Med-Surge Nursing Lower Respiratory Prep U ch. 23

What does a positive Mantoux test indicate?

production of an immune response The Mantoux test is based on the antigen/antibody response and will show a positive reaction after an individual has been exposed to tuberculosis and has formed antibodies to the tuberculosis bacteria. Thus, a positive Mantoux test indicates the production of an immune response. Exposure doesn't confer immunity. A positive test doesn't confirm that a person has (or will develop) tuberculosis.

The nurse is assessing a patient who has been admitted with possible ARDS. What findings would distinguish ARDS from cardiogenic pulmonary edema?

Elevated B-type natriuretic peptide (BNP) levels Common diagnostic tests performed in patients with potential ARDS include plasma brain natriuretic peptide (BNP) levels, echocardiography, and pulmonary artery catheterization. The BNP level is helpful in distinguishing ARDS from cardiogenic pulmonary edema.

Approximately what percentage of people who are initially infected with TB develop active disease?

10% Approximately 10% of people who are initially infected develop active disease. The other percentages are inaccurate.

The new client on the unit was admitted with acute respiratory failure. What are the signs and symptoms of acute respiratory failure?

Sudden onset in client who had normal lung function Acute respiratory failure occurs suddenly in a client who previously had normal lung function.

Which term refers to lung tissue that has become more solid in nature as a result of a collapse of alveoli or an infectious process?

Consolidation Consolidation occurs during an infectious process such as pneumonia. Atelectasis refers to the collapse or airless condition of the alveoli caused by hypoventilation, obstruction to the airways, or compression. Bronchiectasis refers to the chronic dilation of a bronchi or bronchi in which the dilated airway becomes saccular and a medium for chronic infection. Empyema refers to accumulation of purulent material in the pleural space.

The nurse is assessing a client's potential for pulmonary emboli. What finding indicates possible deep vein thrombosis?

Localized calf tenderness If the client were to complain of localized calf tenderness, the nurse would know this is a possible indication of a deep vein thrombosis. The area of tenderness could also be warm to touch. The client's urine output should not be impacted. Pain in the feet is not an indication of possible deep vein thrombosis.

Which type of pneumonia has the highest incidence in clients with AIDS and clients receiving immunosuppressive therapy for cancer?

Pneumocystis Pneumocystis pneumonia incidence is greatest in clients with AIDS and clients receiving immunosuppressive therapy for cancer, organ transplanation, and other disorders.

Which technique does the nurse suggest to a client with pleurisy while teaching about splinting the chest wall?

Turn onto the affected side. The nurse teaches the client to splint the chest wall by turning onto the affected side. The nurse also instructs the client to take analgesic medications as prescribed and to use heat or cold applications to manage pain with inspiration. The client can also splint the chest wall with a pillow when coughing.

You are caring for a client with chronic respiratory failure. What are the signs and symptoms of chronic respiratory failure?

Progressive loss of lung function associated with chronic disease In chronic respiratory failure, the loss of lung function is progressive, usually irreversible, and associated with chronic lung disease or other disease.

Which comfort technique does a nurse teach to a client with pleurisy to assist with splinting the chest wall?

Turn onto the affected side The nurse teaches the client to splint the chest wall by turning onto the affected side in order to reduce the stretching of the pleurae and decrease pain.

A client who has started therapy for drug-resistant tuberculosis demonstrates understanding of tuberculosis transmission when he says:

"I'll stop being contagious when I have a negative acid-fast bacilli test." A client with drug-resistant tuberculosis isn't contagious when he's had a negative acid-fast test. A client with nonresistant tuberculosis is no longer considered contagious when he shows clinical evidence of decreased infection, such as significantly decreased coughing and fewer organisms on sputum smears. The medication may not produce negative acid-fast test results for several days. The client won't have a clear chest X-ray for several months after starting treatment. Night sweats are a sign of tuberculosis, but they don't indicate whether the client is contagious.

A client is being evaluated for possible lung cancer. Which client statement most likely indicates lung cancer?

