med surg prep 29: Management of Patients with Nonmalignant Hematologic Disorders
A client admitted to the hospital with abdominal pain, anemia, and bloody stools reports feeling weak and dizzy. The client has rectal pressure and needs to urinate and move their bowels. The nurse should help them: You Selected: to the bathroom. Correct response: onto the bedpan. Explanation: A client who's dizzy and anemic is at risk for injury because of his weakened state. Assisting him with the bedpan would best meet his needs at this time without risking his safety. The client may fall if walking to the bathroom, left alone to urinate, or trying to stand up.
A client admitted to the hospital with abdominal pain, anemia, and bloody stools reports feeling weak and dizzy. The client has rectal pressure and needs to urinate and move their bowels. The nurse should help them: You Selected: to the bathroom. Correct response: onto the bedpan. Explanation: A client who's dizzy and anemic is at risk for injury because of his weakened state. Assisting him with the bedpan would best meet his needs at this time without risking his safety. The client may fall if walking to the bathroom, left alone to urinate, or trying to stand up.
A client has a history of sickle cell anemia with several sickle cell crises over the past 10 years. What blood component results in sickle cell anemia? You Selected: hemoglobin S Correct response: hemoglobin S Explanation: Hemoglobin A (HbA) normally replaces fetal hemoglobin (HbF) about 6 months after birth. In people with sickle cell anemia, however, an abnormal form of hemoglobin, hemoglobin S (HbS), replaces HbF. HbS causes RBCs to assume a sickled shape under hypoxic conditions.
A client has a history of sickle cell anemia with several sickle cell crises over the past 10 years. What blood component results in sickle cell anemia? You Selected: hemoglobin S Correct response: hemoglobin S Explanation: Hemoglobin A (HbA) normally replaces fetal hemoglobin (HbF) about 6 months after birth. In people with sickle cell anemia, however, an abnormal form of hemoglobin, hemoglobin S (HbS), replaces HbF. HbS causes RBCs to assume a sickled shape under hypoxic conditions.
A client is treated for anemia. What is the nurse's best understanding about the correlation between anemia and the client's iron stores? You Selected: There is a strong correlation between iron stores and hemoglobin levels. Correct response: There is a strong correlation between iron stores and hemoglobin levels. Explanation: A strong correlation exists between laboratory values that measure iron stores and hemoglobin levels. After iron stores are depleted (as reflected by low serum ferritin levels), the hemoglobin level falls.
A client is treated for anemia. What is the nurse's best understanding about the correlation between anemia and the client's iron stores? You Selected: There is a strong correlation between iron stores and hemoglobin levels. Correct response: There is a strong correlation between iron stores and hemoglobin levels. Explanation: A strong correlation exists between laboratory values that measure iron stores and hemoglobin levels. After iron stores are depleted (as reflected by low serum ferritin levels), the hemoglobin level falls.
A client with sickle cell anemia has a You Selected: low hematocrit. Correct response: low hematocrit. Explanation: A client with sickle cell anemia has a low hematocrit and sickled cells on the smear. A client with sickle cell trait usually has a normal hemoglobin level, a normal hematocrit, and a normal blood smear.
A client with sickle cell anemia has a You Selected: low hematocrit. Correct response: low hematocrit. Explanation: A client with sickle cell anemia has a low hematocrit and sickled cells on the smear. A client with sickle cell trait usually has a normal hemoglobin level, a normal hematocrit, and a normal blood smear.
A few minutes after beginning a blood transfusion, a nurse notes that a client has chills, dyspnea, and urticaria. The nurse reports this to the health care provider immediately because the client probably is experiencing which problem? You Selected: A hemolytic allergic reaction caused by an antigen reaction Correct response: A hemolytic allergic reaction caused by an antigen reaction Explanation: Hemolytic allergic reactions are fairly common and may cause chills, fever, urticaria, tachycardia, dyspnea, chest pain, hypotension, and other signs of anaphylaxis a few minutes after blood transfusion begins. Although rare, a hemolytic reaction to mismatched blood can occur, triggering a more severe reaction and, possibly, leading to disseminated intravascular coagulation. A hemolytic reaction to Rh-incompatible blood is less severe and occurs several days to 2 weeks after the transfusion. Bacterial contamination of donor blood causes a high fever, nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, abdominal cramps and, possibly, shock.
A few minutes after beginning a blood transfusion, a nurse notes that a client has chills, dyspnea, and urticaria. The nurse reports this to the health care provider immediately because the client probably is experiencing which problem? You Selected: A hemolytic allergic reaction caused by an antigen reaction Correct response: A hemolytic allergic reaction caused by an antigen reaction Explanation: Hemolytic allergic reactions are fairly common and may cause chills, fever, urticaria, tachycardia, dyspnea, chest pain, hypotension, and other signs of anaphylaxis a few minutes after blood transfusion begins. Although rare, a hemolytic reaction to mismatched blood can occur, triggering a more severe reaction and, possibly, leading to disseminated intravascular coagulation. A hemolytic reaction to Rh-incompatible blood is less severe and occurs several days to 2 weeks after the transfusion. Bacterial contamination of donor blood causes a high fever, nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, abdominal cramps and, possibly, shock.
The nurse is performing an assessment for a client with anemia admitted to the hospital to have blood transfusions administered. Why would the nurse need to include a nutritional assessment for this patient? You Selected: It may indicate deficiencies in essential nutrients. Correct response: It may indicate deficiencies in essential nutrients. Explanation: A nutritional assessment is important, because it may indicate deficiencies in essential nutrients such as iron, vitamin B12, and folate.
The nurse is performing an assessment for a client with anemia admitted to the hospital to have blood transfusions administered. Why would the nurse need to include a nutritional assessment for this patient? You Selected: It may indicate deficiencies in essential nutrients. Correct response: It may indicate deficiencies in essential nutrients. Explanation: A nutritional assessment is important, because it may indicate deficiencies in essential nutrients such as iron, vitamin B12, and folate.
While assessing a client, the nurse will recognize what as the most obvious sign of anemia? You Selected: Pallor Correct response: Pallor Explanation: On physical examination, pallor is the most common and obvious sign of anemia. Other findings may include tachycardia and flow murmurs. Patients with hemolytic anemia may exhibit jaundice and splenomegaly.
While assessing a client, the nurse will recognize what as the most obvious sign of anemia? You Selected: Pallor Correct response: Pallor Explanation: On physical examination, pallor is the most common and obvious sign of anemia. Other findings may include tachycardia and flow murmurs. Patients with hemolytic anemia may exhibit jaundice and splenomegaly.
A client with severe anemia reports symptoms of tachycardia, palpitations, exertional dyspnea, cool extremities, and dizziness with ambulation. Laboratory test results reveal low hemoglobin and hematocrit levels. Based on the assessment data, which nursing diagnoses is most appropriate for this client? You Selected: Ineffective tissue perfusion related to inadequate hemoglobin and hematocrit Correct response: Ineffective tissue perfusion related to inadequate hemoglobin and hematocrit Explanation: The symptoms indicate impaired tissue perfusion due to a decrease in the oxygen-carrying capacity of the blood. Cardiac status should be carefully assessed. When the hemoglobin level is low, the heart attempts to compensate by pumping faster and harder in an effort to deliver more blood to hypoxic tissue. This increased cardiac workload can result in such symptoms as tachycardia, palpitations, dyspnea, dizziness, orthopnea, and exertional dyspnea. Heart failure may eventually develop, as evidenced by an enlarged heart (cardiomegaly) and liver (hepatomegaly) and by peripheral edema.
