Microbiology test 2
To make difference among staphylococci we can use enzymatic activity of 1) Coagulase 2) Catalase 3) Luciferin 4) Antibody 5) ASLO /ASO/
1
Transient vaginal carriage of S. agalactiae has been observed in _______ of pregnant women 1) 10%-30% 2) 1%-3% 3) 5%-8% 4) 50%
1
Treatment of mixed infections with Streptococcus pyogenes that involve Staphylococcus aureus should include 1) oxacillin or vancomycin 2) ampicillin 3) penicillin 4) colistin
1
Urea breath test is a diagnostic test used for diagnosis of infection caused by 1) Helicobacter pylori 2) Campylobacter jejuni 3) Haemophilus influenzae 4) Brucella
1
What is a mean incubation period of staphylococcus food poisoning? 1) 4 hours 2) 16 hours 3) 1 hour 4) 1 day
1
What virulence factor is produced by B.pertussis 1) Tracheal cytotoxin 2) Cord factor 3) X-factor 4) Phospholipase C 5) Catalase
1
Which is the most efficacious penicillin for the treatment of Haemophilus influenzae bronchitis? 1) Ampicillin 2) Amikacin 3) Penicillin G 4) Penicillin V
1
Which of the following causes of pneumonia results in bradycardia, vomiting, diarrhoea, and mental confusion? 1) Legionella pneumophila 2) Streptococcus pneumoniae 3) Chlamydia pneumoniae 4) Adenovirus
1
Which of the following diseases and bacteria are matched up incorrectly? 1) Enteritis - Corynebacterium diphtheriae 2) Enteric fever - Salmonella typhi 3) Pontiac fever - Legionella pneumophila 4) Otitis media - Streptococcus pneumoniae 5) Meningitis - Haemophilis influenzae
1
Which of the following diseases is (are) transmitted by ticks: 1) Ulceroglandular tularemia 2) Bubonic plague 3) Brucellosis 4) Legionellosis
1
Which of the following statements about Group B streptococci (Streptococcus agalactiae) is NOT correct 1) They are important causes of toxic strep syndrome. 2) They are frequent colonizers of the female genital tract. 3) Screening for this pathogen during pregnancy has reduced the incidence of neonatal sepsis. 4) These organisms are b-hemolytic. 5) They produce CAMP factor
1
Which of the following statements about Group B streptococci (Streptococcus agalactiae) is not correct? 1) They are important causes of toxic strep syndrome. 2) They are frequent colonizers of the female genital tract. 3) Screening for this pathogen during pregnancy has reduced the incidence of neonatal sepsis. 4) These organisms are b-hemolytic. 5) They are important causes of urinary tract infections and bacteremia in elderly and diabetic adults.
1
Which of the following statements about the 23-valent pneumococcal vaccine is not correct? 1) It is a protein-conjugated, polysaccharide vaccine. 2) It is poorly immunogenic in young children and immunocompromised hosts. 3) It is routinely recommended for immune competent adults and children >2 yrs. of age at risk for serious pneumococcal disease. 4) It protects against the major serotypes of pneumococci causing infection. 5) An adult with asplenia would be a candidate for this vaccine.
