Mental Health Exam #2 (Ch: 9, 10, 12,16-21)

An adolescent client was recently admitted to the psychiatric unit because of impulsivity and acting-out behavior at school. The nurse should initially implement which nursing action? A. Redirect the client to activities to decrease stress. B. Explain the unit rules and consequences of breaking the rules. C. Place the client on close observation to insure a trusting relationship. D. Administer an anti-anxiety medication.

ANS B

A client is in therapy with a nurse practitioner for the treatment of arachnophobia. The nurse practitioner decides to use the technique of flooding. Which intervention best exemplifies this technique? A. Giving rewards for demonstrating a decrease in fear of spiders B. Encouraging the client to sit through the movie Spiderman C. Accompanying the client to a 1-hour visit to the local zoos spider room D. Offering a computer program that progressively presents anxiety-producing spider scenario

ANS C

A client is admitted for alcohol detoxification. During detoxification, which symptoms should the nurse expect to assess? A. Gross tremors, delirium, hyperactivity, and hypertension B. Disorientation, peripheral neuropathy, and hypotension C. Oculogyric crisis, amnesia, ataxia, and hypertension D. Hallucinations, fine tremors, confabulation, and orthostatic hypotension

ANS: A Withdrawal is defined as the physiological and mental readjustment that accompanies the discontinuation of an addictive substance. Symptoms can include gross tremors, delirium, hyperactivity, hypertension, nausea, vomiting, tachycardia, hallucinations, and seizures.

A nurse should recognize which intervention as most appropriate within a behavioral therapy program? A. A child is given a Popsicle for staying dry and clean. B. A child is put in time-out after soiling his or her undergarments. C. A child is allowed to remain in soiled undergarments. D. A child is taught the advantages of staying dry and clean.

ANS: A A stimulus that follows a behavior or response is called a reinforcing stimulus or reinforcer. The reward of a Popsicle is a reinforcer for the child staying dry and clean. This is an example of operant conditioning, a form of behavioral therapy.

A nursing instructor is teaching about dichotomous thinking. Which student statement indicates that learning has occurred? A. Dichotomous thinking is when an individual views situations as being good or bad or black or white. B. Dichotomous thinking is when an individual takes complete responsibility for situations without considering other circumstances. C. Dichotomous thinking is when an individual exaggerates the negative significance of an event. D. Dichotomous thinking is when an individual undervalues the positive significance of an event.

ANS: A An individual who is using dichotomous thinking views situations in terms of all or nothing, good or bad, or black or white.

A client is questioning the nurse about a newly prescribed medication, acamprosate calcium (Campral). Which is the most appropriate reply by the nurse? A. This medication will help you maintain your abstinence. B. This medication will cause uncomfortable symptoms if you combine it with alcohol. C. This medication will decrease the effect alcohol has on your body. D. This medication will lower your risk of experiencing a complicated withdrawal.

ANS: A Campral has been approved by the U.S. Food and Drug Administration (FDA) for the maintenance of abstinence from alcohol in clients diagnosed with alcohol dependence who are abstinent at treatment initiation.

hich client statement would exemplify the level of cognitive function that you would expect to see in mild anxiety? A. Right now I feel as sharp as a tack. B. Im having a tough time focusing. C. Sometimes I feel like Im having an out-of-body experience. D. All I seem to focus on is my anger.

ANS: A Cognitive ability will be enhanced with mild anxiety. Mild anxiety prepares the individual for heightened responses to environmental stimuli.

A third-grader feigns illness in order to avoid doing homework. The teacher recommends an educational program that uses a token economy. How should a school nurse explain a token economy to this childs parent? A. Your child will receive green tokens for completing homework that can be cashed in for desired rewards. B. Your child will receive red tokens when homework is incomplete and this will result in school suspension. C. Your child will receive a time out for each homework assignment not completed. D. Your child, with your assistance, will envision receiving rewards for completed homework.

ANS: A In a token economy, tokens are a form of contingency contracting in that tokens immediately reinforce appropriate behavior (completed homework) and are exchanged later for a desired reward.

A mother states, You are old enough to clean your own bedroom. Later inspection finds the floor clear, but with everything stacked in a chair. The mother praises the child for clearing the floor. This is consistent with which technique of behavior modification? A. Shaping B. Extinction C. Stimulus generalization D. Reciprocal inhibition

ANS: A In shaping, behavior is molded in a desired direction by reinforcing each small step toward the desired behavior. The child is praised for clearing the floor, the first step toward cleaning the room.

A client has been brought to the emergency department for signs and symptoms of Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary Disease (COPD). The client has a history of a suicide attempt 1 year ago. Which nursing intervention would take priority in this situation? A. Assessing the clients pulse oximetry and vital signs B. Developing a plan for safety for the client C. Assessing the client for suicidal ideations D. Establishing a trusting nurseclient relationship

ANS: A It is important to prioritize client interventions that assess the symptoms of COPD prior to any other nursing intervention. Physical needs must be prioritized according to Maslows hierarchy of needs. This clients problems with oxygenation will take priority over assessing for current suicidal ideations

A successful business executive continually thinks that job accomplishments are not adequate. A nurse recognizes that the clients thinking is reflective of which cognitive error? A. Minimization B. Dichotomous thinking C. Arbitrary inference D. Personalization

ANS: A Minimization is the cognitive error that undervalues positive events and experiences. The client cannot give credit for personal strengths.

A client diagnosed with chronic alcohol use disorder is being discharged from an inpatient treatment facility after detoxification. Which client outcome related to Alcoholics Anonymous (AA) would be most appropriate for a nurse to discuss with the client during discharge teaching? A. After discharge, the client will immediately attend 90 AA meetings in 90 days. B. After discharge, the client will rely on an AA sponsor to help control alcohol cravings. C. After discharge, the client will incorporate family in AA attendance. D. After discharge, the client will seek appropriate deterrent medications through AA.

ANS: A The most appropriate client outcome for the nurse to discuss during discharge teaching is attending 90 AA meetings in 90 days after discharge. AA is a major self-help organization for the treatment of alcoholism. It accepts alcoholism as an illness and promotes total abstinence as the only cure.

A client diagnosed with neurocognitive disorder exhibits progressive memory loss, diminished cognitive functioning, and verbal aggression upon experiencing frustration. Which nursing intervention is most appropriate? A. Schedule structured daily routines. B. Minimize environmental lighting. C. Organize a group activity to present reality. D. Explain the consequences for aggressive behaviors.

ANS: A The most appropriate nursing intervention for this client is to schedule structured daily routines. A structured routine will reduce frustration and thereby reduce verbal aggression.

A client has a history of daily bourbon drinking for the past 6 months. He is brought to an emergency department by family, who report that his last drink was 1 hour ago. It is now 12 midnight. When should a nurse expect this client to exhibit withdrawal symptoms? A. Between 3 a.m. and 11 a.m. B. Shortly after a 24-hour period C. At the beginning of the third day D. Withdrawal is individualized and cannot be predicted.

ANS: A The nurse should expect that this client will begin experiencing withdrawal symptoms from alcohol between 3 a.m. and 11 a.m. Symptoms of alcohol withdrawal usually occur within 4 to 12 hours of cessation or reduction in heavy and prolonged alcohol use.

A geriatric nurse is teaching student nurses about the risk factors for development of delirium in older adults. Which student statement indicates that learning has occurred? A. Taking multiple medications may lead to adverse interactions or toxicity. B. Age-related cognitive changes may lead to alterations in mental status. C. Lack of rigorous exercise may lead to decreased cerebral blood flow. D. Decreased social interaction may lead to profound isolation and psychosis.

ANS: A The nurse should identify that taking multiple medications may lead to adverse reactions or toxicity and put an older adult at risk for the development of delirium. Symptoms of delirium include difficulty sustaining and shifting attention. The client with delirium is disoriented to time and place and may also have impaired memory.

A client diagnosed with depression and substance use disorder has an altered sleep pattern and demands that a psychiatrist prescribe a sedative. Which rationale explains why a nurse should encourage the client to first try nonpharmacological interventions? A. Sedative-hypnotics are potentially addictive and will lose their effectiveness due to tolerance. B. Sedative-hypnotics are expensive and have numerous side effects. C. Sedative-hypnotics interfere with necessary REM (rapid eye movement) sleep. D. Sedative-hypnotics are not as effective to promote sleep as antidepressant medications.

ANS: A The nurse should recommend nonpharmacological interventions to this client because sedative-hypnotics are potentially addictive and will lose their effectiveness due to tolerance. The effects of central nervous system depressants are additive with one another and are capable of producing physiological and psychological dependence.

A lonely, depressed divorce has been self-medicating with cocaine for the past year. Which term should a nurse use to best describe this individuals situation? A. The individual is experiencing psychological addiction. B. The individual is experiencing physical addiction. C. The individual is experiencing substance addiction. D. The individual is experiencing social addiction.

ANS: A The nurse should use the term psychological addiction to best describe this clients situation. A client is considered to be psychologically addicted to a substance when there is an overwhelming desire to use a substance in order to produce pleasure or avoid discomfort.

What should be the priority nursing diagnosis for a client experiencing alcohol withdrawal? A. Risk for injury R/T central nervous system stimulation B. Disturbed thought processes R/T tactile hallucinations C. Ineffective coping R/T powerlessness over alcohol use D. Ineffective denial R/T continued alcohol use despite negative consequences

ANS: A The priority nursing diagnosis for a client experiencing alcohol withdrawal should be risk for injury R/T central nervous system stimulation. Alcohol withdrawal may include the following symptoms: course tremors of hands, tongue, or eyelids; seizures; nausea or vomiting; malaise or weakness; tachycardia; sweating; elevated blood pressure; anxiety; depressed mood; hallucinations; headache; and insomnia.

Which nursing intervention strategy is most appropriate to implement initially with a suicidal client? A. Ask a direct question such as, Do you ever think about killing yourself? B. Ask client, Please rate your mood on a scale from 1 to 10. C. Establish a trusting nurseclient relationship. D. Apply the nursing process to the planning of client care.

ANS: A The risk of suicide is greatly increased if the client has suicidal ideations, if the client has developed a plan, and particularly if the means exist for the client to execute the plan.

A nursing student evaluates her group project partner as irresponsible because of minimal participation in planning. When told of this situation, the nursing instructor plans to use the cognitive technique of examining the evidence. Which response exemplifies this technique? A. Lets look at the potential reasons why your partner has not participated. B. How would you define irresponsibility? C. Has it occurred to you that your partner may be working on the project at home? D. Are you telling me that you feel totally responsible for this project?

ANS: A When using the technique of examining the evidence, the student and nurse review automatic thoughts and study the evidence to support or counter the belief.

A nurse practitioner uses cognitive therapy with depressed clients. The nurse asks clients to keep a daily record of dysfunctional thoughts. Which of the following are appropriate nursing replies to a client questioning the purpose of this exercise? Select all that apply. A. The purpose of this exercise is to identify automatic thoughts. B. The purpose of this exercise is to identify rational alternatives. C. The purpose of this exercise is to modify cognitive errors. D. The purpose of this exercise is to eliminate irrational beliefs. E. The purpose of this exercise is to monitor thoughts related to self-esteem.

ANS: A, B, C In a daily record of dysfunctional thoughts, clients (1) identify automatic thoughts and (2) generate a more rational response. In this way, the tool serves to help them (3) modify or make changes in their thinking. A daily record of dysfunctional thoughts does not eliminate the occurrence of irrational beliefs or monitor thoughts solely related to self-esteem.

Which of the following nursing statements exemplify important insights that will promote effective intervention with clients diagnosed with substance use disorders? Select all that apply. A. I am easily manipulated and need to work on this prior to caring for these clients. B. Because of my fathers alcoholism, I need to examine my attitude toward these clients. C. Drinking is legal, so the diagnosis of substance use disorder is an infringement on client rights. D. Opiate addicts are typically uneducated, unrefined individuals who will need a lot of education and social skills training. E. I can fix clients diagnosed with substance use disorders as long as I truly care about them.

ANS: A, B, D The nurse should examine personal bias and preconceived negative attitudes prior to caring for clients diagnosed with substance-abuse disorders. A deficit in this area may affect the nurses ability to establish therapeutic relationships with these clients. A nurse who adopts the attitude that he or she can fix another person may be struggling with codependency issues.

A nursing instructor is teaching students about cirrhosis of the liver. Which of the following student statements about the complications of hepatic encephalopathy should indicate that further student teaching is needed? Select all that apply. A. A diet rich in protein will promote hepatic healing. B. This condition leads to a rise in serum ammonia, resulting in impaired mental functioning. C. In this condition, blood accumulates in the abdominal cavity. D. Neomycin and lactulose are used in the treatment of this condition. E. This condition is caused by the inability of the liver to convert ammonia to urea.

ANS: A, C The nursing instructor should understand that further teaching is needed if the nursing student states that a diet rich in protein will promote hepatic healing or that this condition causes blood to accumulate in the abdominal cavity (ascites), because these are incorrect statements. The treatment of hepatic encephalopathy requires abstention from alcohol, temporary elimination of protein from the diet, and reduction of intestinal ammonia by means of neomycin or lactulose. This condition occurs in response to the inability of the liver to convert ammonia to urea for excretion.

A nursing student is developing a study guide related to historical facts about suicide. Which of the following facts should the student include? Select all that apply. A. In the Middle Ages, suicide was viewed as a selfish and criminal act. B. During the Roman Empire, suicide was followed by incineration of the body. C. Suicide was an offense in ancient Greece, and a common-site burial was denied. D. During the Renaissance, suicide was discussed and viewed more philosophically. E. Old Norse traditionally set a person who committed suicide adrift in the North Sea.

