Microbiology Chapters 16, 17, 18, 19, 20, 21

All of the following are chemical defenses of the skin EXCEPT - sebum. - microbial peptides. - oil (sebaceous glands). - sweat.

- microbial peptides.

Entamoeba histolytica (Select all that apply): - occurs mostly in developed countries. - moves around by pseudopods. - causes a mild diarrheal disease. - is a fungus.

- occurs mostly in developed countries. - moves around by pseudopods.

Large outbreaks of Cryptosporidiosis occurs since all of the _____________ are not filtered out by typical water treatment facilities.: - endospores - trophozoites - oocysts - None of these choices is correct.

- oocysts

Which of the following symptoms is most characteristic of diphtheria? - sore throat - pseudomembrane - fever - nervous system damage

- pseudomembrane

Which feature is characteristic of cholera?: - rice water stools - bloody stools - non-bloody urine - constipation

- rice water stools

Cystitis is commonly treated with (Select all that apply): - acyclovir. - sulfa drugs. - cephalosporins. - quinolones.

- sulfa drugs. - cephalosporins. - quinolones.

Which of the following processes can rid the body of pathogens quickly? (Select all that apply): - salivation - vaginal discharge - urination - mechanical digestion

- vaginal discharge - urination

Ingestion of the S. aureus enterotoxin causes ______________ shortly after eating contaminated food.: - migraine headaches - vomiting - bloody diarrhea - low grade fever

- vomiting

Select the correct statement.: -Blepharitis is an inflammation of the cornea. -Belpharitis is caused by Stroptococcal species. -Blepharitis can cause trichiasis. -Blepharitis can lead to retinal scarring.

-Blepharitis can cause trichiasis.

Select the CORRECT statement.: -C. neoformans can be stained with the crystal violet but not safranin. -C. neoformans can be quickly identifies from a blood sample. -C. neoformans causes fungal meningitis. -C. neoformans does not have a prominent capsule.

-C. neoformans causes fungal meningitis.

Why is TB difficult to treat? -Herd immunity to TB is virtually impossible. -M. tuberculosis has mycolic acid in its cell wall which blocks entry of antibiotics. -It typically kills its victims before treatment is rendered. -M. tuberculosis is a virus and cannot be treated with antibiotics.

-M. tuberculosis has mycolic acid in its cell wall which blocks entry of antibiotics.

The causative agents for bacterial meningitis in adolescents, young adults and older adults is (Select all that apply): - Escherichia coli - Streptococcus pneumoniae - Neisseria meningitidis - Listeria monocytogenes

-Streptococcus pneumoniae -Neisseria meningitidis

Bacterial pharyngitis is caused by _____________ in most cases. -Fusobacterium necrophorum -Arcanobacterium haemolyticum -Corynebacterium diphtheriae -Streptococcus pyogenes

-Streptococcus pyogenes

Which of the following represents a strategy used by pathogens to overcome the skin defenses of a host? Select all that apply.: - attack and destroy hair follicles - antigenic drift - exploitation of skin abrasions - enzyme secretion

-antigenic drift -exploitation of skin abrasions -enzyme secretion

T or F: The symptoms associated with cellulitis, impetigo and necrotizing fasciitis are caused by toxins and enzymes secreted by Candida pathogens.

False

The __________ in mannitol salt agar inhibits the growth of most bacterial species other than Staphylococcus.: a. agar b. phenol red c. 7.5% NaCl d. pH indicator e. mannitol

c. 7.5% NaCl

Which of the pathogens that cause meningoencephalitis result in a fatal disease?: a. N. fowleri b. Acanthoamoeba c. A and B are correct. d. Neither A nor B are correct.

c. A and B are correct.

Identify the pathogen depicted here.: (CH. 16 #3) a. influenza virus b. Corynebacterium diphtheriae c. Bordetella pertussis d. Streptococcus pneumoniae e. adenovirus

c. Bordetella pertussis

Identify the pathogen: The pathogen shown in the diagram produces a toxin that causes bloody diarrhea and can lead to HUS.: a. Staphylococcus aureus b. Clostridium difficile c. Escherichia coli d. Giardia lamblia e. rotavirus

c. Escherichia coli

Identify the pathogen: Which diarrhea-causing protozoan pathogen is pictured here?: a. Entamoeba histolytica b. Cryptosporidium parvum c. Giardia lamblia d. E. coli O157:H7 e. Shigella dysenteriae

c. Giardia lamblia

How is a CSF sample analyzed to test for cryptococcal meningitis?: a. Gram stain b. acid-fast stain c. India ink stain d. ELISA test e. PCR test

c. India ink stain

Which of the following is NOT true of brucellosis?: a. It causes headache and muscle ache. b. The pathogens are found in livestock and deer. c. It causes a persistent high fever. d. The pathogen is a possible bioweapon. e. The disease is chronic and incapacitating.

c. It causes a persistent high fever.

On the diagram of the HIV virus, identify (1) the green knobs around the outside and (2) the conical green center structure.: a. (1) gp120; (2) reverse transcriptase b. (1) gp41; (2) protease c. (1) gp160; (2) integrase d. (1) gp120; (2) capsid e. (1) p17 matrix proteins; (2) integrase

d. (1) gp120; (2) capsid

Visible warts are the result of infection with which serotypes?: - 6 and 16 - 6 and 11 - 11 and 18 - 16 and 18

- 6 and 11

The infectious dose for a plague infection is (Select all that apply): - 10 to 50 bacteria for a bubonic infection. - 100 to 500 bacteria for a pneumonic infection. - 10 to 50 bacteria for systemic infection. - None of these choices is correct

- 10 to 50 bacteria for a bubonic infection. - 100 to 500 bacteria for a pneumonic infection. - 10 to 50 bacteria for systemic infection.

Select the CORRECT statement.: - A chancre is painful and rarely goes unnoticed. - Common locations of chancres include eyes, ears, nose and axillary regions. - A chancre appears at the site of infection. - Primary syphilis occurs after a 2-day to 9-day incubation period.

- A chancre appears at the site of infection.

Campylobacter: - stains red during the Gram stain procedure. - has a positive result with a flagellar stain. - is acid-sensitive. - All of these choices are correct

- All of these choices are correct

Select the CORRECT statement.: - Hepatitis A virus is usually ingested with feces-contaminated food. - Sewage workers in developed countries are at high risk for HAV. - Child care workers in developed countries are at high risk for HAV. - All of these choices are correct

- All of these choices are correct

The cytotoxin produced by H. pylori: - damages epithelial cells. - disrupts tight junctions. - causes apoptosis. - All of these choices are correct

- All of these choices are correct

Which of the following colonize the mouth and aid in inhibiting microbial pathogens?: - Streptococcus mutans - Streptococcus sanguis - Streptococcus salivarius - All of these choices are correct

- All of these choices are correct

A primary infection caused by HSV-1 results in: - herpetic lesions. - a fever. - swollen glands. - All of these choices are correct.

- All of these choices are correct.

Prostatitis may: - result from a bacterial infection. - have no apparent cause. - result from a traumatic injury. - All of these choices are correct.

- All of these choices are correct.

The mumps virus can be found in the: - oral pharynx. - testes in males. - CSF in both sexes. - All of these choices are correct.

- All of these choices are correct.