1
While you are on your obstetrics rotation you deliver a healthy appearing bouncing baby boy to a 19 year old mother. Three days later the baby becomes lethargic, has a high temperature and vomits. A lumbar puncture shows that the infant has bacterial meningitis. A gram stain of spinal fluid shows short gram positive rods. This organism is: 1) Listeria monocytogenes 2) Group B streptococcus 3) Most likely a contaminant 4) Escherichia coli 5) Corynebacterium diphtheriae
1
To superantigens belong(s): 1) Toxic shock syndrome toxin-1 (TSST-1) 2) staphylococcal enterotoxins 3) Shiga toxin 4) pertussis toxin
1,2
To virulence factors of Streptococcos pneumoniae belong(s): 1) secretory IgA protease 2) pneumolysin 3) Exotoxin A 4) polyribitol phosphate
1,2
Which of the following is controlled primarily through immunization? 1) whooping cough 2) diphtheria 3) streptococcal pharyngitis 4) gonorrhoea
1,2
Correct therapy of streptococcal tonsillitis is: 1) trimethoprim/sulfamethoxazol 2) penicillin G 3) cephalexin 4) penicillin V
2,4
In a pseudomonas infection you can prescribe: 1) an aminopenicillin with a beta-lactamase inhibitor 2) piperacillin 3) pseudazol 4) ceftazidime
2,4
In which situation is infection by Pseudomonas aeruginosa a common complication? 1) Lung tuberculosis 2) Animal bite 3) Neutropenia 4) Burns
3,4
Which of the following virulence factors of E.coli is important for attachment to host epithelial cells in the pathogenesis of urinary tract infections? 1) Aerobactin 2) Alpha hemolysin 3) Urease 4) K1 antigen 5) Pili
5
Diseases caused by Staphylococcus aureus are directly related to the producton of three different toxins. Which diseases? Which toxins? 1) Toxic shock syndrome caused by TSST-1 (superantigen) 2) Scalded skin syndrome caused by exfoliatin, epidermolytic toxin 3) Food poisoning caused by enterotoxins 4) Hemolytic uremic syndrome caused by Stx-1 toxin
1,2,3
What is (are) primary virulence factor(s) found in Bacillus anthracis? 1) protective antigen 2) edema factor 3) lethal factor 4) S-protein
1,2,3
Sepsis can be caused by: 1) Escherichia coli 2) Pseudomonasaeruginosa 3) Streptococcuspneumoniae 4) Salmonellaenteritidis
1,2,3,4
Which of the following statements about Group B streptococci (Streptococcus agalactiae) is correct? 1) They are frequent colonizers of the female genital tract 2) Screening for this pathogen during pregnancy has reduced the incidence of neonatal sepsis 3) These organisms are beta-hemolytic 4) They are important causes of postpartum endometritis
1,2,3,4
On the same day the clinical laboratory identifies two strains of the same bacterial species. One of these strains has pili on the surface; the other does not. In terms of the clinical status of the two patients it is likely that: 1) The patient with the piliated strain is ill, the other patient is not 2) The patient with the piliated strain is not ill, the other patient is 3) Both patients are ill since pili do not correlate with virulence 4) The patient with the piliated strain is a child, the other patient is an adult 5) The patient with piliated strain should receive broad-spectrum antibiotics as pili correlate with antibiotic resistance
1
According the Lancefield classification /serological classification of streptococcal bacteria/ Streptococcus pyogenes belongs to 1) A group 2) B group 3) C group 4) D group 5) No group
1
According their hemolytic pattern isolates of Streptococcus pneumoniae are classified as : 1) α(incomplete) 2) β(incomplete) 3) γ(no) 4) β(complete) 5) α(complete)
1
An outbreak of sepsis caused by Staphylococcus aureus has occurred in the newborn nursery. You are called upon to investigate. According to your knowledge of the normal flora, what is the most likely source of the organism? 1) nasopharynx 2) colon 3) vagina 4) oropharynx
1
At 4!C grow(s): 1) Listeria monocytogenes 2) Escherichia coli 3) Staphylococcus aureus 4) Bacillus cereus
1
Dental caries is associated with 1) Streptococcus mutans 2) Streptococcus pneumoniae 3) Neisseria sicca 4) Corynebacterium hoffmani
1
In bacterial endocarditis, the highest mortality rate is connected with 1) Enterococci 2) viridans streptococci 3) Erysipelothrix rhusiopathiae 4) Listeria monocytogenes
1
Jack comes to your office coughing up "currant jelly" sputum. A chest radiograph indicated Jack has a lobar pneumonia. Which of the following is the most likely cause of Jacks current condition? 1) Streptococcus pneumoniae 2) Pseudomonas aeruginosa 3) Legionella pneumophila 4) Mycoplasma pneumoniae
1
John T., a cystic fibrosis patient, comes to your office complaining of chest pain, cough, and fever. He mentions coughing up green stuff from his lungs. Chest radiographs reveal many small abscesses in both lungs. Which of the following is the most likely cause of Johns present condition? 1) Pseudomonas aeruginosa 2) Staphylococcus aureus 3) Streptococcus pneumoniae 4) Klebsiella pneumoniae
1
More than 50% of all infections of catheters and shunts are caused by 1) coagulase-negative staphylococci 2) Staphylococcus aureus 3) Pseudomonas aeruginosa 4) enterococci
1
Most humans become infected with Legionella by: 1) A water source 2) Tick exposure 3) Mosquito exposure 4) Direct contact with another person who is infected
1
The single most important characteristic of diarrhea caused by Vibrio cholerae is: 1) Profound watery diarrhea 2) Severe abdominal pain 3) Massive bloody diarrhea 4) Renal insufficiency
1
Evidence(s) of preceding Streptococcus pyogenes infection is (are) 1) increased antistreptolysin O (ASLO) 2) positive anti-Dnase B test 3) Ritters disease 4) recent scarlet fever
1,2,4
Which of the following statements regarding enterotoxigenic E.coli is NOT correct? 1) They are important causes of traveler's diarrhea. 2) Transmission occurs from ingestion of contaminated food and water. 3) Disease is caused by production of one or both of two types of enterotoxins. 4) Causes secretory diarrhea similar to the mild form of cholera. 5) Destroys the colonic epithelium.
