go to the auditory cortex in the right hemisphere and then must be processed by the language areas of the left hemisphere
generalized other
general notion that a person has of the common expectations that others have about actions and thoughts within a particular society, thus serving to clarify their relation to the other as a representative member of a shared social system
Sensitive period / Critical period
identifies a point in early development that can have a significant influence on physiological or behavioral functioning in later life
Interposition
overlapping; monocular cue in which one object partially covers another
Rational choice theory
people are motivated to do things based on what is best for them
Accommodation
process by which the vertebrate eye changes optical power to maintain a clearer image or focus on an object as its distance varies
Statistical adjustment
refers to the controlling of variables that could affect the relationship between the independent variable and the dependent variable
looking-glass self
states that a person's self grows out of a person's social interactions with others The view of ourselves comes from the contemplation of personal qualities and impressions of how others perceive us.
Shadowing task
subjects repeat speech immediately after hearing it (usually through earphones)
cognitive dissonance
the state of having inconsistent thoughts, beliefs, or attitudes, especially as relating to behavioral decisions and attitude change.
Which memory process is most likely to affect the validity of participants' responses to the survey questions described in studies 1 and 2? A) Proactive interference B) Source amnesia C) Decay in episodic memory D) Decay in semantic memory
C) Decay in episodic memory Remembering past personal events, such as state of residence in childhood (Study 1) and residential history since birth (Study 2), requires retrieval of episodic information from memory. For some of the participants in both studies, decay is likely to affect the retrieval of that information from memory. If this information is not accurately reported by some participants, it will affect the validity of the measures of the Stroke Belt exposure.
Which of the following is a negative symptom of S? A) Delusions B) Hallucinations C) Emotional flattening D) Disorganized speech
C) Emotional flattening The answer to this question is C because negative symptoms are defined as the absence of appropriate behaviors and emotion. This best describes emotional flattening.
Which psychological theory best explains the role of community values in the preliminary studies of tobacco cessation? A) Drive theory B) Humanistic theory C) Incentive theory D) Psychoanalytic theory
C) Incentive theory As described in the passage, the preliminary studies suggest that smoking cessation can be successful when individuals are motivated by culturally consistent values that support quitting. The incentive theory of motivation calls attention to how factors outside of individuals, including community values and other aspects of culture, can motivate behavior. The other options would be more likely to look for motivational factors within the individual.
Researchers conducted a replication of the pilot training study with bus drivers. How accurately will the measure of a person's ability to redirect attention predict accident rates among drivers? The error rates in: A) Phase 1 will be directly related to accident rates. B) Phase 1 will be inversely related to accident rates. C) Phase 2 will be directly related to accident rates. D) Phase 2 will be inversely related to accident rates.
C) Phase 2 will be directly related to accident rates. The selective listening task provides a robust measure of a person's susceptibility to having a change in the orientation of attention cause a transient disruption of attention on any task that demands the ability to redirect attention.
According to Piaget's theory, in what stage of cognitive development are the children who are targeted by advertisements for high caloric foods? A) Formal operational B) Sensorimotor C) Preoperational D) Concrete operational
C) Preoperational The answer to this question is C because children in Piaget's preoperational stage are typically between the ages of 2-6 or 7.
Which methodology will best show how perceptual illusions impact our judgments of the nature of stimuli such as those in Panel A? A) Partial report technique B) Word association testing C) Psychophysical discrimination testing D) Operational span testing
C) Psychophysical discrimination testing The answer to this question is C because psychophysical testing methods (such as the Method of Limits) directly assess our perception of stimuli in relation to their true physical properties. The nature of the illusions discussed in the passage suggests that individuals would be prone to either over- or under-state the size of items like those in Panel A.
Which basic cognitive process was used by the flight cadets who were required to repeat certain digits? A) Divided attention B) Sensory memory C) Selective attention D) Sensory coding
C) Selective attention The shadowing task operationally defines the inputs to which subjects must attend.
Which sociological concept is suggested by the passage's discussion of the knowledge, skills, and education required for practicing medicine? A) The social capital of physicians B) The hidden curriculum of medicine C) The cultural capital of physicians D) The ascribed status of medicine
C) The cultural capital of physicians The correct answer is option C, cultural capital. Cultural capital refers to knowledge, skills, education, and similar characteristics that are used to make social distinctions and that are associated with differences in social status.
