Microbiology Exam 4 (chapter 14, 15, and 16)

Hyaluronidase and collagenase both allow bacteria to

invade a host's tissues

what will happen if an animal raised in axenic environment is exposed to a pathogenic microbe late in life

the animal will exhibit a very poor immune response to the pathogens

If a person turns their ankle, how would one determine if damage to the tissue in the ankle has occurred

the ankle is red, swollen, and warm to the touch

which of the following most accurately describes how a pathogenic bacterium might be affected by antibodies

the antibodies may block proteins necessary for binding the pathogen to the host, may opsonize the bacterium, or may agglutinate bacteria

Where are the complement proteins found in the body

the blood serum

Antibodies from cellular immune responses are used in

the classical pathway

which of the complement pathways was discovered first

the classical pathway

What is hemolysis

the destruction of RBC

Expected prevalence of a disease is

the expected occurrence of a disease based on past observations

In the last segment of the animation, how many regions of the world experience the pandemic during April of year four

Five

which of the following statements is true regarding hand washing

Frequent and proper hand washing should be routinely done by patients and by healthcare workers, both prior to and after interaction

What does the plasma membrane of a phagocyte attach to on a microorganism

Glycoproteins

Which molecule triggers apoptosis

Granzyme

Attenuated virus vaccines can be produced by which of the following processes

Growth in tissue culture cells for many generations

Immune cells that secrete cytokines and activate other immune cells are

Helper T-cells

How do helper T-cells and Cytotoxic T-cells work together?

Helper T-cells produce cytokines to activate other cells of the immune system

What is urticaria

Hives

What is the reservoir for this disease organism, Salmonella enterica serotype Typhi?

Human

Humans have species of resistance to feline immunodeficiency virus for which of the following reasons

Human cells do not have the chemical receptors required for attachment by feline immunodeficiency virus

Antibodies are a part of which type of immunity

Humoral

Which part of the adaptive immune response involves B cells

Humoral

What combination of mother/child blood types might develop into hemolytic disease of the newborn

If the mother is Rh- and the fetus is Rh+, this may lead to hemolytic disease of the newborn

What is the fate of activated cytotoxic t cells

They proliferate into a clone of cells specific to the same antigen; some of these cells then differentiate into long-lived memory t cells, while others mature to attack infected cells

How can surgeons help to limit nosocomial infections

They should perform surgeries and invasive procedures only when necessary

Clonal deletion occurs in the

Thymus

What is the role of epidemiology

To learn how to treat and prevent various disease

Tom has a genetic disorder in which he does not synthesize class 1 MHC proteins or functional NK cells. Which of the following statements would be true for Tom

Tom would not be able to destroy virally-infected cells

How should you describe this skin reaction to the bee sting

Type 1 hypersensitivity

If a T cell recognizes MHC in conjunction with autoantigens, it will either _____ or differentiate to become a regulatory T cell

Undergo apoptosis

How was this carrier identified?

Urine culture

Which of the following best describes why West Nile Virus is considered to be an emerging infectious disease?

West Nile Virus outbreaks have increased in numbers and affected areas since 1937

What features of West Nile virus make it an emerging disease of special concern?

West Nile virus is an arthropod-bourn virus transmitted by mosquitoes West Nile virus has a high mortality rate in immunosuppressed humans and infects many species of birds in southern Europe, the Mediterranean basin, and North America West Nile virus is maintained in nature through biological transmission between susceptible hosts by blood-feeding arthropods

When would endotoxins be released from a bacterial cell

When the cell dies

If a new bacterial pathogen entered a human body through an accidental needle stick, the first cell that would try to kill the pathogen would likely be

a phagocyte

Which of the complement pathways employs properdin

alternative pathway

which of the following are phagocytic cells descended form monocytes

alveolar macrophages and microglial cells

The figure represents a petri dish with a fungus, shown in darker grey, growing in the midst of bacterial lawn, shown in light gray. The relationship between the fungus and the bacteria would best be described as

amensal

All of the following might lead to a disease caused by an opportunistic pathogen except

an encounter with an infected animal

Which of the following would be considered a fomite?

an infected toy

The release of lipid A may lead to

Fever, blooding clotting, inflammation, and shock

Which of the following would be the first sign of infection that resulted in the release of endotoxin

Fever

This nurse's condition worsened after medical treatment. Which specific medication immunosuppressive?

Aerosol corticosteroids

When do helper T-cells develop into Th 1 or Th 2 cells

After proliferation into a clonal population

Approximately how many days is IgG present in the serum

10 days

Based on the data supplied, what was the approximate mortality rate for this outbreak?

