MICRO Chapter 19 and 20

Strains of Neisseria spp. need which of the following structural features to be pathogenic? A) a capsule B) fimbriae C) lipooligosaccharide (LOS) in its wall D) both a capsule and LOS E) a capsule, fimbriae and an LOS

A capsule, fimbriae and an LOS

A lesion called....... is characteristic of infection with Haemophilus ducreyi? A) a bubo B) a chancroid or soft chancre C) an eschar D) ophthalmia neonatorum E) petechiae

A chancroid or soft chancre

The pus from an abscess in a patient's jaw contains microbes that form yellowish grainy masses and appear filamentous under the microscope. Neither anti fungal medication nor a normal course of antibiotics has been effective in treating the infection. The abscess is likely the result of infection with? A) Actinomyces. B) Mycobacterium. C) Nocardia. D) Propionibacterium. E) Streptococcus.

Actinomyces

Pneumonia caused by Klebsiella pneumoniae often involves the destruction of (alveoli/machrophages/epithelium) and the production of bloody sputum.

Alveoli

Mycoplasma pneumoniae causes respiratory disease by? A) infecting and killing alveolar macrophages. B) triggering inflammatory mediator release. C) attaching to, inhibiting, and ultimately killing the ciliated epithelial cells of the trachea. D) paralyzing the respiratory muscles. E) killing the epithelial cells of the alveoli.

Attaching to, inhibiting, and ultimately killing the ciliated epithelial cells of the trachea

In countries where tuberculosis is common, people are vaccinated with (BCG/DOTS/MDR-TB), which contains attenuated Mycobacterium bovis bacteria.

BCG

The aerobic endospore-former (Clostridium perfringens/ Clostridium difficile/Bacillus anthracis) is a strict pathogen of humans and animals.

Bacillus antracis

A young woman has a pelvic infection. A specimen contains bacilli that are bile salt tolerant, as shown by black growth on a bile-esculin agar plate. Her infection is likely caused by? A) Bacteroides fragilis. B) Bartonella henselae. C) Haemophilus ducreyi. D) Neisseria gonorrhoeae. E) Pseudomonas aeruginosa

Bacteroides fragilis

Cat scratch disease is caused by? A) Bartonella bacilliformis. B) Bartonella henselae. C) Bartonella quintana. D) Bartonella peliosis. E) Bartonella angiomatosis.

Bartonella henselae

The zoonotic infection .................... in humans is characterized by fluctuating fever and chills, sweating, myalgia, and headache A) trench fever B) brucellosis C) bartonellosis D) Q fever E) rabbit fever

Brucellosis

Which of the following bacteria can metabolize a large range of organic compounds and is a frequent nosocomial pathogen of cystic fibrosis patients? A) Burkholderia B) Coxiella burnetii C) Pseudomonas aeruginosa D) Klebsiella pneumoniae E) Haemophilus influenzae

Burkholderia

Which of the following bacteria produce one of the most deadly bacterial toxins known? A) Clostridium perfringens B) Clostridium difficile C) Clostridium tetani D) Clostridium botulinum E) Corynebacterium species

Clostridium botulinum

Which of the following bacteria can cause life-threatening pseudomembranous colitis? A) Clostridium difficile B) Staphylococcus aureus C) Streptococcus pyogenes D) Enterococcus species E) Clostridium botulinum

Clostridium difficile

Which of the following bacteria divide by "snapping division" in which daughter cells remain attached in characteristic V-shapes? A) staphylococci B) enterococci C) Corynebacterium D) Listeria E) Mycobacterium

Corynebacterium

Scientists have identified over 2000 unique serotypes of Salmonella, but DNA analysis indicates that they belong to a single species: S. (enterica/typhi/paratyphi)

Enterica

(enterococcus/staphyloccus) grow at temperatures up to 45C, at pH levels as high as 9.6, and in 6.5% NaCl, but they lack structural and chemical elements that make them virulent in the intestinal tract.

Enterococcus

During a stay in the hospital, an accident victim develops symptoms of bacteremia. A blood sample shows the presence of Gram-positive cocci in pairs. Lab tests determine that the bacteria are non hemolytic and bile salt tolerant. The bacteria is likely due to? A) Enterococcus. B) Mycoplasma. C) Staphylococcus. D) Streptococcus. E) Listeria.

Enterococcus

What clinical manifestation do Staphylococcus aureus and Staphylococcus epidermis share?