What is the dependent stressor associated with the need for reassurance? A) The need for reassurance B) Interpersonal tension caused by the need for reassurance C) The isolation resulting from others being driven away D) The depression that results form the isolation
C) The isolation resulting from others being driven away The answer to this question is C because the dependent stressor is the isolation resulting from people being driven away. The need for reassurance is an individual characteristic that leads to the isolation. The stressor depends on this need for this isolation to manifest itself.
Based on the study results, how is the relationship between inadequate sleep and hunger best described? A) There is a direct cause and effect relationship between sleep and increased feelings of hunger. B) There is a positive correlation between hunger and inadequate sleep. C) There is evidence that inadequate sleep causes hunger. D) There is a negative correlation between hunger and inadequate sleep.
C) There is evidence that inadequate sleep causes hunger. The answer to this question is C because those in the TSD group (who were sleep deprived) expressed higher ratings of hunger compared to those in the S group (normal amounts of sleep).
According to Kohlberg's theory of moral development, a person giving which reason for moral behavior is at the highest level? A) To gain acceptance B) To follow rules C) To promote social welfare D) To avoid disapproval
C) To promote social welfare The answer to this question is C because promoting social welfare indicates moral reasoning at the postconventional level, according to Kohlberg's theory.
Which statement best explains why continuous reinforcement is best for the beginning of the acquisition phase of operant conditioning? A) The schedule unambiguously informs the subject which behavior is correct. B) The schedule is best matched for the motivational state of the subject. C) This leads to the greatest accumulation of reinforcements, hence the greatest pleasure. D) It gives subjects little time for incorrect responses.
A) The schedule unambiguously informs the subject which behavior is correct. The answer to this question is A because first the correct response must be unambiguously made known to the subject, generally through a shaping procedure. Thereafter, if every correct response is reinforced, other (incorrect) responses are infrequent and the behavior gains strength and learning results.
Did the task used in the study fulfill the original need described in the first paragraph? A) Yes, because cadets who completed training on more advanced equipment had performed significantly better on the task than those who dropped out of the training earlier B) No, because performance in Phase 2 of the task did not predict performance on other tests used in pilot selection C) Yes, because cadets' ability to divide attention between simultaneous inputs was predicted by their performance in Phase 1 D) No, because cadets' performance in Phase 1 did not predict their ability to redirect attention in Phase 2
A) Yes, because cadets who completed training on more advanced equipment had performed significantly better on the task than those who dropped out of the training earlier The answer to this question is A because the main requirement was for a test of how quickly a flight cadet can redirect attention, and because the selective listening task fulfilled that requirement and allowed the "modern air force" to test this ability quickly and inexpensively.
Two friends accept internships with a city council member even though they do not agree with many of the council member's policies. Which is most likely to happen if they are in a state of dissonance? The students will: A) adapt their attitudes to be more in line with the council member B) quit the internships after a period of time C) continue in the internships but retain their original beliefs D) do as little work as possible so as not to advance the council member's agenda
A) adapt their attitudes to be more in line with the council member The answer to this question is A because research on cognitive dissonance has found that people tend to change their attitudes to match their behaviors, rather than change their behavior.
Interpretation of intelligence test scores is based on the assumption that the scores are normally distributed within a population such that: A) more than two-thirds of children will score between 85 and 115. B) a quarter of all children will perform poorly on least one component of the exam. C) significantly more children will score at the extremes of the scoring distribution than in the middle. D) only exceptionally gifted children would have IQ scores above 85 by age 6; perfect test scores are rare during early childhood.
A) more than two-thirds of children will score between 85 and 115. The answer to this question is A because, based on the standardization system used to score IQ, the Wechsler Scales of Intelligence (WISC) scores are "normalized" to a mean of 100 and a standard deviation of 15. So 68% of the scores will be between 85 and 115.
A researcher finds a +0.38 correlation between a test of verbal intelligence and a test of spatial intelligence. Speculating about a common factor, "g," the researcher concludes that: A) performance on both sets is partly determined by "g" B) the two tests measure different things, which does not include a "g" component C) both of the tests are excellent measures of "g" D) that "g" is a statistical artifact with no real-world validity
A) performance on both sets is partly determined by "g" The answer to this question is A because a correlation of +0.38 shows a potential common factor, but with a significant degree of potential error.