A livestock farmer is likely to come into contact with ___________________ which in turn may cause brucellosis. (Select all that apply): - Brucella melitensis - Brucella canis - Brucella abortus - Brucella suis

- Brucella melitensis - Brucella abortus - Brucella suis

Which of the following microbes is the causative agent of PID? (Select all that apply): - Treponema pallidum - Chlamydia trachomatis - Staphylococcus aureus - Neisseria gonorrhoeae

- Chlamydia trachomatis - Neisseria gonorrhoeae

Which of the following is a causative agent of pyelonephritis? (Select all that apply): - Staphylococcus aureus - E. coli - Streptococcus spp. - Klebsiella pneumoniae

- E. coli - Klebsiella pneumoniae

Sepsis is caused by ___________________ which trigger a systemic inflammatory response. (Select all that apply): - Enterococcus - Vibrio - Neisseria - Streptococcus

- Enterococcus - Streptococcus

Which sequence represents the order of overall morbidity from greatest to least?: - Filariasis > Schistosomiasis > Cercarial dermatitis - Schistosomiasis > Filariasis > Cercarial dermatitis - Cercarial dermatitis > Filariasis > Schistosomiasis - None of these choices is correct.

- Filariasis > Schistosomiasis > Cercarial dermatitis

Which of the following statements is true regarding anthrax? (Select all that apply): - Anthrax is self-limiting. - Humans can be infected with anthrax in three different ways. - Cutaneous anthrax is not usually fatal. - Bacillus anthracis causes anthrax.

- Humans can be infected with anthrax in three different ways. - Cutaneous anthrax is not usually fatal. - Bacillus anthracis causes anthrax.

Select the INCORRECT statement.: - Lyme disease is caused by Borrhelia burgdorferi. - Lyme disease is carried by rodents. - Lyme disease is always characterized by a large bull's eye rash. - Lyme disease is caused by a gram-negative microbe.

- Lyme disease is always characterized by a large bull's eye rash.

Which of the following is a commonly recognized resident of the skin that is able to tolerate high salt conditions?: - Micrococcus spp. - Malassezia furfur - E. coli - Pseudomonas

- Micrococcus spp.

All of the following enzymes can digest microbes EXCEPT: - salivary amylase. - salivary lipase. - pepsin. - None of these choices is correct

- None of these choices is correct

All of the following can cause pyelonephritis EXCEPT: - Klebsiella pneumoniae. - Staphylococcus aureus. - Enterococcus spp. - E. coli.

- Staphylococcus aureus.

Which of the following organisms causes chickenpox and shingles?: - VZW - parovirus B19 - HHV-7 - HIV

- VZW

Trichomoniasis is caused by (Select all that apply): - a protozoan. - using public facilities for bathing. - a pathogen with four flagella. - Trichomonas vaginalis.

- a protozoan. - a pathogen with four flagella. - Trichomonas vaginalis.

All of the following are symptoms of influenza EXCEPT - fever. - nonproductive cough. - chills. - abdominal pain and diarrhea.

- abdominal pain and diarrhea.

Which of the following is the most important part of patient care in a healthcare setting when admission is not based on illnesses related to the mouth?: - avoiding sugary drink - fluoridation of water supplies - adequate oral hygiene - avoiding sugary foods

- adequate oral hygiene

The clinical features of hepatitis B that are shared with hepatitis C include (Select all that apply): - anorexia. - weight loss. - aches. - fever.

- anorexia. - aches. - fever.

The clinical features of hepatitis B that are shared with hepatitis C include (Select all that apply): - weight loss. - anorexia. - aches. - fever.

- anorexia. - aches. - fever.

Which of the following can be used to distinguish between staphylococcal and streptococcal cellulitis?: - acid-fast stain - biochemical testing - microscopic examination - gram stain procedure

- biochemical testing

Which of the following can be used to distinguish between staphylococcal and streptococcal necrotizing fasciitis?: - acid-fast staining - biochemical testing - gram stain procedure - endospore staining

- biochemical testing

Macrophages in the alveoli engulfing microbes that manage to pass deep into the lungs is an example of a _____________ defense. - pathogen - chemical - physical - biological

- biological

Taenia saginata has ___________ as a definitive host and ____________ as an intermediate host.: - cattle : humans - fish : pigs - cattle : pigs - cattle : fish

- cattle : humans

A patient sample from an abdominal abscess may be caused by a bacterial pathogen. The ER physician suspects an infection caused by Staphylococcus aureus. What bacterial arrangement are you expected to observe using a light microscope?: - sarcinae - clusters - pairs - chains

- clusters

All of the following are types of warts except: - flat. - common. - dorsal. - plantar.

- dorsal.

A neonate with genital herpes may present with (Select all that apply): - encephalitis. - damage to the kidneys. - vesicular rash. - blindness.

- encephalitis. - damage to the kidneys. - vesicular rash. - blindness.

Which of the following causes viral meningitis?: - enteroviruses - coxsackieviruses - polioviruses - echoviruses

- enteroviruses

Which of the following host factors influence the normal microbiota of the respiratory system as well as the pathogenic microbes that briefly reside in parts of the respiratory tract? (Select all that apply) - socioeconomic status - general health - religious background - immune status

- general health - immune status

C. difficile causes sever diarrhea when the: - growth of the normal microbiota has been disrupted. - patient consumes a high fat diet. - movement of water into the colon decreases. - None of these choices is correct.

- growth of the normal microbiota has been disrupted.

After the initial symptoms of leptospirosis decrease, some patients develop Weil's disease which presents clinically with (Select all that apply): - hepatomegaly. - jaundice. - internal bleeding. - kidney dysfunction.

- hepatomegaly. - jaundice. - internal bleeding. - kidney dysfunction.

Transmission of hookworms: - occurs by person-to-person by close physical contact. - in areas where soil is contaminated with human feces. - by ingestion of infective larva. - None of these choices is correct.

- in areas where soil is contaminated with human feces.

Select all that apply. The early clinical signs of neonatal meningitis caused by group B Streptococcus are: - irritability. - fever. - lethargy. - seizures.

- irritability. - fever. - lethargy.

Marcus, a Navy seal, was given orders to serve in the Middle East. Not long after his arrive with his military cohorts, he developed a fever. Being a Navy seal is an active occupation, so his weight loss went unnoticed. Marcus kept scratching his left forearm where he was bit by some unknown insect. What skin disease does Marcus have?: - smallpox - leishmaniasis - pediculosis - scabies

- leishmaniasis

Which of the following treatments could be used to kill Clostridium tetani?: - endotracheal intubation - neuromuscular blockade - metronidazole - human tetanus immunoglobulin

- metronidazole

Jenny became concerned about her young son's health. He seemed to have symptoms of the flu but he also had a bright red exanthema on both his cheeks. Antiviral medications are not available for this common childhood disease. How can Jenny protect her other two children from contracting this illness? Select all that apply.: -avoidance of the infected child -vaporizer -consistent and thorough hand hygiene -regular fomite disinfection

-avoidance of the infected child -consistent and thorough hand hygiene -regular fomite disinfection

Legionnaire's disease (Select all that apply): -is an emerging viral pathogen. -can be an opportunistic pathogen. -made its first appearance as an outbreak in Philadelphia at a convention in 1976. -thrives in the heating and air conditioning systems of large buildings.

-can be an opportunistic pathogen. -made its first appearance as an outbreak in Philadelphia at a convention in 1976. -thrives in the heating and air conditioning systems of large buildings

Histoplasmosis is (Select all that apply): -caused by a pathogen that lives in soil. -caused by Histoplasma capsulatum. -frequently found in contaminated bird and bat droppings. -endemic in the moist soil of decomposing forest litter.