Enterotoxins

When streptococcal infections involve the skin and surrounding lymph nodes, triggering pain and inflammation, the condition is known as (erysipelas/folliculitis/pyoderma)

Erysipelas

The skin lesions characteristic of cutaneous infections with Bacillus anthracis are? A) eschars. B) acne. C) impetigo. D) scarlatina. E) pus-filled ulcers.

Eschars

Which of the following coliforms is the most common cause of non-nosocomila urinary tract infections? A) Escherichia coli B) Serratia marcescens C) Proteus mirabilis D) Klebsiella pneumoniae E) Enterobacter

Escherichia coli

Which of the following staphylococcal virulence factors produce the signs and symptoms of scalded skin syndrome? A) hyaluronidase B) staphylokinase C) exfoliative toxin D) leukocidin E) coagulase

Exfoliative toxin

Lipid A causes which of the following symptoms? A) hemorrhaging B) fever C) disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC) D) fever and disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC) E) fever and hemorrhaging

Fever and disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC)

The neurotoxins of Clostridium botulinum (flaccid/tetanic) paralysis by preventing muscle contraction.

Flaccid

Which of the following bacteria requires heme for its growth? A) Salmonella B) Shigella C) Yersinia D) Haemophilus E) Bordetella

Haemophilus

Infections with .............. usually produces acute upper respiratory disease but may cause meningitis in infants 3-18 months oldA) Klebsiella pneumoniae B) Francisella tularensis C) Coxiella burnetii D) Haemophilus influenzae E) Hafnia species

Haemophilus influenzae

The ability to produce (hyaluronidase/lipase/proteases) enables Staphylococcus aureus to penetrate and spread through tissues.

Hyaluronidase

Which of the following is not a feature of the pathogenesis of clostridium perfringens? A) inhibiting sensory neuron function B) edema due to increased vascular permeability C) lysis of erythrocytes D) cytotoxicity E) reducing blood pressure

Inhibiting sensory neuron function

Pseudomonas aeruginosa is an opportunistic pathogen because it is not (anaerobic/invasive/virulent)

Invasive

What is one virulence factor that differentiates Staphylococcus aureus from other species of staphylocci? A) It has a capsule. B) It can produce coagulase. C) It produces catalase. D) It can live on the surface of the skin and in cutaneous oil glands. E) It produces lipase.

It can produce coagulase

Which of the following statements about "flesh-eating" streptococci is False? A) It is caused by a group A streptococcus. B) It is also known as necrotizing fasciitis because it travels along the fascia. C) It causes death in over 50% of cases. D) It is considered a common complication of pyoderma. E) It involves toxemia.

It is considered a common complication of pyoderma

Which of the following statements about Bacillus anthracis is False? A) It is primarily a disease of humans. B) It produces endospores. C) It has a capsule. D) It normally dwells in the soil and can survive in the environment for centuries or longer. E) It can be lethal even after treatment because antimicrobial drugs do not inactivate accumulated anthrax toxin.

It is primarily a disease of humans

Which of the following statements about diphtheria is FALSE? A) Although all species of Corynebacterium are pathogenic, the agent of diphtheria is the most widely known. B) Its toxin destroys elongation factor, which is needed to synthesize polypeptides in eukaryotes. C) It produces a characteristic pseudomembrane that can adhere to the tonsils, uvula, palate, pharynx, and larynx. D) Its growth on Loeffler's medium is used for absolute diagnosis of the bacterium. E) Its toxin can be absorbed into the blood from cutaneous lesions and can lead to cardiac arrhythmia, coma, and death.

Its growth on Loeffler's medium is used for absolute diagnosis of the bacterium.

Which of the following statements concerning tetanus is false? A) Its only source is from deep puncture wounds from rusty nails. B) Its toxin causes simultaneous contraction of both muscles in an antagonistic pair. C) It is a small, motile, obligate anaerobe. D) It produces a terminal endospore that gives the cell a distinctive "lollipop" appearance. E) Its diagnostic feature is characteristic muscle contractions, which are often noted too late to save the patient.

Its only source is from deep puncture wounds from rusty nails.

A lung specimen from a pneumonia patient contains Gram-negative bacilli. Laboratory test results on the bacteria show they are nonmotile cloakrooms with a thick capsule. Which pathogen is the likely cause of the pneumonia?A) Escherichia coli B) Enterobacter C) Hafnia D) Klebsiella E) Serratia

Klebsiella

Members of the genus Mycoplasma are pleomorphic and stain Gram-negative because they?