A client with severe anemia reports symptoms of tachycardia, palpitations, exertional dyspnea, cool extremities, and dizziness with ambulation. Laboratory test results reveal low hemoglobin and hematocrit levels. Based on the assessment data, which nursing diagnoses is most appropriate for this client? You Selected: Ineffective tissue perfusion related to inadequate hemoglobin and hematocrit Correct response: Ineffective tissue perfusion related to inadequate hemoglobin and hematocrit Explanation: The symptoms indicate impaired tissue perfusion due to a decrease in the oxygen-carrying capacity of the blood. Cardiac status should be carefully assessed. When the hemoglobin level is low, the heart attempts to compensate by pumping faster and harder in an effort to deliver more blood to hypoxic tissue. This increased cardiac workload can result in such symptoms as tachycardia, palpitations, dyspnea, dizziness, orthopnea, and exertional dyspnea. Heart failure may eventually develop, as evidenced by an enlarged heart (cardiomegaly) and liver (hepatomegaly) and by peripheral edema.
A clinical nurse specialist (CNS) is orienting a new graduate registered nurse to an oncology unit where blood product transfusions are frequently administered. In discussing ABO compatibility, the CNS presents several hypothetical scenarios. The new graduate knows that the greatest likelihood of an acute hemolytic reaction would occur when giving: You Selected: O-positive blood to an A-positive client. Correct response: A-positive blood to an A-negative client. Explanation: An acute hemolytic reaction occurs when there is an ABO or Rh incompatibility. For example, giving A blood to a B client would cause a hemolytic reaction. Likewise, giving Rh-positive blood to an Rh-negative client would cause a hemolytic reaction. It's safe to give Rh-negative blood to an Rh-positive client if there is a blood type compatibility. O-negative blood is the universal donor and can be given to all other blood types. AB clients can receive either A or B blood as long as there isn't an Rh incompatibility.
A clinical nurse specialist (CNS) is orienting a new graduate registered nurse to an oncology unit where blood product transfusions are frequently administered. In discussing ABO compatibility, the CNS presents several hypothetical scenarios. The new graduate knows that the greatest likelihood of an acute hemolytic reaction would occur when giving: You Selected: O-positive blood to an A-positive client. Correct response: A-positive blood to an A-negative client. Explanation: An acute hemolytic reaction occurs when there is an ABO or Rh incompatibility. For example, giving A blood to a B client would cause a hemolytic reaction. Likewise, giving Rh-positive blood to an Rh-negative client would cause a hemolytic reaction. It's safe to give Rh-negative blood to an Rh-positive client if there is a blood type compatibility. O-negative blood is the universal donor and can be given to all other blood types. AB clients can receive either A or B blood as long as there isn't an Rh incompatibility.
A young client is diagnosed with a mild form of hemophilia and is experiencing bleeding in the joints with pain. In preparing the client for discharge, what instructions should the nurse provide? You Selected: Wear a medical identification bracelet. Correct response: Wear a medical identification bracelet. Explanation: Clients with hemophilia should wear a medical identification bracelet about having this disease. Ibuprofen interferes with platelet aggregation and may increase the client's bleeding. A warm bath may lessen pain but increase bleeding. Genetic testing and counseling are not necessary for male clients, because females are the carriers of the genetic material for hemophilia.
A young client is diagnosed with a mild form of hemophilia and is experiencing bleeding in the joints with pain. In preparing the client for discharge, what instructions should the nurse provide? You Selected: Wear a medical identification bracelet. Correct response: Wear a medical identification bracelet. Explanation: Clients with hemophilia should wear a medical identification bracelet about having this disease. Ibuprofen interferes with platelet aggregation and may increase the client's bleeding. A warm bath may lessen pain but increase bleeding. Genetic testing and counseling are not necessary for male clients, because females are the carriers of the genetic material for hemophilia.
While monitoring a client for the development of disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC), the nurse should take note of which assessment parameters? You Selected: Platelet count, prothrombin time, and partial thromboplastin time Correct response: Platelet count, prothrombin time, and partial thromboplastin time Explanation: The diagnosis of DIC is based on the results of laboratory studies of prothrombin time, platelet count, thrombin time, partial thromboplastin time, and fibrinogen level as well as client history and other assessment factors. Blood glucose levels, WBC count, calcium levels, and potassium levels aren't used to confirm a diagnosis of DIC.
While monitoring a client for the development of disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC), the nurse should take note of which assessment parameters? You Selected: Platelet count, prothrombin time, and partial thromboplastin time Correct response: Platelet count, prothrombin time, and partial thromboplastin time Explanation: The diagnosis of DIC is based on the results of laboratory studies of prothrombin time, platelet count, thrombin time, partial thromboplastin time, and fibrinogen level as well as client history and other assessment factors. Blood glucose levels, WBC count, calcium levels, and potassium levels aren't used to confirm a diagnosis of DIC.
A patient with End Stage Kidney Disease is taking recombinant erythropoietin for the treatment of anemia. What laboratory study does the nurse understand will have to be assessed at least monthly related to this medication? You Selected: Hemoglobin level Correct response: Hemoglobin level Explanation: When using recombinant erythropoietin, the hemoglobin must be checked at least monthly (more frequently until a maintenance dose is established) and the dose titrated to ensure the hemoglobin level does not exceed 12 g/dL.
A patient with End Stage Kidney Disease is taking recombinant erythropoietin for the treatment of anemia. What laboratory study does the nurse understand will have to be assessed at least monthly related to this medication? You Selected: Hemoglobin level Correct response: Hemoglobin level Explanation: When using recombinant erythropoietin, the hemoglobin must be checked at least monthly (more frequently until a maintenance dose is established) and the dose titrated to ensure the hemoglobin level does not exceed 12 g/dL.
A patient with end-stage kidney disease (ESKD) has developed anemia. What laboratory finding does the nurse understand to be significant in this stage of anemia? You Selected: Creatinine level of 6 mg/100 mL Correct response: Creatinine level of 6 mg/100 mL Explanation: The degree of anemia in patients with end-stage renal disease varies greatly; however, in general, patients do not become significantly anemic until the serum creatinine level exceeds 3 mg/100 mL.
A patient with end-stage kidney disease (ESKD) has developed anemia. What laboratory finding does the nurse understand to be significant in this stage of anemia? You Selected: Creatinine level of 6 mg/100 mL Correct response: Creatinine level of 6 mg/100 mL Explanation: The degree of anemia in patients with end-stage renal disease varies greatly; however, in general, patients do not become significantly anemic until the serum creatinine level exceeds 3 mg/100 mL.
Parents arrive to the clinic with their young child and inform the nurse the child has just been diagnosed with sickle cell disease. The parents ask the nurse how this could have happened and which one of them is the carrier. What is the best response by the nurse? You Selected: "The child must inherit two defective genes, one from each parent." Correct response: "The child must inherit two defective genes, one from each parent." Explanation: Sickle cell disease is a hereditary disorder. To manifest this disorder, a person must inherit two defective genes, one from each parent, in which case all the hemoglobin is inherently abnormal. If the person inherits only one gene, the person carries the sickle cell trait. The hemoglobin of those who have sickle cell trait is about 40% affected. The other distractors are incorrect due to these factors.
Parents arrive to the clinic with their young child and inform the nurse the child has just been diagnosed with sickle cell disease. The parents ask the nurse how this could have happened and which one of them is the carrier. What is the best response by the nurse? You Selected: "The child must inherit two defective genes, one from each parent." Correct response: "The child must inherit two defective genes, one from each parent." Explanation: Sickle cell disease is a hereditary disorder. To manifest this disorder, a person must inherit two defective genes, one from each parent, in which case all the hemoglobin is inherently abnormal. If the person inherits only one gene, the person carries the sickle cell trait. The hemoglobin of those who have sickle cell trait is about 40% affected. The other distractors are incorrect due to these factors.
