Med Surg 2 Final ATI book

the nurse is assessing the client receiving brimonidine eye drops. Which assessment findings will the nurse recognize as known side effects of brimonidine? Select all that apply. 1. Blurred vision 2. ocular itching 3. ocular stinging 4. hearing loss 5. conjunctivitis

1, 2, 3, 5 Blurred vision, ocular itching, ocular stinging, conjunctivitis

a family member of the client undergoing cataract surgery asks the nurse if there are ways to prevent cataracts. Which recommendations should the nurse suggest? Select all that apply. 1. wear sunglasses that limit UV light penetration 2. wear sunscreen with a high protection factor number 3. wear eye protection if there is any risk for eye injury 4. avoid activities and reading in dimly lit environments 5. eat foods that are high in Vitamin C, such as oranges

1, 3 Limiting eye exposure to UV light has been found to decrease the risk for cataracts Avoiding trauma to the eye has been found to decrease the risk for cataracts

Your patient has severe peripheral venous disease. During the head-to-toe nursing assessment, you would expect to find what skin characteristics of the lower extremities? Select all that apply: 1. Thick, tough 2. Thin, scaly 3. Hairless 4. Brown pigmented

1, 4

The nurse is concerned that the Caucasian client experiencing a stroke may have impaired hearing. Which observations of the client's behavior prompted this concern? Select all that apply 1. nods and agrees to all statements made by the nurse 2. asks for more information about the therapy schedule 3. slow to respond verbally but answers questions appropriately 4. speaks in an accessibly loud tone of voice 5. leans in toward the nurse when the nurse speaks

1, 4, 5

A patient has severe peripheral venous disease. What important information below will the nurse provide to the patient about how to alleviate signs and symptoms associated with the disease? Select all that apply: 1.Elevate the lower extremities below heart level frequently 2. Application of compression stockings 3. Limit long periods of standing and sitting 4. Use the knee-flexed position while lying in bed

2, 3

The nurse is caring for clients on a medical floor. After the shift report, which client should be assessed first? 1.The client who is two-thirds of the way through a blood transfusion and has had no complaints of dyspnea or hives. 2.The client diagnosed with leukemia who has a hematocrit of 18% and petechiae covering the body. 3.The client with peptic ulcer disease who called over the intercom to say that he is vomiting blood. 4.The client diagnosed with Crohn's disease who is complaining of perineal discomfort.

3. 1.This client has a potential for hemorrhage and is reporting blood in the vomitus. This client should be assessed first.

The nurse is caring for clients on a medical floor. Which client will the nurse assess first? 1.The client with an abdominal aortic aneurysm who is constipated. 2.The client on bedrest who ambulated to the bathroom. 3.The client with essential hypertension who has epistaxis and a headache 4.The client with arterial occlusive disease who has a decreased pedal pulse.

3. A bloody nose and a headache indicate the client is experiencing very high blood pressure and should be assessed first because of a possible myocardial infarction or stroke.

Which medication should the nurse expect the health-care provider to order for a client diagnosed with arterial occlusive disease? 1.An anticoagulant medication. 2.An antihypertensive medication. 3.An antiplatelet medication. 4.A muscle relaxant.

3. Antiplatelet medications, such as aspirin or clopidogrel (Plavix), inhibit platelet aggregations in the arterial blood.

the nurse reviews the chart of the client diagnosed with closed-angle glaucoma. Which documented finding should the nurse question with the HCP? 1. sudden onset of eye pain 2. reduced central visual acuity 3. normal intraocular pressure 4. N/V

3. Closed-angle glaucoma causes an increased, not normal, intraocular pressure. This documentation finding should be questioned.

The client develops thrombocytopenia. What should the nurse do when caring for the client? 1. teach the client to use dental floss after teeth brushing 2. infirm the client about staying on bedrest to prevent injury 3. assess for blurred vision, headache, or mental status changes 4. give aspirin to treat temperature of 102F or greater

3. The nurse should assess for signs of bleeding. Bleeding can occur with low platelet levels. blurred vision, headache, or mental status changes can be signs of intracranial bleeding

the hospitalized client experienced a seizure. What information should the nurse document when describing the postical period? 1. whether it looked like the client experienced an "aura" 2. what the client was doing immediately preceding that procedure 3. the condition of the client immediately following the seizure 4. where tonic-clonic activity started and unresponsiveness duration

3. The nurse should document the condition of the client immediately following the seizure.

A nurse is teaching a client who has a new prescription for clopidogrel. Select all that the nurse should include. a. avoid consumption of grapefruit b. monitor black and tarry stools c. take this when you have pain d. schedule weekly PT test e. Limit food sources containing vit. K while taking this

A, B

a nurse is caring for a client who is suspected of having HIV. The nurse should identify that which of the following DX tests and lab values are used to confirm HIV infection? Select all that apply. a. western blot b. Indirect immunofluorescence assay c. CD4+ T-lymphocyte count d. HIV RNA quantification test e. CSF analysis

a, b

Laboratory tests are prescribed for the client who has a smooth and reddened tongue and ulcers at the corners of the mouth. Which result would the nurse find if the client has an iron-deficiency anemia? a. low hgb and hct b. elevated RBCs c. prolonged prothrombin time (PT) d. Elevated WBCs

a. a smooth, red tongue, ulcers at the corners of the mouth (angular cheilosis), and a low hgb are signs of iron-deficiency anemia

The nurse receives orders after notifying an HCP about the client who has tachycardia, diaphoresis, and an elevated temp after treatment for ALL. Which order should be the nurses priority? a. portable chest x-ray in the client's room b. urine culture, and blood cultures X2 c. Vancomycin 500 mg IV q6h d. Filgastim 0.3 mg subcut daily

b. Urine and blood cultures are priority; these should be obtained before antibiotics are administere

The client has a blood type of B negative. The client's family asks if they can donate blood for the client. Which type of blood type would they need to be to be able to donate? Select all that apply. a. A+ b. B+ c. B- d. O+ e. O- f. AB+

c, e

The client returns to a clinic for a follow-up visit and is diagnosed as positive for HIV. The client expresses fear related to lack of finances, social avoidance, and hopelessness. Which nursing intervention provides the most client support? 1. referral to a community based HIV clinic 2. referral to the local public health department 3. referral to an HCP who specializes in infectious diseases 4. Recommend that the client disclose the diagnosis to family

1. a specialty clinic with experience in management of clients with newly diagnosed HIV will provide the most support for the type of concerns expressed by the client