ANS: A, C, D These are true historical facts about suicide and should be included in the students study guide.

A nurse notices a client clenching fists periodically and pacing the hallway. Which of the following nursing interventions would best assist the client at this time? Select all that apply. A. Acknowledge the clients behavior. B. Initiate forced medication protocol. C. Assist the client to a quiet area. D. Initiate confinement measures. E. Speak with a soft and calming voice.

ANS: A, C, E The nurse should remain calm when dealing with an angry client. It is important to acknowledge the clients behavior and assist the client to a less stimulating environment.

The director of nursing (DON) sets up a meeting with the newly appointed nurse manager, who, to this point, has done an excellent job. The nurse manager anticipates job termination. What is the best description of the cognitive error being employed by the nurse manager? A. Thinking from an all-or-nothing perspective B. Always thinking the worst will occur without considering positive outcomes C. Viewing only selected negative evidence while editing out positive aspects D. Undervaluing the positive significance of an event

ANS: B Catastrophic thinking involves always thinking that the worst will occur without considering the possibility of more likely positive outcomes. The nurse manager has quickly jumped to the conclusion that the meeting will result in job termination.

A nursing instructor is teaching about the didactic aspects of cognitive therapy. Which student statement indicates a deficit in meeting the learning objectives of this content? A. The therapist provides information about the process of cognitive therapy. B. The therapist uses guided imagery in an effort to elicit automatic thoughts. C. The therapist provides information about how cognitive therapy works. D. The therapist uses reading assignments to reinforce learning.

ANS: B Cognitive therapy prepares the client to become his or her own cognitive therapist. The didactic portion of the therapy provides educational material to reinforce learning about the therapy and how it affects psychiatric disorders.

In assessing a client with polysubstance abuse, the nurse should recognize that withdrawal from which substance may require a life-saving emergency intervention? A. Dextroamphetamine (Dexedrine) B. Diazepam (Valium) C. Morphine (Astramorph) D. Phencyclidine (PCP)

ANS: B If large doses of a central nervous system (CNS) depressant (such as Valium) are repeatedly administered over a prolonged duration, a period of CNS hyperexcitability occurs on withdrawal of the drug. The response can be quite severe, even leading to convulsions and death.

Parents of a 3-year-old have noticed an improvement in behavior because of using a time out behavioral approach. What aspect of time out therapy may be responsible for this childs improved behavior? A. Negative reinforcement discourages maladaptive behavior. B. Positive reinforcement is removed. C. Covert sensitization is being applied. D. Reciprocal inhibition is eliminated.

ANS: B In a time out, the positive reinforcement of attention is removed from the child during inappropriate behavior.

An adolescent comes from a dysfunctional family where physical and verbal abuse prevails. At school this adolescent bullies and fights with classmates. According to principles of behavior therapy, what is the probable source of this behavior? A. Shaping B. Modeling C. Premack principle D. Reciprocal inhibition

ANS: B Modeling is the learning of new behaviors by imitating the behaviors of others. This adolescent, witnessing physical and verbal abuse in the home, models this behavior in school.

A nursing instructor is teaching about the behavior technique of modeling. When asked to give an example of this behavioral intervention, which student statement meets the learning objective? A. A child is first rewarded for using a spoon to eat and then rewarded for using a fork, and finally rewarded for cutting food with a knife. B. An adolescent imitates Dad by using and caring for tools appropriately. C. A client and therapist agree to conditions of therapy, stating explicitly in writing the behavior change that is desired. D. A mother tells her child that television can be watched only after homework is completed.

ANS: B Modeling refers to the learning of new behaviors by imitating the behavior of others.

Which symptom should a nurse identify that would differentiate clients diagnosed with neurocognitive disorders from clients diagnosed with amnesic disorders? A. Neurocognitive disorders involve disorientation that develops suddenly, whereas amnestic disorders develop more slowly. B. Neurocognitive disorders involve impairment of abstract thinking and judgment, whereas amnestic disorders do not. C. Neurocognitive disorders include the symptom of confabulation, whereas amnestic disorders do not. D. Both neurocognitive disorders and profound amnesia typically share the symptom of disorientation to place, time, and self.

ANS: B Neurocognitive disorders involve impairment of abstract thinking and judgment. Amnestic disorders are characterized by an inability to learn new information and to recall previously learned information, with no impairment in higher cortical functioning or personality change.

A client is diagnosed with an anxiety disorder. The nurse counselor recommends intervention with the behavioral technique of reciprocal inhibition. The client asks, Whats that? Which is the most appropriate nursing reply? A. At the beginning of this intervention, a contract will be drawn up explicitly stating the behavior change agreed upon. B. By introducing an adaptive behavior that is mutually exclusive to your maladaptive behavior, we will expect subsequent behavior to improve. C. Through a series of increasingly anxiety-provoking steps, we will gradually increase your tolerance to anxiety. D. In one intense session, you will be exposed to a maximum level of anxiety that you will learn to tolerate.

ANS: B Reciprocal inhibition decreases or eliminates an undesired behavior by introducing a more adaptive behavior that is incompatible with the undesired behavior.

Which is the priority nursing intervention for a client admitted for acute alcohol intoxication? A. Darken the room to reduce stimuli in order to prevent seizures. B. Assess aggressive behaviors in order to intervene to prevent injury to self or others. C. Administer lorazepam (Ativan) to reduce the rebound effects on the central nervous system. D. Teach the negative effects of alcohol on the body.

ANS: B Symptoms associated with the syndrome of alcohol intoxication include but are not limited to aggressiveness, impaired judgment, impaired attention, and irritability. Safety is a nursing priority in this situation.

According to behavioral theory, the treatment of phobic symptoms should involve which action? A. The manipulation of the environment B. The use of desensitization C. The use of family therapy D. The uncovering of past events

ANS: B Systematic desensitization is a technique for assisting individuals to overcome their fear of a phobic stimulus. It is systematic in that there is a hierarchy of anxiety-producing events through which the individual progresses during therapy.

A nurse recently admitted a client to an inpatient unit after a suicide attempt. A health-care provider orders amitriptyline (Elavil) for the client. Which intervention related to this medication should be initiated to maintain this clients safety upon discharge? A. Provide a 6-month supply of Elavil to ensure long-term compliance. B. Provide a 1-week supply of Elavil with refills contingent on follow-up appointments. C. Provide a pill dispenser as a memory aid. D. Provide education regarding the avoidance of foods containing tyramine.

ANS: B The health-care provider should provide a 1-week supply of Elavil with refills contingent on follow-up appointments as an appropriate intervention to maintain the clients safety. Tricyclic antidepressants have a narrow therapeutic range and can be used in overdose to commit suicide. Distributing limited amounts of the medication decreases this potential.

Which statement indicates that the nurse is acting as an advocate for a client who was hospitalized after a suicide attempt and is now nearing discharge? A. I must observe you continually for 1 hour in order to keep you safe. B. Lets confer with the treatment team about the resources that you may need after discharge. C. You must have been very upset to do what you did today. D. Are you currently thinking about harming yourself?

ANS: B The nurse is functioning in an advocacy role when collaborating with the client and treatment team

A nurse evaluates a clients patient-controlled analgesia (PCA) pump and notices 100 attempts within a 30- minute period. Which is the best rationale for assessing this client for substance use disorder? A. Narcotic pain medication is contraindicated for all clients with active substance-use problems. B. Clients who are regularly using alcohol or benzodiazepines may have developed cross-tolerance to analgesics and require increased doses to achieve effective pain control. C. There is no need to assess the client for substance use disorder. There is an obvious PCA malfunction. D. The client is experiencing symptoms of withdrawal and needs to be accurately assessed for lorazepam (Ativan) dosage.

ANS: B The nurse should assess the client for substance use disorder because clients who are regularly using alcohol or benzodiazepines may have developed cross-tolerance to analgesics and require increased doses to achieve effective pain control. Cross-tolerance occurs when one drug lessens the clients response to another drug.

During a therapeutic group, a client talks about personal accomplishments in an effort to gain attention. Which group role, assumed by this client, should the nurse identify? A. The task role of gatekeeper B. The individual role of recognition seeker C. The maintenance role of dominator D. The task role of elaborator

ANS: B The nurse should evaluate that the client is assuming the individual role of the recognition seeker. Other individual roles include the aggressor, the blocker, the dominator, the help seeker, the monopolizer, and the seducer.

A nurse is reviewing STAT laboratory data of a client presenting in the emergency department. At what minimum blood alcohol level should a nurse expect intoxication to occur? A. 50 mg/dL B. 100 mg/dL C. 250 mg/dL D. 300 mg/dL

ANS: B The nurse should expect that 100 mg/dL is the minimum blood alcohol level at which intoxication occurs. Intoxication usually occurs between 100 and 200 mg/dL. Death has been reported at levels ranging from 400 to 700 mg/dL.

A client with a history of cerebrovascular accident (CVA) is brought to an emergency department experiencing memory problems, confusion, and disorientation. On the basis of this clients assessment data, which diagnosis would the nurse expect the physician to assign? A. Medication-induced delirium B. Vascular neurocognitive disorder C. Altered thought processes D. Alzheimers disease

ANS: B The nurse should expect that this client would be diagnosed with vascular neurocognitive disorder (NCD), which is due to significant cerebrovascular disease. Vascular NCD often has an abrupt onset. This disease often occurs in a fluctuating pattern of progression.

How should a nurse prioritize nursing diagnoses? A. By the established goal of care B. By the life-threatening potential C. By the physicians priority of care D. By the clients preference

ANS: B The nurse should prioritize nursing diagnoses related to life-threatening potential. Safety is always the nurses first priority.

A client with a history of heavy alcohol use is brought to an emergency department (ED) by family members who state that the client has had nothing to drink in the last 24 hours. Which client symptom should the nurse immediately report to the ED physician? A. Antecubital bruising B. Blood pressure of 180/100 mm Hg C. Mood rating of 2/10 on numeric scale D. Dehydration

ANS: B The nurse should recognize that high blood pressure is a symptom of alcohol withdrawal and should promptly report this finding to the physician. Complications associated with alcohol withdrawal may progress to alcohol withdrawal delirium and possible seizure activity on about the second or third day following cessation of prolonged alcohol consumption.

After years of dialysis, an 84-year-old states, Im exhausted, depressed, and done with these attempts to keep me alive. Which question should the nurse ask the spouse when preparing a discharge plan of care? A. Have there been any changes in appetite or sleep? B. How often is your spouse left alone? C. Has your spouse been following a diet and exercise program consistently? D. How would you characterize your relationship with your spouse?

ANS: B This client has many risk factors for suicide. The client should have increased supervision to decrease likelihood of self-harm.

A nursing instructor is teaching about suicide in the elderly population. Which information should the instructor include? A. Elderly people use less lethal means to commit suicide. B. Although the elderly make up less than 13% of the population, they account for 16% of all suicides. C. Suicide is the second leading cause of death among the elderly. D. It is normal for elderly individuals to express a desire to die, because they have come to terms with their mortality.

ANS: B This factual information should be included in the nursing instructors teaching plan. An expressed desire to die is not normal in any age group.

A nursing instructor is lecturing about cognitive therapy. Which of the following are objectives when implementing this therapy? Select all that apply. A. To modify automatic thoughts to promote minimization of negative cognitions B. To apply a variety of methods to create change in an individuals thinking C. To apply cognitive principles in order to change an individuals basic schema D. To modify belief systems in an effort to bring about emotional change E. To modify belief systems in an effort to bring about behavioral change

ANS: B, D, E In cognitive therapy, the therapists objective is to use a variety of methods to create change in a clients thinking and belief system, in an effort to bring about lasting emotional and behavioral change.

A 2-year-old engages in frequent temper tantrums that usually result in the parents giving in to demands. During family therapy, how should a nurse counsel the parents? A. You are shaping your childs behavior. B. Your child has modeled your behavior. C. You are positively reinforcing your childs behavior. D. You are negatively reinforcing your childs behavior.

ANS: C

A client diagnosed with neurocognitive disorder due to Alzheimers disease is disoriented and ataxic, and he wanders. Which is the priority nursing diagnosis? A. Disturbed thought processes B. Self-care deficit C. Risk for injury D. Altered health-care maintenance

ANS: C The priority nursing diagnosis for this client is risk for injury. Both ataxia (muscular incoordination) and purposeless wandering place the client at an increased risk for injury.

Which client data indicate that a suicidal client is participating in a plan for safety? A. Compliance with antidepressant therapy B. A mood rating of 9/10 C. Disclosing a plan for suicide to staff D. Expressing feelings of hopelessness to nurse

ANS: C A degree of the responsibility for the suicidal clients safety is given to the client. When a client shares with staff a plan for suicide, the client is participating in a plan for safety by communicating thoughts of self-harm that would initiate interventions to prevent suicide.

A client is newly admitted to an inpatient psychiatric unit. Which of the following is most critical to assess when determining risk for suicide? A. Family history of depression B. The clients orientation to reality C. The clients history of suicide attempts D. Family support systems

ANS: C A history of suicide attempts places a client at a higher risk for current suicide behaviors. Knowing this specific data will alert the nurse to the clients risk.

A mother tells her teenager that in order for college tuition to be paid, the teenager must quit smoking. They develop a written agreement stipulating time frames and consequences. This is an example of which technique of behavior modification? A. Shaping B. Modeling C. Contracting D. Premack principle

ANS: C Contracting occurs when the mother and teenager together develop a written agreement related to desired behavior (smoking cessation) and positive reinforcement (paid college tuition).