A client at the clinic has just been diagnosed with iron deficiency anemia. What would you recommend the client consume to promote the absorption of iron? You Selected: Rich sources of vitamin C Correct response: Rich sources of vitamin C Explanation: Sources of vitamin C such as citrus fruits and juices, strawberries, green peppers, and tomatoes enhance the absorption of nonheme iron. To maximize nonheme iron absorption, the client should consume a rich source of vitamin C at every meal. Meat, egg yolks, oysters, and shellfish are the sources of heme iron whose absorption is influenced by body need. Vitamin E and sources of vitamin B12 do not promote the absorption of iron.
A client at the clinic has just been diagnosed with iron deficiency anemia. What would you recommend the client consume to promote the absorption of iron? You Selected: Rich sources of vitamin C Correct response: Rich sources of vitamin C Explanation: Sources of vitamin C such as citrus fruits and juices, strawberries, green peppers, and tomatoes enhance the absorption of nonheme iron. To maximize nonheme iron absorption, the client should consume a rich source of vitamin C at every meal. Meat, egg yolks, oysters, and shellfish are the sources of heme iron whose absorption is influenced by body need. Vitamin E and sources of vitamin B12 do not promote the absorption of iron.
A client comes to the walk-in clinic complaining of weakness and fatigue. While assessing this client, the nurse finds evidence of petechiae and ecchymoses. The nurse notes that the spleen appears enlarged. What would the nurse suspect is wrong with this client? You Selected: Aplastic anemia Correct response: Aplastic anemia Explanation: Clients with a plastic anemia experience all the typical characteristics of anemia (weakness and fatigue). In addition, they have frequent opportunistic infections plus coagulation abnormalities that are manifested by unusual bleeding, small skin hemorrhages called petechiae, and ecchymoses (bruises). The spleen becomes enlarged with an accumulation of the client's blood cells destroyed by lymphocytes that failed to recognize them as normal cells, or with an accumulation of dead transfused blood cells. The blood cell count shows insufficient numbers of blood cells. A bone marrow aspiration confirms that the production of stem cells is suppressed. This scenario does not describe a client with pernicious anemia, iron-deficiency anemia, or agranulocytosis.
A client comes to the walk-in clinic complaining of weakness and fatigue. While assessing this client, the nurse finds evidence of petechiae and ecchymoses. The nurse notes that the spleen appears enlarged. What would the nurse suspect is wrong with this client? You Selected: Aplastic anemia Correct response: Aplastic anemia Explanation: Clients with a plastic anemia experience all the typical characteristics of anemia (weakness and fatigue). In addition, they have frequent opportunistic infections plus coagulation abnormalities that are manifested by unusual bleeding, small skin hemorrhages called petechiae, and ecchymoses (bruises). The spleen becomes enlarged with an accumulation of the client's blood cells destroyed by lymphocytes that failed to recognize them as normal cells, or with an accumulation of dead transfused blood cells. The blood cell count shows insufficient numbers of blood cells. A bone marrow aspiration confirms that the production of stem cells is suppressed. This scenario does not describe a client with pernicious anemia, iron-deficiency anemia, or agranulocytosis.
A client in end-stage renal disease is prescribed epoetin alfa and oral iron supplements. Before administering the next dose of epoetin alfa and oral iron supplement, what is the priority action taken by the nurse? You Selected: Assesses the hemoglobin level Correct response: Assesses the hemoglobin level Explanation: Erythropoietin (epoetin alfa [Epogen]) with oral iron supplements can raise hematocrit levels in the client with end-stage renal disease. The nurse should check the hemoglobin prior to administration of erythropoietin, because too high a hemoglobin level can put the client at risk for heart failure, myocardial infarction, and cerebrovascular accident. Erythropoietin may be administered during dialysis treatments. The BUN will be elevated in the client with end-stage renal disease.
A client in end-stage renal disease is prescribed epoetin alfa and oral iron supplements. Before administering the next dose of epoetin alfa and oral iron supplement, what is the priority action taken by the nurse? You Selected: Assesses the hemoglobin level Correct response: Assesses the hemoglobin level Explanation: Erythropoietin (epoetin alfa [Epogen]) with oral iron supplements can raise hematocrit levels in the client with end-stage renal disease. The nurse should check the hemoglobin prior to administration of erythropoietin, because too high a hemoglobin level can put the client at risk for heart failure, myocardial infarction, and cerebrovascular accident. Erythropoietin may be administered during dialysis treatments. The BUN will be elevated in the client with end-stage renal disease.
A client is found to have a low hemoglobin and hematocrit when laboratory work was performed. What does the nurse understand the anemia may have resulted from? Select all that apply. Infection Blood loss Abnormal erythrocyte production Destruction of normally formed red blood cells Inadequate formed white blood cells Correct response: Incorrect response: Your selection: Explanation: Most anemias result from (1) blood loss, (2) inadequate or abnormal erythrocyte production, or (3) destruction of normally formed red blood cells. The most common types include hypovolemic anemia, iron-deficiency anemia, pernicious anemia, folic acid deficiency anemia, sickle cell anemia, and hemolytic anemias. Although each form of anemia has unique manifestations, all share a common core of symptoms. Anemia does not result from infection or inadequate formed white blood cells.
A client is found to have a low hemoglobin and hematocrit when laboratory work was performed. What does the nurse understand the anemia may have resulted from? Select all that apply. Infection Blood loss Abnormal erythrocyte production Destruction of normally formed red blood cells Inadequate formed white blood cells Correct response: Incorrect response: Your selection: Explanation: Most anemias result from (1) blood loss, (2) inadequate or abnormal erythrocyte production, or (3) destruction of normally formed red blood cells. The most common types include hypovolemic anemia, iron-deficiency anemia, pernicious anemia, folic acid deficiency anemia, sickle cell anemia, and hemolytic anemias. Although each form of anemia has unique manifestations, all share a common core of symptoms. Anemia does not result from infection or inadequate formed white blood cells.
A client is prescribed 325 mg/day of oral ferrous sulfate. What does the nurse include in client teaching? You Selected: Take 1 hour before breakfast Correct response: Take 1 hour before breakfast Explanation: Instructions the nurse will provide for the client taking oral ferrous sulfate is to administer the medication on an empty stomach. Instructions also include that there is decreased absorption of iron with food, particularly dairy products. The client is to increase vitamin C intake (fruits, juices, tomatoes, broccoli), which will enhance iron absorption. The client is to also increase foods high in fiber to decrease risk of constipation.
A client is prescribed 325 mg/day of oral ferrous sulfate. What does the nurse include in client teaching? You Selected: Take 1 hour before breakfast Correct response: Take 1 hour before breakfast Explanation: Instructions the nurse will provide for the client taking oral ferrous sulfate is to administer the medication on an empty stomach. Instructions also include that there is decreased absorption of iron with food, particularly dairy products. The client is to increase vitamin C intake (fruits, juices, tomatoes, broccoli), which will enhance iron absorption. The client is to also increase foods high in fiber to decrease risk of constipation.
A client is receiving chemotherapy for cancer. The nurse reviews the client's laboratory report and notes that he has thrombocytopenia. To which nursing diagnosis should the nurse give the highest priority? You Selected: Impaired tissue integrity Correct response: Ineffective tissue perfusion: Cerebral, cardiopulmonary, GI Explanation: These are all appropriate nursing diagnoses for the client with thrombocytopenia. However, the risk of cerebral and GI hemorrhage and hypotension pose the greatest risk to the physiological integrity of the client.
A client is receiving chemotherapy for cancer. The nurse reviews the client's laboratory report and notes that he has thrombocytopenia. To which nursing diagnosis should the nurse give the highest priority? You Selected: Impaired tissue integrity Correct response: Ineffective tissue perfusion: Cerebral, cardiopulmonary, GI Explanation: These are all appropriate nursing diagnoses for the client with thrombocytopenia. However, the risk of cerebral and GI hemorrhage and hypotension pose the greatest risk to the physiological integrity of the client.