Lack cell wall

Streptococci are frequently classified by? A) Lancefield antigen designations. B) the type of enzymes the bacteria produce. C) their staining properties. D) their ability to produce a capsule. E) the diseases they produce.

Lancefield antigen designations

The pleomorphic bacterium (Coxiella/Legionella/Francisella) is an intracellular parasite that can lead to respiratory disease when inhaled in aerosols from fresh water sources.

Legionella

Which of the following is the results of inhalation of aerosols of fresh water containing a bacterial parasite of protozoa?A) acute bacterial meningitis B) meningococcal meningitis C) Q fever D) pertussis E) Legionnaires' disease

Legionnaires' disease

Which of the following is a key diagnostic indicator of infection with Mycobacterium leprae? A) blister-like lesions B) a distinctive red rash that lasts for days C) pus-filled abscesses D) loss of the sense of touch E) severe inflammation with swelling

Loss of the sense of touch

(MRSA/MDT-TB/VRSA) is resistant to numerous antimicrobial agents; therefore, vancomycin is usually used for these infections

MRSA

Bacteria collected from a severely inflamed wound are sent to the lave for analysis. The results come back as follows: Gram-positive cocci in irregular clusters, kinase and coagulase positive, and able to grow in the presence of most antibiotics except vancomycin. The bacteria n the wound are most likely? A) Enterococcus. B) Staphylococcus epidermidis. C) Staphylococcus aureus. D) methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA). E) Streptococcus pyogenes (group A streptococcus).

Methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA)

Shigellosis can be differentiated from salmonellosis by? A) the lack of fever. B) the presence of bloody diarrhea. C) the presence of nonmotile noncoliforms. D) the presence of nonmotile noncoliforms in bloody diarrhea. E) abdominal cramps and fever.

Multiplies in the host's cytosol

A sample of fluid from the lungs contain microbes that grow in filaments or clumps. The cells stain poorly in the gram stain and are a pink-red when acid-fast stained. The bacteria in the sample are? A) Mycobacterium species. B) Mycoplasma species. C) Nocardia species. D) Actinomyces species. E) not identifiable with this information.

Mycobacterium species

Which of the following has been historically classified as Gram-negative bacteria but is genetically more similar to low G+C Gram positive bacteria? A) mycoplasmas B) Mycobacterium C) Clostridium D) Propionibacterium E) Nocardia

Mycoplasmas

Streptococcus agalactiae is associated with which of the following diseases? A) neonatal bacteremia B) neonatal meningitis C) neonatal pneumonia D) both neonatal bacteremia and neonatal meningitis E) neonatal bacteremia, neonatal meningitis, and neonatal pneumonia

Neonatal bacteremia, neonatal meningitis, and neonatal pneumonia

The presence of mycelia acid in the cell walls of the opportunistic pathogen (actinomyces/nocardia) results in it gram staining poorly.

Nocardia

Strains of the same species of enteric bacteria are identified by their (H/K/O) antigens, components of the outer membrane.

O

What metabolic characteristic distinguishes Enterobacteriaceae from Paterurelaceae? A) Enterobacteriaceae ferment lactose. B) Pasteurellaceae are oxidase positive. C) Enterobacteriaceae are oxidase positive. D) Enterobacteriaceae are facultative anaerobes. E) Pasteurellaceae are facultative anaerobes.

Pasteurellaceae are oxidase positive

Undiagnosed or untreated infections with Neisseria gonorrhoeae in can progress to A) bubonic plague. B) meningococcal meningitis. C) trench fever. D) pelvic inflammatory disease (PID). E) Q fever.

Pelvic inflammatory disease (PID)

The body limits the migration of Streptococcus (agalactiae/pneumoniae/pyogenes) by binding it to the active sites of secretory IgA, which the bacteria overcome by secreting secretory IgA protease.

Pneumoniae

Serratia is a coliform that? A) is nonmotile. B) produces red pigment when grown at room temperature. C) is totally benign in humans. D) is easy to treat because it is sensitive to most antibiotics. E) does not grow in hospital supplies such as saline and other salt solutions

Produced red pigment when grown at room temperature

Increased sebum secretion can fuel the overgrowth of the opportunistic pathogen ....... in its normal habitat, leading to disease.