A nurse is caring for four clients diagnosed with major depressive disorder. When considering each clients belief system, the nurse should conclude which client would potentially be at highest risk for suicide? A. Roman Catholic B. Protestant C. Atheist D. Muslim

ANS: C Depressed men and women who consider themselves affiliated with a religion are less likely to attempt suicide than their nonreligious counterparts.

During hospitalization, an attention-seeking client has repeatedly cut herself. After threatening to cut herself again, the nurse states, Here are some Band-Aids so you wont bleed on the sheets. Which is the underlying reason for this nurses response? A. The nurse is using an aversive stimulus in response to the clients manipulative cutting behavior. B. The nurse is using negative reinforcement in response to the clients behavior. C. The nurse is minimizing reinforcement of the clients manipulative behavior with the goal of extinction. D. The nurse lacks empathy for the clients recurring self-injurious behavior.q

ANS: C Extinction is the gradual decrease in frequency or disappearance of a response when a positive reinforcement is withheld. The nurse is withholding attention to the client who is exhibiting manipulative, attention-seeking behavior. The lack of positive response (attention) should cause extinction of the undesired behavior.

The client states, I get into trouble because I respond violently without thinking. That usually gets me into a mess. Which nursing reply would be most therapeutic to address this clients problem? A. Everybody loses their temper. Its good that you know that about yourself. B. Ill bet you have some interesting stories to share about overreacting. C. Lets explore methods to help you stop and think before taking action. D. Its good that you are showing readiness for behavioral change.

ANS: C Helping the client to find alternative ways to release tension by more appropriate problem-solving behaviors is a therapeutic nursing intervention.

A nursing student states, The instructor gave me a failing grade on my research paper. I know its because the instructor doesnt like me. Which cognitive error does a nurse recognize in this students statement? A. Dichotomous thinking B. Catastrophic thinking C. Magnification D. Overgeneralization

ANS: C In magnification, negative events are exaggerated. It is irrational to assume that there is a relationship between failing a paper and being personally disliked by the instructor.

A labor and delivery nurse listens to a new mother relate thoughts regarding her healthy, 8-pound baby girl. Which statement by the mother indicates to the nurse the use of the cognitive error, selective abstraction? A. My baby is refusing to nurse, and I know its because she hates me. B. My baby needs to be under the bilirubin lights, but I resent her time away from me. C. My baby is wonderful, but Im depressed because I wanted twins. D. My baby has an elevated bilirubin, and I know it will get worse and she will die.

ANS: C In selective abstraction the individual focuses attention on evidence that is viewed as a failure (not having twins) rather than any successes (a healthy baby) that have occurred.

A recovering alcoholic relapses and drinks a glass of wine. The client presents in the emergency department (ED) experiencing severe throbbing headache, tachycardia, flushed face, dyspnea, and continuous vomiting. What may these symptoms indicate to the ED nurse? A. Alcohol poisoning B. Cardiovascular accident (CVA) C. A reaction to disulfiram (Antabuse) D. A reaction to tannins in the red wine

ANS: C Ingestion of alcohol while disulfiram is in the body results in a syndrome of symptoms that can produce a good deal of discomfort for the individual. Symptoms may include flushed skin, throbbing in the head and neck, respiratory difficulty, dizziness, nausea and vomiting, confusion, hypotension, and tachycardia.

A new nursing graduate asks the psychiatric nurse manager how to best classify suicide. Which is the nurse managers best reply? A. Suicide is a DSM-5 diagnosis. B. Suicide is a mental disorder. C. Suicide is a behavior. D. Suicide is an antisocial affliction.

ANS: C Suicide is not a diagnosis, disorder, or affliction. It is a behavior.

A client reports, My friend panicked at the site of spiders. Her therapist used gradual exposure to spiders that initially made her increasingly more anxious. Which technique was the friends therapist most likely using? A. Extinction B. Covert sensitization C. Systematic desensitization D. Reciprocal inhibition

ANS: C Systematic desensitization is a treatment for phobias in which a phobic individual is gradually exposed to increasing amounts of the phobic stimulus while practicing relaxation techniques. Eventually, the phobic stimulus causes little or no anxiety.

The nurse believes that a client being admitted for a surgical procedure may have a drinking problem. How should the nurse further evaluate this possibility? A. By asking directly if the client has ever had a problem with alcohol B. By holistically assessing the client, using the CIWA scale C. By using a screening tool such as the CAGE questionnaire D. By referring the client for physician evaluation

ANS: C The CAGE questionnaire is a screening tool used to determine whether the individual has a problem with alcohol. This questionnaire is composed of four simple questions. Scoring two or three yes answers strongly suggests a problem with alcohol.

A clients wife has been making excuses for her alcoholic husbands work absences. In family therapy, she states, I just need to work harder to get him there on time. Which is the appropriate nursing response? A. Why do you assume responsibility for his behaviors? B. Codependency is a typical behavior of spouses of alcoholics. C. Your husband needs to deal with the consequences of his drinking. D. Do you understand what the term enabler means?

ANS: C The appropriate nursing response is to use confrontation with caring. In Stage One (The Survival Stage) of recovery from codependency, the codependent person must begin to let go of the denial that problems exist or that his or her personal capabilities are unlimited.

A client diagnosed with alcohol use disorder joins a community 12-step program and states, My life is unmanageable. How should the nurse interpret this clients statement? A. The client is using minimization as an ego defense. B. The client is ready to sign an Alcoholics Anonymous contract for sobriety. C. The client has accomplished the first of 12 steps advocated by Alcoholics Anonymous. D. The client has met the requirements to be designated as an Alcoholics Anonymous sponsor.

ANS: C The first step of the 12-step program advocated by Alcoholics Anonymous is that clients must admit powerlessness over alcohol and that their lives have become unmanageable.

A client diagnosed with a neurocognitive disorder is exhibiting behavioral problems on a daily basis. At change of shift, the clients behavior escalates from pacing to screaming and flailing. Initially, which action should a nurse implement in this situation? A. Consult the psychologist regarding behavior-modification techniques. B. Medicate the client with prn antianxiety medications. C. Assess environmental triggers and potential unmet needs. D. Anticipate the behavior and restrain when pacing begins.

ANS: C The initial nursing action is to assess environmental triggers and potential unmet needs. Due to the cognitive decline experienced in a client diagnosed with neurocognitive disorder, communication skills may be limited. The client may become disoriented and frustrated.

Upon admission for symptoms of alcohol withdrawal, a client states, I havent eaten in 3 days. Assessment reveals BP 170/100 mm Hg, P 110, R 28, and T 97F (36C) with dry skin, dry mucous membranes, and poor skin turgor. What should be the priority nursing diagnosis? A. Knowledge deficit B. Fluid volume excess C. Imbalanced nutrition: less than body requirements D. Ineffective individual coping

ANS: C The nurse should assess that the priority nursing diagnosis is imbalanced nutrition: less than body requirements. The client is exhibiting signs and symptoms of malnutrition as well as alcohol withdrawal. The nurse should consult a dietitian, restrict sodium intake to minimize fluid retention, and provide small, frequent feedings of nonirritating foods.

A client with a history of three suicide attempts has been taking fluoxetine (Prozac) for 1 month. The client suddenly presents with a bright affect, rates mood at 9/10, and is much more communicative. Which action should be the nurses priority at this time? A. Give the client off-unit privileges as positive reinforcement. B. Encourage the client to share mood improvement in group. C. Increase frequency of client observation. D. Request that the psychiatrist reevaluate the current medication protocol.

ANS: C The nurse should be aware that a sudden increase in mood rating and change in affect could indicate that the client is at risk for suicide and client observation should be more frequent. Suicide risk may occur early during treatment with antidepressants. The return of energy may bring about an increased ability to act out self- destructive behaviors prior to attaining the full therapeutic effect of the antidepressant medication.

At what time during a 24-hour period should a nurse expect clients with Alzheimers disease to exhibit more pronounced symptoms? A. When they first awaken B. In the middle of the night C. At twilight D. After taking medications

ANS: C The nurse should determine that clients with Alzheimers disease exhibit more pronounced symptoms at twilight. Sundowning is the term used to describe the worsening of symptoms in the late afternoon and evening.

Which symptom should a nurse identify that would differentiate clients diagnosed with neurocognitive disorders from clients with pseudodementia (depression)? A. Altered sleep B. Impaired attention and concentration C. Altered task performance D. Impaired psychomotor activity

ANS: C The nurse should identify that attention and concentration are impaired in neurocognitive disorder and not in pseudodementia (depression).

During group therapy, a client diagnosed with alcohol use disorder states, I would not have boozed it up if my wife hadnt been nagging me all the time to get a job. She never did think that I was good enough for her. How should a nurse interpret this statement? A. The client is using denial by avoiding responsibility. B. The client is using displacement by blaming his wife. C. The client is using rationalization to excuse his alcohol dependence. D. The client is using reaction formation by appealing to the group for sympathy.

ANS: C The nurse should interpret that the client is using rationalization to excuse his alcohol use disorder. Rationalization is the defense mechanism by which people avoid taking responsibility for their actions by making excuses for the behavior

After 1 week of continuous mental confusion, an elderly African American client is admitted with a preliminary diagnosis of major neurocognitive disorder due to Alzheimers disease. What should cause the nurse to question this diagnosis? A. Neurocognitive disorder does not typically occur in African American clients. B. The symptoms presented are more indicative of Parkinsonism. C. Neurocognitive disorder does not develop suddenly. D. There has been no T3 or T4 level evaluation ordered.

ANS: C The nurse should know that neurocognitive disorder (NCD) does not develop suddenly and should question this diagnosis. The onset of NCD symptoms is slow and insidious and is unrelated to race, culture, or creed. The disease is generally progressive and debilitating.

A client is newly committed to an inpatient psychiatric unit. Which nursing intervention best lowers this clients risk for suicide? A. Encouraging participation in the milieu to promote hope B. Developing a strong personal relationship with the client C. Observing the client at intervals determined by assessed data D. Encouraging and redirecting the client to concentrate on happier times

ANS: C The nurse should observe the actively suicidal client continuously for the first hour after admission. After a full assessment the treatment team will determine the observation status of the client. Observation of the client allows the nurse to interrupt any observed suicidal behaviors.

client is experiencing progressive changes in memory that have interfered with personal, social, and occupational functioning. The client exhibits poor judgment and has a short attention span. A nurse should recognize these as classic signs of which condition? A. Mania B. Delirium C. Neurocognitive disorder D. Parkinsonism

ANS: C The nurse should recognize that the client is exhibiting signs of neurocognitive disorder (NCD). In NCD, impairment is evident in abstract thinking, judgment, and impulse control. Behavior may be uninhibited and inappropriate.

A client diagnosed with major depressive disorder with psychotic features hears voices commanding self- harm. The client refuses to commit to developing a plan for safety. What should be the nurses priority intervention at this time? A. Obtaining an order for locked seclusion until client is no longer suicidal B. Conducting 15-minute checks to ensure safety C. Placing the client on one-to-one observation while monitoring suicidal ideations D. Encouraging client to express feelings related to suicide

ANS: C The nurses priority intervention when a client hears voices commanding self-harm is to place the client on one-

A nurse discovers a clients suicide note that details the time, place, and means to commit suicide. What should be the priority nursing intervention and the rationale for this action? A. Administering lorazepam (Ativan) prn, because the client is angry about the discovery of the note B. Establishing room restrictions, because the clients threat is an attempt to manipulate the staff C. Placing this client on one-to-one suicide precautions, because the more specific the plan, the more likely the client will attempt suicide D. Calling an emergency treatment team meeting, because the clients threat must be addressed

ANS: C The priority nursing action should be to place this client on one-to-one suicide precautions, because the more specific the plan, the more likely the client will attempt suicide. The appropriate nursing diagnosis for this client would be risk for suicide.

On the first day of a clients alcohol detoxification, which nursing intervention should take priority? A. Strongly encourage the client to attend 90 Alcoholics Anonymous meetings in 90 days. B. Educate the client about the biopsychosocial consequences of alcohol abuse. C. Administer ordered chlordiazepoxide (Librium) in a dosage according to protocol. D. Administer vitamin B1 to prevent Wernicke-Korsakoff syndrome.

ANS: C The priority nursing intervention for this client should be to administer ordered chlordiazepoxide (Librium) in a dosage according to protocol. Chlordiazepoxide (Librium) is a benzodiazepine and is often used for substitution therapy in alcohol withdrawal. Substitution therapy may be required to reduce life-threatening

client with a history of insomnia has been taking chlordiazepoxide (Librium), 15 mg, at night for the past year. The client currently reports that this dose is no longer helping him fall asleep. Which nursing diagnosis appropriately documents this problem? A. Ineffective coping R/T unresolved anxiety AEB substance abuse B. Anxiety R/T poor sleep AEB difficulty falling asleep C. Disturbed sleep pattern R/T Librium tolerance AEB difficulty falling asleep D. Risk for injury R/T addiction to Librium

ANS: C Tolerance is defined as the need for increasingly larger or more frequent doses of a substance in order to obtain the desired effects originally produced by a lower dose.

When a clients husband comes home late from work, the wife immediately fears infidelity. The advanced practice nurse therapist encourages the wife to consider other explanations for her husbands tardiness. What technique is the nurse using? A. Examination of the evidence B. Decatastrophizing C. Generating alternatives D. Reattribution

ANS: C Using the technique of generating alternatives will assist the client to recognize a wider range of possible explanations for her husbands behavior.