The nurse is caring for the client who has a visual deficit. Which approach should the nurse use? 1. Acknowledge presence by greeting the client by name 2. stand directly in front if the client to speak to the client 3. use a loud, clear voice to address the client 4. touch to get the client's attention before providing care

1. informing the client of the nurse's presence puts the client at ease and allows the client to participate in care

The nurse is reviewing the medication list of the client with Meniere's disease. Which medication was likely prescribed for treating the client's vertigo? 1. Meclizine 2. Megestrol 3. Meropenem 4. Metoprolol

1. the anticholinergic and antihistamine properties of meclizine (anti vert) treat symptom of vertigo

The nurse is preparing to admit the client diagnosed with hep C. Which room type and precautions should the nurse anticipate? 1. Semiprivate room and standard precautions 2. private room and droplet isolation precautions 3. private room and airborne isolation 4. semiprivate room and contact isolation

1. the client can be admitted into a semiprivate room with standard precautions that include appropriate needle disposal. HCV is transmitted percutaneously through needle sharing and needle stick accidents

The client comes to the emergency department complaining of pain in the left lower leg following a puncture wound from a nail in a board. The left lower leg is reddened with streaks, edematous, and hot to the touch, and the client has a temperature of 100.8o F. Which condition would the nurse suspect the client is experiencing? 1.Cellulitis. 2.Lyme disease. 3.Impetigo. 4.Deep vein thrombosis.

1.Cellulitis is a bacterial infection of the subcutaneous tissue usually associated with a break in the skin, and the nurse would suspect this with these signs/ symptoms.

The client is receiving prophylactic low molecular weight heparin. There are no PT/PTT or INR results on the client's chart since admission three (3) days ago. Which action should the nurse implement? 1.Administer the medication as ordered. 2.Notify the health-care provider immediately. 3.Obtain the PT/PTT and INR prior to administering the medication. 4.Hold the medication until the HCP makes rounds.

1.Subcutaneous heparin will not achieve a therapeutic level because of the short half-life of the medication; therefore, the nurse should administer the medication.

The nurse is completing a neurovascular assessment on the client with chronic venous insufficiency. What should be included in this assessment? Select all that apply. 1.Assess for paresthesia. 2.Assess for pedal pulses. 3.Assess for paralysis. 4.Assess for pallor. 5.Assess for polar (temperature).

1.The nurse should determine if the client has any numbness or tingling. 2.The nurse should determine if the client has pulses, the presence of which indicates there is no circulatory compromise. 3.The nurse should determine if the client can move the feet and legs. 4.The nurse should determine if the client's feet are pink or pale. 5.The nurse should assess the feet to determine if they are cold or warm.

The nurse is teaching the client who has otitis media. To reduce the risk of recurrent otitis media, which vaccine should the nurse recommend? 1. Varicella vaccine 2. Pneumococcal vaccine 3. Typhoid vaccine 4. Zoster vaccine

2. Pneumococcal vaccine can reduce the risk of ear infection

The nurse is caring for the client who is 24 hours post-TURP and is having painful bladder spasms. Which intervention should the nurse plan to implement? 1. Give the PRN prescribed morphine sulfate IV 2. Give the PRN prescribed belladonna and opium suppository 3. assist the client out of bed to ambulate in the hallway 4. apply warm and then a cold cloth to the client's abdomen

2. The belladonna and opium suppository will inhibit smooth muscle contraction and decrease bladder spasms; this it will also reduce pain

The nurse is planning the care of the client with Meniere's disease. With which member of the interdisciplinary team should the nurse expect a consultation? 1. Rheumatologist 2. Otolaryngologist 3. physical therapist 4. oncologist

2. since the disease is a condition go the ear, the nurse would plan to include the otolaryngologist

The client with diminished sight has problems with the glare from light. Which recommendation should the nurse make? 1. install fluorescent lighting throughout the home 2. wear sunglasses and hats with brims when outdoors 3. avoid going outdoors on days that are sunny 4. use direct sunlight from windows rather than lights

2. wearing sunglasses and hats with brims while outdoors will block direct light from the client's eyes

Which assessment data would warrant immediate intervention in the client diagnosed with arterial occlusive disease? 1.The client has 2+ pedal pulses. 2.The client is able to move the toes. 3.The client has numbness and tingling. 4.The client's feet are red when standing.

3. Numbness and tingling are paresthesia, which is a sign of a severely decreased blood supply to the lower extremities.

The client has BPH. The client is questioning the need for the prescribed tamsulosin. Which explanation by the nurse about tamsulosin is correct? 1. reduces the prostate gland's size to relieve obstructive symptoms 2. decreases the inflammation caused by the prostatic enlargement 3. relaxes the smooth muscle in the prostate to facilitate urine flow 4. decrease urine specific gravity, thus decreasing the risk of UTI

3. Tamsulosin (Flomax) is an alpha-adrenergic receptor blocker, which relaxes the smooth muscle in the prostate. This ultimately facilitates urinary flow through the urethra

The nurse is concerned that the client in a long-term care facility is experiencing retinal detachment. Which intervention should the nurse implement first? 1. flush the eye thoroughly with saline solution and apply a pressure bandage 2. apply an eye shield to the affected eye and give a prescribed oral analgesic 3. notify the HCP; prepare for transport to a facility for ophthalmological care 4. patch both eyes and place the client in a prone position until blurring stops

3. The nurse should contact the HCP and secure an ophthalmological evaluation promptly

The nurse is caring for clients on a medical floor. After the shift report, which client should be assessed first? 1.The client who is two-thirds of the way through a blood transfusion and has had no complaints of dyspnea or hives. 2.The client diagnosed with leukemia who has a hematocrit of 18% and petechiae covering the body. 3.The client with peptic ulcer disease who called over the intercom to say that he is vomiting blood. 4.The client diagnosed with Crohn's disease who is complaining of perineal discomfort.

3. This client has a potential for hemorrhage and is reporting blood in the vomitus. This client should be assessed first.

The client with HF tells the clinic nurse, "I don't know why my ankles are so fat." what is the most appropriate response? 1. tell me about your activity level 2. what have you eaten in the last 24 hours? 3. has your weight gone up since yesterday? 4. How different are your ankles from yesterday?

3. Weight is a critical indicator of fluid loss or gain. Clients with HF are taught to monitor weight daily at the same time using the same scale.