Which is a plausible reason for assessing participants' fluid intelligence in the study? Fluid intelligence will: A) positively influence performance on the cognitive tasks and should be controlled for in the study. B) positively influence scores on the APNS scale and should be controlled for in the study. C) negatively influence performance on the cognitive tasks and should be controlled for in the study. D) negatively influence scores on the APNS scale and should be controlled for in the study.
A) positively influence performance on the cognitive tasks and should be controlled for in the study. The answer to this question is A because fluid intelligence is the ability to think on one's feet, be adaptable, and solve problems using deductive and inductive reasoning. Fluid intelligence is key to cognitive functioning and it was positively correlated with verbal fluency in the SPD group.
A person has left his shopping list in the car, but decides not to go back for it because he is confident that he has the list memorized. Upon returning home, he realizes that he remembered most of the items from the beginning and end of the list, but forgot many items from the middle of the list. This outcome illustrates: A) the serial-position effect B) hindsight bias C) chunking D) decay
A) the serial-position effect The answer to this question is A because items from the primacy and recency portions of the list have been recalled, but not the middle items. Together, the primacy and recency effects comprise the serial position effect.
Which statement best characterizes how a proponent of the SG hypothesis will describe the direction of the relationship between stress and depression? A) Both independent and dependent stressors are unidirectionally related to depression. B) Independent stressors are unidirectionally related to depression, and dependent stressors are reciprocally related to depression. C) Dependent stressors are unidirectionally related to depression, and independent stressors are reciprocally related to depression. D) Both independent and dependent stressors are reciprocally related to depression.
B) Independent stressors are unidirectionally related to depression, and dependent stressors are reciprocally related to depression. The answer to this question is B because an independent stressor is assumed to occur independently of any influence from the person experiencing the stress. This is a unidirectional relationship (stressor leads to depressive symptoms). Dependent stressors, on the other hand, not only influence depression but could themselves be influenced by depression (i.e., a reciprocal relationship).
Which phenomenon will an animal trainer most likely try to avoid when training a rabbit for a television commercial? A) Operant extinction B) Instinctual drift C) Stimulus generalization D) Partial reinforcement
B) Instinctual drift The answer to this question is B because instinctual drift is the phenomenon whereby established habits, learned using operant techniques, eventually are replaced by innate food-related behaviors. So the learned behavior "drifts" to the organism's species-specific (instinctual) behavior.
In a study of college students, a correlation was found between those reporting high rates of insomnia and reduced hit rates for detecting the sounds of birds chirping. This represents what type of correlation, and what phenomenon was described? A) Positive, signal detection B) Negative, signal detection C) Positive, difference threshold D) Negative, difference threshold
B) Negative, signal detection The answer to this question is B because the relationship between rates of insomnia (high) and the hit rate (reduced) describes a negative correlation. In addition, according to signal detection theory the detection of a stimulus is not only dependent on its strength, but also on the psychological state (tired) of the individual.
The researchers determined that two participants in the S group were taking medication that may have exacerbated their negative symptoms. Which classification of medication were these participants most likely taking? A) Atypical antipsychotics B) Neuroleptics C) Hallucinogens D) Stimulants
B) Neuroleptics The answer to this question is B because neuroleptics are the first antipsychotic drugs used to treat schizophrenia and though they are effective in treating positive symptoms, their side effects include cognitive dulling, which can exacerbate negative symptoms.
The children in Study 1 (ages 3-6) are in which stage of Piaget's model of cognitive development? A) Sensorimotor stage B) Preoperational stage C) Formal operational stage D) Concrete operational stage
B) Preoperational stage The answer to this question is option B because the children in the study were between ages 3 and 6, and the preoperational stage occurs from ages 2 through 7 years old.
Based on the passage, the researchers in studies 1 and 2 are most likely to support which sociological perspective on health or illness? A) The medicalization of illness B) The life course approach to health C) The socioeconomic gradient in health D) The social construction of illness
B) The life course approach to health The correct answer is B. Both studies found an association between exposures to the Stroke Belt at an earlier age and the risk of stroke at a later age. The life course approach, a holistic perspective that calls attention to developmental processes and other experiences across a person's life, is consistent with findings from both studies that earlier life exposures can influence later disease risk.