During a one-to-one session with a client, the client states, Nothing will ever get better, and Nobody can help me. Which nursing diagnosis is most appropriate for a nurse to assign to this client at this time? A. Powerlessness R/T altered mood AEB client statements B. Risk for injury R/T altered mood AEB client statements C. Risk for suicide R/T altered mood AEB client statements D. Hopelessness R/T altered mood AEB client statements

ANS: D

Which term should a nurse use to describe the administration of a central nervous system (CNS) depressant during alcohol withdrawal? A. Antagonist therapy B. Deterrent therapy C. Codependency therapy D. Substitution therapy

ANS: D A CNS depressant such as Ativan is used during alcohol withdrawal as substitution therapy to prevent life- threatening symptoms that occur because of the rebound reaction of the central nervous system.

Which client statement demonstrates positive progress toward recovery from a substance use disorder? A. I have completed detox and therefore am in control of my drug use. B. I will faithfully attend Narcotic Anonymous (NA) when I cant control my cravings. C. As a church deacon, my focus will now be on spiritual renewal. D. Taking those pills got out of control. It cost me my job, marriage, and children.

ANS: D A client who takes responsibility for the consequences of substance use is making positive progress toward recovery. This client would most likely be in the working phase of the counseling process, in which he or she accepts the fact that substance use causes problems.

Parents decide to try the nurse practitioners suggestion of time out when their child misbehaves. What teaching should the nurse practitioner provide the parents? A. Correct your childs behavior by spanking for a specified time period. B. Ignore the childs negative behavior. C. Add positive reinforcement for acceptable behavior. D. Temporarily move your child to an area where behavior is not being reinforced.

ANS: D A time out is an aversive stimulus or punishment during which the client is removed from the environment where the unacceptable behavior is occurring. Usually during a time out, the person is temporarily isolated so there is no reinforcing attention. This discourages a reoccurrence of the undesired behavior.

A psychiatric nurse is counseling a client who has thought patterns consisting of rapid responses to a situation without rational analysis. What assessment data will the nurse document on this client? A. Thought patterns are triggered by specific stressful stimuli. B. Thought patterns contain the clients fundamental beliefs and assumptions. C. Thought patterns are flexible and based on personal experience. D. Thought patterns include a predominance of automatic thoughts.

ANS: D According to Beck, automatic thoughts consist of rapid responses to a situation without rational analysis. These thoughts are often negative and based on erroneous logic.

A nursing student is developing a plan of care for a suicidal client. Which documented intervention should the student implement first? A. Communicate therapeutically. B. Observe the client. C. Provide a hazard-free environment. D. Assess suicide risk.

ANS: D Assessment is the first step of the nursing process to gain needed information to determine further appropriate interventions.

When asked to identify principles that define the term maladaptive behavior, which nursing student statement indicates that further teaching is needed? A. Behavior is maladaptive when it is age inappropriate. B. Behavior is maladaptive when it interferes with adaptive functioning. C. Behavior is maladaptive when it is identified as inappropriate in the context of ones culture. D. Behavior is maladaptive when it results in change within an otherwise stable subsystem.

ANS: D Behaviors that result in change within a subsystem, even when it is stable, could be either adaptive or maladaptive behaviors. This statement, therefore, is incorrect.

The family of a suicidal client is very supportive and requests more facts related to caring for their family member after discharge. Which information should the nurse provide? A. Address only serious suicide threats to avoid the possibility of secondary gain. B. Promote trust by verbalizing a promise to keep suicide attempt information within the family. C. Offer a private environment to provide needed time alone at least once a day. D. Be available to actively listen, support, and accept feelings.

ANS: D Being available to actively listen, support, and accept feelings increases the potential that a client would confide suicidal ideations to family members.

A welder has been selected as employee of the year. The welder wants to ask for a promotion but is hampered by poor self-esteem. The employee health nurse provides assistance. Which technique should the nurse use to help the employee request the promotion? A. Socratic questioning B. Activity scheduling C. Distraction D. Cognitive rehearsal

ANS: D Cognitive rehearsal allows the employee to uncover potential automatic thoughts in advance of his or her meeting to request a promotion. This allows the employee to develop strategies to modify any dysfunctional thinking.

An advanced practice nurse recommends that a client participate in cognitive therapy. The client asks, Whats cognitive therapy and how can it help me? Which is the nurses most appropriate reply? A. It is a system of techniques in which you use positive thinking to improve your mood. B. It is a long-term interpersonal approach that emphasizes the role of early childhood experiences. C. It is an interpersonal treatment approach that specifically targets magical thinking. D. It is a type of psychotherapy that focuses treatment on the modification of distorted thinking and maladaptive behaviors.

ANS: D Cognitive therapy is meant to be a time-limited intervention in which the therapist works in collaboration with the client to modify thinking to eliminate cognitive errors that reinforce emotional disturbances.

client diagnosed with vascular dementia is discharged to home under the care of his wife. Which information should cause the nurse to question the clients safety? A. His wife works from home in telecommunication. B. The client has worked the night shift his entire career. C. His wife has minimal family support. D. The client smokes one pack of cigarettes per day.

ANS: D Forgetfulness is an early symptom of dementia that would alert the nurse to question the clients safety at home if the client smokes cigarettes. Vascular dementia is a clinical syndrome of dementia due to significant cerebrovascular disease. The cause of vascular dementia is related to an interruption of blood flow to the brain. High blood pressure and hypertension are significant factors in the etiology.

A nurse is caring for a client who has been prescribed disulfiram (Antabuse) as a deterrent to alcohol relapse. Which information should the nurse include when teaching the client about this medication? A. Only oral ingestion of alcohol will cause a reaction when taking this drug. B. It is safe to drink beverages that have only 12% alcohol content. C. This medication will decrease your cravings for alcohol. D. Reactions to combining Antabuse with alcohol can occur for as long as 2 weeks after stopping the drug.

ANS: D If Antabuse is discontinued, it is important for the client to understand that the sensitivity to alcohol may last for as long as 2 weeks.

A nursing instructor is teaching about suicide. Which student statement indicates that learning has occurred? A. Suicidal threats and gestures should be considered manipulative and/or attention-seeking. B. Suicide is the act of a psychotic person. C. All suicidal individuals are mentally ill. D. Fifty to eighty percent of all people who kill themselves have a history of a previous attempt.

ANS: D It is a fact that between 50% and 80% of all people who kill themselves have a history of a previous attempt. All other answer choices are myths about suicide.

A kindergarten rule states that if unacceptable behavior occurs, a childs personalized fish will be moved to the sea grass. Children who behave keep their fish out of the sea grass. The school nurse should identify this intervention as based on which principle of behavior therapy? A. Classical conditioning B. Conditioned response C. Positive reinforcement D. Negative reinforcement

ANS: D Negative reinforcement is increasing the probability that behavior (appropriate classroom behavior) will recur by removal of an undesirable reinforcing stimulus (personalized fish in sea grass).

The treatment team is making a discharge decision regarding a previously suicidal client. Which client assessment information should a nurse recognize as contributing to the teams decision? A. No previous admissions for major depressive disorder B. Vital signs stable; no psychosis noted C. Able to comply with medication regimen; able to problem-solve life issues D. Able to participate in a plan for safety; family agrees to constant observation

ANS: D Participation in a plan of safety and constant family observation will decrease the risk for self-harm. All other answer choices are not directly focused on suicide prevention and safety.

Which assumption is most reflective of a behavioral theory model? A. Mental illness is characterized by structural and biochemical alterations. B. Thought processes influence behaviors. C. All personality development has a social context. D. There is a basic relationship between stimulus and response.

ANS: D That there is a basic relationship between stimulus and response is an assumption of a behavioral theory model. The connection between a stimulus and a response is strengthened or weakened by the consequences of the response.

A nurse holds the hand of a client who is withdrawing from alcohol. What is the nurses rationale for this intervention? A. To assess for emotional strength B. To assess for Wernicke-Korsakoff syndrome C. To assess for tachycardia D. To assess for fine tremors

ANS: D The nurse is most likely assessing the client for fine tremors secondary to alcohol withdrawal. Withdrawal from alcohol can also cause headache, insomnia, transient hallucinations, depression, irritability, anxiety, elevated blood pressure, sweating, tachycardia, malaise, coarse tremors, and seizure activity.

Which medication orders should a nurse anticipate for a client who has a history of complicated withdrawal from benzodiazepines? A. Haloperidol (Haldol) and fluoxetine (Prozac) B. Carbamazepine (Tegretol) and donepezil (Aricept) C. Disulfiram (Antabuse) and lorazepam (Ativan) D. Chlordiazepoxide (Librium) and phenytoin (Dilantin)

ANS: D The nurse should anticipate that a physician would order chlordiazepoxide (Librium) and phenytoin (Dilantin) for a client who has a history of complicated withdrawal from benzodiazepines. It is common for long-lasting benzodiazepines to be prescribed for substitution therapy. Phenytoin (Dilantin) is an anticonvulsant that would be indicated for a client who has experienced a complicated withdrawal. Complicated withdrawals may progress to seizure activity.

Which client statement indicates a knowledge deficit related to substance use? A. Although its legal, alcohol is one of the most widely abused drugs in our society. B. Tolerance to heroin develops quickly. C. Flashbacks from LSD use may reoccur spontaneously. D. Marijuana is like smoking cigarettes. Everyone does it. Its essentially harmless.

ANS: D The nurse should determine that the client has a knowledge deficit related to substance use when the client compares marijuana to smoking cigarettes and claims it to be harmless. Both of these substances have potentially harmful effects. Cannabis is the second most widely abused drug in the United States.

A client diagnosed with neurocognitive disorder due to Alzheimers disease can no longer ambulate, does not recognize family members, and communicates with agitated behaviors and incoherent verbalizations. The nurse recognizes these symptoms as indicative of which stage of the illness? A. Confabulation stage B. Early stage C. Middle stage D. Late stage

ANS: D The nurse should recognize that this client is in the late stage of Alzheimers disease. The late stage is characterized by a severe cognitive decline.

During the planning of care for a suicidal client, which correctly written outcome should be a nurses first priority? A. The client will not physically harm self. B. The client will express hope for the future by day 3. C. The client will establish a trusting relationship with the nurse. D. The client will remain safe during the hospital stay.

ANS: D The nurses priority should be that the client will remain safe during the hospital stay. Client safety should always be the nurses priority. The A answer choice is incorrectly written. Correctly written outcomes must be client focused, measurable, and realistic and contain a time frame. Without a time frame, an outcome cannot be correctly evaluated.

A client diagnosed with neurocognitive disorder due to Alzheimers disease has impairments of memory and judgment and is incapable of performing activities of daily living. Which nursing intervention should take priority? A. Present evidence of objective reality to improve cognition B. Design a bulletin board to represent the current season C. Label the clients room with name and number D. Assist with bathing and toileting

ANS: D The priority nursing intervention for this client is to assist with bathing and toileting. A client who is incapable of performing activities of daily living requires assistance in these areas to ensure health and safety.

During a smoking cessation group, the community health nurse explains that in their effort to quit smoking, a reciprocal inhibition approach will be used. The nurse should give the group which example of this technique? A. Before you can smoke, you must first take a half-hour walk. B. When you have the urge to smoke, imagine being short of breath. C. Youll receive $1 for each cigarette not smoked and forfeit $2 for each cigarette smoked. D. When you have the urge to smoke, hold your breath and then rhythmically breathe.

ANS: D These breathing exercises cannot be done while the client smokes. Therefore, they decrease or eliminate the undesired behavior (smoking) that is incompatible with the desired behavior (smoking cessation). This is an example of the behavior therapy of reciprocal inhibition.

A child always chooses to ask mother over father when seeking special privileges. The father is more apt to disagree than agree with the childs requests, whereas the mother usually consents. The childs choice is the result of which component of operant conditioning? A. Conditioned stimuli B. Unconditioned stimuli C. Aversive stimuli D. Discriminative stimuli

ANS: D This child is able to discriminate between stimuli. This child can predict with assurance that asking mother (not father) will result in a desired response.

A suicidal client says to a nurse, Theres nothing to live for anymore. Which is the most appropriate nursing reply? A. Why dont you consider doing volunteer work in a homeless shelter? B. Lets discuss the negative aspects of your life. C. Things will look better in the morning. D. It sounds like you are feeling pretty hopeless.

ANS: D This statement verbalizes the clients implied feelings and allows him or her to validate and e

A nurse is interviewing a client in an outpatient drug treatment clinic. To promote success in the recovery process, which outcome should the nurse expect the client to initially accomplish? A. The client will identify one person to turn to for support. B. The client will give up all old drinking buddies. C. The client will be able to verbalize the effects of alcohol on the body. D. The client will correlate life problems with alcohol use.

ANS: D To promote the recovery process the nurse should expect that the client would initially correlate life problems with alcohol use. Acceptance of the problem is the first step of the recovery process.

Which is a correctly written, appropriate outcome for a client with a history of suicide attempts who is currently exhibiting symptoms of low self-esteem by isolating self? A. The client will not physically harm self. B. The client will express three positive self-attributes by day 4. C. The client will reveal a suicide plan. D. The client will establish a trusting relationship.

Ans B

An involuntarily committed client, when offered a dinner tray, pushes it off the bedside table onto the floor. Which intervention should a nurse prioritize to address this behavior? A. Initiate forced medication protocol. B. Help the client to explore the source of anger. C. Ignore the act to avoid reinforcing the behavior. D. With staff support and a show of solidarity, set firm limits on the behavior.