Propionibacterium acnes

Urinary tract infections with .......... are frequently complicated by the formation of kidney stones A) Escherichia coli B) Bacteroides species C) Proteus mirabilis D) Klebsiella pneumoniae E) Salmonella species

Proteus mirabilis

Infections with Corynebacterium diphtheria leads to formation of (pseudomembranes/tubercles) which can severely impaired respiratory function.

Pseudomembranes

A cystic fibrosis patient develops a severe respiratory infection that resists treatment with standard antibiotics. A specimen from the lungs is greenish in color and contains aerobic motile gram-negative bacilli. The patient is probably infected with? A) Bordetella pertussis. B) Burkholderia cepacia. C) Klebsiella pneumoniae. D) Pseudomonas aeruginosa. E) Serratia marcescens

Pseudomonas aeruginosa

Which of the following diseases is considered an autoimmune disease triggered by bacterial infection? A) glomerulonephritis caused by the group A streptococci B) scarlet fever C) rheumatic fever D) impetigo E) toxic shock syndrome

Rheumatic fever

Several cases of nonbloddy diarrhea with nausea, fever, and abdominal pain have occurred among a number of people who are at the same restaurant. Public health officers find a food sample containing motel noncoliform, Gram-negative bacteria capable of metabolizing glucose. The "food poisoning" resulted from contamination with? A) Citrobacter. B) Escherichia coli. C) Salmonella. D) Shigella. E) Yersinia.

Salmonella

Infections with Streptococcus pyogenes may progress to ......., characterized by a skin rash that peels after about a week and a bright red swollen tongue? A) pyoderma B) toxic shock syndrome C) scarlatina D) rheumatic fever E) scalded skin syndrome

Scarlatina

Untreated streptococcal pharyngitis may progress to? A) scarlet fever. B) necrotizing fasciitis. C) rheumatic fever. D) scarlet fever or necrotizing fasciitis. E) scarlet fever or rheumatic fever.

Scarlet fever or rheumatic fever

The true pathogen (Salmonella/Shigella/Yersinia) is a noncoliform, nonmotile, oxidase-negative member of the Enterobacteriaceae that does not produce hydrogen sulfide.

Shigella

Otitis media may lead to dangerous meningitis in children due to infection with? A) Streptococcus agalactiae. B) Streptococcus pneumoniae. C) Streptococcus mutans. D) Enterococcus. E) Mycoplasma pneumoniae.

Streptococcus pneumoniae

The Quelling reaction is used to diagnose? A) Staphylococcus aureus. B) Streptococcus pyogenes. C) Streptococcus agalactiae. D) Streptococcus pneumoniae. E) Streptococcus equisimilis.

Streptococcus pneumoniae

Which of the following bacteria can cause pharyngitis? A) Streptococcus anginosus B) Streptococcus equisimilus C) Streptococcus pyogenes D) both Streptococcus equisimilus and S. pyogenes E) Streptococcus anginosus, S. equisimilus, and S. pyogenes

Streptococcus pyogenes

Which of the following statements about Neisseria gonorrhoeae is False? A) It causes disease in humans only. B) The gonococci stick to epithelial cells via fimbriae and capsules. C) The gonococci secrete a protease that destroys secretory IgA. D) The gonococci induce lasting immunity. E) Infected women are often asymptomatic.

The gonococci can multiply inside a macrophage

The major damage caused by Neisseria meningitides is a result of?

The release of the lipid A component of lipooligosaccharide (LOS) into the tissues, triggering serious symptoms.

How does the toxin from Clostridium tetani produce its action? A) It fuses irreversibly to neuronal cytoplasmic membranes, blocking release of acetylcholine at synaptic clefts. B) The smaller polypeptide of its toxin can block the release of inhibitory neurotransmitters by inhibitory neurons in the central nervous system, causing simultaneous contraction of both muscles in an antagonistic pair. C) It is a pyrogenic toxin, which triggers a diffused rash and, later, sloughing of skin. D) It destroys tissues, including muscle and fat. E) It produces antibodies that attack the neuromuscular junctions in skeletal muscle and prevent them from relaxing.

The smaller polypeptide of its toxin can block the release of inhibitory neurotransmitters by inhibitory neurons in the central nervous system, causing simultaneous contraction of both muscles in an antagonistic pair

How do Group A streptococci camouflage themselves from white blood cells? A) They produce coagulase, allowing the bacteria to hide within blood clots. B) They grow in chains or pairs. C) They produce streptokinase, which breaks down blood clots. D) They have hyaluronic acid capsules. E) They have protein M in their capsule, which destabilizes complement and interferes with opsonization.