-caused by a pathogen that lives in soil. -caused by Histoplasma capsulatum. -frequently found in contaminated bird and bat droppings.

What is the treatment if your best friend's cousin has conjunctivitis caused by a viral pathogen? Select all that apply.: -antibiotics -cold compress -over the counter eye drops with antihistamine -warm compress

-cold compress -over the counter eye drops with antihistamine -warm compress

Otitis media is characterized by (Select all that apply): -eardrum bulging or rupture. -painful pressure in the middle ear. -inflammation of the middle ear. -fluid buildup in the middle ear.

-eardrum bulging or rupture. -painful pressure in the middle ear. -inflammation of the middle ear. -fluid buildup in the middle ear.

Select the CORRECT pairing.: -corticosteroid use : pneumonia caused by Streptococcus pneumoniae -immunocompromised : pneumonia caused by a virus -AIDS : pneumonia caused by Staphylococcus aureus -exposed to contaminated water droplets : pneumonia caused by Legionella pneumophila

-exposed to contaminated water droplets : pneumonia caused by Legionella pneumophila

Smallpox lesions can be described as (Select all that apply): -large, indented pustules with a -center of thick, opaque fluid. -scabs. -vesicles. -papules.

-large, indented pustules with a -center of thick, opaque fluid. -scabs. -vesicles. -papules.

Mrs. Wilson has type II diabetes who has a third degree burn on her left hand. Which pseudomonal infection could she potentially acquire?: -hot tub folliculitis -ecthyma gangrenosum -opportunistic secondary skin infection -green nail syndrome

-opportunistic secondary skin infection

Select the correct pairing.: -pediculus humanus capitis : body lice -scabies : six-year itch -pediculus humanus corporis : head lice -pthirus pubis : crabs

-pthirus pubis : crabs

Rales that can occur during pneumonia indicates -a benign lung tumor. -viral and bacterial infections are present. -the accumulation of fluid in the lungs. -frequent bronchospasms.

-the accumulation of fluid in the lungs.

Vertical transmission of T. gondii occurs: -during conjugation. -through the breast milk to the baby. -during binary fission. -through the placenta to the fetus.

-through the placenta to the fetus.

Which of the following measures has results in a tenfold decrease in pediatric cases of epiglottitis? -widespread use of Hib vaccine -more frequent hand washing -development of fourth generation cephalosporins -improved intubation techniques

-widespread use of Hib vaccine

Determine which groupings of characteristics is associated with Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease. 1. rare disease 2. beings with mental deterioration 3. described by two German neurologists 4. death occurs within 7 to 9 months 5. occurs in elk, sheep and humans

1, 2, 3 and 4

Determine which groupings of characteristics is associated with polio.: 1. asymptomatic 2. several days of fever, sore throat, anorexia, vomiting, and abdominal pain 3. paralysis 4. abnormal tingling sensation with pain 5. periods of agitation 6. seizures

1, 2, 3 and 4

Determine which of the following groups describes an individual infected with gonorrhea.: 1. vulvar swelling 2. dysuria 3. urethritis 4. hair loss 5. culturing of cervical or ocular discharge 6. ceftriaxone and/or azithromycin or doxycycline

1, 2, 3, 5, 6

Determine which of the following groups of characteristics is associated with tularemia.: 1. sore throat 2. causative agent - bacteria 3. incubation period - 3 to 14 days 4. vector - small animals, insects 5. prevention - vaccination

1, 2, 4

Determine which of the following groups of characteristics is associated with epidemic typhus.: 1. fever 2. causative agent - bacteria 3. incubation period - 3 to 14 days 4. vector - body lice 5. prevention - vaccination

1, 2, 4, 5

Determine which grouping of characteristics is associated with typhoid fever.: 1. headache 2. rose-colored spots on the skin 3. high fever 4. loose, non-bloody stools 5. myalgia

1, 2, and 3

Determine which groupings of characteristics is associated with Kuru. 1. endemic to Papua New Guinea 2. observed in cattle 3. begins with a decrease in muscle control 4. associated with a variant form of the disease 5. death occurs within a few months to a few years after first symptoms

1, 3 and 5

Determine which of the following groups of characteristics is associated with Bartonella infections.: 1. fever 2. causative agent - virus 3. malaise 4. transmission - cat bite/scratch, body lice 5. lymphadenopathy

1, 3, 4

Evaluate the following groupings and rank them from the individual most at risk for a thrush infection to the least. 1. A 50 year old male with advanced AIDS 2. A 21 year old female who is HIV negative 3. A 38 year old male who is HIV positive but is not considered to have full-blown AIDS 4. A 17 year old female receiving treatment for HIV (status is HIV positive)

1, 3, 4, 2

T or F: The appearance of owl's eyes in a blood smear in indicative of a viral infection caused by EBV.

False

Evaluate the following groups and rank them in the order of the least severe bacterial infection to the most severe. 1. Acne vulgaris 2. Gas gangrene 3. Cellulitis 4. Necrotizing fasciitis

1, 3, 4, 2

Place the following replication steps in order.: 1. Fusion of the viral envelope with the TH cell plasma membrane facilitates entry of the virus into the cell. 2. The provirus remains with the host genome throughout the latent phase of the infection. 3. Integrase from the HIV virion inserts the double-stranded viral DNA into the host genome as a provirus. 4. Once the viral RNA is released from the capsid, reverse transcriptase synthesizes complementary dsDNA from the virus's RNA genome.

1, 4, 3, 2

Determine which combination of dietary items is less likely to promote a vaginal yeast infection.: 1. chicken breast covered in BBQ sauce 2. Caesar salad with low-fat dressing 3. vegetable stir fry with tofu 4. 8 ounces of frozen yogurt 5. 8 ounces of plain, no fat Greek yogurt

2, 3, 5

Which of the following terms describes the lesions associated with molluscum contagiosum?: 1. painful 2. painless 3. flesh-colored 4. red 5. firm bump with central dimple 6. small, flat and cauliflower-like

2, 3, 5

Determine which grouping has a similar mechanism of pathogenicity.: 1. EHEC/VTEC, EPEC 2. ETEC, non-pathogenic E. coli 3. EIEC, EAggEC 4. EIEC, other pathogenic E. coli

4

Select the CORRECT sequence of life forms during the lifestyle of A. lumbricoides beginning with the mating of adults.: 1. eggs 2. infective eggs 3. larvae 4. adult worms 5. mature worms

4, 1, 2, 3, 5

Evaluate the following groups and rank them from the least severe skin lesion to the most severe.: 1. Bullae 2. Pustules 3. Papules 4. Vesicles 5. Macules

5, 3, 2, 4, 1

TopHat 20-2 Peptic ulcer disease is treated with (Select all that apply)

A - Amoxicillin B - a proton pump inhibitor E - Clarithromycin

TopHat 20-1 Which of the following act as a defense mechanism in the GI tract against microbial pathogens. (Select all that apply)

A - Washing action of saliva B - Lysozyme D - IgA E - Peristalsis

TopHat 16-1 The defenses of the respiratory system include (select all that apply)

A - mucocilliary escalator B - mucus C - saliva D - alveolar macrophages

TopHat 20-4 The key treatment(s) for diarrheal diseases is (are)

A - oral fluids and electrolytes

TopHat 16-2 Tuberculosis is caused by ____, a(n) ___ streptobacillus.