14%

What effect might a buildup of bilirubin have on a fetus

A build of bilirubin may lead to severe neurological damage or death

Which of the following would be considered a vector

A fly carrying disease from fecal matter to food

Some bacteria secrete chemicals that prevent the phagocytic digestion of a bacterium by interfering with the fusion of ________ to the phagosomes

A lysosome

The primary immune response involves

A slow rise in the concentration of antibodies, followed by a gradual decline

Most human pathogens are weak outside of the body and die in a hostile environment. They survive outside the body only in areas that accommodate their survival needs. Pneumonia is a disease of the lungs. What is the most likely mode of transmission for pneumonia pathogens?

Airborne

During his research of West Nile Virus, Bill learned that this Virus is placed within a functional grouping known as arboviruses. What is meant by the term arbovirus

An arbovirus is an arthropod-borne virus An arbovirus is maintained in nature through biological transmission

Why might a transfusion of Rh+ blood cells into an Rh- individual be dangerous

An individual with Rh- type blood will produce antibodies against the Rh+ blood cells

What type of epidemiological study is exemplified in this case

Analytical

This child has had a moderate reaction to his first bee sting. If he were to be stung again, the signs and symptoms could be sever and life-threatening due to constricting of airways. What is this systemic reaction called, and what would the treatment of choice be

Anaphylaxis and epinephrine

An anamnestic response is

Another name for secondary response

When are anti-Rh antibodies developed by the adaptive immune system

Anti- Rh antibodies are produced after exposure to the Rh antigen

A response that is uniquely directed against pathogenic Bordetella pertussis would involve what component?

Antibodies

Which cells possess MHC class 2 proteins

Antigen-presenting cells

Which of the following OTC medications would provide the best relief of symptoms

Antihistamines

Th 2 cells produce cytokines that activate

B cells

Which vaccination may cause a false positive skin test for TB

BCG vaccine

What is the function of the CD8 receptor

Bind to MHC molecules

The bacterium S. Aureus is commonly found in the nasal cavity of healthy people. If inhaled into the lungs, however, it may cause pneumonia. S. Aureus is best described as

Both resident microbiota and opportunistic pathogens

Based on the animation, which of the following is cleaved by C1

C2 and C4

Based on the animation, which of the following is responsible for cleaving C3

C2aC4b

Histamines are released when mast cells are exposed to ____ which are fragments of complement proteins

C3a and C5a

in the classical pathway, which of the following directly activates cellular responses

C3a, C5a, and C5bC6C7

Based on the animation, which of the complement proteins can directly bind to the surface of a bacterial cell

C3b

which complement protein is used as an opsonin

C3b

Which event happens first during cytotoxic T-cell activation

CD8 binds to MHC molecules of infected cells

Virulence factors allow microbes to be pathogens. This means that a bacterium with more virulence factors _____.

Can more easily infect hosts and cause disease

The process by which phagocyte moves toward a chemical signal at the site of an infection is called

Chemotaxis

what complement result involves the use of phagocytes

Chemotaxis and opsonization

Which of the following would you likely see on the surface of a human dendritic cell following phagocytosis of a bacterium

Class 1 MHC with dendritic cell antigens and Class 2 MHC with engulfed bacteria

What would a virally infected skin epithelial cell have on its cell surface

Class 1 MHC with liver cell antigens

What purpose does clonal deletion serve

Clonal deletion destroys T cells with receptors complementary to the body's normal autoantigens

When aerosols containing pathogens spread disease from a distance of less than one meter, it is considered

Contact transmission

Which of the following is considered a major category of transmission of disease

Contact, vehicle, and vector transmission

If a person could not form C2, which result of complement would be affected

Cytolysis, chemotaxis, inflammation, and opsonization

Which type of cell directly attacks infected cells

Cytotoxic T-cells

HIV directly infests T-cells. Why is this problematic for cell-mediated immunity

Cytotoxic T-cells begin to attack the virally infected T-cells, reducing the number of T-cells in the body

Which of the following are likely to be found on an MHC-1 protein

Damaged mitochondrial fragment

What day does IgM first appear

Day 5

Leukocytes have the ability to cross the vessel wall out of the blood stream and into the tissues. This process is known as _____

Diapedesis

When does MHC-2 loading occur?

During the fusion of vesicles containing MHC-2 proteins with vesicles containing digested pathogens

In which location within the cell are epitopes bound to MHC class 1 proteins

ER

What makes agglutination by antibodies possible

Each antibody has at least 2 antigen-binding sites

How could this epidemic be stopped without firing the worker?

Educate the worker about personal hygiene and use of an outhouse or designated bathroom. Instruct him to thoroughly wash his hands with clean soap and water after using the facilities.

The brain tissue in the birds indicated the possibility of encephalitis. What is encephalitis, and why should this type of infection cause concern among health care professionals?

Encephalitis is an inflammation of the brain tissue. It is a concern to health care professionals because an infection in the brain means the virus has breached protective measures.