A client is seen in the emergency department with severe pain related to a sickle cell crisis. What does the nurse understand is occurring with this client? You Selected: Vascular occlusion in small vessels decreasing blood and oxygen to the tissues. Correct response: Vascular occlusion in small vessels decreasing blood and oxygen to the tissues. Explanation: The person with sickle cell disease repeatedly suffers from two major problems: (1) episodes of sickle cell crisis from vascular occlusion, which develops rapidly under hypoxic conditions, and (2) chronic hemolytic anemia. During a sickle cell crisis, the sickle-shaped cells lodge in small blood vessels, where they block the flow of blood and oxygen to the affected tissue. The vascular occlusion induces severe pain in the ischemic tissue. The client may have increased tolerance for pain due to the chronic nature of the illness. Bone marrow increases the erythrocyte production. Underhydration increases the client's risk of developing a vaso-occlusive crisis.
A client is seen in the emergency department with severe pain related to a sickle cell crisis. What does the nurse understand is occurring with this client? You Selected: Vascular occlusion in small vessels decreasing blood and oxygen to the tissues. Correct response: Vascular occlusion in small vessels decreasing blood and oxygen to the tissues. Explanation: The person with sickle cell disease repeatedly suffers from two major problems: (1) episodes of sickle cell crisis from vascular occlusion, which develops rapidly under hypoxic conditions, and (2) chronic hemolytic anemia. During a sickle cell crisis, the sickle-shaped cells lodge in small blood vessels, where they block the flow of blood and oxygen to the affected tissue. The vascular occlusion induces severe pain in the ischemic tissue. The client may have increased tolerance for pain due to the chronic nature of the illness. Bone marrow increases the erythrocyte production. Underhydration increases the client's risk of developing a vaso-occlusive crisis.
A client reports feeling tired, cold, and short of breath at times. Assessment reveals tachycardia and reduced energy. What would the nurse expect the physician to order? You Selected: ECG Correct response: CBC Explanation: Most clients with iron-deficiency anemia have reduced energy, feel cold all the time, and experience fatigue and dyspnea with minor physical exertion. The heart rate usually is rapid even at rest. The CBC and hemoglobin, hematocrit, and serum iron levels are decreased. A CBC would be ordered.
A client reports feeling tired, cold, and short of breath at times. Assessment reveals tachycardia and reduced energy. What would the nurse expect the physician to order? You Selected: ECG Correct response: CBC Explanation: Most clients with iron-deficiency anemia have reduced energy, feel cold all the time, and experience fatigue and dyspnea with minor physical exertion. The heart rate usually is rapid even at rest. The CBC and hemoglobin, hematocrit, and serum iron levels are decreased. A CBC would be ordered.
A client with a diagnosis of pernicious anemia comes to the clinic and reports numbness and tingling in the arms and legs. What do these symptoms indicate? You Selected: Neurologic involvement Correct response: Neurologic involvement Explanation: In clients with pernicious anemia, numbness and tingling in the arms and legs, and ataxia are the most common signs of neurologic involvement. Some affected clients lose vibratory and position senses. Jaundice, irritability, confusion, and depression are present when the disease is severe. Insufficient intake of dietary nutrients is not indicated by these symptoms.
A client with a diagnosis of pernicious anemia comes to the clinic and reports numbness and tingling in the arms and legs. What do these symptoms indicate? You Selected: Neurologic involvement Correct response: Neurologic involvement Explanation: In clients with pernicious anemia, numbness and tingling in the arms and legs, and ataxia are the most common signs of neurologic involvement. Some affected clients lose vibratory and position senses. Jaundice, irritability, confusion, and depression are present when the disease is severe. Insufficient intake of dietary nutrients is not indicated by these symptoms.
A client with anemia is prescribed an oral iron supplement. Which statement indicates that teaching about this supplement has been effective? You Selected: "I will take it in the morning with orange juice." Correct response: "I will take it in the morning with orange juice." Explanation: The client should be instructed to take the iron supplements on an empty stomach with a source of vitamin C such as orange juice. Iron supplements will turn the stool dark or black; this does not indicate that the supplement should be stopped. The supplement should be taken 1 hour before meals or 2 hours after a meal and not with a meal. The client should be instructed to increase the intake of high-fiber foods to reduce the risk of constipation.
A client with anemia is prescribed an oral iron supplement. Which statement indicates that teaching about this supplement has been effective? You Selected: "I will take it in the morning with orange juice." Correct response: "I will take it in the morning with orange juice." Explanation: The client should be instructed to take the iron supplements on an empty stomach with a source of vitamin C such as orange juice. Iron supplements will turn the stool dark or black; this does not indicate that the supplement should be stopped. The supplement should be taken 1 hour before meals or 2 hours after a meal and not with a meal. The client should be instructed to increase the intake of high-fiber foods to reduce the risk of constipation.
A client with megaloblastic anemia reports mouth and tongue soreness. What instruction will the nurse give the client regarding eating while managing the client's symptoms? You Selected: "Eat small amounts of bland, soft foods frequently." Correct response: "Eat small amounts of bland, soft foods frequently." Explanation: Because the client with megaloblastic anemia often reports mouth and tongue soreness, the nurse should instruct the client to eat small amounts of bland, soft foods frequently. The other answer choices do not factor in the client's mouth soreness or need for nutrition.
A client with megaloblastic anemia reports mouth and tongue soreness. What instruction will the nurse give the client regarding eating while managing the client's symptoms? You Selected: "Eat small amounts of bland, soft foods frequently." Correct response: "Eat small amounts of bland, soft foods frequently." Explanation: Because the client with megaloblastic anemia often reports mouth and tongue soreness, the nurse should instruct the client to eat small amounts of bland, soft foods frequently. The other answer choices do not factor in the client's mouth soreness or need for nutrition.
A client with multiple myeloma is complaining of severe pain when the nurse comes in to give a bath and change position. What is the priority intervention by the nurse? You Selected: Obtain the pain medication and delay the bath and position change until the medication reaches its peak. Correct response: Obtain the pain medication and delay the bath and position change until the medication reaches its peak. Explanation: When pain is severe, the nurse delays position changes and bathing until an administered analgesic has reached its peak concentration level and the client is experiencing maximum pain relief. Pain medication should never be delayed to assist in the control of the level of pain. Pain will not be relieved by a bath and clean sheets, only analgesics at this point in the client's illness.
A client with multiple myeloma is complaining of severe pain when the nurse comes in to give a bath and change position. What is the priority intervention by the nurse? You Selected: Obtain the pain medication and delay the bath and position change until the medication reaches its peak. Correct response: Obtain the pain medication and delay the bath and position change until the medication reaches its peak. Explanation: When pain is severe, the nurse delays position changes and bathing until an administered analgesic has reached its peak concentration level and the client is experiencing maximum pain relief. Pain medication should never be delayed to assist in the control of the level of pain. Pain will not be relieved by a bath and clean sheets, only analgesics at this point in the client's illness.
A client with sepsis is experiencing disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC). The client is bleeding from mucous membranes, venipuncture sites, and the rectum. Blood is present in the urine. The nurse establishes the nursing diagnosis of Risk for deficient fluid volume related to bleeding. The most appropriate and measurable outcome for this client is that the client exhibits You Selected: Stable level of consciousness Correct response: Urine output greater than or equal to 30 mL/hour Explanation: All options could be expected outcomes for a nursing diagnosis of risk for deficient fluid volume. However, the key words are most appropriate and measurable. That would be the option relating to urine output, which is the most direct measurement listed of fluid volume.