"My cough has changed from a dry cough to one with lots of sputum production." A cough that changes in character is one of the hallmark signs of lung cancer. Low-grade fever, hoarseness, and weight loss may be attributed to other disease processes and don't necessarily indicate lung cancer.

The nurse is administering anticoagulant therapy with heparin. What International Normalized Ratio (INR) would the nurse know is within therapeutic range?

2.0 to 2.5 Low-molecular- weight heparin and fondaparinux (Arixtra) are the cornerstones of therapy, but IV unfractionated heparin may be used during the initial phase (ACCP, 2012). The early maintenance phase of anticoagulation typically consists of overlapping regimens of heparins or fondaparinux for at least 5 days with an oral vitamin K antagonist (e.g., warfarin [Coumadin]). A 3- to 6-month regimen of long-term maintenance with warfarin is typical but depends on the risks of recurrence and bleeding (ACCP, 2012). Heparin must be continued until the INR is within a therapeutic range, typically 2.0 to 3 (Kearon, Kahn, Agnelli, et al., 2008).

A 73-year-old client is admitted to the pulmonology unit of the hospital. She was admitted with a pleural effusion and was "tapped" to drain the fluid to reduce her mediastinal pressure. How much fluid is typically present between the pleurae, which surround the lungs, to prevent friction rub?

5 - 15 ml Under normal conditions, approximately 5 to 15 mL of fluid between the pleurae prevent friction during pleural surface movement.

A client is admitted to the emergency department with a stab wound and is now presenting dyspnea, tachypnea, and sucking noise heard on inspiration and expiration. The nurse should care for the wound in which manner?

Apply airtight dressing. The client has developed a pneumothorax, and the best action is to prevent further deflation of the affected lung by placing an airtight dressing over the wound. A vented dressing would be used in a tension pneumothorax, but because air is heard moving in and out, a tension pneumothorax is not indicated. Applying direct pressure is required if active bleeding is noted.

The client with a lower respiratory airway infection is presenting with the following symptoms: fever, chills, dry hacking cough, and wheezing. Which nursing diagnosis best supports the assessment by the nurse?

Ineffective Airway Clearance The symptom of wheezing indicates a narrowing or partial obstruction of the airway from inflammation or secretions. Risk for Infection is a real potential because the client is already exhibiting symptoms of infection (fever with chills). Impaired Gas Exchange may occur, but no symptom listed supports poor exchange of gases. No documentation of respiratory rate or abnormalities is listed to justify this nursing diagnosis.

Which technique does a nurse suggest to a patient with pleurisy for splinting the chest wall?

Turn onto the affected side. Teach the client to splint their chest wall by turning onto the affected side. The nurse instructs the patient with pleurisy to take analgesic medications as prescribed, but this not a technique related to splinting the chest wall. The patient can splint the chest wall with a pillow when coughing. The nurse instructs the patient to use heat or cold applications to manage pain with inspiration, but this not a technique related to splinting the chest wall.

The nurse is caring for a client with suspected ARDS with a pO2 of 53. The client is placed on oxygen via face mask and the PO2 remains the same. What does the nurse recognize as a key characteristic of ARDS?

Unresponsive arterial hypoxemia Acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS) can be thought of as a spectrum of disease, from its milder form (acute lung injury) to its most severe form of fulminate, life-threatening ARDS. This clinical syndrome is characterized by a severe inflammatory process causing diffuse alveolar damage that results in sudden and progressive pulmonary edema, increasing bilateral infiltrates on chest x-ray, hypoxemia unresponsive to oxygen supplementation regardless of the amount of PEEP, and the absence of an elevated left atrial pressure.

The nurse is educating a patient who will be started on an antituberculosis medication regimen. The patient asks the nurse, "How long will I have to be on these medications?" What should the nurse tell the patient?

6 to 12 months Pulmonary tuberculosis (TB) is treated primarily with anti-TB agents for 6 to 12 months. A prolonged treatment duration is necessary to ensure eradication of the organisms and to prevent relapse.