A patient being treated for chronic pain receives weekly doses of morphine from the same doctor, with whom the patient enjoys conversing. On another occasion, the patient is treated at another location and finds that the same dose is ineffective. What may have caused this change in effectiveness? A) The morphine interacted with another medicine the patient was taking. B) The morphine was given in a new environment. C) The doctor's office used a different drug manufacturer. D) The patient's body became sensitized to the same dose of morphine.
B) The morphine was given in a new environment. The answer to this question is B because the patient's regular morphine treatments that were successful were the result of the interaction of the treatment dose and the positive association with the doctor; therefore, the dose was not as effective in a new location where there was no positive association with the new doctor.
Based on the concept of the looking-glass self, which reaction is most likely for a person who acquires a stigmatized illness? A) The person will seek out other people with the same stigmatized illness. B) The person will internalize the perceived stigmatization against him or her. C) The person will redirect feelings of stigmatization toward out-group members. D) The person will become stigmatized by his or her secondary group members.
B) The person will internalize the perceived stigmatization against him or her. The correct answer is option B. The looking-glass self suggests that the self-concept is influenced by how we perceive that others are viewing us. Based on the looking-glass self, a person who acquires a stigmatized illness is likely to internalize the stigmatization directed against him or her.
What experimental set-up is most likely to result in a person with a severed corpus callosum saying "ball" after a researcher asks, "What do you see?" A) The letter b is projected to the left visual field, followed almost immediately by "all," at the same location. B) The word "ball" is projected to the right visual field, while "room" is presented to the left visual field. C) The word "base" is projected to the right visual field, while "ball" is projected to the left visual field. D) The word "basketball" is projected to the left visual field.
B) The word "ball" is projected to the right visual field, while "room" is presented to the left visual field. The answer to this question is B because images projected to a visual field are represented in the opposite hemisphere of the brain. If "ball" is projected to the right visual field, the word will be represented in the left hemisphere where it could be verbalized by left-sided language centers.
Working with depressed patients, a therapist wishing to implement a treatment framework based on the SG hypothesis, will likely pay a great deal of attention to: A) lowering the severity of initial depressive symptoms B) preventing the recurrence of depressive episodes C) preventing stressful life events D) understanding the unique stress cycle of each individual
B) preventing the recurrence of depressive episodes The answer to this question is B because one feature of the stress generation hypothesis is the idea that recurrent depressive episodes are particularly problematic and are clearly at the core of the stress-depression connection. Also, the hypothesis does not assume people can rid their lives of stressful events (option C). Rather, the idea is to reduce the negative outcomes of those events.
The observed correlations mentioned in the passage suggest all of the following EXCEPT: A) the study's measure of attention capabilities enhances the predictive validity of the pilot selection test battery B) the study's measure of attention capabilities reduces the predictive validity of the pilot selection test battery C) flight cadets who perform better on the task are more likely to complete training on more advanced equipment than those whose performance is poorer. D) flight cadets who make more errors in Phase 2 are less likely to complete training on more advanced equipment.
B) the study's measure of attention capabilities reduces the predictive validity of the pilot selection test battery Flight candidates who had successfully completed two years of training (an thus reached the point where they were flying with more advanced aircraft) have attention deployment capabilities that predict their success in meeting with increasingly complex information processing requirements.
A person looking at the night sky notices she no longer sees a dim star when her gaze remains fixated on it, but the dim star reappears when she shifts her gaze to one side of the star. What is the most likely cause of the reappearance of the dim star in her vision? Shifting her gaze moved the image of the dim star: A) way from the blind spot where no photoreceptors are present. B) to a region of the retina where photoreceptors have a higher threshold for light detection. C) away from the fovea toward the periphery of the retina. D) to a region of the eye where photoreceptors contain more than one type of retinal pigment.
C) away from the fovea toward the periphery of the retina. The answer to this question is C because the fovea is the part of the retina that contains a high density of cones for daytime vision, whereas, the periphery of the retina contains a high density of rods which are more photosensitive and can detect dim light.
In operant conditioning studies, the subject's motivational state is most typically operationally defined by: A) observing the subject's behavior over a long period of time B) using a type of reinforcement that the experimenter knows the subject usually likes C) depriving the subject of some desirable stimulus item for a period of time D) using a novel stimulus that the subject is sure to like
C) depriving the subject of some desirable stimulus item for a period of time The answer to this question is C because it states the method that is usually used, in operant conditioning studies, to operationally define the subject's motivational state.