A client with sepsis is experiencing disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC). The client is bleeding from mucous membranes, venipuncture sites, and the rectum. Blood is present in the urine. The nurse establishes the nursing diagnosis of Risk for deficient fluid volume related to bleeding. The most appropriate and measurable outcome for this client is that the client exhibits You Selected: Stable level of consciousness Correct response: Urine output greater than or equal to 30 mL/hour Explanation: All options could be expected outcomes for a nursing diagnosis of risk for deficient fluid volume. However, the key words are most appropriate and measurable. That would be the option relating to urine output, which is the most direct measurement listed of fluid volume.
A client's family member asks the nurse why disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC) occurs. Which statement by the nurse correctly explains the cause of DIC? You Selected: "DIC is caused by abnormal activation of the clotting pathway, causing excessive amounts of tiny clots to form inside organs." Correct response: "DIC is caused by abnormal activation of the clotting pathway, causing excessive amounts of tiny clots to form inside organs." Explanation: The inflammatory response initiates the process of inflammation and coagulation. The natural anticoagulant pathways within the body are simultaneously impaired, and the fibrinolytic system is suppressed, allowing a massive amount of tiny clots forms in the microcirculation. As the platelets and clotting factors form microthrombi, coagulation fails. Thus, the paradoxical result of excessive clotting is bleeding. Decline in organ function is usually a result of excessive clot formation (with resultant ischemia to all or part of the organ).
A client's family member asks the nurse why disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC) occurs. Which statement by the nurse correctly explains the cause of DIC? You Selected: "DIC is caused by abnormal activation of the clotting pathway, causing excessive amounts of tiny clots to form inside organs." Correct response: "DIC is caused by abnormal activation of the clotting pathway, causing excessive amounts of tiny clots to form inside organs." Explanation: The inflammatory response initiates the process of inflammation and coagulation. The natural anticoagulant pathways within the body are simultaneously impaired, and the fibrinolytic system is suppressed, allowing a massive amount of tiny clots forms in the microcirculation. As the platelets and clotting factors form microthrombi, coagulation fails. Thus, the paradoxical result of excessive clotting is bleeding. Decline in organ function is usually a result of excessive clot formation (with resultant ischemia to all or part of the organ).
A home care nurse visits a client diagnosed with atrial fibrillation who is ordered warfarin. The nurse teaches the client about warfarin therapy. Which statement by the client indicates the need for further teaching? You Selected: "I'll eat four servings of fresh, dark green vegetables every day." Correct response: "I'll eat four servings of fresh, dark green vegetables every day." Explanation: The client requires additional teaching if he states that he'll eat four servings of dark green vegetables every day. Dark, green vegetables contain vitamin K, which reverses the effects of warfarin. The client should limit his intake to one to two servings per day. The client should report bleeding gums and severe or unexplained bruising, which may indicate an excessive dose of warfarin. The client should use an electric razor to prevent cutting himself while shaving.
A home care nurse visits a client diagnosed with atrial fibrillation who is ordered warfarin. The nurse teaches the client about warfarin therapy. Which statement by the client indicates the need for further teaching? You Selected: "I'll eat four servings of fresh, dark green vegetables every day." Correct response: "I'll eat four servings of fresh, dark green vegetables every day." Explanation: The client requires additional teaching if he states that he'll eat four servings of dark green vegetables every day. Dark, green vegetables contain vitamin K, which reverses the effects of warfarin. The client should limit his intake to one to two servings per day. The client should report bleeding gums and severe or unexplained bruising, which may indicate an excessive dose of warfarin. The client should use an electric razor to prevent cutting himself while shaving.
A male client has been receiving a continuous infusion of weight-based heparin for more than 4 days. The client's PTT is at a level that requires an increase of heparin by 100 units per hour. The client has the laboratory findings shown above. What is the most important action for the nurse to take? You Selected: Consult with the physician about discontinuing heparin. Correct response: Consult with the physician about discontinuing heparin. Explanation: Platelet counts may decrease with heparin therapy, and this client's platelet count has decreased. The client may have heparin-induced thrombocytopenia (HIT). Treatment of HIT includes discontinuing the heparin. The question asks about the most important action of the nurse and that is to consult with the physician about discontinuing heparin therapy. The nurse may continue with the current rate and should not increase the heparin dose until consulting with the physician. Warfarin is not administered until the platelet count has returned to normal levels
A male client has been receiving a continuous infusion of weight-based heparin for more than 4 days. The client's PTT is at a level that requires an increase of heparin by 100 units per hour. The client has the laboratory findings shown above. What is the most important action for the nurse to take? You Selected: Consult with the physician about discontinuing heparin. Correct response: Consult with the physician about discontinuing heparin. Explanation: Platelet counts may decrease with heparin therapy, and this client's platelet count has decreased. The client may have heparin-induced thrombocytopenia (HIT). Treatment of HIT includes discontinuing the heparin. The question asks about the most important action of the nurse and that is to consult with the physician about discontinuing heparin therapy. The nurse may continue with the current rate and should not increase the heparin dose until consulting with the physician. Warfarin is not administered until the platelet count has returned to normal levels
A male client has been receiving a continuous infusion of weight-based heparin for more than 4 days. The client's PTT is at a level that requires an increase of heparin by 100 units per hour. The client has the laboratory findings shown above. What is the most important action for the nurse to take? You Selected: Consult with the physician about discontinuing heparin. Correct response: Consult with the physician about discontinuing heparin. Explanation: Platelet counts may decrease with heparin therapy, and this client's platelet count has decreased. The client may have heparin-induced thrombocytopenia (HIT). Treatment of HIT includes discontinuing the heparin. The question asks about the most important action of the nurse and that is to consult with the physician about discontinuing heparin therapy. The nurse may continue with the current rate and should not increase the heparin dose until consulting with the physician. Warfarin is not administered until the platelet count has returned to normal levels.
A male client has been receiving a continuous infusion of weight-based heparin for more than 4 days. The client's PTT is at a level that requires an increase of heparin by 100 units per hour. The client has the laboratory findings shown above. What is the most important action for the nurse to take? You Selected: Consult with the physician about discontinuing heparin. Correct response: Consult with the physician about discontinuing heparin. Explanation: Platelet counts may decrease with heparin therapy, and this client's platelet count has decreased. The client may have heparin-induced thrombocytopenia (HIT). Treatment of HIT includes discontinuing the heparin. The question asks about the most important action of the nurse and that is to consult with the physician about discontinuing heparin therapy. The nurse may continue with the current rate and should not increase the heparin dose until consulting with the physician. Warfarin is not administered until the platelet count has returned to normal levels.
A nurse is caring for a client with severe anemia. The client is tachycardic and reports dizziness and exertional dyspnea. What signs and symptoms might develop if this client goes into heart failure? You Selected: Peripheral edema Correct response: Peripheral edema Explanation: Cardiac status should be carefully assessed in clients with anemia. When the hemoglobin level is low, the heart attempts to compensate by pumping faster and harder in an effort to deliver more blood to hypoxic tissue. This increased cardiac workload can result in such symptoms such as tachycardia, palpitations, dyspnea, dizziness, orthopnea, and exertional dyspnea. Heart failure may eventually develop, as evidenced by an enlarged heart (cardiomegaly) and liver (hepatomegaly), and by peripheral edema. Nausea, migraine, and fever are not associated with heart failure.