D

A high school basketball player sustains a serious knee injury and states to the school nurse, I will never get to college if I dont receive a basketball scholarship. Which nursing reply would assist the student to see a broader range of possibilities? A. Lets look at the alternatives for funding your college education. B. I know you are feeling helpless now, but you are looking at this from only one perspective. C. Can your family afford knee surgery? D. You now need to prioritize your academics and not focus on basketball.

NS: A When the nurse helps the student to see a broader range of possibilities, the nurse is using the cognitive technique of generating alternatives.

A nurse is caring for a client who has threatened to commit suicide by hanging. The client states, Im going to use a knotted shower curtain when no one is around. Which information would determine the nurses plan of care for this client? A. The more specific the plan is, the more likely the client will attempt suicide. B. Clients who talk about suicide never actually commit it. C. Clients who threaten suicide should be observed every 15 minutes. D. After a brief assessment, the nurse should avoid the topic of suicide.

aNS: A Clients who have specific plans are at greater risk for suicide.

After a teenager reveals that he is gay, the father responds by beating him. The next morning, the teenager is found hanging in his closet. Which paternal grief responses should a nurse anticipate? Select all that apply. A. I cant believe this is happening. B. If only I had been more understanding. C. How dare he do this to me! D. Im just going to have to accept that he was gay. E. Well, that was a selfish thing to do.

aNS: A, B, C

A mother who has a history of chronic heroin use has lost custody of her children due to abuse and neglect. She has been admitted to an inpatient drug rehabilitation program. Which client statement should a nurse associate with a positive prognosis for this client? A. Im not going to use heroin ever again. I know Ive got the willpower to do it this time. B. I cannot control my use of heroin. Its stronger than I am. C. Im going to get all my children back. They need their mother. D. Once I deal with my childhood physical abuse, recovery should be easy.

aNS: B A positive prognosis is more likely when a client admits that he or she is addicted to a substance and has a loss of control. One of the first steps in the 12-step model for treatment is for the client to admit powerlessnes

A client is in the late stage of Alzheimers disease. To address the clients symptoms, which nursing intervention should take priority? A. Improve cognitive status by encouraging involvement in social activities. B. Decrease social isolation by providing group therapies. C. Promote dignity by providing comfort, safety, and self-care measures. D. Facilitate communication by providing assistive devices.

ans c

A nursing instructor is teaching about donepezil (Aricept). A student asks, How does this work? Will this cure Alzheimers disease (AD)? Which is the appropriate instructor reply? A. This medication delays the destruction of acetylcholine, a chemical in the brain necessary for memory processes. Although most effective in the early stages, it serves to delay, but not stop, the progression of the AD. B. This medication encourages production of acetylcholine, a chemical in the brain necessary for memory processes. It delays the progression of the disease. C. This medication delays the destruction of dopamine, a chemical in the brain necessary for memory processes. Although most effective in the early stages, it serves to delay, but not stop, the progression of the AD. D. This medication encourages production of dopamine, a chemical in the brain necessary for memory processes. It delays the progression of the disease.

ans: a

stockbroker commits suicide after being convicted of insider trading. In speaking with the family, which statement by the nurse demonstrates accurate and appropriate sharing of information? A. Your grieving will subside within 1 year; until then I recommend antidepressants. B. Support groups are available specifically for survivors of suicide, and I would be glad to help you locate one in this area. C. The only way to deal effectively with this kind of grief is to write a letter to the brokerage firm to express your anger with them. D. Since stigmatization often occurs in these situations, it would be best if you avoid discussing the suicide with anyone.

ans: b

An older client has recently moved to a nursing home. The client has trouble concentrating and socially isolates. A physician believes the client would benefit from medication therapy. Which medication should the nurse expect the physician to prescribe? A. Haloperidol (Haldol) B. Donepezil (Aricept) C. Diazepam (Valium) D. Sertraline (Zoloft)

ans: d The nurse should expect the physician to prescribe sertraline (Zoloft) to improve the clients social functioning and concentration levels. Sertraline (Zoloft) is an SSRI (selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor) antidepressant. Depression is the most common mental illness in older adults and is often misdiagnosed as neurocognitive disorder.

A client diagnosed with borderline personality disorder states, Get out of here. No one cares about me or my situation! Which nursing reply is an example of a cognitive intervention? A. You have an anti-anxiety medication ordered. It may make you feel better. B. It sounds like you are feeling really frustrated. C. Can you explain further your thinking about your situation? D. No one cares about you?

c

A nursing instructor is teaching about the concept of anger. Which student statement indicates the need for further instruction? A. Anger is physiological arousal. B. Anger and aggression are essentially the same. C. Anger expression is a learned response. D. Anger is not a primary emotion.

ANS: B Further teaching is necessary when the student states that anger and aggression are essentially the same. Anger and aggression are significantly different.

A wife brings her husband to an emergency department after an attempt to hang himself. He is a full-time student and works 8 hours at night to support his family. He states, I cant function any longer under all this stress. Which type of crisis is the client experiencing? A. Maturational/developmental crisis B. Psychiatric emergency crisis C. Anticipated life transition crisis D. Traumatic stress crisis

ANS: B The nurse should determine that the client is experiencing a psychiatric emergency crisis. Psychiatric emergencies occur when crisis situations result in severe impairment, incompetence, or inability to assume personal responsibility.

A man diagnosed with alcohol dependence experiences his first relapse. During his AA meeting, another group member states, I relapsed three times, but now have been sober for 15 years. Which of Yaloms curative group factors does this illustrate? A. Imparting of information B. Instillation of hope C. Catharsis D. Universality

ANS: B This scenario is an example of the curative group factor of instillation of hope. This occurs when members observe the progress of others in the group with similar problems and begin to believe that personal problems can also be resolved.

What is being assessed when a nurse asks a client to identify name, date, residential address, and situation? A. Mood B. Perception C. Orientation D. Affect

ANS: C The nurse should ask the client to identify name, date, residential address, and situation to assess the clients orientation. Assessment of the clients orientation to reality is part of a mental status evaluation.

A client diagnosed with brief psychotic disorder is pacing the milieu and occasionally punches the wall. Which should be the initial nursing action? A. Assertively instruct the client to stop punching the wall. B. Encourage the client to write down feelings in a journal. C. With the help of staff, initiate seclusion protocol. D. . Ensure adequate physical space between the nurse and the client.

ANS: D To maintain a safe environment, it is important to initially assure that there is adequate physical space between the nurse and the client. Violence can be related to increased contact and decreased defensible space.

A client is diagnosed with generalized anxiety disorder. In order to maximize the learning process prior to discharge teaching, which assessment should be performed by the nurse? A. Assessing the clients level of anxiety B. Assessing and documenting the clients vital signs C. Assessing suicide risk D. Assessing availability of support systems

ANS: A Anxiety at a moderate or higher level will interfere with the learning process.

An adolescent client has problems expressing anger appropriately. Which nursing statement would encourage the client to set realistic goals? A. What do you think needs to change about how you express anger? B. How did you feel after attending the anger management session? C. On a scale of 1 to 10, please rate your current level of anger. D. What bothers you about the actions of others when you get angry?

ANS: A In the planning phase of the nursing process, the nurse works with the client to identify expected outcomes for a plan individualized to the client or to the situation.

A client begins to smash furniture, cannot be talked down, and refuses medications. Which is the most appropriate nursing intervention? A. Call a violence code. B. Ask the ward clerk to put in a call for the physician. C. Place the client in seclusion. D. Place the client in four-point restraints.

ANS: A In this situation the nurse must have adequate, trained help to prevent injury to the client or staff. Calling a violence code will access this help.

The nurse should recognize which acronym as representing problem-oriented charting? A. SOAPIE B. SOLER C. DAR D. PQRST

ANS: A The acronym SOAPIE represents problem-oriented charting, which reflects the subjective, objective, assessment, plan, implementation, and evaluation format. This type of charting identifies nursing diagnoses (client problems) on a written plan of care with appropriate nursing interventions described for each.

The following outcome was developed for a client: Client will list five personal strengths by the end of day 1. Which correctly written nursing diagnostic statement most likely generated the development of this outcome? A. Altered self-esteem R/T years of emotional abuse AEB self-deprecating statements B. Self-care deficit R/T altered thought processes C. Disturbed body image R/T major depressive disorder AEB mood rating of 2/10 D. Risk for disturbed self-concept R/T hopelessness AEB suicide attempt

ANS: A The nurse should determine that altered self-esteem and self-deprecating statements would generate the outcome to list personal strengths by the end of day 1. Self-care deficit, disturbed body image, and risk for disturbed self-concept would generate specific outcomes in accordance with specific needs and goals. The self- care deficit and risk for disturbed self-concept nursing diagnoses are incorrectly written.

A 10-week, prenuptial counseling group composed of five couples is terminating. At the last group meeting, a nurse notices that the two most faithful and participative couples are absent. When considering concepts of group development, what might explain this behavior? A. They are experiencing problems with termination, leading to feelings of abandonment. B. They did not think any new material would be covered at the last session. C. They were angry with the leader for not extending the length of the group. D. They were bored with the material covered in the group.

ANS: A The nurse should determine that the clients absence from the final group meeting may indicate that they are experiencing problems with termination. The termination phase of group development may elicit feelings of abandonment and anger. Successful termination may help members develop skills to cope with future unrelated losses.

A newly admitted client asks, Why do we need a unit schedule? Im not going to these groups. Im here to get some rest. Which is the most appropriate nursing reply? A. Group therapy provides the opportunity to learn and practice new coping skills. B. Group therapy is mandatory. All clients must attend. C. Group therapy is optional. You can go if you find the topic helpful and interesting. D. Group therapy is an economical way of providing therapy to many clients concurrently.

ANS: A The nurse should explain to the client that the purpose of group therapy is to learn and practice new coping skills. A basic assumption of milieu therapy is that every interaction, including group therapy, is an opportunity for therapeutic intervention.

fter threatening to jump off a bridge, a client is brought to an emergency department by police. To assess for suicide potential, which question should a nurse ask first? A. Are you currently thinking about harming yourself? B. Why do you want to harm yourself? C. Have you thought about the consequences of your actions? D. Who is your emergency contact person?

ANS: A The nurse should first assess the client for current suicidal thoughts to minimize risk of harm and provide appropriate interventions. A suicidal client is experiencing a psychiatric emergency. The crisis team should prioritize safety by assessing the client for thoughts of self-harm.

The following North American Nursing Diagnosis Association (NANDA) nursing diagnostic stem was developed for a client on an inpatient unit: Risk for injury. What assessment data most likely led to the development of this problem statement? A. The client is receiving electroconvulsive therapy (ECT) and is diagnosed with Parkinsonism. B. The client has a history of four suicide attempts in adolescence. C. The client expresses hopelessness and helplessness and isolates self. D. The client has disorganized thought processes and delusional thinking.

ANS: A The nurse should identify that a client receiving ECT and who is diagnosed with Parkinsonism is at risk for injury due to confusion and potential for falls. History of suicide and hopelessness would lead to the development of nursing diagnosis of risk for suicide. Disorganized thoughts and delusional thinking would lead to the development of a nursing diagnosis of altered thought processes.

During an inpatient educational group, a client shouts out, This information is worthless. Nothing you have said can help me. These statements indicate to the nurse leader that the client is assuming which group role? A. The group role of aggressor B. The group role of initiator C. The group role of gatekeeper D. The group role of blocker

ANS: A The nurse should identify that the client is assuming the group role of the aggressor. The aggressor expresses negativism and hostility toward others in the group or to the group leader and may use sarcasm in an effort to degrade the status of others.

During a community meeting, a nurse encourages clients to present unit problems and discuss possible solutions. Which type of leadership style is the nurse demonstrating? A. Democratic B. Autocratic C. Laissez-faire D. Bureaucratic

ANS: A The nurse who encourages clients to present problems and discuss solutions is demonstrating a democratic leadership style. Democratic leaders share information with group members and promote decision making by the members of the group. The leader provides guidance and expertise as needed

During a therapeutic group, two clients engage in an angry verbal exchange. The nurse leader interrupts the exchange and excuses both of the clients from the group. The nurse has demonstrated which leadership style? A. Autocratic B. Democratic C. Laissez-faire D. Bureaucratic

ANS: A The nurse who excuses clients from the group has demonstrated an autocratic leadership style. An autocratic leadership style may be useful in certain situations that require structure and limit-setting. Democratic leaders focus on the members of the group and group-selected goals. Laissez-faire leaders provide no direction to group members.

To promote self-reliance, how should a psychiatric nurse best conduct medication administration? A. Encourage clients to request their medications at the appropriate times. B. Refuse to administer medications unless clients request them at the appropriate times. C. Allow the clients to determine appropriate medication times. D. Take medications to the clients bedside at the appropriate times.

ANS: A The psychiatric nurse promoting self-reliance would encourage clients to request their medications at the appropriate times. Nurses are responsible for the management of medication administration on inpatient psychiatric units; however, nurses must work with clients to foster independence and provide experiences that would foster increased self-esteem.

During a group discussion, members freely interact with each other. Which member statement is an example of Yaloms curative group factor of imparting information? A. I found a Web site explaining the different types of brain tumors and their treatment. B. My brother also had a brain tumor and now is completely cured. C. I understand your fear and will be by your side during this time. D. My mother was also diagnosed with cancer of the brain.

ANS: A Yaloms curative group factor of imparting information involves sharing knowledge gained through formal instruction as well as by advice and suggestions given by other group members.