Proponents of the SG hypothesis would expect that, compared to others, an individual prone to depression is: A) more likely to experience independent stressors and less likely to experience dependent stressors B) more likely to experience independent stressors and just as likely to experience dependent stressors C) just as likely to experience independent stressors and more likely to experience dependent stressors D) more likely to experience both independent and dependent stressors.
C) just as likely to experience independent stressors and more likely to experience dependent stressors The answer to this question is C because according to the stress generation hypothesis described in the passage, individuals actively influence the world around them. A depressed person would be expected to experience a greater number of stressful events that he or she influences (i.e., dependent stressors). An independent stressor (i.e., the death of a loved one) occurs without the person's influence; in this case, there would be no expected difference between depressed and non-depressed individuals.
How would participants with Alzheimer's disease (AD) perform on the verbal fluency and negative priming tasks? AD will: A) have no effect on performance on either of the verbal fluency or negative priming tasks. B) have no effect on performance on the verbal fluency task and negatively affect performance on the negative priming task. C) negatively affect performance on both the verbal fluency and negative priming tasks. D) negatively affect performance on the verbal fluency task and have no effect on the negative priming task.
C) negatively affect performance on both the verbal fluency and negative priming tasks. The answer to this question is C because both schizophrenia and Alzheimer's disease are characterized by cognitive dysfunction particularly in tasks of verbal fluency and negative priming.
The researchers in Study 1 restricted the emotions on the faces presented to the infants to those found to be universally expressed emotions; therefore, they did NOT present faces expressing: A) fear B) surprise C) pain D) disgust
C) pain The answer to this question is C because pain is not one of the emotions that have been shown to be a universally expressed emotion. The universal emotions include fear, anger, surprise, happiness, disgust, and sadness.
An example of intersectionality is the relationship between: A) micro and macro levels of analysis B) symbolic and material culture C) race/ethnicity and social class D) cultural values and social norms
C) race/ethnicity and social class The correct answer is option C. Intersectionality calls attention to how identity categories intersect in systems of social stratification. For example, an individual's position within a social hierarchy is determined not only by his or her social class, but also by his or her race/ethnicity. Intersectionality can also refer to intersections involving other identity categories such as age, gender, or sexual orientation.
By limiting the initial sample to low SES participants living in a large US city, the researchers: A) eliminated all the variables that would have confounded interpretation of the results B) set up an experiment to assess how cocaine might affect the human brain C) reduced variability due to differences in the quality of public schools D) were unable to draw any conclusions regarding prenatal cocaine exposure
C) reduced variability due to differences in the quality of public schools The answer to this question is C because SES stability was mentioned in the passage and the quality of public schools would vary if mothers from different geographic areas or cities had participated in the study.
A group of students takes the same test of visual perception at the same time on two consecutive days. The students' scores are very different each time. This suggests that the test is not: A) valid B) standardized C) reliable D) generalizable
C) reliable The answer to this question is C because reliability is the degree to which an assessment tool produces stable and consistent results.
The brain imaging technique used in Study 2 (fMRI): A) measures increased levels of glucose B) records increases in electrical activity C) reveals areas of increased blood flow D) measures increases in neurotransmitter levels
C) reveals areas of increased blood flow The answer to this question is C because it accurately describes functional magnetic resonance imaging (fMRI), which uses magnetic fields and radio waves to look at brain function and measures blood flow and not glucose.
Based on the passage, the shift in participants' musical preferences over time is best explained by changes in their: A) social status B) front stage self C) social network D) back stage self
C) social network The answer to this question is option C. The passage states that participants' memories shifted from listening to music chosen by their parents to music chosen by themselves and peers. This finding is best explained by changes in social network ties over time, as peer group ties become more significant in adolescents' social networks than parental or familial ties.
Which of the following experiences is NOT related to any of the principles of perceptual organization that are described in the passage? A) Seeing a portion of food served on a large plate as being smaller than the same portion of food served on a small plate. B) Seeing birds flying in the same direction as being part of an integrated flock C) Seeing cars lined up in a parking lot as being in long rows, rather than in pairs facing each other with a gap between each pair D) Seeing a word with a missing letter and being able to identify the word, based on the sentence in which it is contained.