A nurse is caring for a client with severe anemia. The client is tachycardic and reports dizziness and exertional dyspnea. What signs and symptoms might develop if this client goes into heart failure? You Selected: Peripheral edema Correct response: Peripheral edema Explanation: Cardiac status should be carefully assessed in clients with anemia. When the hemoglobin level is low, the heart attempts to compensate by pumping faster and harder in an effort to deliver more blood to hypoxic tissue. This increased cardiac workload can result in such symptoms such as tachycardia, palpitations, dyspnea, dizziness, orthopnea, and exertional dyspnea. Heart failure may eventually develop, as evidenced by an enlarged heart (cardiomegaly) and liver (hepatomegaly), and by peripheral edema. Nausea, migraine, and fever are not associated with heart failure.
A nurse is doing a physical examination of a child with sickle cell anemia. When the child asks why the nurse auscultates the lungs and heart, what would be best the response by the nurse? You Selected: To detect the abnormal sounds suggestive of acute chest syndrome and heart failure Correct response: To detect the abnormal sounds suggestive of acute chest syndrome and heart failure Explanation: The nurse auscultates the lungs and heart to detect abnormal sounds that indicate pneumonia, acute chest syndrome, and heart failure. The nurse assesses vital signs to detect evidence of infection, such as fever and tachycardia. During the physical examination, the nurse observes the client's appearance, looking for evidence of dehydration, which may have triggered a sickle cell crisis. The nurse assesses mental status, verbal ability, and motor strength to detect stroke-related signs and symptoms.
A nurse is doing a physical examination of a child with sickle cell anemia. When the child asks why the nurse auscultates the lungs and heart, what would be best the response by the nurse? You Selected: To detect the abnormal sounds suggestive of acute chest syndrome and heart failure Correct response: To detect the abnormal sounds suggestive of acute chest syndrome and heart failure Explanation: The nurse auscultates the lungs and heart to detect abnormal sounds that indicate pneumonia, acute chest syndrome, and heart failure. The nurse assesses vital signs to detect evidence of infection, such as fever and tachycardia. During the physical examination, the nurse observes the client's appearance, looking for evidence of dehydration, which may have triggered a sickle cell crisis. The nurse assesses mental status, verbal ability, and motor strength to detect stroke-related signs and symptoms.
A nurse on a hematology/oncology floor is caring for a client with aplastic anemia. Which would not be included in the client's discharge instructions? You Selected: Use a disposable razor when shaving. Correct response: Use a disposable razor when shaving. Explanation: People with aplastic anemia usually have insufficient erythrocytes, leukocytes, and platelets. Encourage behaviors that will lower the risk for bleeding. Avoiding contact with people who are sick reduces the risk of acquiring an infection. Handwashing reduces the risk of acquiring an infection. Anemia can cause fatigue and shortness of breath with even mild exertion.
A nurse on a hematology/oncology floor is caring for a client with aplastic anemia. Which would not be included in the client's discharge instructions? You Selected: Use a disposable razor when shaving. Correct response: Use a disposable razor when shaving. Explanation: People with aplastic anemia usually have insufficient erythrocytes, leukocytes, and platelets. Encourage behaviors that will lower the risk for bleeding. Avoiding contact with people who are sick reduces the risk of acquiring an infection. Handwashing reduces the risk of acquiring an infection. Anemia can cause fatigue and shortness of breath with even mild exertion.
A nurse provides nutritional information for a patient diagnosed with an iron-deficiency anemia. What education should the nurse provide? You Selected: Increase the intake of green, leafy vegetables. Correct response: Increase the intake of green, leafy vegetables. Explanation: Leafy greens, such as spinach, kale, swiss chard, collard and beet greens contain between 2.5-6.4 mg of iron per cooked cup. Clients should be encouraged to consume more green, leafy vegetables. Red meats, especially organ meats, are iron-rich foods and the client should not be discouraged from eating them. Vitamin C sources (citrus fruit and juices) enhance the absorption of iron, which should be taken 1 hour before or 2 hours after a meal.
A nurse provides nutritional information for a patient diagnosed with an iron-deficiency anemia. What education should the nurse provide? You Selected: Increase the intake of green, leafy vegetables. Correct response: Increase the intake of green, leafy vegetables. Explanation: Leafy greens, such as spinach, kale, swiss chard, collard and beet greens contain between 2.5-6.4 mg of iron per cooked cup. Clients should be encouraged to consume more green, leafy vegetables. Red meats, especially organ meats, are iron-rich foods and the client should not be discouraged from eating them. Vitamin C sources (citrus fruit and juices) enhance the absorption of iron, which should be taken 1 hour before or 2 hours after a meal.
A patient describes numbness in the arms and hands with a tingling sensation. The patient also frequently stumbles when walking. What vitamin deficiency does the nurse determine may cause some of these symptoms? You Selected: B12 Correct response: B12 Explanation: The hematologic effects of vitamin B12 deficiency are accompanied by effects on other organ systems, particularly the gastrointestinal tract and nervous system. Patients with pernicious anemia may become confused; more often, they have paresthesias in the extremities (particularly numbness and tingling in the feet and lower legs). They may have difficulty maintaining their balance because of damage to the spinal cord, and they also lose position sense (proprioception).
A patient describes numbness in the arms and hands with a tingling sensation. The patient also frequently stumbles when walking. What vitamin deficiency does the nurse determine may cause some of these symptoms? You Selected: B12 Correct response: B12 Explanation: The hematologic effects of vitamin B12 deficiency are accompanied by effects on other organ systems, particularly the gastrointestinal tract and nervous system. Patients with pernicious anemia may become confused; more often, they have paresthesias in the extremities (particularly numbness and tingling in the feet and lower legs). They may have difficulty maintaining their balance because of damage to the spinal cord, and they also lose position sense (proprioception).
A patient has a probable diagnosis of polycythemia vera. The nurse reviews the patient's lab work for which diagnostic indicator? You Selected: Hematocrit of 60% Correct response: Hematocrit of 60% Explanation: Although all results are elevated, the diagnostic indicator is the elevated hematocrit (normal = 42% to 52% for a male). These results are used in combination with other indicators (e.g., splenomegaly) for a definitive diagnosis.
A patient has a probable diagnosis of polycythemia vera. The nurse reviews the patient's lab work for which diagnostic indicator? You Selected: Hematocrit of 60% Correct response: Hematocrit of 60% Explanation: Although all results are elevated, the diagnostic indicator is the elevated hematocrit (normal = 42% to 52% for a male). These results are used in combination with other indicators (e.g., splenomegaly) for a definitive diagnosis.
A pregnant woman is hospitalized as the result of sickle-cell crisis. Which finding indicates the outcome has been achieved for this client? You Selected: Reports joint pain less than 3 on a scale of 0 to 10 Correct response: Reports joint pain less than 3 on a scale of 0 to 10 Explanation: An expected outcome for a client experiencing a sickle-cell crisis is control and reduction of pain. Hydroxyurea is contraindicated in pregnancy because of the risk it poses for congenital abnormalities. An indication that the client is free from infection is exhibiting a normal temperature; 100.3°F is an elevated temperature. To minimize crises, the client needs to stay warm not cool.
A pregnant woman is hospitalized as the result of sickle-cell crisis. Which finding indicates the outcome has been achieved for this client? You Selected: Reports joint pain less than 3 on a scale of 0 to 10 Correct response: Reports joint pain less than 3 on a scale of 0 to 10 Explanation: An expected outcome for a client experiencing a sickle-cell crisis is control and reduction of pain. Hydroxyurea is contraindicated in pregnancy because of the risk it poses for congenital abnormalities. An indication that the client is free from infection is exhibiting a normal temperature; 100.3°F is an elevated temperature. To minimize crises, the client needs to stay warm not cool.
A thin client is prescribed iron dextran intramuscularly. What is most important action taken by the nurse when administering this medication? You Selected: Employs the Z-track technique Correct response: Employs the Z-track technique Explanation: When iron medications are given intramuscularly, the nurse uses the Z-track technique to avoid local pain and staining of the skin. The gluteus maximus muscle is used. The nurse avoids rubbing the site vigorously and uses a 18- or 20-gauge needle.