Which client statement demonstrates improvement in anger/aggression management? A. I realize I have a problem expressing my anger appropriately. B. I know I cant use physical force anymore, but I can intimidate someone with my words. C. Its bad to feel as angry as I feel. Im working on eliminating this poisonous emotion entirely. D. Because my wife seems to be the one to set me off, Ive decided to remain separated from her.

ANS: A The client is recognizing and taking responsibility for personal anger.

Which of the following nursing statements and/or questions represent appropriate communication to assess an individual in crisis? Select all that apply. A. Tell me what happened. B. What coping methods have you used, and did they work? C. Describe to me what your life was like before this happened. D. Lets focus on the current problem. E. Ill assist you in selecting functional coping strategies.

ANS: A, B, C In the assessment phase, the nurse should gather information regarding the precipitating stressor and the resulting crisis. Focusing on the current problem and selecting functional coping strategies are nursing interventions rather than assessments.

Which of the following observed client behaviors would lead a nurse to evaluate a member as assuming a maintenance group role? Select all that apply. A. A client decreases conflict within the group by encouraging compromise. B. A client offers recognition and acceptance of others. C. A client outlines the task at hand and proposes solutions. D. A client listens attentively to group interaction. E. A client uses the group to gain sympathy from others.

ANS: A, B, D

Which of the following are effective interventions that a nurse should utilize when caring for an inpatient client who expresses anger inappropriately? Select all that apply. A. Maintain a calm demeanor. B. Clearly delineate the consequences of the behavior. C. Use therapeutic touch to convey empathy. D. Set limits on the behavior. E. Teach the client to avoid I statements related to expression of feelings.

ANS: A, B, D The nurse should determine that when working with an inpatient client who expresses anger inappropriately, it is important to maintain a calm demeanor, clearly define the consequences, and set limits on the behavior. The use of therapeutic touch may not be appropriate and could escalate the clients anger.

Which of the following nursing interventions fall within the standards of psychiatricmental health clinical nursing practice for a nurse generalist? Select all that apply. A. Assist clients to perform activities of daily living. B. Act as a consultant with other clinicians to provide services for clients and effect system change C. Encourage clients to discuss triggers for relapse D. Use prescriptive authority in accordance with state and federal laws E. Educate families about signs and symptoms of alcohol dependence and withdrawal

ANS: A, C, E Assisting clients to perform daily living activities, encouraging clients to discuss triggers, and educating families are nursing interventions that fall within the standards of psychiatric clinical nursing practice for a nurse generalist. Psychiatricmental health advanced practice registered nurses can consult with other clinicians and use prescriptive authority.

Which risk factor should a nurse recognize as the most reliable indicator of potential client violence? A. A diagnosis of schizotypal personality disorder B. History of assaultive behavior C. Family history of violence D. Recent eviction from a homeless shelter

ANS: B A prior history of assault is the most widely recognized risk factor for client violence.

The nurse observes a clients escalating anger. The client begins to pace the hall and shouts, You all better watch out. Im going to hurt anyone who gets in my way. Which should be the priority nursing intervention? A. Calmly tell the client, Staff will help you to control your impulse to hurt others. B. Remove other clients from the area and maintain milieu safety. C. Gather a show of force by contacting security for assistance. D. Calmly tell the client, You will need to be medicated and secluded.

ANS: B During an emergent situation on an inpatient unit, the nurses priority action should be to keep all clients safe by removing them from the area of conflict.

A despondent client, who has recently lost her husband of 30 years, tearfully states, Ill feel a lot better if I sell my house and move away. Which nursing reply is most appropriate? A. Im confident you know whats best for you. B. This may not be the best time for you to make such an important decision. C. Your children will be terribly disappointed. D. Tell me why you want to make this change.

ANS: B During crisis intervention, the nurse should guide the client through a problem-solving process. The nurse should help the individual confront the source of the problem, encourage the individual to discuss changes he or she would like to make, and encourage exploration of feelings about aspects of the crisis that cannot be changed. The nurse should also assist the client in determining whether any changes are realistic and if timing of change is appropriate. This response encourages the client to think through what may be an impulsive decision.

A client is assigned the nursing diagnosis of impaired social interaction R/T sociocultural differences AEB client stating, Although Id like to, I dont join in because I dont speak the language so good. Which correctly written outcome addresses this clients problem? A. The client will collaborate with nursing staff to set specific goals by day 3. B. The client will participate in one group activity of choice by day 2. C. The client will express a desire to interact with others. D. The client will become increasingly independent by discharge.

ANS: B In the planning phase of the nursing process, the nurse works with the client to identify expected outcomes for a plan individualized to the client need or to the situation.

Which nursing approach is likely to be most therapeutic when dealing with a newly admitted, hostile, suspicious client? A. Place a hand on the clients shoulder and state, I will help you to your room. B. Slowly and matter-of-factly state, I am your nurse and I will show you to your room. C. Firmly set limits by stating, If your behavior does not improve you will be secluded. D. Smile and state, I am your nurse. When do you want to go to your room?

ANS: B It is important to maintain an unemotional tone of voice when dealing with a hostile client. The client might misinterpret touch and become violent.

Once the nurse initiates restraint for an out-of-control 45-year-old patient, what must occur within 1 hour, according to JCAHO standards? A. The patient must be let out of restraint. B. A physician or other licensed independent practitioner must conduct an in-person evaluation. C. The patient must be bathed and fed. D. The patient must be included in debriefing.

ANS: B Joint Commission (JCAHO) standards require that a physician or other licensed independent practitioner conduct an in-person evaluation of the client within 1 hour of the initiation of restraint.

For select clients, physical restraint is considered to be a beneficial intervention. This is based on which premise? A. Clients with poor boundaries do not respond to verbal redirection, and they need firm and consistent limit setting. B. Clients with limited internal control over their behavior need external controls to prevent harm to themselves and others. C. Clients with antisocial tendencies need to submit to authority. D. Clients with behavioral dysfunction need behavioral interventions.

ANS: B Restraints are used for clients who are unable to control their behavior in order to prevent harming themselves or others

During the implementation phase of the nursing process, a nurse is teaching an adult depressed patient with a cochlear implant about medications. Which modification in the teaching plan would be the most appropriate for this client? A. Using repetition B. Speaking directly face-to-face C. Employing the use of sign language D. Providing large-print materials

ANS: B Speaking face-to-face is an appropriate way to teach individuals with alterations in hearing.

On an inpatient psychiatric unit, a restrained 16-year-old client continues to verbally lash out and threatens to abuse staff and kill self when released. To meet Joint Commission standards, at what time should a nurse expect the physician to renew the clients restraint order? A. Within 1 hour of the original restraint order B. Within 2 hours of the original restraint order C. Within 3 hours of the original restraint order D. Within 4 hours of the original restraint order

ANS: B The Joint Commission (JCAHO) requires that a physician or a licensed independent practitioner reissue a new order for restraints every 4 hours for adults, every 2 hours for adolescents, and every 1 hour for children.

Within the nurses scope of practice, which function is exclusive to the advance practice psychiatric nurse? A. Teaching about the side effects of neuroleptic medications B. Using psychotherapy to improve mental health status C. Using milieu therapy to structure a therapeutic environment D. Providing case management to coordinate continuity of health services

ANS: B The advanced practice psychiatric nurse is authorized to use psychotherapy to improve mental health. This includes individual, couples, group, and family psychotherapy. It is within the scope of practice of a registered psychiatric mental health nurse generalist to provide education, case management, and milieu therapy.

2. Which statement is most accurate regarding the assessment of clients diagnosed with psychiatric problems? A. Medical history is of little significance and can be eliminated from the nursing assessment. B. Assessment provides a holistic view of the client, including biopsychosocial aspects. C. Comprehensive assessments can be performed only by advanced practice nurses. D. Psychosocial evaluations are gained by subjective reports rather than objective observations.

ANS: B The assessment of clients diagnosed with psychiatric problems should provide a holistic view of the client. A thorough assessment involves collecting and analyzing data from the client, significant others, and health-care providers that may include the following dimensions: physical, psychological, sociocultural, spiritual, cognitive, developmental, economic, lifestyle, and functional abilities.

A client diagnosed with schizophrenia functions well and is bright, spontaneous, and interactive during hospitalization but then decompensates after discharge. What does the milieu provide that may be missing in the home environment? A. Peer pressure B. Structured programming C. Visitor restrictions D. Mandated activities

ANS: B The milieu, or therapeutic community, provides the client with structured programming that may be missing in the home environment. The therapeutic community provides a structured schedule of activities in which interpersonal interaction and communication with others are emphasized. In the milieu, time is also devoted to personal problems and focus groups.

An inpatient client with a known history of violence suddenly begins to pace. Which client behavior should alert a nurse to escalating anger and aggression? A. The client requests prn medications. B. The client has a tense facial expression and body language. C. The client refuses to eat lunch. D. The client sits in group therapy with back to peers.

ANS: B The nurse should assess that tense facial expressions and body language may indicate that a clients anger is escalating. The nurse should conduct a thorough assessment of the clients past and current violent behaviors and develop interventions for de-escalation.

During a group session, which client statement demonstrates that the group has progressed to the middle, or working, phase of group development? A. Its hard for me to tell my story when Im not sure about the reactions of others. B. I think Joes Antabuse suggestion is a good one and might work for me. C. My situation is very complex, and I need professional, not peer, advice. D. I am really upset that you expect me to solve my own problems.

ANS: B The nurse should determine that group members have progressed to the working phase of group development when members begin to look to each other instead of to the leader for guidance. Group members in the working phase begin to accept criticism from each other and then use it constructively to foster change.

3. Which nursing diagnosis should a nurse identify as being correctly formulated? A. Schizophrenia R/T biochemical alterations AEB altered thought B. Self-care deficit: hygiene R/T altered thought as AEB disheveled appearance C. Depressed mood R/T multiple life stressors D. Developmental disability R/T early-onset schizophrenia AEB hallucinations

ANS: B The nurse should determine that the correctly written diagnosis would be Self-care deficit: hygiene R/T altered thought AEB disheveled appearance. The nursing diagnosis should describe the unhealthy response (inference), the contributing factors, and the data that support the inference.

Which situation should a nurse identify as an example of an autocratic leadership style? A. The president of Sigma Theta Tau assigns members to committees to research problems. B. Without faculty input, the dean mandates that all course content be delivered via the Internet. C. During a community meeting, a nurse listens as clients generate solutions. D. The student nurses association advertises for candidates for president. .

ANS: B The nurse should identify that mandating decisions without consulting the group is considered an autocratic leadership style. Autocratic leadership increases productivity but often reduces morale and motivation due to lack of member input and creativity

The nurse should utilize which group function to help an extremely withdrawn, paranoid client increase feelings of security? A. Socialization B. Support C. Empowerment D. Governance

ANS: B The nurse should identify that the group function of support would help an extremely withdrawn, paranoid client increase feelings of security. Support assists group members in gaining a feeling of security from group involvement.

What is the best rationale for including the clients family in therapy within the inpatient milieu? A. To structure a program of social and work-related activities B. To facilitate discharge from the hospital C. To provide a concrete demonstration of caring D. To encourage the family to model positive behaviors

ANS: B The nurse should include the clients family in therapy within the inpatient milieu to facilitate discharge from the hospital. Family members are invited to participate in some therapy groups and to share meals with the client in the communal dining room. Family involvement may also serve to prevent the client from becoming too dependent on the therapeutic environment.

A client diagnosed with schizophrenia is exhibiting nonverbal behaviors indicating that the client is hearing things that others do not. Which nursing diagnosis accurately reflects this clients problem? A. Altered thought processes B. Altered sensory perception C. Anxiety D. Chronic confusion

ANS: B The nursing diagnosis altered sensory perception accurately reflects the clients symptoms of hearing things that others do not. A nursing diagnosis describes a clients condition and facilitates the prescription of interventions. Delusional thinking, confusion, and disorientation are problems associated with the nursing diagnosis of altered thought processes.

A nursing instructor is teaching students about the purpose of using the nursing process in the care of psychiatric patients. Which of the following statements by the student indicates that learning has occurred? A. The nursing process is a method for interviewing the patient in a systematic way. B. The nursing process is used to assist patients to adapt successfully to stressors within the environment. C. The nursing process is used to provide support for the psychiatric diagnosis. D. The nursing process is used primarily to minimize allegations of negligence.

ANS: B The nursing process is a method for nursing care delivery in which the patients unhealthy responses are identified and interventions are planned, which are designed to assist the patient to adapt more successfully in their environment.

What is the purpose when a nurse gathers client information? A. It enables the nurse to modify client behaviors related to personality disorders. B. It enables the nurse to make sound clinical judgments and plan appropriate client care. C. It enables the nurse to prescribe the appropriate medications. D. It enables the nurse to assign the appropriate Axis I diagnosis.

ANS: B The purpose of gathering client information is to enable the nurse to make sound clinical nursing judgments and plan appropriate care. The nurse should complete a thorough assessment of the client, including information collected from the client, significant others, and health-care providers (consistent with HIPAA laws and the clients right to confidentiality).

A student nurse has just entered a psychiatric rotation. The student asks a nursing instructor, How will we know if someone may get violent? Which is the most appropriate reply by the nursing instructor? A. You cant really say for sure. There are limited indicators of potential violence. B. Certain behaviors indicate a potential for violence. They are labeled as a prodromal syndrome and include rigid posture, clenched fists, and raised voice. C. Any client can become violent, so it is best to be aware of your surroundings at all times. D. When a client suddenly becomes quiet, is withdrawn, and maintains a flat affect, this is an indicator of potential violence.