They have hyaluronic acid capsule

Over 90% of Staphylococcus aureus isolates are penicillin-resistant. Why? A) They have loosely organized polysaccharide slime layers. B) They produce coagulase. C) Cell division occurs in successively different planes, and the daughter cells remain attached to one another. D) They produce β-lactamase. E) They produce staphylokinase, which dissolves fibrin threads in blood clots.

They produce B-lactamase

People can reduce the chances of contacting rabbit fever by avoiding rabbits, muskrats, and (fleas/lice/ticks)

Ticks

A woman comes to the emergency department with fever and vomiting. She soon develops a red rash all over her body, and her blood pressure begins to drop. What is one possible diagnosis? A) erysipelas B) endocarditis C) scarlet fever D) toxic shock syndrome E) staphylococcal food poisoning

Toxic Shock Syndrome

A summer cold that lasts for weeks and is characterized by sore throat, mild fever, dry cough, and malaise may be (pneumococcal/walking) pneumonia

Walking

Under what conditions does infection with Mycobacterium leprae develop into tuberculoid leprosy? A) in the absence of a cell-mediated immune response B) when the immune system develops a vigorous cell-mediated response C) when a strong antibody-mediated immune response develops D) when the innate respond is vigorous enough to clear the infection E) with pre-existing immunity as a result of immunization

When the immune system develops a vigorous cell- mediated response

What is the causative pathogen for bubonic and pneumonia plague? A) Yersinia pestis B) Yersinia enterocolitica C) Yersinia pseudotuberculosis D) Salmonella enterica E) Salmonella flexneri

Yersinia pestis

What is the characteristic lesion of Yersinia pests? A) a bubo B) a chancroid C) a soft chancre D) petechiae E) oozing abscesses in the intestinal wall

a bubo

Resistance of Pseudomonas to a wide range of antibacterial agents is partly due to its? A) production of exoenzyme S. B) use of the Entner-Doudoroff pathway as its major means of catabolizing glucose. C) ability to utilize a wide range of organic and nitrogen sources. D) ability to form biofilms. E) lack of special requirements for growth.

ability to form biofilms

What is the most common disease caused by propionibacterium?

acne

Unlike other gram-negative opportunistic bacilli, bactericides are (aerotolerant/facultative/obligate) anaerobes.

aerotolerant

Neisseria gonorrhoeae infection in men is? A) usually asymptomatic. B) only symptomatic in advanced stages of disease. C) an acute painful infection with pus discharge. D) symptomatic in about 50% of the population, causing mild urethritis. E) usually a bladder infection.

an acute painful infection with pus discharge.

Successful treatment of diphtheria requires the administration of (antibiotics/antitoxin/immunoglobulin)

anitioxin

Because of the existence of (acute/sympotmatic/asymptomatic) carriers, the eradication of meningococcal disease is unlikely.

asymptomatic

Members of the Enterobacteriaceae can be distinguished from each other by? A) its invasion into the central nervous system. B) its presence in the respiratory tract of 40% of healthy individuals. C) its ability to be transmitted by droplets among people who live in close contact. D) the release of the lipid A component of lipooligosaccharide (LOS) into the tissues, triggering serious symptoms. E) the fact that it can survive in cells after phagocytosis.

both motility and the ability to ferment lactose

Enterococcus faecalis bacteria can be distinguished from Gram-positive cocci because enterococci? A) have a glycocalyx. B) produce catalase enzyme. C) produce hemolysins. D) can grow in the presence of bile salts. E) are highly sensitive to antibiotics.

can grow in the presence of bile salts

Listeria virulence is directly related to its ability to? A) produce powerful toxins. B) form very resistant endospores. C) live within cells and thus avoid exposure to the immune system of its host. D) easily become a pathogen in humans. E) resist most antimicrobial agents.

easily become a pathogen in humans

A person comes into the clinic with a wound that is severely inflamed, very painful, and turning back and "bubbly". the diagnosis is leprosy.

false

Adult food borne botulism can be prevented by thoroughly cooking food before it is eaten.