5
The pneumococcal pneumonia is usually associated with 1) oropharyngeal and /or nasopharyngeal colonization with S.pneumoniae 2) antecedent viral respiratory disease 3) interhuman airborne spread 4) empyema
1,2
A pregnant woman is considered to be at high risk to give birth to an infant with group B streptococcus disease if 1) she has previously given birth to an infant with this disease 2) she has rectal positive culture for Streptococcus agalactiae at 35 to 37 weeks of gestation 3) her intrapartum temperature is of at least 37.2!C 4) she has elevated ASLO titer
1,2
Mark the correct statements about the M-protein of Group A Streptococci: 1) The amino terminal portion (distal portion) is variable, responsible for antigenic differencies among all group A streptococci 2) M proteins interfere with phagocytosis 3) rheumatogenic strains have class II M proteins 4) class I M protein is associated with rheumatic fever in cutaneous infections
1,2
Mark corect statement(s) of streptococci 1) Pneumococci (Streptococcus pneumoniae) are alpha-hemolytic and can be serotyped on the basis of their polysaccharide capsule 2) Enterococci are group D streptococci and can be classified by their ability to grow in presence of 6.5% sodium chloride 3) viridans streptococci are identified by Lancefield grouping, which is based on the C carbohydrate in the cell wall 4) although pneumococci and the viridans streptococci are alpha-hemolytic, they can be differentiated by the bile solubility test and their susceptibility to optochin
1,2,4
Which of the following are the two most common causes of cystitis in sexually active females? 1) Escherichia coli 2) Klebsiella pneumoniae 3) Staphylococcus saprophyticus 4) Staphylococcusepidermidis
1,3
Which of the following extracellular enzymes produced by Group A streptococci facilitate a rapid spread of bacteria in infected tissue? 1) streptokinase 2) streptolysin O 3) pyrogenic toxin 4) deoxyribonuclease
1,4
Which of the following diseases and bacteria are matched up correctly? 1) Cellulitis - Pasteurella multocida 2) Enteric fever - Salmonella typhi 3) Gastritis - Helicobacter pylori 4) Lyme disease - Yersinia pestis
2,3
What of the following is true of streptococcal pharyngitis? 1) it is the most common cause of sore throat 2) diagnostic procedures involve bacterial culture or rapid antigen detection tests 3) symptoms include local inflammation, swollen lymph nodes and fever 4) infection may spread to the ear and cause otitis media
2,3,4
A 42 year old woman who was complaining of shaking chills and fever went to the Salt Lake City Homeless clinic. She had enlarged lymph nodes in the right axilla. "Upstream" from the enlarged nodes was an ulcer on the top of the patient's right hand. When carefully questioned, the patient said she remembered being bitten there by an insect resembling a horsefly, but with yellow stripes on its abdomen; "Its what we used to call a deerfly," she added laconically. The patient denied any contact with rats or fleas. The patient's disease was most likely to be: 1) Brucellosis 2) Ulcero-glandular tularemia 3) Pneumonic plague 4) Relapsing fever 5) Impetigo
2
A 5 year old boy is seen in the paediatric respiratory clinic for regular review of his cystic fibrosis. He has a productive cough and a specimen is forwarded to the laboratory. Select the culture medium which would be most appropriate to isolate Haemophilus influenzae from this patient. 1) Mueller-Hinton agar 2) Chocolate agar 3) MacConkey agar 4) Sabouraud agar
2
A virulence factor that prevents phagocytosis of Streptococcus pneumoniae, protecting the bacterial cells from innate immune defense is: 1) streptokinase 2) polysaccharide capsule 3) coagulase 4) endotoxin
2
According the Lancefield classification /serological classification of streptococcal bacteria/ Streptococcus agalactiae belongs to 1) A group 2) B group 3) C group 4) D group 5) No group
2
Methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA) (mark INCORRECT answer) 1) is usually sensitive to vancomycin 2) exists almost exclusively in dermatology departments 3) is resistant to oxacillin 4) may cause asymptomatic colonisation 5) may be phage-typed for epidemiological purposes