A nurse is caring for a client after a thoracentesis. Which sign, if noted in the client, should be reported to the physician immediately?

"Client is becoming agitated and complains of pleuritic pain." After a thoracentesis, the nurse monitors the client for pneumothorax or recurrence of pleural effusion. Signs and symptoms associated with pneumothorax depend on its size and cause. Pain is usually sudden and may be pleuritic. The client may have only minimal respiratory distress, with slight chest discomfort and tachypnea, and a small simple or uncomplicated pneumothorax. As the pneumothorax enlarges, the client may become anxious and develop dyspnea with increased use of the accessory muscles.

A client admitted to the facility for treatment for tuberculosis receives instructions about the disease. Which statement made by the client indicates the need for further instruction?

"I'll stay in isolation for 6 weeks." The client requires additional teaching if he states that he'll be in isolation for 6 weeks. The client needs to be in isolation for 2 weeks, not 6, while taking the tuberculosis drugs. After 2 weeks of antitubercular therapy, the client is no longer considered contagious. The client needs to receive the drugs for 9 months to a year. He'll be positive when tested and if he's sick or under some stress he could have a relapse of the disease.

The client asks the nurse to explain the reason for a chest tube insertion in treating a pneumothorax. Which is the best response by the nurse?

"The tube will drain air from the space around the lung." Negative pressure must be maintained in the pleural cavity for the lungs to be inflated. An injury that allows air into the pleural space will result in a collapse of the lung. The chest tube can be used to drain fluid and blood from the pleural cavity and to instill medication, such as talc, to the cavity.

In the prevention of occupational lung diseases, the nurse would direct preventive teaching to which high-risk occupations? Select all that apply.

1. Rock quarry worker 2. Miner A quarry worker is exposed to rock dust and silica. A miner can inhale dust causing silicosis or pneumoconiosis. A banker, nurse, and mechanic may have work hazards but not specific to the development of an occupational lung disease.

A nurse is giving a speech addressing "Communicable Diseases of Winter" to a large group of volunteer women, most of whom are older than 60 years. What preventive measures should the nurse recommend to these women, who are at the risk of pneumococcal and influenza infections? Select all that apply.

1. vaccinations 2. hand antisepsis A powerful weapon against the spread of communicable disease is effective and frequent handwashing. The pneumococcal vaccine provides specific prevention against pneumococcal pneumonia and other infections caused by S. pneumoniae.

The nurse is planning the care for a client at risk of developing pulmonary embolism. What nursing interventions should be included in the care plan? Select all that apply.

1. Encouraging a liberal fluid intake 2. Instructing the client to move the legs in a "pumping" exercise 3. Using elastic stockings, especially when decreased mobility would promote venous stasis 4. Applying a sequential compression device The use of anti-embolism stockings or intermittent pneumatic leg compression devices reduces venous stasis. These measures compress the superficial veins and increase the velocity of blood in the deep veins by redirecting the blood through the deep veins. Having the client move the legs in a "pumping" exercise helps increase venous flow. Legs should not be dangled or feet placed in a dependent position while the client sits on the edge of the bed; instead, feet should rest on the floor or on a chair.

Following thoracic surgery, what would be included in the care plan for a client at risk for impaired gas exchange? Select all that apply.

1. Monitor vital signs frequently. 2. Reinforce preoperative breathing exercises. 3. Elevate head of bed 30 to 40 degrees as tolerated. Nursing management for a client with the goal of maintaining optimal gas exchange includes assessing vital signs frequently; reinforcing preoperative instructions about deep breathing, coughing, and incentive spirometry; and elevating the head of the bed as tolerated.

A nurse is administering a purified protein derivative (PPD) test to a client. Which statement concerning PPD testing is true?