The nurse is caring for multiple older clients with age-related visual changes. Which intervention should the nurse implement? 1. Provide reading materials with bold, normal sized font 2. lower the intensity of reading lamps to prevent glare 3. provide the clients with a magnifying device for reading 4. give clients printed materials that use similar blended colors

3. the nurse should provide a magnifying device for reading. A magnifying device will enlarge the words, making them easier to read

The client diagnosed with end-stage renal disease (ESRD) has developed anemia. Which would the nurse anticipate the HCP prescribing for this client? 1.Place the client in reverse isolation. 2.Discontinue treatments until blood count improves. 3.Monitor CBC daily to assess for bleeding. 4.Give client erythropoietin, a biologic response modifier.

4. Erythropoietin is a biologic response modifier produced by the kidneys in response to a low red blood cell count in the body. It stimulates the body to produce more RBCs.

The client presents to the outpatient clinic complaining of calf pain. The client reports returning from an airplane trip the previous day. Which should the nurse assess first? 1.The nurse should auscultate the lung fields and heart sounds. 2.The nurse should determine the length of the airplane trip. 3.The nurse should determine if the client has had chest pain. 4.The nurse should measure the calf and palpate the calf for warmth.

4. Measuring the client's calf and assessing for warmth are part of a focused assessment for deep vein thrombosis, which the client's flight placed him/her at risk for DVT.

The male client with sickle cell anemia comes to the emergency department with a temperature of 101.4°F and tells the nurse that he is having a sickle cell crisis. Which diagnostic test should the nurse anticipate the emergency department doctor ordering for the client? 1.Spinal tap. 2.Hemoglobin electrophoresis. 3.Sickle-turbidity test (Sickledex). 4.Blood cultures.

4. The elevated temperature is the first sign of bacteremia. Bacteremia leads to a sickle cell crisis. Therefore, the bacteria must be identified so the appropriate antibiotics can be prescribed to treat the infection. Blood cultures assist in determining the type and source of infection so that it can be treated appropriately.

The client diagnosed with arterial occlusive disease is one (1) day postoperative right femoral-popliteal bypass. Which intervention should the nurse implement? 1.Keep the right leg in the dependent position. 2.Apply sequential compression devices to lower extremities 3.Monitor the client's pedal pulses every shift 4.Assess the client's leg dressing every four (4) hours.

4. The leg dressing needs to be assessed for hemorrhaging or signs of infection.

The client who had a TURP 8 weeks ago tells the clinic nurse that he no longer ejaculates during sexual intercourse and asks if this is expected. Which statement should be the basis for the nurse's response? 1. retrograde ejaculation can occur after a TURP, but it usually is resolved within 2 weeks 2. physical problems are rare after a TURP; this client may have a psychological problem 3. the client is describing an unusual symptom that needs thorough evaluation by and HCP 4. the most common long-term side problems after TURP surgery is retrograde

4. during TURP, the urinary sphincter mechanism is partially resected. This causes muscle weakness along the bladder outlet. When the individual ejaculated, the sphincter cannot keep the bladder adequately closed, and the ejaculate foes back toward the bladder rather than forward out the penis

A nurse is planning care for a client with hgb of 7.1 and hct of 21.5%. Which actions should the nurse take? Select all that apply a. provide assistance with ambulation b. monitor O2 levels c. weigh the client weekly d. obtain stool specimen for occult blood e. schedule daily rest periods

A, B, D, E

A nurse in a clinic receives a phone call from a client seeking information about his new prescription for erythropoietin (Epogen). Which of the following information should be reviewed with the client? A. The client needs an erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) test weekly. B. The client should have his hemoglobin checked twice a week. C. Oxygen saturation levels should be monitored. D. Folic acid production will increase.

B

· When educating the public about eye safety, the nurse would instruct that if chemical exposure or irritant to the eye occurs the eye should be flushed with water for how long? o 5 minutes o 10 minutes o 15 minutes o 20 minutes

Answer: 20 minutes. § When an exposure occurs, the eye should be continuously flushed with tap water for 20 minutes. It is important to begin the flushing process within 5 minutes for the best outcome. Additional education should include saving the bottle or container, if a chemical exposure, for the emergency response providers so the chemical involved is known to provide further emergent care

A nurse is completing an integumentary assessment of a client who has anemia. Which finding should the nurse expect? a. Absent turgor b. spoon-shaped nails c. shiny, hairless legs d. Yellow mucous membranes

B

· Which patient is at highest risk for venous thromboembolism? o A. a 50 y/o post op patient o B. 25 y/o patient with central venous catheter in place to treat septicemia o C. 71 y/o otherwise healthy older adult o D. pregnant 30 y/o woman due in two weeks

B

A nurse is caring for a client who has chronic venous insufficiency and a prescription for thigh high compression stockings. Which action should the nurse take? a. elevate legs for 10 min, 2-3 times a day while wearing stockings b. apply the stockings in the morning upon awakening and before getting out of bed c. roll the stockings down to the knees to relieve discomfort on the legs d. remove the stockings while out of bed for 1 hour, 4 times a day, to allow the legs to rest

B. Applying the stockings in the morning upon waking up before getting out of bed reduces venous stasis and assists in the venous return of blood to the heart.

A nurse is caring for a client who has a DVT and has been taking heparin for a week. Two days ago, the provider also prescribed warfarin. The client asks the nurse about receiving both at the same time. What should the nurse say? a. I will remind your provider that you are already receiving heparin b. your lab findings indicate that 2 anticoagulants are needed c. it takes 3-4 days for the therapeutic effects of warfarin, and then heparin can be discontinued d. only one of these medications are being given to treat your DVT

C. warfarin depresses synthesis of clotting factors but does not have an effect on clotting factors that are present. It takes 3-4 days for the clotting factors that are present to decay and for the therapeutic effects of warfarin to occur.

A nurse is assessing a client who has PAD. Which of the following should the nurse expect? a. edema around ankles and feet b. ulceration around the medial malleoli c. scaling edema of the lower legs with stasis dermatitis d. pallor on elevation of the limbs, and rubber when the limbs are dependent

D. In a client who has PAD, pallor is seen in the extremities when the limbs are elevated, and rubor occurs when they are lowered

The nurse is teaching a patient diagnosed with PAD. What should be included in the teaching plan?