C - Mycobacterium tuberculosis; acid fast

T or F: Kuru occurs through the practice of ritual cannibalism of the placenta at birth feasts.

False

T or F: During sexual activity, the elementary bodies are transferred between partners and to the fetus as it passes through the birth canal during labor.

True

T or F: If a microorganism is moved out of the stomach rapidly, it may not be inactivated by the low pH of the stomach.

True

T or F: Impaired behavior and loss of consciousness during malaria is due to adherence of RBCs infected with P. falciparum that express altered surface proteins.

True

T or F: One key sign of gingivitis is gums that bleed easily when brushing the teeth whereas one key sign of periodontitis is the gum tissue pulls away from the teeth creating pockets where additional bacteria can build up and cause an infection.

True

T or F: Pertussis is treated with supportive care and antibiotic therapy.

True

T or F: Pulmonary anthrax is transmitted by inhaling endospores.

True

T or F: Rotavirus is the leading cause of gastroenteritis in children.

True

T or F: Shigellosis is transmitted by improper food handling and preparation and ineffective hand washing.

True

T or F: Short-term memory loss is a characteristic of the first stage of Lyme disease.

True

T or F: Some species of Streptococcus bypass host defenses by possessing antiphagocytic capsules that inhibit phagocytosis by alveolar macrophages.

True

T or F: The damage caused by measles to the nervous system is the result of immunopathy.

True

T or F: The differences between HIV-1 and HIV-2 are due to the degree of virulence and geographical location.

True

T or F: The neurotoxins associated with botulism and tetanus both affect the release of neurotransmitter from axon vesicles.

True

T or F: The prevention of HIV lies in consistent and meticulous practices to avoid contact with the virus.

True

T or F: The recent news about the Zika virus causing microencephaly is an example of pathogens crossing the placenta and initiating infection of the fetus.

True

T or F: The specific mechanism for many pathogens crossing into the CNS is unknown.

True

T or F:Fever, sore throat, body aches, wheezing, headache, fatigue, difficulty breathing and sever attacks of coughing sometimes followed by vomiting are all signs and symptoms of bronchiolitis.

True

The rash shown in the photograph is diagnostic of an infection with _________. a. Borrelia burgdorferi b. Ehrlichia chafeensis c. Yersina pestis d. Coxiella burnetti e. Bacillus anthracis

a. Borrelia burgdorferi

Identify the pathogen: Of the following pathogens that cause diarrhea, which one forms endospores and causes pseudomembranous colitis in individuals who have lost the normal microbiota of the GI tract?: a. Clostridium difficile b. Salmonella c. Escherichia coli d. Cryptosporidium parvum e. Giardia lamblia

a. Clostridium difficile

Which of the following is NOT transmitted to humans by mosquitos? a. yellow fever b. Lassa fever c. dengue fever d. chikungunya fever e. tularemia

b. Lassa fever

Which of the following is NOT true of periodontitis?: a. It is not related to the presence of plaque. b. It can be caused by untreated periodontal disease. c. It can result in tooth loss. d. It is marked by pockets in the gums. e. It is associated with bacterial infection.

a. It is not related to the presence of plaque.

Identify the pathogen: _____ is a foodborne pathogen that is most often associated with deli meats, hot dogs, and inadequately pasteurized milk and soft cheeses.: a. Listeria monocytogenes b. Salmonella typhi c. Entamoeba histolytica d. Streptococcus mutans e. Helicobacter pylori

a. Listeria monocytogenes

Which of the following bacterial diseases of the cardiovascular or lymphatic systems is fatal?: a. Pulmonary anthrax and Pneumonic plague b. Bubonic plague and Systemic plague c. Brucellosis and Lyme disease d. Cutaneous anthrax and GI anthrax

a. Pulmonary anthrax and Pneumonic plague

A patient presented to the emergency department with a severe headache, fever, nausea, altered mental status, and a stiff neck. A Gram stain of cerebrospinal fluid was done (see the diagram). The pathogen causing these signs and symptoms is likely __________.: a. Streptococcus pneumoniae b. Listeria monocytogenes c. Clostridium tetani d. Haemophilus influenzae type b e. Neisseria meningitidis

a. Streptococcus pneumoniae

Evaluate the following and information and determine the most likely causative agent.: 1. Gram stain result : Purple 2. Microscopic examination : Cocci in chains 3. Flagella : Absent 4. Drug resistance to penicillin and chloramphenicol a. Streptococcus pneumoniae b. Pneumocystis jirovecii c. Aspergillus spp. d. Pseudomonas aeruginosa

a. Streptococcus pneumoniae

Cellulitis is caused by __________ and is characterized by a __________.: a. Streptococcus pyogenes; rash with delineated borders b. Streptococcus pyogenes; papular rash c. Staphylococcus aureus; rash with diffuse borders d. Staphylococcus aureus; rash with delineated borders e. Staphylococcus aureus; vesicular rash

a. Streptococcus pyogenes; rash with delineated borders

Identify the pathogen: This pathogen is the most frequent cause of pharyngitis. It is highly stable and remains infectious for long periods outside the body. The reservoir for this pathogen is primarily asymptomatic carriers with persistent tonsil infections.: a. adenovirus b. Corynebacterium diphtheriae c. Haemophilus influenzae d. Streptococcus pyogenes e. Staphylococcus aureus

a. adenovirus

Pneumonia is an inflammation of the __________ that reduces __________.: a. alveoli; gas exchange b. trachea; swallowing c. bronchi; coughing d. sinuses; the amount of air inhaled e. bronchioles; gas exchange

a. alveoli; gas exchange

Four pathogens discussed in this chapter that can be weaponized are _________.: a. anthrax, plague, tularemia, brucellosis b. plague, brucellosis, Chagas disease, babesiosis c. brucellosis, anthrax, Ebola, filariasis d. Ebola, filariasis, schistosomiasis, plague e. tuberculosis, filariasis, Ebola, babesiosis

a. anthrax, plague, tularemia, brucellosis

Which of the following is a strategy used by pathogens to evade an immune attack? (Select all that apply): a. antigenic drift b. secretion of PVL c. destruction of TH cells d. production of coagulase

a. antigenic drift b. secretion of PVL c. destruction of TH cells d. production of coagulase

The reservoir for West Nile virus is __________.: a. birds b. wild animals and unvaccinated domestic pets c. pigs d. bats e. snails

a. birds

Subacute endocarditis is characterized by (Select all that apply): a. cardiac arrhythmia. b. a pericardial rub sound. c. petechial rash d. abdominal pain.

a. cardiac arrhythmia. c. petechial rash d. abdominal pain.