A positive reaction indicates that the client has been exposed to the disease. A positive reaction means the client has been exposed to TB; it isn't conclusive for the presence of active disease. A positive reaction consists of palpable swelling and induration of 5 to 15 mm. It can be read 48 to 72 hours after the injection. In clients with positive reactions, further studies are usually done to rule out active disease. In immunosuppressed clients, a negative reaction doesn't exclude the presence of active disease.

A client with a pulmonary embolus has the following arterial blood gas (ABG) values: pH, 7.49; partial pressure of arterial oxygen (PaO2), 60 mm Hg; partial pressure of arterial carbon dioxide (PaCO2), 30 mm Hg; bicarbonate (HCO3-) 25 mEq/L. What should the nurse do first?

Administer oxygen by nasal cannula as ordered. When a pulmonary embolus places a client at risk for oxygen deprivation, the body compensates by hyperventilating. This causes respiratory alkalosis, as reflected in the client's ABG values. However, the most significant ABG value is the PaO2 value of 60 mm Hg, which indicates hypoxemia. To manage hypoxemia, the nurse should increase oxygenation by administering oxygen via nasal cannula as ordered. Instructing the client to breathe into a paper bag would cause depressed oxygenation when the client reinhaled carbon dioxide. Auscultating breath sounds or encouraging deep breathing and coughing wouldn't improve oxygenation.

A client with severe shortness of breath comes to the emergency department. He tells the emergency department staff that he recently traveled to China for business. Based on his travel history and presentation, the staff suspects severe acute respiratory syndrome (SARS). Which isolation precautions should the staff institute?

Airborne and contact precautions SARS, a highly contagious viral respiratory illness, is spread by close person-to-person contact. The client should be placed on airborne and contact precautions to prevent the spread of infection. Droplet precautions don't require a negative air pressure room and wouldn't protect the nurse who touches contaminated items in the client's room. Contact precautions alone don't provide adequate protection from airborne particles.

The nurse is obtaining data from a client with a respiratory disorder. Which information would be considered a part of the functional assessment and would assist in the diagnosis of an occupational lung disease?

Black-streaked sputum A functional assessment provides data on the lifestyle, living environment, and work environment of the client, which can contribute to lung disorders. A black-tinged sputum is suggestive of prolonged exposure to coal dust. Cough, dyspnea, and tenacious secretions are vague respiratory symptoms that are not specific to occupational lung disease. The presence of barrel chest is indicative of trapped oxygen in the lungs over a prolonged period of time.

A nurse should include what instruction for the client during postural drainage?

Change positions frequently and cough up secretions. Clients who lie supine will have secretions accumulate in the posterior lung sections, whereas upright patients will pool secretions in their lower lobes. By changing positions, secretions can drain from the affected bronchioles into the bronchi and trachea and then be removed by coughing or suctioning.

You are a clinic nurse caring for a client with acute tracheobronchitis. The client asks what may have caused the infection. Which of the following responses from the nurse would be most accurate?

Chemical irritation Chemical irritation from noxious fumes, gases, and air contaminants can induce acute tracheobronchitis. Aspiration related to near drowning or vomiting, drug ingestion or overdose, and direct damage to the lungs are factors associated with the development of acute respiratory distress syndrome.

The nurse is having an information session with a women's group at the YMCA about lung cancer. What frequent and commonly experienced symptom should the nurse be sure to include in the session?

Coughing The most frequent symptom of lung cancer is cough or change in a chronic cough. People frequently ignore this symptom and attribute it to smoking or a respiratory infection. The cough may start as a dry, persistent cough, without sputum production. When obstruction of airways occurs, the cough may become productive due to infection.

A physician determines that a client has been exposed to someone with tuberculosis. The nurse expects the physician to order which treatment?

Daily doses of isoniazid, 300 mg for 6 months to 1 year All clients exposed to persons with tuberculosis should receive prophylactic isoniazid in daily doses of 300 mg for 6 months to 1 year to avoid the deleterious effects of the latent mycobacterium. Daily oral doses of isoniazid and rifampin for 6 months to 2 years are appropriate for the client with active tuberculosis. Isolation for 2 to 4 weeks is warranted for a client with active tuberculosis.