Keep the lower extremities in a neutral or dependent position · A patient with venous insufficiency, blood return to the heart needs to be enhanced, so lower extremities are elevation

The client is hospitalized with a diagnosis of sickle cell crisis. Which findings should prompt the nurse to consider that the client is ready for discharge. Select all that apply. a. leukocyte count is 7,500 b. describes the importance of keeping warm c. pain controlled at a 2 from 0-10 with analgesics d. has not had chest pain or dyspnea for past 24 hours e. blood transfusions effective in diminishing cell sickling f. hydroxyurea effective in suppressing leukocyte formation

a, b, c, d

The nurse working in the bloodmobile is screening clients to determine if they qualify for blood donation. Which should the nurse ask? Select all that apply. a. if you have a tattoo, on what date did you receive the tattoo? b. have you had any close contact with anyone with HIV or hepatitis? c. If you smoke, when was the last time you smoked tobacco products d. When you were last immunized for rubella, mumps, or varicella? e. Did you receive blood products anywhere outside the US?

a, b, d, e

A nurse in an outpatient clinic is assessing a client who reports night sweats and fatigue. He states he had a cough along with nausea and diarrhea. His temperature is 38.1 C orally. The client is afraid he has HIV. Which action should the nurse take? Select all that apply. a. perform a physical assessment b. determine when s/s began c. teach the client about HIV transmission d. draw blood for HIV testing e. obtain a sexual history

a, b, e

The nurse assesses that the client with hemolytic anemia has weakness, fatigue, malaise, and skin and mucous membrane pallor. Which finding should the nurse also associate with hemolytic anemia? a. scleral jaundice b. a smooth, red tongue c. a craving for ice to chew d. a poor intake of fresh vegetable

a. Jaundice occurs in hemolytic anemia from the shortened life span of the RBC and the breakdown of hgb. About 80% of heme is converted to bilirubin, conjugated in the liver and excreted in the bile. The increased bilirubin in the blood causes jaundice

The nurse is caring for multiple 25-year-old female patients. The nurse should plan to consult the HCP about a referral for genetic counseling and family planning for which clients? Select all that apply. a. client diagnosed with thalassemia major b. client diagnosed with sickle cell anemia c. client diagnosed with hemophilia A d. client diagnosed with autoimmune hemolytic anemia e. client with hemophilia B

a. b. c. e, all of these are hereditary

The client is symptomatic with hgb of 7.8, but refuses blood and blood products for religious reasons. The nurse should prepare that the HCP may prescribe which alternatives? Select all that apply. a. Epoetin alfa b. folic acid c. albumin d. platelets e. fresh frozen plasma f. granulocytes

a. epoetin alpha promotes erythropoietin, thus decreasing the need for transfusions b. folic acid promotes erythropoiesis and production of WBCs and platelets

The nurse is caring for the client placed on neutropenic precautions. Which interventions should the nurse implement? Select all that apply. a. apply pressure for at least 5 minutes to any site that is bleeding b. prevent anyone from bringing fresh flowers into the clients room c. teach the client to avoid eating unwashed fruits and vegetables d. perform hand hygiene before touching any of the client's belongings e. inform the client that fresh water will be delivered every hour f. stop visitors from entering the room if observed to be coughing

b, c, d, e

T or F: A cochlear implant is an auditory prosthesis used for people with profound sensorineural hearing loss bilaterally who do not benefit from conventional hearing aids

true

What medications should the nurse expect to include in the teaching plan to decrease the risk of cardiovascular events and death for PAD patients (select all that apply)? 1.Ramipril (Altace) 2. Cilostazol (Pletal) 3.Simvastatin (Zocor) 4.Clopidogrel (Plavix) 5.Warfarin (Coumadin) 6.Aspirin (acetylsalicylic acid)

1, 3, 4 Angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitors (e.g., ramipril [Altace]) are used to control hypertension. Statins (e.g., simvastatin [Zocor]) are used for lipid management. Aspirin is used as an antiplatelet agent. Cilostazol (Pletal) is used for intermittent claudication, but it does not reduce CVD morbidity and mortality risks. Clopidogrel may be used if the patient cannot tolerate aspirin. Anticoagulants (e.g., warfarin [Coumadin]) are not recommended to prevent CVD events in PAD patients.

The nurse is caring for the client following a TURP. At the end of an 8-hour shift, the nurse determines that the client received 3050 mL of CBI fluid and that 4030 mL of output was emptied from the urinary drainage bag. How many mL should the nurse document for the client's actual urine output for the 8 hours?

980

The nurse is questioning the client about vision changes. Which symptom indicates that the client may be developing a cataract? 1. blurred vision, worsening at night 2. shooting pain in the back of one eye 3. increased frequency of headaches 4. seeing spots in the vision field of one eye

1. the lens opacity from developing a cataract diminishes vision. Blurriness and decreased night vision are early symptoms

The HCP writes the following orders for the client admitted in sickle cell crisis: "O2 2L/NC, MS 4mg IV now, one-unit PRBCs, and hydroxyurea 250 mg oral daily." Which nursing intervention is most important? 1. Initiate all orders as prescribed by the HCP 2. Telephone the HCP to clarify the MS order 3. Prepare to give 4 mg MS after initiating the oxygen 4. Telephone lab to draw blood for a type and cross match

2. It is most important to call HCP. The abbreviation MS is on the "Do not use" list.

The 60 y/o client notices a gradual decline in visual acuity and asks if it could be from a cataract. Which question will help determine whether a cataract is developing? 1. Has your ability to perceive colors changed? 2. Does you vision appear distorted or wavy? 3. Does the center of your visual field appear dark? 4. Do you see random flashes of bright light?

1. asking about a change in the ability to perceive colors will help in determining cataract development. Cataract formation involves the lens of the eye becoming more opaque, thus decreasing the vibrancy of colors

The nurse is reviewing hospital admission orders for the client diagnosed with acute prostatitis. Which prescription should the nurse verify with the HCP? 1. Give trimethoprim/sulfamethoxazole 1 gram IV q6h 2. Administer ibuprofen 600 mg orally q6h prn 3. increase fluid intake to 3 mL daily; have client void often 4. insert an indwelling urinary drainage catheter now

4. passage of a urinary catheter through an inflamed urethra is contraindicated in acute prostatitis. If urinary retention is a concern, a suprapubic catheter should be placed

The client asks the nurse about symptoms associated with retinal detachment. Which symptoms should the nurse identify? Select all that apply. 1. seeing bright flashes of light 2. Shooting, throbbing eye pain 3. severe frontal headache 4. diminished visual acuity 5. seeing floating dark spots in the visual field

1, 4, 5 As the choroid and retina partially separate, the client notices flashes of light As the choroid and retina partially separate, the client notices a decreased vision, often like "a curtain being drawn across" ...the client notices floating dark spots

The client, admitted to a surgical until following a TURP, has a CBI running. The nurse assesses the client's urine and finds dark red urine containing several small clots. Which intervention should the nurse implement. 1. increase the flow of the bladder irrigation fluid 2. immediately stop the bladder irrigation flow 3. irrigate the urinary catheter manually 4. deflate the balloon on the urinary catheter

1. if the urine is dark red, the flow rate of the CBI should be increased. The purpose of the CBI is to remove clots from the bladder and to ensure drainage of urine through the urinary catheter. The flow rate of the CBI fluid should be set so that the outflow remains free from clots and remains light red to pink.