D) Seeing a word with a missing letter and being able to identify the word, based on the sentence in which it is contained. The answer to this question is D because it is the only option that describes a perceptual experience that results from a top down processing (i.e. context effects), but is neither a perceptual illusion nor the result of one of the Gestalt principles of perceptual grouping.
Which of the following perspectives is most likely to satisfy the researchers' call for studies that supplement the biomedical approach to cancer? A) Exchange-rational choice B) Symbolic interactionism C) Social constructionism D) Social epidemiology
D) Social epidemiology The correct answer is Option D. Social epidemiology focuses on the contribution of social and cultural factors to disease patterns in populations.
Researchers design a study to explore how healthcare providers establish rapport, show empathy, and navigate disagreements with their patients. Based on this description, the researchers are most likely taking a theoretical approach that is consistent with which sociological paradigm? A) Functionalism B) Exchange-rational choice C) Conflict theory D) Symbolic interactionism
D) Symbolic interactionism The correct answer is option D. Symbolic interactionism examines small scale (or micro level) social interactions, focusing attention on how shared meaning is established among individuals or small groups. Clinical encounters involving patient-provider communication are consistent with the analysis of social interaction at the micro level. In addition, the study of rapport, empathy, and disagreements involves the interpretation of meaning among social actors.
Which statement about the media's influence on aggressive behaviors is consistent with the findings of Study 2? A) Media has little effect on the development or learning of aggression. B) Aggression may be lessened via the influence of the media. C) Aggression is fostered via the influence of the media. D) The impact of media on aggression is situationally dependent.
D) The impact of media on aggression is situationally dependent. The answer to this question is option D because the findings indicated that viewing the film had a differential impact on subsequent aggressive behavior based on the description provided of the protagonist.
Which is NOT a plausible criticism of the use of self-reports to determine the relationship between childhood maltreatment and the development of depression? A) There is a potential for poor reliability. B) They are vulnerable to subjective interpretation. C) The results are not easily compared with those from other measures. D) They are labor intensive and expensive to implement.
D) They are labor intensive and expensive to implement. The answer to this question is D because self-reports are not labor intensive or expensive to implement.
Research on cognitive aging has demonstrated that, in general, aging does NOT diminish a person's: A) capacity for acquiring new declarative information B) capacity for controlling his or her memory processes C) ability to cope with Alzheimer's Disease D) ability to retrieve general information
D) ability to retrieve general information The answer to this question is D because the capacity for retrieving general information (i.e. semantic memory, crystallized intelligence) is unaffected by aging.
In Study 2, the researchers hypothesize that media functions as: A) the looking-glass self B) the generalized other C) social capital D) an agent of socialization
D) an agent of socialization The answer to this question is D because the researchers hypothesize that film violence operates as an instigator to real violence. In this context, the media is an institution that is transmitting values and beliefs about acceptable behaviors, thus operating as an agent of socialization.
The reminiscence bump is best described as an example of: A) culture lag B) cultural assimilation C) culture shock D) cultural transmission
D) cultural transmission The answer to this question is D because cultural transmission addresses how culture is learned. Culture is passed along from generation to generation through various childrearing practices, including when parents expose their children to music. As illustrated by the reminiscence bump, parents' musical preferences affected their children's memory of music.
Which scenario best represents the results of Study 2? When encountering a stranger, an individual: A) is fearful of contact with the stranger if experienced in a new environment. B) initially displays a frown, and then proceeds to greet the stranger. C) mentally compares the stranger to family members, which gives them a feeling of comfort. D) experiences a brief increase in heart rate before starting to relax.
D) experiences a brief increase in heart rate before starting to relax. The answer to this question is D because the study results support the premise described in the passage that the evaluation of strangers involves automatic and unconscious processes that are then followed by conscious and controlled cognitive processes.
Without conscious effort, people are unlikely to automatically visually process: A) spatial information B) temporal information C) the frequency of specific events D) novel information
D) novel information The answer to this question is D because due to the brain's capacity for parallel processing, information about space, time and frequency of events is automatically processed; however, conscious effort is needed to process novel information.
The technical term for the type of stimulus registered by the sensory receptors is: A) incentive stimulus B) sensory stimulus C) distal stimulus D) proximal stimulus
D) proximal stimulus The answer to this question is D because the proximal stimulus is the stimulus registered by the sensory receptors (e.g., the pattern of light falling on the retina), which is referred to in the first paragraph.