false

Coxiella burnetii is transmitted to humans mainly via the bite of infected tick vectors

false

Enterobacteriaceae are rarely pathogenic

false

Gonococcal infections result in lifelong immunity against Neisseria gonorohoeae.

false

MacConkey agar is selective for Haemophilus influenzae.

false

Moraxella is a common cause of bacteremia

false

Mycobacterium tuberculosis is able to persist and be spread in aerosols due to its ability to produce endospores.

false

Streptococcus progenies commonly causes streptococcal toxic shock syndrome in otherwise healthy people.

false

T/F Lipid A causes disseminated intravenous coagulation (DIC)

false

T/F Some scientists believe that shingella may actually be a strain of Escherichia coli that has become oxidase positive?

false

T/F Staphylococcus aureus food poisoning is long-lasting because ingested bacteria produce enterotoxins in the digestive system?

false

How is pneumonic plague transmitted? A) inhalation of respiratory aerosols from a person infected with Yersinia pestis B) bite of a flea carrying Yersinia pestis C) fomite contact D) contact with the blood of a person infected with Yersinia pestis E) bite of a tick carrying Yersinia pestis

inhalation of respiratory aerosols from a person infected with yersinia pestis

Bordetella pertussis causes disease by? A) the development of pneumonia. B) interfering with the action of the ciliated epithelial cells of the trachea. C) suppressing the production of mucus by the respiratory lining. D) forming a pseudomembrane that obstructs the larynx. E) irritating the diaphragm, which leads to severe coughing attacks.

interfering with the action of the ciliated epithelial cells of the trachea.

Which of the following statements concerning Pasteurella is false? A) It is oxidase positive. B) It is nonmotile. C) Humans are typically infected via animal bites. D) It is fastidious in its growth and must be cultivated on blood or chocolate agar. E) It is very resistant to a wide variety of antibacterial drugs including fluoroquinolones.

it is very resistant to a wide variety of antibacterial drugs including fluroquinolones.

Which of the following statements regarding Streptococcus progenes is false? A) It produces protein A, which inhibits opsonization. B) It is beta-hemolytic. C) It has group A Lancefield antigens. D) It produces streptolysins. E) It can be lysogenized by a temperate bacteriophage to produce erythrogenic toxins.

it produces protein A, which inhibits opsonization

Coliforms are distinguished from noncoliforms by their ability to ferment (glucose/citrate/lactose)

lactose

What virulence factor do all proteobacteria share? A) proteases that destroy IgA antibodies B) fimbriae C) lipid A D) a glycocalyx E) both fimbriae and a glycocalyx

lipid A

What is the antimicrobial agent of choice for treating Bacteroides infections? A) erythromycin B) tetracycline C) metronidazole D) cephalosporin E) bacitracin

metronidazole

Common sources of Listeria are undercooked meats and vegetables and unpasteurized (eggs/milk/juices)

milk

Mycetoma, which is a painless long-lasting infection characterized by swelling, pus production, and draining sores, is caused by? A) systemic tuberculosis. B) Nocardia. C) Actinomyces. D) penicillin-resistant staphylococci. E) cutaneous anthrax.

nocardia

Which of the following pairs is MISMATCHED A) coliform Enterobacteriaceae; rapid lactose fermenters B) noncoliform opportunistic Enterobacteriaceae; Proteus, Morganella C) coliform Enterobacteriaceae; opportunistic pathogens D) nonpathogenic Enterobacteriaceae; Salmonella, Shigella E) noncoliform Enterobacteriaceae; non-lactose-fermenters

nonpathogenic enterobacteriaceae; Salmonella, Shingella

Streptococcus pneumoniae is a leading cause of? A) acne. B) furuncles. C) pharyngitis. D) primary atypical pneumonia. E) otitis media.

otitis media

Neisseria is distinguished from many other Gram-negative pathogens by being (catalase/oxidase/dismutase) positive

oxidase

Bacterial food poisoning resulting from Clostridium (botulinum/difficile/ perfringens) contamination is characterized by watery diarrhea accompanied by intestinal cramping but not fever, and it resolves in about a day.

perfringens

Dermaonecrotic toxin is produced during (pertussis/Legionellosis/shigellosis) and causes localized constriction and hemorrhage of blood vessels, resulting in cell death and tissue destruction.

pertussis

Of the three disease caused by Yersinia pests, only (bubonic/black/pneumonia) plague is communicable between humans.