The client returns to a clinic for a follow-up visit and is diagnosed as positive for HIV. The client expresses fear related to lack of finances, social avoidances, and hopelessness. Which nursing intervention provides the most client support? 1. Referral to a community-based HIV clinic 2. Referral to the local public health department 3. Referral to an HCP who specializes in infectious disease 4. Recommend that the client disclose the diagnosis to family

1. A specialty clinic with experience in management of clients with newly diagnosed HIV will provide the most support for the type of concerns expressed by the client

The nurse speaks with the client who recently learned that cataracts are developing in both of the client's eyes. Which statement made by the client should the nurse correct? 1. it is important that I schedule my surgery asap 2. usually surgery is performed on each eye at different times 3. my own lens will be removed when I have cataract surgery 4. an intraocular lens may be inserted with the surgical procedure

1. Although there is reduced vision with beginning cataract development, a person can wait until vision worsens before having surgery. When vision is reduced to the extent that ADLs are affected, surgery should be performed as soon as possible

Which arterial anticoagulant medication would the nurse anticipate being prescribed for a client diagnosed with arterial occlusive disease? 1.Clopidogrel. 2.Streptokinase. 3.Protamine sulfate. 4.Enoxaparin.

1. Clopidogrel (Plavix) is an arterial antiplatelet that prevents clots from occurring in the lower extremity arteries.

The client with glaucoma is prescribed pilocarpine hydrochloride 1% eye drops to both eyes four times per day. The nurse knows that this medication has which expected action? 1. increases the outflow of aqueous humor 2. improves vision in dimly lit environmental 3. increases production of aqueous humor 4. increases ability of both pupils to dilate

1. Pilocarpine hydrochloride is a cholinergic agent used to treat glaucoma. It causes mitosis (pupillary constriction), which then increases the angle of the channel in the anterior chamber of the eye. This improves the outflow of aqueous humor

The nurse is asked to complete health education on testicular cancer. To obtain the maximal impact, the nurse should plan to present this education to which group? 1. Males who are between 15-34 y/o 2. Males over 30 y/o who have never fathered a child 3. Males over 21 y/o who have fathered at least 1 child 4. Males who are over the age of 50 y/o and sexually active

1. Testicular cancer is the most common type of cancer in young men between 15-34. Therefore, education should be directed at males within this age group.

The client tells the nurse about being diagnosed with "wet type" macular degeneration. Which finding should the nurse expect to observe when examining the client's eyes using the scope? 1. growth of abnormal blood vessels in the macula has occurred 2. structures in the macula have atrophied 3. the lens of the eye has become cloudy 4. the edge of the cornea has a thin grayish arc

1. The "wet type" of macular degeneration results from the growth of abnormal blood vessels in the macula. The blood vessels often leak fluid and blood

Which assessment data would support that the client has a venous stasis ulcer? 1.A superficial pink open area on the medial part of the ankle. 2.A deep pale open area over the top side of the foot. 3.A reddened blistered area on the heel of the foot. 4.A necrotic gangrenous area on the dorsal side of the foot.

1. The medial part of the ankle usually ulcerates because of edema that leads to stasis, which, in turn, causes the skin to break down.

The client with varicose veins asks the nurse, "What caused me to have these?" Which statement by the nurse would be most appropriate? 1."You have incompetent valves in your legs." 2."Your legs have decreased oxygen to the muscle." 3."There is an obstruction in the saphenous vein." 4."Your blood is thick and can't circulate properly."

1. Varicose veins are irregular, tortuous veins with incompetent valves that do not allow the venous blood to ascend the saphenous vein.

The nurse is caring for clients on a surgical floor. Which client should be assessed first? 1.The client who is four (4) days postoperative abdominal surgery and is complaining of left calf pain when ambulating. 2.The client who is one (1) day postoperative hernia repair who has just been able to void 550 mL of clear amber urine. 3.The client who is five (5) days postoperative open cholecystectomy who has a T-tube and is being discharged. 4.The client who is 16 hours post-abdominal hysterectomy and is complaining of abdominal pain and is expelling flatus.

1.A complication of immobility after surgery is developing a DVT. This client with left calf pain should be assessed for a DVT.

the client with severely diminished vision has difficulty with visual discrimination. Which interventions should the nurse recommend to improve the client's sight in the home environment? Select all that apply 1. ensure that all room walls are painted with colors that blend 2. use a white board and a black marker when writing out lists 3. place velcro tabs on wall light switches to ease location them 4. ensure that doorknobs on the doors are a bright contrasting color 5. match the color of dishes with the color of table cloths of placemats

2, 3, 4 using black on white can enhance the person's ability to read what has been written placing velcro tabs on light switches will make them easier to locate in dark environments or with limited vision using contrasting colors makes it easier to identify the doorknob and is a safety feature if the person needs to exit immediately

The nurse is reviewing home management strategies with the client who has dry macular degeneration. The nurse should review using which objects with the client? Select all that apply. 1. protectively goggles 2. lighting that is bright 3. an ampler grid 4. a soft eye patch 5. magnification device

2, 3, 5 the nurse should review using bright lighting because it improves vision and promotes safety the nurse should review using an Ampler grid The nurse should review using magnification devices to decrease eyestrain and promote safety

The nurse is caring for a client who is receiving heparin therapy intravenously. Which assessment data would indicate to the nurse the client is developing heparin-induced thrombocytopenia (HIT)? Select all that apply. 1.The client has spontaneous bleeding from around the IV site. 2.The client complains of chest pain on inspiration and has become restless. 3.The client's platelet count on admission was 420 (103) and now is 200 (103). 4.The client complains that the gums bleed when brushing the teeth. 5.The client has developed skin lesions at the IV site.