The prion responsible for vCJD was initially found in __________.: a. cattle b. pigs c. sheep d. humans

a. cattle

Identify the disease: The lesion shown in the photo is typical of ____.: a. chancroid b. primary syphilis c. tertiary syphilis d. gonorrhea e. HIV

a. chancroid

How is severe sepsis distinguished from septic shock?: a. extremely low blood pressure b. significantly decreased urine output c. abdominal pain d. difficulty breathing

a. extremely low blood pressure

Cold sores are caused by _____.: a. herpes simplex virus b. mumps virus c. norovirus d. hepatitis A virus e. rotavirus

a. herpes simplex virus

Genital warts are caused by ____.: a. human papilloma virus b. HIV c. herpes simplex virus d. molluscum contagiosum e. chlamydia

a. human papilloma virus

This pathogen causes chills, fever, sore throat, muscle aches, headache, fatigue, and a nonproductive cough that gets progressively worse. It can be prevented by receiving an annual vaccination.: a. influenza A virus b. Bordetella pertussis c. Streptococcus pyogenes d. respiratory syncytial virus e. Corynebacterium diphtheriae

a. influenza A virus

Identify the pathogen: What disease of the cardiovascular system is caused by this pathogen?: a. pericarditis b. tuberculosis c. brucellosis d. tularemia e. anthrax

a. pericarditis

Strep throat (Select all that apply): a. presents with a sore throat, headache, fever and swollen tonsil. b. can be treated with antibiotics. c. is caused by GABHS. d. when untreated may lead to rheumatic fever, scarlet fever and carditis.

a. presents with a sore throat, headache, fever and swollen tonsil. b. can be treated with antibiotics. c. is caused by GABHS. d. when untreated may lead to rheumatic fever, scarlet fever and carditis.

Escherichia coli ferments lactose, whereas Salmonella and Shigellado not. On MacConkey agar, E. coli colonies would be _____ as a result of _____.: a. red; acid production b. white; oxygen use c. red; nitrogen fixation d. blue; lactose hydrolysis e. green; acid production

a. red; acid production

Parvovirus B19 is transmitted primarily by __________.: a. respiratory droplets through human-to-human contact b. IV drug use c. oral-fecal route through contaminated food or water d. direct contact with the skin of an infected person e. intimate sexual contact

a. respiratory droplets through human-to-human contact

Which of the following diseases is caused by a neurotoxin?: a. tetanus b. leprosy c. polio d. rabies e. toxoplasmosis

a. tetanus

What is the most important consideration for a woman trying to obtain a clean (uncontaminated) urine specimen?: a. to clean the area around the urethral opening b. to sit on a toilet seat c. to clean the vaginal opening d. not to wash with soap e. to hold the specimen cup against the body

a. to clean the area around the urethral opening

Mumps can be prevented with _____.: a. the MMR vaccine b. the DTaP vaccine c. vaccination with the inactivated mumps toxin d. prophylactic rifampicin treatment e. oral rehydration therapy

a.. the MMR vaccine

Put the following steps in the correct order, ending with a new virus particle. 1.self‐assembly 2.viral DNA synthesized from viral RNA template 3.translation of viral RNA 4.budding 5.viral DNA inserted into host genome: a. 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 b. 2, 5, 3, 1, 4 c. 2, 3, 5, 4, 1 d. 3, 2, 4, 1, 5 e. 1, 2, 3, 5, 4

b. 2, 5, 3, 1, 4

Identify the pathogen: Which of the following is a gram-positive pathogen that is commonly resistant to β-lactams, produces many different enzymes and toxins that cause tissue damage, and often infects the skin and underlying tissues?: a. Staphylococcus epidermidis b. Staphylococcus aureus c. Streptococcus pyogenes d. Pseudomonas aeruginosa e. Propionibacterium acnes

b. Staphylococcus aureus

Identify the pathogen: Three hours after eating reheated leftover hot dogs, a college student began severe vomiting. He had no fever, diarrhea, or other signs of illness beyond the nausea. His illness is most likely caused by _____.: a. Listeria monocytogenes b. Staphylococcus aureus enterotoxin c. mumps virus d. E. coli O157:H7 endotoxin e. rotavirus

b. Staphylococcus aureus enterotoxin

A 3-week-old infant was brought to the hospital with lethargy, poor feeding, irritability, fever, and seizures. The pathogen that would be isolated from the CSF is shown in the diagram. The meningitis is likely caused by __________.: a. Neisseria meningitidis b. Streptococcus agalactiae c. Haemophilus influenzae type b d. E. coli e. enterovirus

b. Streptococcus agalactiae

Why is it so difficult to develop an effective vaccine against HIV?: a. The virus kills TH cells. b. The virus mutates rapidly. c. The human body cannot produce antibodies against it. d. The latent period can be too long. e. The virus is immutable.

b. The virus mutates rapidly.

Haemophilus influenzae (type B) can cause __________ in young children.: a. strep throat b. acute epiglottitis c. diphtheria d. whooping cough e. conjunctivitis

b. acute epiglottitis

A highly contagious form of conjunctivitis is caused by __________.: a. Pseudomonas aeruginosa b. adenovirus 8 c. parvovirus B19 d. varicella zoster virus e. Escherichia coli

b. adenovirus 8

The reservoir for the pathogen that causes tetanus is __________.: a. fecally contaminated water b. anaerobic muds and soil c. other infected humans d. mosquitoes e. wild animals and unvaccinated domestic pets

b. anaerobic muds and soil

Most cases of sepsis are caused by _________.: a. viruses b. bacteria c. protozoans d. fungi e. protein A

b. bacteria

Which two systemic cardiovascular infections can be carried by livestock? a. tularemia and Ebola b. brucellosis and Q fever c. chikungunya fever and Marburg fever d. dengue fever and yellow fever e. infectious mononucleosis and Ebola

b. brucellosis and Q fever

Which of the following specimen samples would be sterile if there were no infection?: a. feces b. cerebrospinal fluid c. vaginal fluid d. sputum e. nasal mucus

b. cerebrospinal fluid

All of the following are physical defenses used by the cardiovascular and lymphatic systems from infection EXCEPT: a. shedding of the outer layer of epidermis. b. circulation of the fluids throughout the body. c. mucous membranes in digestive, respiratory and urinary systems. d. production of sebum.

b. circulation of the fluids throughout the body.

Leprosy is caused by __________.: a. neurotoxin production b. demyelination of neurons c. inflammation of the meninges d. damage to the brain and spinal cord producing spongiform lesions e. blocking signals of inhibitory motor neurons

b. demyelination of neurons

Ebola hemorrhage fever is transmitted by (Select all that apply): a. contact with Aedes mosquitoes. b. direct contact (person-to-person). c. contact with contaminated body fluids. d. contact with fruit bats.

b. direct contact (person-to-person). c. contact with contaminated body fluids. d. contact with fruit bats.

Identify the pathogen: The organism in the diagram is a _________ that causes _________.: a. helminth; babesiosis b. helminth; filariasis c. protozoan; schistosomiasis d. protozoan; Chagas disease e. helminth; cercarial dermatitis

b. helminth; filariasis

What is the best way to prevent most viral pediatric skin infections?: a. treat with antibiotics if exposed to the pathogen b. immunization c. hyperbaric therapy d. daily cleansing of the skin with an antibacterial soap e. administration of antitoxin vaccine

b. immunization

Cutaneous candidiasis can be treated with __________.: a. penicillin b. miconazole c. acyclovir d. malathion e. All of these are effective for treatment.

b. miconazole

Which defense of the digestive tract is illustrated in this photo?: a. mucus coating b. normal microbiota c. lysozyme d. digestive enzymes e. All of these are correct.

b. normal microbiota

Which of the following is a urogenital defense against infection in females, but not in males?: a. the flushing action of urination b. normal microbiota that control pathogen reproduction c. the mucous layer that lines the urogenital system d. the acidic pH of urine e. the presence of fimbriae

b. normal microbiota that control pathogen reproduction

Laryngitis is commonly caused by __________.: a. Staphylococcus aureus b. parainfluenza virus c. Corynebacterium diphtheriae d. rhinovirus e. influenza B virus

b. parainfluenza virus

If an individual is bitten by an animal of unknown rabies status, treatment for rabies includes: a. washing of the wound with soap and water. b. post-exposure vaccination. c. injections of rabies immunoglobulin into the wound. d. irrigation of the would with povidone-iodine.

b. post-exposure vaccination.