ANS: B These behaviors have been identified as predictors of violent behavior.

An adult client assaults another client and is placed in restraints. Which statement from the client while in restraints should alert a nurse that further assessment is necessary? A. I hate all of you! B. My fingers are tingly. C. You wait until I tell my lawyer. D. I have a sinus headache.

ANS: B This statement may mean that the restraints are excessively tight and impeding circulation.

A nursing instructor is teaching about violence-intervention protocols. Which student statement would indicate the need for further instruction? A. Administering psychotropic medications can be a part of violence-intervention protocols. B. Soothing the client by stroking an arm or shoulder can be a part of violence-intervention protocols. C. Applying leather restraints can be a part of violence-intervention protocols. D. Calling for assistance is a part of violence-intervention protocols.

ANS: B Touching the client could be seen by him or her as threatening and provoke further violence.

Which of the following behavioral skills should a nurse implement when leading a group that is functioning in the orientation phase of group development? Select all that apply. A. Encouraging members to provide feedback to each other about individual progress B. Ensuring that rules established by the group do not interfere with goal fulfillment C. Working with group members to establish rules that will govern the group D. Emphasizing the need for and importance of confidentiality within the group E. Helping the members to resolve conflicts and foster cohesiveness within the group

ANS: B, C, D During the orientation phase of group development, the nurse leader should work together with members to establish rules that will effectively govern the group. The leader should ensure that group rules do not interfere with goal fulfillment and establish the need for and importance of confidentiality within the group. Members need to establish trust and cohesion to move into the working phase of group development.

A nurse attends an interdisciplinary team meeting on an inpatient unit. Which of the following individuals are typically included as members of the interdisciplinary treatment team in psychiatry? Select all that apply. A. Respiratory therapist B. Occupational therapist C. Recreational therapist D. Social worker E. Mental health technician

ANS: B, C, D, E The typical interdisciplinary treatment team in a psychiatric inpatient setting consists of a psychiatrist, psychiatric nurse, psychiatric social worker, music therapist, dietician, psychologist, occupational therapist, recreational therapist, art therapist, mental health technician, and chaplain. Other disciplines may be included on the basis of resources available in a particular hospital setting and individual patient needs.

After a comprehensive assessment, correctly written nursing diagnoses developed for psychiatric clients may include which of the following components? Select all that apply. A. Medical judgments related to the psychiatric disorder B. Unmet client needs present at the moment C. Supporting data that validate the diagnosis D. Outcomes that will be targets for nursing interventions E. Statements of client problems of a functional nature

ANS: B, C, E A nursing diagnosis is a statement of a clients functional problem. An actual nursing diagnosis must include related to (R/T) and as evidenced by (AEB) statements. A risk for diagnosis does not contain AEB because there is only a potential for the problem; it does not yet exist.

Which of the following are accurate descriptors of a therapeutic community? Select all that apply. A. The unit schedule includes unlimited free time for personal reflection. B. Unit responsibilities are assigned according to client capabilities. C. A flexible schedule is determined by client needs. D. The individual is the sole focus of therapy. E. A democratic form of government exists.

ANS: B, E In a therapeutic community the unit responsibilities are assigned according to client capability, and a democratic form of government exists. Therapeutic communities are structured and provide therapeutic interventions that focus on communication and relationship-development skills.

How does a democratic form of self-government in the milieu contribute to client therapy? A. By setting punishments for clients who violate the community rules B. By dealing with inappropriate behaviors as they occur C. By setting community expectations wherein all clients are treated on an equal basis D. By interacting with professional staff members to learn about therapeutic interventions

ANS: C A democratic form of self-government in the milieu contributes to client therapy by setting the expectation that all clients should be treated on an equal basis. Clients participate in the decision-making and problem-solving aspects that affect treatment setting. The norms, rules, and behavioral limits are established by the staff and clients. All individuals have input.

An experienced psychiatric registered nurse has taken a new position leading groups in a day treatment program. Without further education, which group is this nurse most qualified to lead? A. A psychodrama group B. A psychotherapy group C. A parenting group D. A family therapy group

ANS: C A psychiatric registered nurse is qualified to lead a parenting group. A parenting group can be classified as either a teaching group or therapeutic group. Psychodrama, psychotherapy, and family therapy are forms of group therapy that must be facilitated by qualified leaders who generally have advanced degrees in psychology, social work, nursing, or medicine.

client diagnosed with major depressive disorder states, Why should I keep trying to get a job? I mess up everything I do. Which correctly written nursing diagnosis best reflects the content and mood themes in this clients statement? A. Hopelessness R/T poor job performance B. Risk for impaired adjustment R/T inadequate social skills AEB isolation C. Altered role performance R/T the fear of failure AEB not seeking employment D. Chronic low self-esteem R/T major depressive disorder AEB self-hatred

ANS: C An actual nursing diagnosis must include related to (R/T) and as evidenced by (AEB) statements. A risk for diagnosis does not contain AEB because there is only a potential for the problem; it doesnt yet exist. The clients statement indicates that role performance is altered because fear of failure prevents seeking employment.

The nurse interviewed a client who was uncooperative, answered questions with minimal responses, and rarely made eye contact. Which is the most complete documentation of baseline data obtained during the interview? A. Appears uncooperative. Exhibits characteristics of depression. B. Maintains poor eye contact throughout interview process. Unable to answer interview questions due to depression. C. States I dont need to be here when discussing admission status. Maintains minimal eye contact and offerslittle data related to triggers for admission. D. Unwilling to respond openly during interview.

ANS: C Documentation occurs in the implementation phase of the nursing process. All charting entries to the clients legal record should be objective and based on assessed data. Implications and generalizations should be avoided.

The following clients are seen in the emergency department. The psychiatric unit has one remaining bed. The triage nurse should expect which client to be admitted? A. The client who is experiencing tremors and has a need for medication adjustment B. The client who is experiencing anxiety and a sad mood after separation from spouse C. The client who is a single parent and hears voices stating, Kill your infant son. D. The client who argued with her boyfriend and inflicted a superficial cut on her arm

ANS: C In the assessment phase of the nursing process, the nurse collects comprehensive health data that are pertinent to the clients health or situation. These data are prioritized to meet client needs, with an emphasis on safety.

A student nurse asks an instructor which resource is best to use when developing nursing outcomes for clients. Which reply by the instructor most accurately answers the students question? A. Use the Nursing Interventions Classification (NIC), as a reference for nursing outcomes. B. Use the NANDA resource to identify appropriate outcomes. C. Use the Nursing Outcomes Classification (NOC), as a reference for nursing outcomes. D. Copy your standard outcomes from a nursing care plan textbook.

ANS: C NOC is a comprehensive, standardized classification of client outcomes developed to evaluate the effects of nursing interventions. NANDA is a resource for identifying approved nursing diagnoses.

A client diagnosed with paranoid schizophrenia has a history of aggravated assault. A nurse assigns Risk for other-directed violence as the clients priority nursing diagnosis. Based on this diagnosis, which would be an appropriate, correctly written outcome for this client? A. The client will not verbalize anger or hit anyone. B. The client will verbalize anger rather than hit others. C. The client will not inflict harm on others during this shift. D. The client will be restrained if verbal or physical abuse is observed during this shift.

ANS: C Preventing injury to others is the appropriate outcome. Outcomes must be client centered, specific, realistic, and measureable and contain a time frame. Answer A does not contain a time frame.

Which initial nursing approach makes limit-setting better accepted by clients who are aggressively acting out? A. Confronting clients with their needs for secondary gains B. Teaching relaxation techniques C. Reflecting back to the client empathy about the clients distress D. Presenting appropriate values that need to be modified

ANS: C Reflecting back to the client empathy about the clients distress promotes a trusting relationship and may prevent the clients anxiety from escalating when limits are set.

Which tool would be appropriate for a nurse to use when assessing mental acuity prior to and immediately following electroconvulsive therapy (ECT)? A. CIWA scale B. GGT C. MMSE D. CAPS scale

ANS: C The MMSE, or mini mental status exam, would be the appropriate tool to use to assess the mental acuity of a client prior to and immediately following ECT. The CIWA scale, or clinical institute withdrawal assessment scale, would be used to assess withdrawal from substances such as alcohol. The CAPS refers to the clinician- administered PTSD scale and would be used to assess signs and symptoms of PTSD. The GGT test is used to assess gamma-glutamyl transferase levels, which may be an indication of alcoholism.

A nurse on an inpatient psychiatric unit implements care by scheduling client activities, interacting with clients, and maintaining a safe therapeutic environment. These actions reflect which role of the nurse? A. Health teacher B. Case manager C. Milieu manager D. Psychotherapist

ANS: C The milieu manager implements care by scheduling client activities, interacting with clients, and maintaining a safe therapeutic environment. Health teaching involves promoting health and a safe environment. Case management is utilized to organize client care so that outcomes are achieved. Psychotherapy involves conducting individual, couples, group, and family counseling.

During a therapeutic group, which nursing action demonstrates a laissez-faire leadership style? A. The nurse mandates that all group members reveal an embarrassing personal situation. B. The nurse asks for a show of hands to determine group topic preference. C. The nurse sits silently as the group members stray from the assigned topic. D. The nurse shuffles through papers to determine the facility policy on length of group.

ANS: C The nurse leader who sits silently and allows group members to stray from the assigned topic is demonstrating a laissez-faire leadership style. This style allows group members to do as they please with no direction from the leader. Group members often become frustrated and confused in reaction to a laissez-faire leadership style.

A nurse believes that the members of a parenting group are in the initial, or orientation, phase of group development. Which group behaviors would support this assumption? A. The group members manage conflict within the group. B. The group members use denial as part of the grief response. C. The group members compliment the leader and compete for the role of recorder. D. The group members initially trust one another and the leader.

ANS: C The nurse should anticipate that members in the initial, or orientation, phase of group development often compliment the leader and compete for the role of recorder. Members in this phase have not yet established trust and have a fear of not being accepted. Power struggles may occur as members compete for their position in the group.

1. Which data-gathering technique is employed during the assessment phase of the nursing process? A. Asking the client to rate mood after administering an antidepressant B. Asking the client to verbalize understanding of previously explained unit rules C. Asking the client to describe any thoughts of self-harm D. Asking the client if the group on assertiveness skills was helpful

ANS: C The nurse should ask the client to describe any thoughts of self-harm during the assessment phase of the nursing process. Assessment involves collecting and analyzing data about the client that may include the following dimensions: physical, psychological, sociocultural, spiritual, cognitive, developmental, economic, lifestyle, and functional abilities. The other three options are employed during the evaluation phase of the nursing process.

A client has undergone psychological testing. With which member of the interdisciplinary team should a nurse collaborate to review these results? A. The psychiatrist B. The psychiatric social worker C. The clinical psychologist D. The clinical nurse specialist

ANS: C The nurse should consult with the clinical psychologist to review psychological testing results for the client. Clinical psychologists can administer, interpret, and evaluate psychological tests to assist in the diagnostic process.

What is the best nursing rationale for holding a debriefing session with clients and staff after clients have witnessed a peer being taken down after a violent outburst? A. To reinforce unit rules with the client population B. To create protocols for the future release of tensions associated with anger C. To process feelings and concerns related to the witnessed intervention D. To discuss the client problems that led to inappropriate expressions of anger

ANS: C The nurse should determine that the purpose for holding a debriefing session with clients and staff after clients have witnessed a peer being taken down after a violent outburst is to process feelings and concerns related to the witnessed intervention.

A nursing instructor is teaching about psychodrama, a specialized type of therapeutic group. Which student statement indicates that further teaching is necessary? A. Psychodrama provides a safe setting in which to discuss painful issues. B. In psychodrama, the client is the protagonist. C. In psychodrama, the client observes actor interactions from the audience. D. Psychodrama facilitates resolution of interpersonal conflicts.

ANS: C The nurse should educate the student that in psychodrama the client plays the role of himself or herself in a life-situation scenario and is called the protagonist. During psychodrama, the client does not observe interactions from the audience. Other group members perform the role of the audience and discuss the situation they have observed, offer feedback, and express their feelings. Leaders of psychodrama must have specialized training to become a psychodramatist.

When planning group therapy, a nurse should identify which configuration as most optimal for a therapeutic group? A. Open-ended membership; circle of chairs; group size of 5 to 10 members B. Open-ended membership; chairs around a table; group size of 10 to 15 members C. Closed membership; circle of chairs; group size of 5 to 10 members D. Closed membership; chairs around a table; group size of 10 to 15 members

ANS: C The nurse should identify that the most optimal conditions for a therapeutic group are when the membership is closed and the group size is between 5 and 10 members who are arranged in a circle of chairs. The focus of therapeutic groups is on relationships within the group and the interactions among group member

5. Which statement regarding nursing interventions should a nurse identify as accurate? A. Nursing interventions are independent from the treatment teams goals. B. Nursing interventions are directed solely by written physician orders. C. Nursing interventions occur independently but in concert with overall treatment team goals. D. Nursing interventions are standardized by policies and procedures.

ANS: C The nurse should understand that nursing interventions occur independently but in concert with overall treatment goals. Nursing interventions should be developed and implemented in collaboration with other health-care professionals involved in the clients care.

An angry client on an inpatient unit approaches a nurse, stating, Someone took my lunch! People need to respect others, and you need to do something about this now! The nurses response should be guided by which basic assumption of milieu therapy? A. Conflict should be avoided at all costs on inpatient psychiatric units. B. Conflict should be resolved by the nursing staff. C. Every interaction is an opportunity for therapeutic intervention. D. Conflict resolution should be addressed only during group therapy.