2. HIT is not manifested by bleeding but by the development of clots, either deep venous or pulmonary, and sometimes arterially, which can cause a myocardial infarction. These are symptoms of a pulmonary embolus. 3. HIT is a decrease in baseline platelet count by 50% of baseline. 5. Clinically, HIT may manifest itself as skin lesions at the site of heparin injections or chills, fever, dyspnea, or chest pain.

The client's laboratory values are RBCs 5.5 (×106 )/mm3, WBCs 8.9 (×103 )/mm3, and platelets 189 (×103 )/mm3. Which intervention should the nurse implement? 1.Prepare to administer packed red blood cells. 2.Continue to monitor the client. 3.Request an order for Neupogen, a biologic response modifier. 4.Institute bleeding precautions.

2. All the laboratory values are within normal limits. The nurse should continue to monitor the client.

The nurse is obtaining a hospital admission history for the client. Which statement should prompt the nurse to consider that the client has chronic prostatitis? 1. I am having difficulty sustaining an erection 2. I have pain with ejaculation during intercourse 3. I have been feeling pressure around my rectum 4. I don't think I am totally emptying my bladder

2. Both chronic bacterial prostatitis and chronic prostatitis/pelvic pain syndrome manifest with ejaculatory pain

The client diagnosed with a DVT is placed on a medical unit. Which nursing interventions should be implemented? Select all that apply. 1.Place sequential compression devices on both legs. 2.Instruct the client to stay in bed and not ambulate. 3.Encourage fluids and a diet high in roughage. 4.Monitor IV site every four (4) hours and prn. 5.Assess Homans' sign every 24 hours.

2. Clients should be on bedrest for five (5) to seven (7) days after diagnosis to allow time for the clot to adhere to the vein wall, thereby preventing embolization. 3. Bedrest and limited activity predispose the client to constipation. Fluids and diets high in fiber will help prevent constipation. Fluids will also help provide adequate fluid volume in the vasculature. 4. The client will be administered a heparin IV drip, which should be monitored.

The client with hemophilia A is experiencing hemarthrosis. Which intervention should the nurse recommend to the client? 1.Alternate aspirin and acetaminophen to help with the pain. 2.Apply cold packs for 24 to 48 hours to the affected area. 3.Perform active range-of-motion exercise on the extremity. 4.Put the affected extremity in the dependent position.

2. Hemarthrosis is bleeding into the joint. Applying ice to the area can cause vasoconstriction, which can help decrease bleeding.

The 45 y/o diagnosed with HIV presents to the clinic requesting the receive herpes zoster vaccine live. Which statement by the nurse is accurate concerning administration of zoster vaccine live to this client? 1. Zoster vaccine live is an appropriate vaccine for someone at your age 2. Zoster vaccine live is a live virus that could be problematic for you 3. Zoster vaccine live is best administered in childhood to be effective 4. Zoster vaccine live will prevent you from contracting chicken pox

2. Since the client is immunocompromised from HIV infection, the live vaccine would be contraindicated

The client with peripheral venous disease is scheduled to go to the whirlpool for a dressing change. Which is the nurse's priority intervention? 1.Escort the client to the physical therapy department. 2.Medicate the client 30 minutes before going to the whirlpool. 3.Obtain the sterile dressing supplies for the client 4.Assist the client to the bathroom prior to the treatment.

2. The client's pain is priority, and the nurse should premedicate prior to treatment.

A 24-year old man seeks medical attention for complaints of claudication in the arch of the foot. A nurse also notes superficial thrombophlebitis of the lower leg. The nurse would next assess the client for: 1.Familial tendency toward peripheral vascular disease 2.Smoking history 3.Recent exposures to allergens 4.History of insect bite

2. The mixture of arterial and venous manifestations (claudication and phlebitis, respectively) in the young male client suggests Buerger's disease. This is an uncommon disorder characterized by inflammation and thrombosis of smaller arteries and veins. This disorder typically is found in young adult males who smoke. The cause is not known precisely but is suspected to have an autoimmune component.

the client is informed that he will require a right orchiectomy as part of his treatment of testicular cancer. The client asks the nurse if he will be infertile after this procedure. Which response by the nurse is the best? 1. You need to plan ahead; this procedure will make you infertile 2. has you surgeon discussed cryopreservation of your sperm 3. with the removal of only one testicle, your fertility will not be affected 4. I can't answer this; no one really knows whether fertility will be affected

2. the impact of treatment fro testicular cancer on fertility varies. The involvement of chemotherapy, lymph node removal, and/or radiation in the treatment plan may all impact the client's ability to procreate. Clients should be encouraged to consider cryopreservation of sperm in a sperm bank before beginning testicular cancer treatment

The nurse is teaching the client with peripheral vascular disease. Which interventions should the nurse discuss with the client? Select all that apply. 1.Wash your feet in antimicrobial soap. 2.Wear comfortable, well-fitting shoes 3.Cut your toenails in an arch. 4.Keep the area between the toes dry. 5.Use a heating pad when feet are cold.

2.Shoes must be comfortable to prevent blisters or ulcerations of the feet. 4.Moisture between the toes increases fungal growth, leading to skin breakdown.

The client, with known benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH), telephones the clinic nurse with concerns of increasing urinary frequency and urgency after having a cold that started a few days ago. What question should the nurse immediately ask the client? 1. Have you been drinking large amounts of water? 2. Have you been exercising more than normal? 3. Have you been taking any more over-the-counter cold remedies? 4. Have you increased the amount of dairy products in your diet?

3. Compounds found in common cough and cold remedies, that cause smooth muscle contraction. Since the bladder is a smooth muscle, these medications may increase symptoms of urinary urgency and frequency.

The client diagnosed with diabetes mellitus type 2 is admitted to the hospital with cellulitis of the right foot secondary to an insect bite. Which intervention should the nurse implement first? 1.Administer intravenous antibiotics. 2.Apply warm moist packs every two (2) hours. 3.Elevate the right foot on two (2) pillows. 4.Teach the client about skin and foot care.

3. Elevating the foot above the heart will decrease edema and thereby help decrease the pain. It is the easiest and first intervention for the nurse to implement.