A thin client is prescribed iron dextran intramuscularly. What is most important action taken by the nurse when administering this medication? You Selected: Employs the Z-track technique Correct response: Employs the Z-track technique Explanation: When iron medications are given intramuscularly, the nurse uses the Z-track technique to avoid local pain and staining of the skin. The gluteus maximus muscle is used. The nurse avoids rubbing the site vigorously and uses a 18- or 20-gauge needle.
During the review of morning laboratory values for a client reporting severe fatigue and a red, swollen tongue, the nurse suspects chronic, severe iron deficiency anemia based on which finding? You Selected: Low ferritin level concentration Correct response: Low ferritin level concentration Explanation: The most consistent indicator of iron deficiency anemia is a low ferritin level, which reflects low iron stores. As the anemia progresses, the MCV, which measures the size of the erythrocytes, also decreases. Hematocrit and RBC levels are also low in relation to the hemoglobin concentration.
During the review of morning laboratory values for a client reporting severe fatigue and a red, swollen tongue, the nurse suspects chronic, severe iron deficiency anemia based on which finding? You Selected: Low ferritin level concentration Correct response: Low ferritin level concentration Explanation: The most consistent indicator of iron deficiency anemia is a low ferritin level, which reflects low iron stores. As the anemia progresses, the MCV, which measures the size of the erythrocytes, also decreases. Hematocrit and RBC levels are also low in relation to the hemoglobin concentration.
The nurse and the client are discussing some strategies for ingesting iron to combat the client's iron-deficiency anemia. Which is among the nurse's strategies? You Selected: Drink liquid iron preparations with a straw. Correct response: Drink liquid iron preparations with a straw. Explanation: Dilute liquid preparations of iron with another liquid such as juice and drink with a straw to avoid staining the teeth. Avoid taking iron simultaneously with an antacid, which interferes with iron absorption. Drink orange juice or take other forms of vitamin C with iron to promote its absorption.
The nurse and the client are discussing some strategies for ingesting iron to combat the client's iron-deficiency anemia. Which is among the nurse's strategies? You Selected: Drink liquid iron preparations with a straw. Correct response: Drink liquid iron preparations with a straw. Explanation: Dilute liquid preparations of iron with another liquid such as juice and drink with a straw to avoid staining the teeth. Avoid taking iron simultaneously with an antacid, which interferes with iron absorption. Drink orange juice or take other forms of vitamin C with iron to promote its absorption.
The nurse is caring for a client with external bleeding. What is the nurse's priority intervention? You Selected: Direct pressure Correct response: Direct pressure Explanation: Applying direct pressure to an injury is the initial step in controlling bleeding. Elevation reduces the force of flow, but direct pressure is the first step. The nurse may use pressure point control for severe or arterial bleeding. Pressure points (those areas where large blood vessels can be compressed against bone) include femoral, brachial, facial, carotid, and temporal artery sites. The nurse should avoid applying a tourniquet unless all other measures have failed, because it may further damage the injured extremity.
The nurse is caring for a client with external bleeding. What is the nurse's priority intervention? You Selected: Direct pressure Correct response: Direct pressure Explanation: Applying direct pressure to an injury is the initial step in controlling bleeding. Elevation reduces the force of flow, but direct pressure is the first step. The nurse may use pressure point control for severe or arterial bleeding. Pressure points (those areas where large blood vessels can be compressed against bone) include femoral, brachial, facial, carotid, and temporal artery sites. The nurse should avoid applying a tourniquet unless all other measures have failed, because it may further damage the injured extremity.
The nurse is collecting data for a client who has been diagnosed with iron-deficiency anemia. What subjective findings does the nurse recognize as symptoms related to this type of anemia? You Selected: "I have an increase in my appetite." Correct response: "I have difficulty breathing when walking 30 feet." Explanation: Most clients with iron-deficiency anemia have reduced energy, feel cold all the time, and experience fatigue and dyspnea with minor physical exertion. The heart rate usually is rapid even at rest. The CBC and hemoglobin, hematocrit, and serum iron levels are decreased. The client would feel cold and not hot. The client is fatigued and able to sleep often with a decrease in appetite, not an increase.
The nurse is collecting data for a client who has been diagnosed with iron-deficiency anemia. What subjective findings does the nurse recognize as symptoms related to this type of anemia? You Selected: "I have an increase in my appetite." Correct response: "I have difficulty breathing when walking 30 feet." Explanation: Most clients with iron-deficiency anemia have reduced energy, feel cold all the time, and experience fatigue and dyspnea with minor physical exertion. The heart rate usually is rapid even at rest. The CBC and hemoglobin, hematocrit, and serum iron levels are decreased. The client would feel cold and not hot. The client is fatigued and able to sleep often with a decrease in appetite, not an increase.
The nurse is instructing a client about taking a liquid iron preparation for the treatment of iron-deficiency anemia. What should the nurse include in the instructions? You Selected: Dilute the liquid preparation with another liquid such as juice and drink with a straw. Correct response: Dilute the liquid preparation with another liquid such as juice and drink with a straw. Explanation: Dilute liquid preparations of iron with another liquid such as juice and drink with a straw to avoid staining the teeth. Avoid taking iron simultaneously with an antacid, which interferes with iron absorption. Drink orange juice or take other forms of vitamin C with iron to promote its absorption. Expect iron to color stool dark green or black.
The nurse is instructing a client about taking a liquid iron preparation for the treatment of iron-deficiency anemia. What should the nurse include in the instructions? You Selected: Dilute the liquid preparation with another liquid such as juice and drink with a straw. Correct response: Dilute the liquid preparation with another liquid such as juice and drink with a straw. Explanation: Dilute liquid preparations of iron with another liquid such as juice and drink with a straw to avoid staining the teeth. Avoid taking iron simultaneously with an antacid, which interferes with iron absorption. Drink orange juice or take other forms of vitamin C with iron to promote its absorption. Expect iron to color stool dark green or black.
The nurse observes the laboratory studies for a client in the hospital with fatigue, feeling cold all of the time, and hemoglobin of 8.6 g/dL and a hematocrit of 28%. What finding would be an indicator of iron-deficiency anemia? You Selected: Erythrocytes that are macrocytic and hyperchromic Correct response: Erythrocytes that are microcytic and hypochromic Explanation: A blood smear reveals erythrocytes that are microcytic (smaller than normal) and hypochromic (lighter in color than normal). It does not reveal macrocytic (larger than normal) or hyperchromic erythrocytes. Clustering of platelets with sickled red blood cells would indicate sickle cell anemia. An increase in the number of erythrocytes would indicate polycythemia vera.
The nurse observes the laboratory studies for a client in the hospital with fatigue, feeling cold all of the time, and hemoglobin of 8.6 g/dL and a hematocrit of 28%. What finding would be an indicator of iron-deficiency anemia? You Selected: Erythrocytes that are macrocytic and hyperchromic Correct response: Erythrocytes that are microcytic and hypochromic Explanation: A blood smear reveals erythrocytes that are microcytic (smaller than normal) and hypochromic (lighter in color than normal). It does not reveal macrocytic (larger than normal) or hyperchromic erythrocytes. Clustering of platelets with sickled red blood cells would indicate sickle cell anemia. An increase in the number of erythrocytes would indicate polycythemia vera.
The nurse's role in the management of polycythemia vera is primarily that of an educator. Choose the best health promotion advice that a nurse could give. You Selected: Take aspirin daily to prevent clot formation. Correct response: Participate in regular phlebotomy procedures to decrease blood viscosity. Explanation: Phlebotomy is a critical part of therapy and the only treatment that has demonstrated improved survival. Aspirin should be avoided, and antiplatelet therapy should be used with caution due to the risk of bleeding. Compression stockings are not necessary for walking but should be used for airplane travel.