The reservoir for Salmonella is primarily found in _____.: a. humans only b. poultry and dairy products c. beef d. birds e. soil

b. poultry and dairy products

Which of the following is a common cause of sinusitis?: a. Klebsiella pneumoniae b. rhinovirus c. Corynebacterium diphtheriae d. methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus e. Streptococcus pyogenes

b. rhinovirus

Identify the pathogen: An 18-month-old child has acute onset of watery diarrhea with projectile vomiting. A pathogen that commonly causes this disease but can now be prevented by vaccination is _____.: a. Salmonella b. rotavirus c. Giardia d. Cryptosporidium e. norovirus

b. rotavirus

Which of the following is NOT a defining characteristic of the cytopathic effects of an EBV infection on a lymphocyte? a. increased size b. swelling of the plasma membrane c. lobing of the nucleus d. cytoplasmic vacuolation e. indentations of the plasma membrane

b. swelling of the plasma membrane

When an ELISA is used to analyze a throat culture, it specifically reacts with __________, a component of the cell wall in Streptococcus pyogenes.: a. teichoic acid b. the Lancefield group A carbohydrate c. mycolic acid d. N-acetylglucosamine e. ELISA tests react with all of these cell wall components

b. the Lancefield group A carbohydrate

Identify the pathogen: The organism in this drawing causes ____.: a. syphilis b. trichomoniasis c. gonorrhea d. chlamydia

b. trichomoniasis

Evaluate the following information and determine the most likely causative agent. 1. Microbe didn't grow on lab media 2. Gram stain : Red 3. Microscopic examination : Rods 4. Patient exposed to contaminated water droplets a. Pneumocystis jirovecii b. Streptococcus pneumoniae c. Legionella pneumophila d. Staphylococcus aureus

c. Legionella pneumophila

Opportunistic skin infections caused by __________ are most common in people who spend a lot of time in contact with water, such as dishwashers and swimmers.: a. Staphylococcus aureus b. Streptococcus pyogenes c. Pseudomonas aeruginosa d. Clostridium perfringens e. Staphylococcus epidermidis

c. Pseudomonas aeruginosa

The eye infection shown in the photo is often caused by __________.: (Ch. 17 #18) a. adenovirus b. Streptococcus pneumoniae c. Staphylococcus aureus d. Propionibacterium acnes e. parvovirus B19

c. Staphylococcus aureus

Identify the pathogen: What pathogen is the most common cause of necrotizing fasciitis?: a. Pseudomonas aeruginosa b. Staphylococcus epidermidis c. Streptococcus pyogenes d. Propionibacterium acnes e. Clostridium perfringens

c. Streptococcus pyogenes

Identify the pathogen: The type of bacteria shown in the diagram is consistent with __________, which can cause __________.: a. Staphylococcus aureus; boils b. Escherichia coli; warts c. Streptococcus pyogenes; impetigo d. Clostridium perfringens; scarlet fever e. Streptococcus pyogenes; furuncles

c. Streptococcus pyogenes; impetigo

What role do antibiotics play in culturing Neisseria meningitidis?: a. The antibiotics kill all the microorganisms in the culture. b. The antibiotics keep the culture pure. c. The antibiotics suppress the growth of other microbes, but don't affect Neisseria. d. Their effect is marginal. e. The antibiotics allow the growth of Neisseria and two other species.

c. The antibiotics suppress the growth of other microbes, but don't affect Neisseria.

Why is co-infection of HIV patients with hepatitis common?: a. They are both caused by viruses. b. AIDS vaccines don't work on hepatitis patients. c. The diseases are spread by similar behaviors. d. Only HIV-positive patients contract hepatitis. e. They are caused by the same virus.

c. The diseases are spread by similar behaviors.

During the pathogenesis of Mycobacterium tuberculosis, the bacteria are engulfed by macrophages. The infected macrophages are then isolated in __________.: a. lymph nodes b. the spleen c. a granuloma d. a lymph duct e. arterioles

c. a granuloma

Appropriate treatment for the pathogen that causes the disease shown in the photo is __________.: a. antitoxin b. vancomycin c. amoxicillin d. rifampicin e. clindamycin

c. amoxicillin

Listeria monocytogenes is a __________ pathogen.: a. viral b. fungal c. bacterial d. prion e. protozoan

c. bacterial

Identify the disease: This disease can be caused by several different bacteria and viruses. It is characterized by a purulent cough that persists for about 10 days, a fever, sore throat, body aches, wheezing, headache, and fatigue. Treatment is symptomatic for otherwise healthy individuals.: a. pertussis b. tuberculosis c. bronchitis d. pharyngitis e. pneumonia

c. bronchitis

The rhinovirus damages cells of the nasal epithelium by __________.: a. producing tissue-damaging enzymes b. producing hemolysin, which destroys red blood cells c. causing cell lysis, leading to an inflammatory response d. producing a cytotoxin that inhibits cellular protein synthesis e. stopping mucus production

c. causing cell lysis, leading to an inflammatory response

Periodontal disease can increase a person's risk for _____.: a. kidney failure b. peptic ulcers c. heart disease d. lung cancer e. diarrhea

c. heart disease

In the diagram of part of the lifecycle of Chlamydia trachomatis, the small particles entering the cell at the top are ____, the larger oval structures that form in a phagosome are ____, and the small particles that form from them and pass out of the cell ____.: a. spores; endospores; vacuole b. reticulate bodies; elementary bodies; vacuoles c. inactive elementary bodies; reticulate bodies; infectious elementary bodies d. endospores; spores; phagosome e. spores; reticular bodies; vacuoles

c. inactive elementary bodies; reticulate bodies; infectious elementary bodies

Identify the disease: The rash shown in the photo is characteristic of __________.: a. shingles b. chickenpox c. measles d. rubella e. impetigo

c. measles

Meningitis caused by enterovirus __________.: a. is often fatal b. is treated with penicillin c. normally resolves in several weeks without lasting complications d. is transmitted by mosquitoes e. Both a and d are correct.

c. normally resolves in several weeks without lasting complications

Influenza A virus infections can be treated with the antiviral agent __________. a. isoniazid b. acyclovir c. oseltamivir d. amoxicillin e. erythromycin8

c. oseltamivir

An intense respiratory disease that is characterized by a whooping sound that is made as a person rapidly tries to inhale after a sudden attack of coughing is called __________.: a. influenza b. diphtheria c. pertussis d. the common cold e. tuberculosis

c. pertussis

A daily glass of cranberry juice has been found to ____.: a. increase the risk of UTI b. have no effect on the incidence of UTI c. reduce the the incidence of UTI d. cause UTIs e. upset the balance of microorganisms in the urinary system

c. reduce the the incidence of UTI

Identify the disease: A patient presents with the following symptoms: temperature of 38.6°C, tachycardia of 94 beats per minute, and tachypnea of 21 breaths per minute. Blood culture results confirm Streptococcus pneumoniae infection and she appears disoriented. Which medical condition accurately describes her symptoms?: a. SIRS b. sepsis c. severe sepsis d. septic shock e. asepsis

c. severe sepsis

The tumors shown in the photo are symptoms of ____.: a. primary syphilis b. secondary syphilis c. tertiary syphilis d. congenital syphilis e. inactive syphilis

c. tertiary syphilis

All of the following events occur in the pathogenesis of Giardia lamblia EXCEPT: a. cysts differentiate into trophozoites due to changes in the pH of the large intestine. b. stomach acid aids in the degradation of cyst walls of G. lamblia. c. trophozoites differentiate into cysts due to changes in the pH of the stomach. d. pancreatic enzymes aid in the degradation of cyst walls of G. lamblia.

c. trophozoites differentiate into cysts due to changes in the pH of the stomach.