A client with lung cancer develops pleural effusion. During chest auscultation, which breath sound should the nurse expect to hear?

Decreased breath sounds In pleural effusion, fluid accumulates in the pleural space, impairing transmission of normal breath sounds. Because of the acoustic mismatch, breath sounds are diminished. Crackles commonly accompany atelectasis, interstitial fibrosis, and left-sided heart failure. Rhonchi suggest secretions in the large airways. Wheezes result from narrowed airways, such as in asthma, chronic obstructive pulmonary disease, and bronchitis.

An emergency room nurse is assessing a client who is complaining of dyspnea. Which sign would indicate the presence of a pleural effusion?

Decreased chest wall excursion upon palpation Symptoms of pleural effusion are shortness of breath, pain, assumption of a position that decreases pain, absent breath sounds, decreased fremitus, a dull, flat sound upon percussion, and decreased chest wall excursion. The nurse may also hear a friction rub. Chest radiography and computed tomography show fluid in the involved area.

For a client with pleural effusion, what does chest percussion over the involved area reveal?

Dullness over the involved area Chest percussion reveals dullness over the involved area. The nurse may note diminished or absent breath sounds over the involved area when auscultating the lungs and may also hear a friction rub. Chest radiography and computed tomography show fluid in the involved area.

A nurse is caring for a client who was admitted with pneumonia, has a history of falls, and has skin lesions resulting from scratching. The priority nursing diagnosis for this client should be:

Ineffective airway clearance. Ineffective airway clearance is the priority nursing diagnosis for this client. Pneumonia involves excess secretions in the respiratory tract and inhibits air flow to the capillary bed. A client with pneumonia may not have an Ineffective breathing pattern, such as tachypnea, bradypnea, or Cheyne-Stokes respirations. Risk for falls and Impaired tissue integrity aren't priority diagnoses for this client.

The nurse identifies which finding to be most consistent prior to the onset of acute respiratory distress?

Normal lung function Acute respiratory failure occurs suddenly in clients who previously had normal lung function.

Which is a key characteristic of pleurisy?

Pain The key characteristic of pleuritic pain is its relationship to respiratory movement. Taking a deep breath, coughing, or sneezing worsens the pain.

A client has hypoxemia of pulmonary origin. What portion of arterial blood gas results is most useful in distinguishing between acute respiratory distress syndrome and acute respiratory failure?

Partial pressure of arterial oxygen (PaO2) In acute respiratory failure, administering supplemental oxygen elevates the PaO2. In acute respiratory distress syndrome, elevation of the PaO2 requires positive end-expiratory pressure. In both situations, the PaCO2 is elevated and the pH and HCO3- are depressed.

A client is admitted to the facility with a productive cough, night sweats, and a fever. Which action is most important in the initial care plan?

Placing the client in respiratory isolation Because the client's signs and symptoms suggest a respiratory infection (possibly tuberculosis), respiratory isolation is indicated. Every 8 hours isn't frequent enough to assess the temperature of a client with a fever. Monitoring fluid intake and output may be required, but the client should first be placed in isolation. The nurse should wear gloves only for contact with mucous membranes, broken skin, blood, and other body fluids and substances.

A client presents to a physician's office complaining of dyspnea with exertion, weakness, and coughing up blood. Further examination reveals peripheral edema, crackles, and jugular vein distention. The nurse anticipates the physician will make which diagnosis?

Pulmonary hypertension Dyspnea, weakness, hemoptysis, and right-sided heart failure are all signs of pulmonary hypertension. Clients with COPD present with chronic cough, dyspnea on exertion, and sputum production. Those with empyema are acutely ill and have signs of acute respiratory infection or pneumonia. Clients with pulmonary tuberculosis usually present with low-grade fever, night sweats, fatigue, cough, and weight loss.

The nursing instructor is talking with the junior class of nursing students about lung cancer. What would be the best rationale the instructor could give for the difficulty of early diagnosis of lung cancer?