The nurse's role in the management of polycythemia vera is primarily that of an educator. Choose the best health promotion advice that a nurse could give. You Selected: Take aspirin daily to prevent clot formation. Correct response: Participate in regular phlebotomy procedures to decrease blood viscosity. Explanation: Phlebotomy is a critical part of therapy and the only treatment that has demonstrated improved survival. Aspirin should be avoided, and antiplatelet therapy should be used with caution due to the risk of bleeding. Compression stockings are not necessary for walking but should be used for airplane travel.
When assessing a client with anemia, which assessment is essential? You Selected: Health history, including menstrual history in women Correct response: Health history, including menstrual history in women Explanation: When assessing a client with anemia, it is essential to assess the client's health history. Women should be questioned about their menstrual periods (e.g., excessive menstrual flow, other vaginal bleeding) and the use of iron supplements during pregnancy.
When assessing a client with anemia, which assessment is essential? You Selected: Health history, including menstrual history in women Correct response: Health history, including menstrual history in women Explanation: When assessing a client with anemia, it is essential to assess the client's health history. Women should be questioned about their menstrual periods (e.g., excessive menstrual flow, other vaginal bleeding) and the use of iron supplements during pregnancy.
When evaluating a patient's symptoms that are consistent with a diagnosis of leukemia, the nurse is aware that all leukemias have which common feature? You Selected: Unregulated accumulation of white cells in the bone marrow, which replace normal marrow elements Correct response: Unregulated accumulation of white cells in the bone marrow, which replace normal marrow elements Explanation: The term leukemia means "white blood," which is used to describe the neoplastic proliferation of one hematopoietic cell type (granulocytes, monocytes, lymphocytes, and sometimes, erythrocytes and megakaryocytes).
When evaluating a patient's symptoms that are consistent with a diagnosis of leukemia, the nurse is aware that all leukemias have which common feature? You Selected: Unregulated accumulation of white cells in the bone marrow, which replace normal marrow elements Correct response: Unregulated accumulation of white cells in the bone marrow, which replace normal marrow elements Explanation: The term leukemia means "white blood," which is used to describe the neoplastic proliferation of one hematopoietic cell type (granulocytes, monocytes, lymphocytes, and sometimes, erythrocytes and megakaryocytes).
When teaching a client with iron deficiency anemia about appropriate food choices, the nurse encourages the client to increase the dietary intake of which foods? You Selected: Beans, dried fruits, and leafy, green vegetables Correct response: Beans, dried fruits, and leafy, green vegetables Explanation: Food sources high in iron include organ meats (e.g., beef or calf liver, chicken liver), other meats, beans (e.g., black, pinto, and garbanzo), leafy and green vegetables, raisins, and molasses. Taking iron-rich foods with a source of vitamin C (e.g., orange juice) enhances the absorption of iron.
When teaching a client with iron deficiency anemia about appropriate food choices, the nurse encourages the client to increase the dietary intake of which foods? You Selected: Beans, dried fruits, and leafy, green vegetables Correct response: Beans, dried fruits, and leafy, green vegetables Explanation: Food sources high in iron include organ meats (e.g., beef or calf liver, chicken liver), other meats, beans (e.g., black, pinto, and garbanzo), leafy and green vegetables, raisins, and molasses. Taking iron-rich foods with a source of vitamin C (e.g., orange juice) enhances the absorption of iron.
Which is a symptom of hemochromatosis? You Selected: Bronzing of the skin Correct response: Bronzing of the skin Explanation: Clients with hemochromatosis exhibit symptoms of weakness, lethargy, arthralgia, weight loss, and loss of libido early in the illness trajectory. The skin may appear hyperpigmented from melanin deposits or appear bronze in color.
Which is a symptom of hemochromatosis? You Selected: Bronzing of the skin Correct response: Bronzing of the skin Explanation: Clients with hemochromatosis exhibit symptoms of weakness, lethargy, arthralgia, weight loss, and loss of libido early in the illness trajectory. The skin may appear hyperpigmented from melanin deposits or appear bronze in color.
Which of the following are assessment findings associated with thrombocytopenia? Select all that apply. Bleeding gums Epistaxis Hematemesis Bradypnea Hypertension Correct response: Incorrect response: Your selection: Explanation: Pertinent findings of thrombocytopenia include: bleeding gums, epistaxis, hematemesis, hypotension, and tachypnea.
Which of the following are assessment findings associated with thrombocytopenia? Select all that apply. Bleeding gums Epistaxis Hematemesis Bradypnea Hypertension Correct response: Incorrect response: Your selection: Explanation: Pertinent findings of thrombocytopenia include: bleeding gums, epistaxis, hematemesis, hypotension, and tachypnea.
Which of the following describes a red blood cell (RBC) that has pale or lighter cellular contents? You Selected: Hypochromic Correct response: Hypochromic Explanation: An RBC that has pale or lighter cellular contents is hypochromic. A normocytic RBC is normal or average in size. A microcytic RBC is smaller than normal. Hyperchromic is used to describe an RBC that has darker cellular contents.
Which of the following describes a red blood cell (RBC) that has pale or lighter cellular contents? You Selected: Hypochromic Correct response: Hypochromic Explanation: An RBC that has pale or lighter cellular contents is hypochromic. A normocytic RBC is normal or average in size. A microcytic RBC is smaller than normal. Hyperchromic is used to describe an RBC that has darker cellular contents.
Which of the following is accurate regarding the use of corticosteroids for immune hemolytic anemia? Select all that apply. They decrease the macrophages ability to clear the antibody-coated RBCs. If the hemoglobin returns to normal, the corticosteroid dose can be lowered. Corticosteroids are not effective in the treatment of immune hemolytic anemia. The treatment consists of low doses of corticosteroids. They produce lasting effects. Correct response: Incorrect response: Your selection: Explanation: The treatment consists of high doses of corticosteroids until hemolysis decreases. Corticosteroids decrease the macrophage's ability to clear the antibody-coated RBCs. If the hemoglobin level returns to normal, usually after several weeks, the corticosteroid dose can be lowered or, in some cases tapered and discontinued.
Which of the following is accurate regarding the use of corticosteroids for immune hemolytic anemia? Select all that apply. They decrease the macrophages ability to clear the antibody-coated RBCs. If the hemoglobin returns to normal, the corticosteroid dose can be lowered. Corticosteroids are not effective in the treatment of immune hemolytic anemia. The treatment consists of low doses of corticosteroids. They produce lasting effects. Correct response: Incorrect response: Your selection: Explanation: The treatment consists of high doses of corticosteroids until hemolysis decreases. Corticosteroids decrease the macrophage's ability to clear the antibody-coated RBCs. If the hemoglobin level returns to normal, usually after several weeks, the corticosteroid dose can be lowered or, in some cases tapered and discontinued.
Which of the following is considered an antidote to heparin? You Selected: Protamine sulfate Correct response: Protamine sulfate Explanation: Protamine sulfate, in the appropriate dosage, acts quickly to reverse the effects of heparin. Vitamin K is the antidote to warfarin (Coumadin). Narcan is the drug used to reverse signs and symptoms of medication-induced narcosis. Ipecac is an emetic used to treat some poisonings.
Which of the following is considered an antidote to heparin? You Selected: Protamine sulfate Correct response: Protamine sulfate Explanation: Protamine sulfate, in the appropriate dosage, acts quickly to reverse the effects of heparin. Vitamin K is the antidote to warfarin (Coumadin). Narcan is the drug used to reverse signs and symptoms of medication-induced narcosis. Ipecac is an emetic used to treat some poisonings.