The client with macular degeneration is told the condition is progressing to an advanced stage. Which findings should the nurse expect when completing the assessment? Select all that apply. 1. Curtain appearance over part of the visual field 2. Loss of peripheral vision in the affected eye 3. difficulty seeing in dimly lit environments 4. visual distortions in the central vision 5. clouding of the lens in both eyes

3, 4 Difficulty seeing in dimly lit environments is from the slow breakdown of the outer layer of the retina and the formation of druse within the macula The macula is the area of central vision. With macular degeneration there is the loss or distortion of central vision

the nurse is teaching the client with open-angle glaucoma. Which instructions should the nurse include? 1. Limit oral fluid intake to 1000 mL daily 2. eat foods that are high in omega-3 fatty acids 3. have annual eye exams with an eye specialist 4. Use timolol maleate eye drops when feeling eye pressure

3. Glaucoma is a chronic progressive disease; annual eye examinations should be completes by an eye specialist physician

The female nurse is sitting across a table from the Latino male she has been educating about testicular self-examination. When the client successfully verbalizes the process, the nurse excitedly praises the client, leans over the table, and makes the "OK" sign with her hand. The client angrily gets up and abruptly leaves the room. What likely caused the clients abrupt departure? 1. Discomfort discussing private body areas with the female nurse 2. The nurse invaded the client's personal space inappropriately 3. The client may have interpreted the "OK" gesture as obscene 4. The client may have felt that the teaching had been completed

3. In much of Latin America, the North American "OK" sign may be considered obscene

Which instruction should the nurse discuss with the client diagnosed with Raynaud's phenomenon? 1.Explain exacerbations will not occur in the summer. 2. Use nicotine gum to help quit smoking. 3.Wear extra-warm clothing during cold exposure. 4.Avoid prolonged exposure to direct sunlight.

3. Raynaud's phenomenon is a form of intermittent arteriolar vasoconstriction that results in coldness, pain, and pallor of fingertips or toes; therefore, the client should keep warm to prevent vasoconstriction of the extremities.

The client, who had been prescribed sildenafil 2 weeks ago for erectile dysfunction, calls the clinic to report that nothing happens, despite taking sildenafil orally and waiting for his erection to develop. Which fact should the nurse consider before responding to the client? 1. In clinical trials, the sildenafil was effective only 20% of the time 2. Sildenafil is not effective if taken orally and should be taken rectally 3. In the absence of sexual stimuli, sildenafil will not cause an erection 4. Sildenafil is ineffective if taken with foods high in saturated fats

3. Sildenafil (Viagra) enhances the normal erectile response to sexual stimuli by promoting relaxation of arterial and trabecular smooth muscle. The resultant arterial dilation causes engorgement of sinusoidal spaces in the corpus cavernosum. In the absence of sexual stimuli, however, nothing will happen.

The client has BPH. The client is questioning the need for the prescribed tamsulosin. Which explanation by the nurse about tamsulosin is correct? 1. Reduces the prostate gland's size to relieve obstructive symptoms 2. Decreases the inflammation caused by the prostatic enlargement 3. Relaxes the smooth muscle in the prostate to facilitate urine flow 4. Decreases urine specific gravity, this decreasing the risk of UTI

3. Tamsulosin (Flomax) is an alpha-adrenergic receptor blocker, which relaxed the smooth muscle in the prostate. This ultimately facilitates urinary flow through the urethra

The nurse is reviewing the new nurse's discharge instructions for the client following outpatient cataract surgery. Which statement should the experienced nurse remove from the discharge instructions? 1. Avoid lifting, pushing, or pulling objects higher than 15 lbs 2. clean the eye with a clean tissue; wipe from inner to outer eye 3. cough and deep breath every 2-3 hours while you are awake 4. avoid lying on the side of the affected eye of the night after surgery

3. The client should not cough because this will increase the pressure within the eye and risk for complications

The nurse has just received the a.m. shift report. Which client would the nurse assess first? 1. The client with a venous stasis ulcer who is complaining of pain. 2. The client with varicose veins who has dull, aching muscle cramps. 3. The client with arterial occlusive disease who cannot move the foot. 4. The client with deep vein thrombosis who has a positive Homans' sign.

3. The inability to move the foot means that a severe neurovascular compromise has occurred, and the nurse should assess this client first.

The client recently diagnosed with glaucoma tells the nurse " I am having difficulty remembering to insert my eye drops. I don't have any pain or vision changes when I forget them." Which statement is the best response? 1. You should be diligent in inserting the eye drops; if not, then you will need surgery 2. you wouldn't have pain, but untreated glaucoma will eventually lead to vision loss 3. tell me about your day; planning a time with a daily activity often helps as a reminder 4. i know this must be hard for you; not everyone is able to remember everything

3. This is a broad opening statement and can assist the client to problem-solve an activity that could serve as a reminder to take the eye drops

The nurse is teaching a class on venous insufficiency. The nurse would identify which condition as the most serious complication of chronic venous insufficiency? 1. Arterial thrombosis. 2. Deep vein thrombosis. 3. Venous ulcerations. 4. Varicose veins.

3. Venous ulcerations are the most serious complication of chronic venous insufficiency. It is very difficult for these ulcerations to heal, and often clients must be seen in wound care clinics for treatment.

Which instruction should the nurse include when providing discharge instructions to a client diagnosed with peripheral arterial disease? 1.Encourage the client to use a heating pad on the lower extremities. 2.Demonstrate to the client the correct way to apply elastic support hose. 3.Instruct the client to walk daily for at least 30 minutes. 4.Tell the client to check both feet for red areas at least once a week.

3. Walking promotes the development of collateral circulation to ischemic tissue and slows the process of atherosclerosis.

the client is one day post-surgical repair of a retinal detachment. Which assessment finding is the most important for the nurse to report immediately to the HCP because it indicates a significant complication? 1. surgical eye pain rated 2/10 2. increased tearing from the surgical eye 3. blurred vision and floaters in the surgical eye 4. dryness and injection of the sclera in the surgical eye

3. blurred vision and floaters in the surgical eye may occur with redetachment of the retina and would warrant additional surgery

The client recently diagnosed with AMD in both eyes returns to the clinic for a follow-up appt. Which assessment will the nurse be certain to include during the visit? 1. stools for occult blood 2. blood glucose levels 3. screening for depression 4. screening for hearing loss

3. the nurse should assess for depression because loss of vision can affect functional ability, mood, and quality of life. Depression frequently develops within a few months after AMD is diagnosed in both eyes

Your patient has severe peripheral arterial disease. When the lower extremities are elevated you would expect them to appear _______________ and, when they are in the dependent position you would expect them to appear _________________. Fill in the blanks: 1. cyanotic; rubor 2. rubor; pallor 3. cyanotic, pallor 4. pallor; rubor

4. pallor; rubor In severe PAD, if the lower extremities are elevated they will turn pale (pallor). However, if they are in the dependent position (dangling) they will appear rubor (red and warm...this occurs due to inflammation of the vessels).