If a disease occurs at a fairly stable rate, it is said to be

Endemic

Which type of toxin, when secreted, may lead to the disruption of the cells within the gastrointestinal tract?

Enterotoxin

How would you classify this abrupt jump in cases of legionellosis in Louisiana

Epidemic

Toxins and bacterial parts are considered ___ antigen because they are present outside of the body's cells

Exogenous

Thymus cells are specialized to participate in clonal deletion because they have the ability to

Express all of the body's autoantigens

Match the key terms with their descriptions

Includes cilia, mucous membranes, dendritic cells: Innate Immunity Immunological response brought about by antibody production: Humoral Immunity Immunological response that kills infected host cells: Cellular immunity Use BCRs to recognize epitope. First step in clonal selection: Immature B cells Phagocytes that engulf anything foreign. Eventually display epitope to helper T cells using MHC 1&2: Dendritic Cells Lymphocytes that activate B cells and CTL's: Th Cells Differentiated B cells that are stored in lymph nodes to provide protection against future infections by the same pathogens: Plasma Cells Kills infected host cells: Cytotoxic T cells

What do we call the person determined to be the first case of a disease in an outbreak

Index case

Why is vasodilation important to tissue repair

It allows for an increased delivery of oxygen, nutrients, and phagocytes to the site of damage

Why is a release of endotoxin into the bloodstream potentially deadly?

It can lower blood pressure and cause the patient to go into shock

In the last segment of the animation, when does the first epidemic occur?

January of year three

An inflammatory response would result from which of the following

Jellyfish sting

Which of the following is the best mode of controlling the spread of West Nile infections?

Limit exposure to mosquitoes to prevent the transmission of West Nile virus.

Endotoxins are also known as

Lipid A

While investigating a newly discovered G- bacterium, you find that when the bacteria die, the host experiences severe fever and inflammation. You suspect that the bacterium has _____ in its outer wall membrane

Lipid A

T cells recognize epitopes only when they are bound to

MHC

Which proteins on the antigen-presenting call are recognized by the helper T-cell

MHC proteins

Which of the following cells is included as an antigen-presenting cell

Macrophages

What is the standard for TB surveillance in a hospital

Mantoux skin test required annually

Which cells are involved in a secondary response

Memory B cells and plasma cells

E. Coli living in the colon of a human is an example of a ... relationship

Mutualism

Why must physicians wait three months to skin test the babies and their mothers?

Mycobacterium TB is a slow-growing organism, and it takes the body time to mount a cell-mediated defense that can be detected by the skin test

What are the clinical signs and symptoms of typhoid fever?

Nausea and headache?

Is legionellosis contagious?

No

If a person lacked the ability to form C5, what direct result of complement could still occur

Opsonization

Which organism is responsible for the degradation of exogenous antigen within an antigen-presenting cell

Phagolysosome

Which structure do antigen presenting cells utilize to directly help them present bacterial antigens

Phagolysosome

Why would bleeding time be increased in this patient?

Platelet count is decreased

Apoptosis is the process of

Programmed cell death

Why did the skin turn red and swell up

Redness and swelling are due to the release of histamines during degranulation of mast cells and basophils

How does RhoGAM prevent hemolytic disease of the newborn

RhoGAM attaches to Rh antigen, leading to its removal before the mother's immune system mounts an adaptive response

There are four categories typically used to describe the occurrence of a disease. According to the data, 33 people in this one community were infected within a single week. Which category describes the occurrence of this disease?

Sporadic

In the thymus, T cells randomly generate different _____ with a particular shape

T cell receptors

Which receptor on the helper t-cell recognizes the specific antigen from an antigen presenting cell

TCR

Natural killer cells are activated by

Th 1

In the sixth segment of the animation, why is the disease epidemic in North America

The disease occurs at a higher rate than what would normally be expected in this region

Which organelle assists directly with the presentation of MHC-1 antigens

The endoplasmic reticulum

When might Rh antigens form the fetus be introduced into the mother's blood stream

The mother may be exposed during labor or delivery

Which is an example of vehicle disease transmission

The presence of Listeria on undercooked chicken served for dinner

Which of the following was the defining test that determined that this nurse has an active case of TB

The presence of acid-fast bacilli in the sputum sample

What is apoptosis

The process of programmed cell death

How is the secondary response different from the primary response in terms of antibody concentration in the blood

The secondary response is faster and produces more antibodies than the primary response

Increased permeability of the vessels leads to _____ and pain

edema

If mosquitoes are the mode of transmission for West Nile Virus, why did the students in Bill's virology class focus on finding the virus in the dead birds rather than collecting mosquitoes to examine?

The students tried to isolate the West Nile Virus from birds because they are an amplifying host for the virus, making it more likely that the virus can be isolated from these animals.

There are five sequential stages of disease that are shared among most infectious diseases. Match the disease stage with its definition.