Symptoms often do not appear until the disease is well established. Early diagnosis of cancer of the lung is difficult because symptoms often do not appear until the disease is well established. Option A is correct, but it is not the best answer. Option B is incorrect because it is not a true statement. Option C is incorrect because lung cancer is not an infectious disease.

The nurse assesses a patient for a possible pulmonary embolism. What frequent sign of pulmonary embolus does the nurse anticipate finding on assessment?

Tachypnea Symptoms of PE depend on the size of the thrombus and the area of the pulmonary artery occluded by the thrombus; they may be nonspecific. Dyspnea is the most frequent symptom; the duration and intensity of the dyspnea depend on the extent of embolization. Chest pain is common and is usually sudden and pleuritic in origin. It may be substernal and may mimic angina pectoris or a myocardial infarction. Other symptoms include anxiety, fever, tachycardia, apprehension, cough, diaphoresis, hemoptysis, and syncope. The most frequent sign is tachypnea (very rapid respiratory rate).

A nurse observes a new environmental services employee enter the room of a client with severe acute respiratory syndrome. Which action by the employee requires immediate intervention by the nurse?

The employee enters the room wearing a gown, gloves, and a mask. The nurse should tell the employee to wear the proper personal protective equipment, including a gown, gloves, N95 respirator, and eye protection, when entering the client's room. To prevent the spread of infection, a stethoscope, blood pressure cuff, and thermometer for single client use should be kept in the room of a client who requires isolation. Removing all personal protective equipment and washing hands before leaving the client's room are correct procedures.

During discharge teaching, a nurse is instructing a client about pneumonia. The client demonstrates his understanding of relapse when he states that he must:

continue to take antibiotics for the entire 10 days. The client demonstrates understanding of how to prevent relapse when he states that he must continue taking the antibiotics for the prescribed 10-day course. Although the client should keep the follow-up appointment with the physician and turn and reposition himself frequently, these interventions don't prevent relapse. The client should drink 51 to 101 oz (1,500 to 3,000 ml) per day of clear liquids.

A client who is diagnosed with chronic respiratory failure will have which symptom?

dyspnea Apprehension, restlessness, fatigue, headache, dyspnea, wheezing, cyanosis, and use of the accessory muscles of respiration are seen in clients with impending respiratory failure. A fall in arterial oxygen levels, or hypoxemia, is a sign of acute respiratory failure. A rise in arterial CO2, or hypercapnia, is a sign of acute respiratory failure. Ventilatory failure develops in acute respiratory failure when the alveoli cannot adequately expand.

Arterial blood gas analysis would reveal which value related to acute respiratory failure?

pH 7.28 Acute respiratory failure is defined as a decrease in arterial oxygen tension (PaO2) to less than 60 mm Hg (hypoxemia) and an increase in arterial carbon dioxide tension (PaCO2) to greater than 50 mm Hg (hypercapnia), with an arterial pH less than 7.35.

A client presents to the ED reporting dyspnea on exertion and overall weakness. The client's pulmonary arterial pressure is 40/15 mm Hg. These symptoms indicate that the client may have which condition?

pulmonary arterial hypertension

A client who underwent thoracic surgery to remove a lung tumor had a chest tube placed anteriorly. The surgical team places this catheter to:

remove air from the pleural space. After thoracic surgery, draining secretions, air, and blood from the thoracic cavity is necessary to allow the lungs to expand. A catheter placed in the pleural space provides a drainage route through a closed or underwater-seal drainage system to remove air. Sometimes two chest catheters are placed following thoracic surgery: one anteriorly and one posteriorly. The anterior catheter removes air; the posterior catheter removes fluid.

Influenza, an annual epidemic in the U.S., creates a significant increase in hospitalizations and an rise in the death rates from pneumonia and cardiovascular disease. Besides death, what is the most serious complication of influenza?

staphylococcal pneumonia Complications include tracheobronchitis, bacterial pneumonia, and cardiovascular disease, however staphylococcal pneumonia is the most serious complication.