Poliovirus is primarily transmitted __________.: a. by mosquitoes b. by direct contact during sex c. via fecally contaminated food, water, or fomites d. by mucus droplets when someone coughs or sneezes e. by eating undercooked meat

c. via fecally contaminated food, water, or fomites

Review the Clinical Application, and answer this question. Prior to implementation of the iScrub app at the University of Iowa Children's Hospital, what was the hand hygiene compliance rate of caregivers?: a. 20% b. 34% c. 50% d. 83% e. 95%

d. 83%

Encephalitis presents clinically with: a. altered mental status. b. fever. c. headache. d. All of these choices are correct.

d. All of these choices are correct.

How are prions different from viruses?: a. They only contain protein. b. They lack DNA or RNA. c. They cause neurodegenerative diseases only. d. All of these choices are correct.

d. All of these choices are correct.

If an individual is bitten by a rabid animal, treatment for rabies includes: a. washing of the wound with soap and water. b. irrigation of the wound with povidone-iodine. c. injection of rabies immunoglobulin into the wound. d. All of these choices are correct.

d. All of these choices are correct.

PNS damage associated with Mycobacterium leprae is responsible for: a. muscle weakness. b. permanent nerve damage in the arms and legs. c. sensory loss. d. All of these choices are correct.

d. All of these choices are correct.

How can we lessen the risk of acquiring a cold-causing virus?: a. stay indoors during the winter season c. avoid touching your face c. washing your hands frequently d. B and C are correct.

d. B and C are correct.

Endocarditis is characterized by _________.: a. severe headache b. cardiac arrhythmia c. petechial rash on the nailbeds d. Both b and c are correct. e. Answers a, b, and c characterize endocarditis.

d. Both b and c are correct.

Identify the pathogen: Which of the following diarrhea-causing microbes is resistant to chlorination, acid fast, and not removed by filtration from the public water supply?: a. rotavirus b. Entamoeba histolytica c. Staphylococcus aureus d. Cryptosporidium parvum e. Salmonella enteritis

d. Cryptosporidium parvum

Identify the pathogen: Which pathogen caused the lymphatic infection shown in the photo?: a. CMV b. HTLV-1 c. HCV d. MRSA e. Streptococcus pneumoniae

d. MRSA

Which of the following are defenses normally present in the CNS to protect it from infection?: a. antibodies b. B lymphocytes c. T lymphocytes d. None of these choices is correct.

d. None of these choices is correct.

Evaluate the following information and determine the most likely causative agent. 1. Giemsa stain : Positive result 2. PCR : Microbes present 3. Gomori-Grocott stain : Positive result 4. Patient with AIDS a. Histoplasma capsulatum b. Pseudomonas aeruginosa c. Streptococcus pneumoniae d. Pneumocystis jirovecii

d. Pneumocystis jirovecii

Identify the pathogen: The pathogen in this diagram causes acne vulgaris.: a. Staphylococcus aureus b. Streptococcus pyogenes c. Pseudomonas aeruginosa d. Propionibacterium acnes e. Clostridium perfringens

d. Propionibacterium acnes

Dental caries are initiated by _____.: a. Bacteroides b. Salmonella enteritis c. Staphylococcus aureus d. Streptococcus mutans e. Clostridium difficile

d. Streptococcus mutans

A protozoan parasite that causes __________ can be treated with __________.: a. meningoencephalitis; penicillin b. meningococcal meningitis; penicillin c. cryptococcal meningitis; amphotericin B d. Toxoplasma encephalitis; pyrimethamine and sulfadoxine e. rabies; postexposure vaccination

d. Toxoplasma encephalitis; pyrimethamine and sulfadoxine

Identify the pathogen: The pathogen shown in the diagram produces a toxin that causes profuse diarrhea.: a. Salmonella b. rotavirus c. Escherichia coli O157:H7 d. Vibrio cholerae e. Entamoeba histolytica

d. Vibrio cholerae

After eating home-canned peaches, a young man experienced nausea, vomiting, abdominal cramps, and diarrhea. In addition, his vision was blurred and he had muscle weakness. He is probably suffering from __________.: a. meningitis b. tetanus c. rabies d. botulism e. polio

d. botulism

Which of the following are forms of anthrax? a. gastrointestinal and neuroanthrax b. pulmonary and neuroanthrax c. cutaneous and cardiovascular d. cutaneous and gastrointestinal e. cardiovascular and neuroanthrax

d. cutaneous and gastrointestinal

Campylobacteriosis is caused by a _____.: a. gram-negative bacillus b. gram-positive staphylococcus c. gram-positive bacillus d. gram-negative spirillum e. gram-positive streptococcus

d. gram-negative spirillum

Identify the pathogen: This pathogen causes a foodborne illness that may lead to jaundice and an enlarged liver and spleen.: a. herpes simplex virus b. mumps virus c. Salmonella typhi d. hepatitis A virus e. Clostridium difficile

d. hepatitis A virus

The process of polio eradication is being accomplished by __________.: a. an internationally coordinated vaccination program b. use of an oral vaccine c. a long-term public health initiative d. identifying countries with endemic polio e. All of these are correct.

d. identifying countries with endemic polio

What feature gives this arthropod its common name?: a. its swollen abdomen b. its extra pair of walking legs c. its short pair of antennae d. its crablike pincer legs e. its stinger

d. its crablike pincer legs

Which of the following dietary restrictions could prevent recurrence of a vaginal yeast infection?: a. low fat diet b. high fiber diet c. high protein diet d. low sugar diet that includes yogurt with Lactobacillus

d. low sugar diet that includes yogurt with Lactobacillus

A sputum specimen would not be used for analysis if it contained __________.: a. bacteria b. black spots c. pus d. mostly epithelial cells e. viruses

d. mostly epithelial cells

A common cause of bronchiolitis in children younger than 2 years old is __________.: a. Streptococcus pyogenes b. Haemophilus influenzae c. parainfluenza virus d. respiratory syncytial virus e. Bordetella pertussis

d. respiratory syncytial virus

Blood cultures are most often done on patients suspected of having __________.: a. tuberculosis or myocarditis b. pericarditis or brucellosis c. tularemia or pericarditis d. sepsis or endocarditis e. arthritis or lymphangitis

d. sepsis or endocarditis

Treponema pallidum is a ____ that causes ____.: a. bacterium; pyelonephritis b. diplococcus; gonorrhea c. protozoan; trichomoniasis d. spirochete; syphilis e. fungus; cystitis

d. spirochete; syphilis

Botulism toxin can be used clinically to __________.: a. reduce the appearance of some wrinkles b. block excessive sweat production c. treat spasticity d. treat blepharospasm e. All of the above are correct.

e. All of the above are correct.