The time between infection and occurrence of the first symptoms is termed the incubation period. A time of mild generalized symptoms occurring before more serious symptoms is called the prodromal period. The most severe stage of disease with serious symptoms and/or signs occurs during the illness. The body gradually returns to normal as symptoms begin to subside during the decline. The body recovers from the disease and returns to normal during the convalescence.

Which of the following are functions of lectins

They act as opsonins for phagocytosis, they attach to carbs on some bacterial and viral surfaces, and they activate C2 and C4

What direct effect do histamines and leukotrienes have on capillaries

They allow capillary walls to open and become leaky

First line defenses have what aspect in common with each other

They are physical barriers against invading pathogens

In reference to clonal deletion, what the clones

They are the offspring or potential offspring of lymphocytes

Alpha and beta interferons

are produced by infected fibroblasts and macrophages

what type of infections or immune reactions will the patient need to worry about until his CBC return to normal

bacterial infections

Why may some bacteria use extracellular enzymes to form blood clots

blood clot can hide bacteria from the immune system

What is the most expedient way to increase the blood cell and platelet counts of this right now

blood transfusion

When mast cells degranulate and release histamine, which of the following events may occur

both bronchial spasms and increased mucus productions

The complement cascade and its by-products contribute to

both triggering inflammation and attracting phagocytes to sites of infection

the process of blood clotting leads to the formation of ____ a potent mediator of inflammation

bradykinin

All of the following are ways that neutrophils can directly or indirectly kill cells except

by forming MAC's

which of the following can release histamines

cells from damaged tissues and the complement pathway

Pus is comprised of

dead phagocytes

What does anemia mean

decreased red blood cell numbers

Acute and chronic inflammations differ in that acute inflammation

develops quickly, ends quickly, and is typically beneficial

Which of the following phagocytic processes occurs last in the sequence

exocytosis

How does cytolysis occur via the complement pathway

formation of the MAC in invading cells, killing them

Most often, antigens are composed of

glycoproteins

The destruction of blood cells leads to the release of large amounts of ______, which is then degraded into bilirubin

hemoglobin

Fever is beneficial during viral infection because the higher temperature

increases the effectiveness of interferons

The process of diapedesis is important because ____

it allows white blood cells to leave the vessel system and attack pathogens in the tissues

Why is the alternative pathway of complement useful in the early stages of an infection

it does not rely on activation by antibodies

Rabies is an example of zoonosis that is hard to control because ____

its reservoir contains both domestic and sylvatic animals

White blood cells known as _______ are the main cells involved in the third line of defense

lymphocytes

Which of the cells listed below can present antigens on class 2 MHC proteins

macrophages

Basophils, platelets, and _____ are all capable of secreting histamines

mast cells

Which of the following is not an example of symbiosis

microbes crossing the placenta to the fetus

Where are MHC molecules located on a cell

on the surface of the cell

What aspect of this patient's immune function would be most directly impacted by this condition

phagocytosis

A major difference between exotoxins and endotoxins is that endotoxins are

physically part of the bacterial structure

What is the role of plasma cells in humoral immunity

plasma cells produce antibodies

Bacterial capsules work by

protecting the bacterium form engulfment

What cellular macromolecules make up the complement pathway

proteins

Which of the following groupings contain things that are all true indicators of inflammation?

redness, heat, edema, pain

The health of the patient

should be the primary concern of the healthcare worker

Which of the following characteristics of a catheter should be considered, to help minimize the spread of nosocomial infections

single-use

If a microbe were capable of preventing a phagosome from fusing with a lysosome, which of the following would occur

the microbe would survive inside the phagocyte

Emigration is

the migration of phagocytes through blood vessels to the site of tissue damage

Both the innate and adaptive defenses of the immune system work to prevent

the penetration and colonization by pathogens, and the diseases they cause

What is a phagolysosome

the structure that results from the fusion of a phagosome and a lysosome

What additional information would you request from those who survived the disease

their height and whether or not the mister were on when they shopped the produce aisle

What is a feature of the small fragments presented by MHC-1 proteins

they are small peptides, roughly 8-10 amino acids long

Which of the following statements about eosinophil function is correct

they attach to the surface of parasitic helminths and produce toxins that kill the parasite

What is the role of opsonins

they create "handles" that make it easier for the pseudopods of phagocytes to attach to the microbe invader

If a patient notices a healthcare worker not following suggested precautions

they should immediately bring it to the attention of the healthcare worker

what is the function of inflammation in response to a burn from a hot iron

to repair the damage tissue

Which of the following situations might cause normal microbiota to became opportunistic pathogens

treatment of a cancer patient with radiation

Inflammatory mediators such as bradykinin and histamine cause blood vessels to

vasodilate

Epidemiology is defined as the study of

where and when a disease occurs, and how it is transmitted