pneumonia

The pathogenicity of primary tuberculosis is due to the fact that the mycobacteria? A) are not phagocytized. B) prevent fusion of lysosomes with phagosomes. C) form a pseudomembrane. D) destroy helper T cells. E) are carried by macrophages to a variety of sites.

prevent fusion of lysosomes with phagosomes

In its role in the development of acne, (propionibacterium/staphylococcus/ actinomyces) typically grows in sebaceous glands of the skin.

propionibacterium

The soil bacterium Nocardia asteroids can establish opportunistic infections of the? A) skin. B) lungs. C) central nervous system. D) cardiovascular system. E) skin, lungs, and central nervous system.

skin, lungs, and CNS

Anthrax, which means charcoal in greek, derives its name from? A) the airborne endospores it produces. B) the staining properties of the bacillus under the microscope. C) the black eschars it produces on human skin. D) its ability to invade the bloodstream and produce toxemia. E) the high mortality it causes in infected individuals.

the black eschars it produces on human skin

Which of the following is a diagnostic for Neisseria meningitidis? A) its invasion into the central nervous system. B) its presence in the respiratory tract of 40% of healthy individuals. C) its ability to be transmitted by droplets among people who live in close contact. D) the release of the lipid A component of lipooligosaccharide (LOS) into the tissues, triggering serious symptoms. E) the fact that it can survive in cells after phagocytosis.

the presence of Gram-negative diplococci in phagocytes of the central nervous system

What differentiates virulent strains of Streptococcus pneumonia from nonvirulent strains? A) the species-specific teichoic acid present in its cell wall B) the type of Lancefield antigen it produces C) the presence of a polysaccharide capsule that protects it from digestion after endocytosis D) the type of toxins it produces E) the extent of the hemolytic zone it produces when it is grown on blood agar

the presence of a polysaccharide capsule that protects it from digestion after endocytosis

Among the areas of the female genital tract, which of the following is NOT colonized by Neisseria gonorrhoeae? A) the vagina B) the cervix C) the uterus D) the Fallopian tubes E) the pelvic organs

the vagina

Which of the following statements regarding Neisseria meningitides is false? A) There are vaccines available to prevent infection with all strains. B) Up to 40% of the population are carriers. C) Humans are the only natural carriers. D) Transmission is via respiratory droplets. E) It often causes meningitis.

there are vaccines available to prevent infection with all stains.

Which of the following diseases is transmitted by the bite of human body lice? A) bubonic plague B) tularemia C) Pontiac fever D) trench fever E) brucellosis

trench fever

After a week of asymptomatic infection with Bordetella pertussis, the patient has cold like (catarrhal) symptoms for a week or two followed a period of severe paroxysmal episodes of coughing that leave the patient anoxic and fatigued

true

By controlling the genetic expression of Vi and H antigens, Salmonella evades the host's immune system and manages to survive.

true

Enterococci have the ability to secrete bacteriocins, which inhibit the growth of other bacteria.

true

Group A streptococci are considered more virulent if their cytoplasmic membrane contains M protein.

true

Haemophilus ducreyi is transmitted by sexual contact.

true

Neisseria meningitidis is able to survive inside macrophages and be transported throughout the body in them.

true

T/F Humans are the sole hosts of Salmonella typhi

true

T/F In contrast to other mycobacteria, mycobacterium avid-intracellulare simultaneously affects almost every organ in the body.

true

T/F Staphylococcus aureus can produce a toxin that dissolves the desmosomes that hold the adjoining cytoplasmic membranes of cells together and causes the patient's skin cells to separate from each other.

true

The respiratory infection known as walking pneumonia is caused by mycoplasma pneumoniae.

true

The zoonosis (brucellosis/bartonellosis/tularemia) can be acquired by humans in a variety of ways, including insect bites and ingestion of infected animals.

tularemia

Inhalation of dried bodily fluids of infected animals may result in? A) tularemia. B) brucellosis. C) Q fever. D) both tularemia and brucellosis. E) tularemia, brucellosis, and Q fever.

tularemia, brucellosis, and Q fever

Which of the following diseases can be prevented by a vaccination? A) typhoid fever B) salmonellosis C) cat scratch disease D) gonorrhea E) chancroid

typhoid fever

Which of the following streptococci is associated with dental caries? A) viridans streptococci B) Streptococcus pyogenes C) Streptococcus pneumoniae D) Streptococcus equisimilis E) Streptococcus arginosus

viridans streptococci