Mapping variations in the genetic sequence of the influenza virus in time and space allows scientists to __________.: a. get early warnings on how the virus is evolving b. monitor for the development of drug resistance in different parts of the world c. develop alternate preventive strategies if necessary as the virus evolves d. detect geographic movement of the virus e. All of these answers are correct.

e. All of these answers are correct.

For cases of sepsis, monitoring PCT levels _________.: a. shows whether initial antibiotic therapy is working b. allows for early diagnosis c, is more effective than IL-6 levels d. shows whether a second antibiotic is needed e. All of these are correct.

e. All of these are correct.

Respiratory tract defenses include __________.: a. a mucous coating on the epithelial layer b. the cilia that line the respiratory tract c. alveolar macrophages d. competition with normal microbiota e. All of these are correct.

e. All of these are correct.

Review What a Microbiologist Sees, and answer this question.: a. Oral thrush is common in infants due to their underdeveloped immune systems. b. Oral thrush is an opportunistic infection. c. Immune-compromised adults, such as HIV patients, are routinely infected with oral thrush. d. HIV-positive patients can minimize their risk of acquiring oral thrush by receiving therapy to reduce the damage to their immune system. e. All of these statements are accurate.

e. All of these statements are accurate.

Pericarditis is most often caused by __________.: a. a virus b. Streptococcus pneumoniae c. Mycobacterium tuberculosis d. Both b and c are correct. e. Answers a, b, and c are correct.

e. Answers a, b, and c are correct.

Which of the following is a pathogen strategy to avoid immune attack by the host?: a. killing of host immune cells with toxins b. destruction of host antibodies c. immune cell phagocytosis d. reproduction of host immune cells e. Both a and b are correct.

e. Both a and b are correct.

Explain how PID causes infertility.: a. Scarring of the fallopian tube blocks sperm, preventing fertilization. b. Scarring of the fallopian tube blocks the fertilized egg from reaching the uterus. c. Scarring of the cervix prevents sperm entry, causing infertility. d. Both b and c are true. e. Both a and b are true.

e. Both a and b are true.

How is ThinPrep an improvement over the previously used Pap smear?: a. Extraneous material such as mucus is removed. b. The abnormal cells appear very different from healthy cells. c. Only abnormal cells are shown. d. The normal and abnormal cells are separated. e. Both a and b are true.

e. Both a and b are true.

Microbes are prevented from directly invading the CNS by the __________.: a. basement membrane b. blood-CSF barrier c. mucous membrane d. blood-brain barrier e. Both a and d are correct.

e. Both a and d are correct.

Identify the pathogen: Which of the following pathogens is a single-celled eukaryotic protozoan that is found in both trophozoite and cyst forms and moves using pseudopodia?: a. Listeria monocytogenes b. Shigella dysenteriae c. Giardia lamblia d. Campylobacter jejuni e. Entamoeba histolytica

e. Entamoeba histolytica

River blindness, a major public health problem in Africa, Latin America, and Yemen, is caused by __________.: a. Sarcoptes scabiei b. Leishmania spp. c. Pthirus pubis d. Pseudomonas aeruginosa e. Onchocerca volvulus

e. Onchocerca volvulus

The frequency of ventilator-associated pneumonia can be reduced by _____.: a. brushing a patient's teeth every 12 hours b. cleaning and suctioning the oral cavity every 4 hours between brushing c. replacing the intubation tube every 12 hours d. cleaning all the tubing with antiseptics daily e. Only a and b are correct.

e. Only a and b are correct.

A neonate suffering from congenital rubella syndrome may have __________.: a. cataracts b. mental retardation c. heart defects d. deafness e. The infant may experience all of these symptoms.

e. The infant may experience all of these symptoms.

What do the viral STIs have in common?: a. They should be treated with antibiotics. b. They are caused by HPV. c. They cannot be passed from mother to neonate. d. They cause rashes. e. They cannot be cured.

e. They cannot be cured.

An AIDS patient was diagnosed with meningitis. A stain of his CSF is shown in the photo. He should be treated with __________.: a. metronidazole b. penicillin c. ampicillin d. rifampicin e. amphotericin B

e. amphotericin B

Leishmaniasis is routinely transmitted __________.: a. by direct contact b. via fomites c. vertically by contaminated water d. through respiratory droplets e. by fly bites

e. by fly bites

Which of the following is NOT an AIDS‐defining illness?: a. Pneumocystis pneumonia b. cryptococcosis c. histoplasmosis d. thrush e. chlamydia

e. chlamydia

Two diseases that are commonly found as coinfections are ____.: a. trichomoniasis and syphilis b. GBS colonization and genital warts c. leptospirosis and genital herpes d. syphilis and gonorrhea e. chlamydia and gonorrhea

e. chlamydia and gonorrhea

Identify the disease: The cause of the disease shown in the photo is a toxin produced by Streptococcus pyogenes. The toxin causes significant edema of the affected area plus acute tenderness and formation of shiny, fiery red, itchy lesions with clearly demarcated borders.: a. scarlet fever b. impetigo c. necrotizing fasciitis d. cellulitis e. erysipelas

e. erysipelas

Meningococcal meningitis is caused by a __________, and nonresistant strains are treated with __________.: a. gram-negative diplococcus; erythromycin b. gram-positive diplococcus; penicillin c. gram-negative wall-less bacteria; tetracycline d. gram-positive staphylococcus; tetracycline e. gram-negative diplococcus; penicillin

e. gram-negative diplococcus; penicillin

Leptospirosis is different from other UTIs because it ____.: a. is a foodborne infection b. is caused by a bacterium c. can be transmitted by contaminated water d. has no symptoms e. is a zoonosis

e. is a zoonosis

What is the prominent leukocyte type seen in this blood smear?: a. lymphocytes b. monocytes c. basophils d. eosinophils e. neutrophils

e. neutrophils

Identify the disease and pathogen: A patient complains of fatigue, chest pain, and shortness of breath and has a consistent cough. Upon examination, he has a temperature of 39°C (102°F) and abnormal crackling sounds in the lungs; an X-ray reveals shadows in multiple areas of the lungs. The patient has __________. A drawing of the pathogen is depicted here.: (Ch. 16 # 19) a. the flu; influenza A virus b. pharyngitis; Streptococcus pyogenes c. a cold; rhinovirus d. diphtheria; Corynebacterium diphtheriae e. pneumonia; Streptococcus pneumoniae

e. pneumonia; Streptococcus pneumoniae

Which type of enzyme could cleave an IgG molecule?: a. carboxylase b. kinase c. coagulase d. phosphatase e. protease

e. protease

The pathogen in the diagram causes __________.: a. viral meningitis b. polio c. tetanus d. botulism e. rabies

e. rabies

Women are more likely to develop cystitis than men because _____.: a. urine in the male bladder is more acid b. the male urethra has a layer of mucus that the female urethra lacks c. the anus and the urethra opening are farther apart in the female d. the male urethra is shorter than the female urethra e. the female urethra is shorter than the male urethra

e. the female urethra is shorter than the male urethra

Identify the disease based on this X-ray of the patient's lungs.: (Ch. 16 #5) a. diphtheria b. pertussis c. bronchiolitis d. epiglottitis e. tuberculosis

e. tuberculosis

The role of lactoferrin in tears is to bind most of the free ______ thereby limiting a resource needed for growth of microbes.

iron