ANS: C The nurses response should be guided by the basic assumption that every interaction is an opportunity for therapeutic intervention. The nurse can utilize milieu therapy to effect behavioral change and improve psychological health and functioning.

A client has a nursing diagnosis of Insomnia R/T paranoid thinking AEB midnight awakenings, difficulty falling asleep, and daytime napping. Which is a correctly written and appropriate outcome for this clients problem? A. The client will avoid daytime napping and attend all groups. B. The client will exercise, as needed, before bedtime. C. The client will sleep 7 uninterrupted hours by day four of hospitalization. D. The clients sleep habits will improve during hospitalization.

ANS: C The outcome The client will sleep 7 uninterrupted hours by day four of hospitalization is accurately written and an appropriate outcome to address the client problem of insomnia. Outcomes should be measurable, realistic, client-focused goals that include a time frame. Appropriate nursing interventions are guided by client outcomes.

A high school student has learned that she cannot graduate. Her boyfriend will be attending a college out of state that she planned to also attend. She is admitted to a psychiatric unit after overdosing on Tylenol. Which is the correctly written priority nursing diagnosis for this client? A. Ineffective coping R/T situational crisis AEB powerlessness B. Anxiety R/T fear of failure C. Risk for self-directed violence R/T hopelessness D. Risk for low self-esteem R/T loss events AEB suicidal ideations

ANS: C The priority nursing diagnosis for this client is Risk for self-directed violence R/T hopelessness. Nurses should prioritize diagnoses and outcomes on the basis of potential safety risk to the client and/or others. Nursing diagnoses should be correctly written to include evidence if actual and no evidence if the diagnosis is determined to be potential.

Prayer group members at a local Baptist church are meeting with a poor, homeless family they are supporting. Which member statement is an example of Yaloms curative group factor of altruism? A. Ill give you the name of a friend that rents inexpensive rooms. B. The last time we helped a family, they got back on their feet and prospered. C. I can give you all of my baby clothes for your little one. D. I can appreciate your situation. I had to declare bankruptcy last year.

ANS: C Yaloms curative group factor of altruism occurs when group members provide assistance and support to each other, creating a positive self-image and promoting self-growth. Individuals increase self-esteem through mutual caring and concern.

Which of the following are characteristics of accurately developed client outcomes? Select all that apply. A. Client outcomes are formulated by nurses independent from other team members. B. Client outcomes are not restricted by time frames. C. Client outcomes are specific and measurable. D. Client outcomes are realistically based on client capability. E. Client outcomes are formally approved by the psychiatrist.

ANS: C, D The nurse should identify that client outcomes should be specific, measurable, and realistically based on client capability. Outcomes should be derived from the diagnosis and should include a time estimate for attainment. Outcomes are most effective when formulated cooperatively by the interdisciplinary team members, client, and significant others.

. A nurse is caring for four clients. Which client should the nurse identify as least prone to developing problems with anger and aggression? A. A child raised by a physically abusive parent B. An adult with a history of epilepsy C. A young adult living in the ghetto of an inner city D. An adolescent raised by Scandinavian immigrant parents

ANS: D An adolescent raised by Scandinavian immigrant parents would be least prone to developing problems with anger and aggression as compared with the other clients presented. A history of abuse, epilepsy, overcrowding, and poverty all contribute as predisposing factors to anger and aggression.

A client is served divorce papers while on the inpatient psychiatric unit. When a nurse tells the client the unit telephone cannot be used after hours, the client raises his fists, swears, and spits at the nurse. Which negative coping mechanism has the client exhibited? A. The defense mechanism of projection B. The defense mechanism of reaction formation C. The defense mechanism of sublimation D. The defense mechanism of displacement

ANS: D Anger can lead to aggression when the coping response is displacement. This client has discharged anger against a person (the nurse) unrelated to the true target of the anger (the spouse).

After restraints are removed from a client, the staff discusses the incident and establishes guidelines for the clients return to the therapeutic milieu. Which unit procedure is the staff implementing? A. Milieu reenactment B. Treatment planning C. Crisis intervention D. Debriefing

ANS: D Debriefing is an important part of restraint/seclusion. It allows the staff an opportunity to review and learn from the experience and to express feelings generated by the incident.

A client who has slept 6 hours the previous night reports this to the assigned psychiatric nurse. What should be the initial nursing action to address this situation? A. Provide warm milk and a backrub. B. Give a sleep medication. C. Hold a relaxation group before bedtime. D. Review the clients normal sleep pattern.

ANS: D In the assessment phase of the nursing process, the nurse collects comprehensive health data that are pertinent to the clients health or situation. In this situation the nurse must initially determine the clients normal sleep patterns in order to evaluate if a true problem exists.

23. An instructor overhears a student say, That family seems to disagree more than agree. The family seems to be dysfunctional. To further assess the familys situation, which would be an appropriate instructor reply? A. Families who disagree can be a challenge to the treatment team. B. You seem very critical of the family. Do you believe that you are unable to help them? C. Lets bring the family in for an educational session to improve their communication. D. What appears to trigger family disagreements?

ANS: D In the assessment phase of the nursing process, the nurse collects comprehensive health data that are pertinent to the clients health or situation. In this situation, prior to intervening with this family, the nurse needs further information about the cause of family conflicts.

During an intake interview, which question would assist the nurse in gathering data about the clients judgment? A. What brought you to the hospital? Do you know what day and season it is now? B. On a scale of 1 to 10, how would you rate your stress level? C. What does the phrase a rolling stone gathers no moss mean to you? D. If you found a stamped, addressed envelope in the street, what would you do?

ANS: D In the assessment phase of the nursing process, the nurse collects comprehensive health data that are pertinent to the clients health or situation. The nurse presents a situation that requires the client to make a judgment call and can assess appropriate judgment on the basis of the clients action choice.

Which nursing response would be appropriately used in the evaluation phase of the nursing process? A. If I were in your situation, I would not repeat a behavior that has caused problems. B. What do you think needs changing, and what do you want to do differently? C. What exactly will it take to carry out your plan, and what else do you need to do? D. It sounds like youre saying this new approach is working for you.

ANS: D In the evaluation phase of the nursing process, the nurse and the client evaluate progress toward attainment of the expected outcomes.

After less restrictive means have been attempted, an order for client restraints has been obtained for a hostile, aggressive 30- year-old client. If client aggression continues, how long will the nurse expect the client to remain in restraints without a physician order renewal? A. 1 hour B. 2 hours C. 3 hours D. 4 hours

ANS: D The Joint Commission (JCAHO) requires that a physician or licensed independent provider (LIP) must reissue a new order for restraints every 4 hours for adults, every 1 hour for clients younger than 9, and every 2 hours for clients 9 to 17 years.

In the role of milieu manager, which activity should the nurse prioritize? A. Setting the schedule for the daily unit activities B. Evaluating clients for medication effectiveness C. Conducting therapeutic group sessions D. Searching newly admitted clients for hazardous objects

ANS: D The milieu manager should search newly admitted clients for hazardous objects. Safety of the client and others is the priority. Nurses are responsible for ensuring that the clients safety and physiological needs are met within the milieu.

client on an inpatient unit angrily states to a nurse, Peter is not cleaning up after himself in the community bathroom. You need to address this problem. Which is the appropriate nursing response? A. Ill talk to Peter and present your concerns. B. Why are you overreacting to this issue? C. You should bring this to the attention of your treatment team. D. I can see that you are angry. Lets discuss ways to approach Peter with your concerns.

ANS: D The most appropriate nursing response involves restating the clients feeling and developing a plan with the client to solve the problem. According to Skinner, every interaction in the therapeutic milieu is an opportunity for therapeutic intervention to improve communication and relationship-development skills.

Which group leader activity should a nurse identify as being most important in the final, or termination, phase of group development? A. The group leader establishes the rules that will govern the group after discharge. B. The group leader encourages members to rely on each other for problem solving. C. The group leader presents and discusses the concept of group termination. D. The group leader helps the members to process feelings of loss.

ANS: D The most effective intervention in the final, or termination, phase of group development would be for the group leader to help the members to process feelings of loss. The leader should encourage the members to review the goals and discuss outcomes, reminisce about what has occurred, and encourage members to provide feedback to each other about progress.

A college student who was nearly raped while jogging completes a series of appointments with a rape crisis nurse. At the final session, which client statement most clearly suggests that the goals of crisis intervention have been met? A. Youve really been helpful. Can I count on you for continued support? B. I dont work out anymore. C. Im really glad I didnt go home. It would have been hard to come back. D. I carry mace when I jog. It makes me feel safe and secure.

ANS: D The nurse should evaluate that the client who has developed adaptive coping strategies has achieved the goals of crisis intervention.

A client comes to a psychiatric clinic, experiencing sudden extreme fatigue and decreased sleep and appetite. The client works 12 hours a day and rates anxiety as 8/10 on a numeric scale. What correctly written long-term outcome is realistic in addressing this clients crisis? A. The client will change his or her type A personality traits to more adaptive ones by week 1. B. The client will list five positive self-attributes. C. The client will examine how childhood events led to an overachieving orientation. D. The client will return to previous adaptive levels of functioning by week 6.

ANS: D The nurse should identify that a realistic long-term outcome for this client would be to return to previous

A nurse working on an inpatient psychiatric unit is assigned to conduct a 45-minute education group. What should the nurse identify as an appropriate group topic? A. Dream analysis B. Creative cooking C. Paint by number D. Stress management

ANS: D The nurse should identify that teaching clients about stress management is an appropriate education group topic. Nurses should be able to perform the role of client teacher in the psychiatric area. Nurses need to be able to assess a clients learning readiness. Other topics for education groups include medical diagnoses, side effects of medications, and the importance of medication compliance.

A mother is concerned about her ability to perform in her new role. She is quite anxious and refuses to leave the postpartum unit. To offer effective client care, a nurse should recognize which information about this type of crisis? A. This type of crisis is precipitated by unexpected external stressors. B. This type of crisis is precipitated by preexisting psychopathology. C. This type of crisis is precipitated by an acute response to an external situational stressor. D. This type of crisis is precipitated by normal life-cycle transitions that overwhelm the client.

ANS: D The nurse should understand that this type of crisis is precipitated by normal life-cycle transitions that overwhelm the client. Reassurance and guidance should be provided as needed, and the client should be referred to services that can provide assistance.

During the sixth week of a 10-week parenting skills group, a nurse observes as several members get into a heated dispute about spanking. As a group, they decide to create a pros-and-cons poster on the use of physical discipline. At this time, what is the role of the group leader? A. To referee the debate B. To adamantly oppose physical discipline measures C. To redirect the group to a less controversial topic D. To encourage the group to solve the problem collectively

ANS: D The role of the group leader is to encourage the group to solve the problem collectively. A democratic leadership style supports members in their participation and problem-solving. Members are encouraged to cooperatively solve issues that relate to the group.

A single, pregnant teenager in a parenting class discloses her ambivalence toward the pregnancy and the subsequent guilt that these thoughts generate. A mother of three admits to having felt that way herself. Which of Yaloms curative group factors does this illustrate? A. Imparting of information B. Instillation of hope C. Altruism D. Universality

ANS: D The scenario is an example of the curative group factor of universality. Universality occurs when individuals realize that they are not alone in the problems, thoughts, and feelings they are experiencing. This realization reduces anxiety by the support and understanding of others.

4. Which expected client outcome should a nurse identify as being correctly formulated? A. Client will feel happier by discharge. B. Client will demonstrate two relaxation techniques. C. Client will verbalize triggers to anger by end of session. D. Client will initiate interaction with one peer during free time within 2 days.

ANS: D The statement Client will initiate interaction with one peer during free time within 2 days is an example of a correctly formulated expected outcome. Outcomes should be measurable, realistic, client-focused goals that include a time frame. Appropriate nursing interventions are guided by client outcomes.

A nursing instructor is teaching students about self-help groups like Alcoholics Anonymous (AA). Which student statement indicates that learning has occurred? A. There is little research to support AAs effectiveness. B. Self-help groups used to be the treatment of choice, but their popularity is waning. C. These groups have no external regulation, so clients need to be cautious. D. Members themselves run the group, with leadership usually rotating among the members.

ANS: D The student indicates an understanding of self-help groups when stating, Members themselves run the group, with leadership usually rotating among the members. Nurses may or may not be involved in self-help groups. These groups allow members to talk about feelings and reduce feelings of isolation, while receiving support from others undergoing similar experiences.

A nurse charts Verbalizes understanding of the side effects of Prozac. This is an example of which category of focused charting? A. Data B. Problem C. Action D. Response

ANS: D Verbalizes understanding of the side effects of Prozac is an example of the response category of focused charting. The response is a description of the clients reaction to any part of medical or nursing care.

At 3 a.m., when less restrictive methods fail, a physician orders restraints for an angry, aggressive client. To meet Joint Commission standards, at what time and by whom should a nurse expect an in-person client evaluation? A. No later than 8 a.m., by a licensed independent practitioner or a clinical nurse specialist B. No later than 4 a.m., by a physician or a licensed independent practitioner (LIP) C. No later than 3:30 a.m., by a physician or the clients case manager D. No later than 6 a.m., by the psychiatrist or a clinical nurse specialist

aNS: B To meet Joint Commission standards, an in-person evaluation by a physician or LIP should be conducted within 1 hour of the initiation of restraints.