The client's eyes, tested with the use of the snellen chart, show 20/40 vision in the right eye and 20/30 in the left eye. How should the nurse interpret these results? 1. elevated intraocular pressure in both eyes 2. needs testing for glaucoma with tonometer 3. the left eye is closer to normal vision than the right eye 4. the client has errors of refraction indicating astigmatism

3. the snellen chart is used to test distance vision. The numbers recorded indicate that at 20 feet ( the first number) the client is able to read what a person with normal vision can read at another distance. The left eyes vision recorded as 20/30 has better vision than the right eye with vision recorded as 20/40

A nurse is teaching a client who has a new diagnosis of severe peripheral arterial disease. Which should the nurse include? a. Wear tightly fitting insulated socks with shoes when going outside b. elevate both legs above heart when resting c. apply a heating pad to both legs for comfort d. place both legs in dependent position while sleeping

D. Such as hanging off of the bed. This can alleviate swelling and discomfort of the legs

Which discharge instruction should the nurse discuss with the client to prevent recurrent episodes of cellulitis? 1.Soak your feet daily in Epsom salts for 20 minutes. 2.Wear thick white socks when working in the yard. 3.Use a mosquito repellent when going outside. 4.Inspect the feet between the toes for cracks in the skin.

4. The key to preventing cellulitis is identifying the sites of bacterial entry. The most commonly overlooked areas are the cracks and fissures that occur between the toes.

The nurse telephones the client 1 day post cataract surgery. Which client statement necessitates an evaluation by an ophthalmologist? 1. My eye starts hurting about 4 hours after a pain pill 2. the redness in my eye is a little less red than yesterday 3. there has never been any swelling around my eye 4. I can't see as well as I could yesterday after my surgery

4. a significant reduction in vision may indicate a complication such as infection or retinal detachment

The client diagnosed with acute deep vein thrombosis is receiving a continuous heparin drip, an intravenous anticoagulant. The healthcare provider orders warfarin (Coumadin), an oral anticoagulant. Which action should the nurse take? 1.Discontinue the heparin drip prior to initiating the Coumadin. 2.Check the client's INR prior to beginning Coumadin. 3.Clarify the order with the health-care provider as soon as possible. 4.Administer the Coumadin along with the heparin drip as ordered.

4..It will require several days for the Coumadin to reach therapeutic levels; the client will continue receiving the heparin drip until the therapeutic range can be attained.

A nurse is assessing a client for HIV. Which are risk factors? Select all that apply. a. perinatal exposure b. pregnancy c. monogamous sex partner d. older woman adult e. occupational exposure

A, D, E

· Which woman is at highest risk for cervical cancer? o A 25-year-old woman who smokes and has multiple sexual partners o A 40-year-old woman who had her first child at age 19 years and has been exposed to HPV o An 18-year-old woman who has just had her first sexual encounter o An obese 30-year-old woman who has nutritional deficiencies and a family history of cervical cancer

Answer: An obese 30-year-old woman who has nutritional deficiencies and a family history of cervical cancer · Rationale: Risk factors for cervical cancer include but are not limited to smoking, multiple sexual partners, first child at an early age, exposure to HPV, first sexual encounter at an early age, obesity, nutritional deficiencies, and a family history of cervical cancer. All patients have risk factors, but the 40-year-old woman has the most (three: obesity, nutritional deficiencies, and family history)

· Which instruction would be appropriate to include in discharge instructions after cataract surgery with a lens implant? o Sleep on the side of the affected eye the night after surgery o Resume normal activities on postoperative day 2 o Avoid bending or stooping for an extended period o Attempt to hold in sneeze if it occurs

Answer: Avoid bending or stooping for an extended period

A nurse is teaching a client who has a new prescription for ferrous sulfate. Which should the nurse include in the teaching? a. Stools will be dark red b. take with a glass of milk if GI distress occurs c. foods high in Vitamin C will promote absorption d. take for 14 days

C. Vitamin C helps absorb iron

The nurse is teaching the client who is a strict vegetarian how to decrease the risk of developing megaloblastic anemia. Which information should the nurse provide? a. undergo an annual Schilling test b. increase intake of foods high in iron c. supplement diet with vitamin B12 d. have a hgb level drawn monthly

C. the client consuming a vegetarian diet can prevent megaloblastic anemia from a vitamin B12 deficiency with oral vitamin supplements or fortified soy milk

a nurse is providing teaching for a client who has stage 3 HIV disease. Which of the following statements by the client should indicate to the nurse an understanding of the teaching? a. I will wear gloves while changing the kitty litter b. I will rinse raw fruits with water before eating them c. I will wear a mask when around family members who are ill d. I will cook vegetables before eating them

D, no raw fruits/veggies

A nurse is providing teaching for a client who has stage 2 HIV and is having difficulty maintaining a normal weight. Which of the following statements by the client should indicate to the nurse an understanding of the teaching? a. I will choose to diet high in fat to help gain weight b. I will be sure to eat 3 large meals a day c. I will drink up to 1 liter of fluid a day d. I will add high-protein foods to my diet

D. high protein and high calorie is the best way to gain weight and maintain health

is the following true or false. When having a reaction to a blood transfusion, patients will present with the same symptoms and assessment changes.

False, there are a variety of complications and reactions that can occur from a blood transfusion. Depending on the type will determine the presenting symptoms

· The nurse is caring for a patient in the clinic setting who complains of vaginal discharge that is thick with a white, cottage cheese-like appearance. The patient states that she has pruritus and irritation. The symptoms seem to be more severe just before menstruation. What should the nurse expect to be included in the plan of care for this patient? o Clindamycin (Cleocin) o Fluconazole (Diflucan) o Metronidazole (Flagyl) o Tinidazole (Tindamax)

Fluconazole (Diflucan). This patient presents with symptoms of a candidiasis infection which should be treated with an antifungal agent such as Diflucan. The other three medications are anti-infectives used to treat bacterial vaginosis and trichomoniasis

The nurse teaches a coworker about the treatment for hemophilia. The nurse instructs that the treatment will likely include periodic self-administration of which component? a. platelets b. whole blood c. factor concentrates d. fresh frozen plasma

c. A person with hemophilia A id deficient in factor VIII; hemophilia B, factor IX; Recombinant forms of the factors are available for the client to self-administer IV at home