2
The causative agent for melioidosis is: 1) Legionella pneumophila 2) Burkholderia pseudomallei 3) Pseudomonas aeruginosa 4) Haemophilus aegyptius
2
The cogulase test is used to differentiate 1) Staphylococcus epidermidis from Neisseria meningitidis 2) Staphylococcus aureus from Staphylococcus epidermidis 3) Streptococcus pyogens from Staphylococcus aureus 4) Streptococcus pyogens from Enterococcus faecalis
2
The major virulence factor of Haemophilus influenzae type b is: 1) Its surface pili 2) Its polysaccharide capsule 3) Its cell wall lipooligosaccharide 4) Its cell membrane 5) Its teichoic acids
2
To make difference between streptococci and staphylococci we can use enzymatic activity of 1) Coagulase 2) Catalase 3) Luciferin 4) Dnase 5) ASLO /ASO/
2
Which antibiotic is optimal for epirical therapy of anthrax? 1) penicillin 2) ciprofloxacin 3) tetracyclin 4) cephalosporins
2
Which of the following organisms is the most common cause of septicemia in patients with sickle cell disease? 1) Salmonella enteritidis 2) Streptococcus pneumoniae 3) Streptococcus agalactiae 4) Shigella sonnei 5) Yersinia enterocolitica
2
A 12 year old boy presents with acute onset of sore throat, fever to 38.9 C and painful anterior cervical lymphadenopathy. On exam the pharynx is red and swollen and the tonsils are covered with yellow-white exudate. The child also has halitosis. Which of the following non-suppurative complications are of concern? 1) sinusitis 2) acute rheumatic fever 3) acute glomerulonephritis 4) scarlet fever
2,3
A 20 year old patient comes to the homeless clinic with a skin abscess on the right arm. A swab from the intact skin overlying this abscess grows coagulase negative staphylococci. An aspirate obtained sterilely with a needle and syringe grows Staphylococcus aureus. About these 2 organisms in this patient you can say: 1) Both are normal flora and contaminated the specimens sent to the lab 2) The staph aureus is a pathogen and the coagulase negative staph is not 3) The coagulase negative staphylococcus is a pathogen 4) The coagulase negative staphylococcus is an opportunistic pathogen 5) Both are catalase positive
2,5
10. A common characteristic of Legionella species is that they: 1) Are gram positive rods 2) Are acid fast 3) Require supplemental ingredients to grow them in laboratory media 4) Are extracellular pathogens
3
5. A 22 year old female graduate student who works in a day-care center comes to the emergency room where you are on duty. The woman complains of a sore throat, which she has had for two days, and it is not getting any better; further, in the last ten hours, the sore throat has been accompanied by a headache as well as nausea, and vomiting. On physical examination you note a BP of 90/65 and a respiratory rate of 30/min; the temperature is 40!C. The neck is supple but there are tiny red spots distal to the BP cuff. Considering this patient's personal risk factors (her age) and her physical examination, it is clear that the most likely organism to be causing this patient's illness is: 1) Brucella abortus 2) Staphylococcus aureus 3) Neisseria meningitidis 4) Brucella suis
3
A 22 year old female graduate student who works in a day-care center comes to the emergency room where you are on duty. The woman complains of a sore throat, which she has had for two days, and it is not getting any better; further, in the last ten hours, the sore throat has been accompanied by a headache as well as nausea, and vomiting. On physical examination you note a BP of 90/65 and a respiratory rate of 30/min; the temperature is 39°C. The neck is supple but there are tiny red spots distal to the BP cuff. Considering this patient's personal risk factors (her age) and her physical examination, it is clear that the most likely organism to be causing this patient's illness is: 1) Brucella abortus 2) Staphylococcus aureus 3) Neisseria meningitidis 4) Brucella suis 5) Haemophilus influenzae
3
A 25 year old woman has a 4 year old son who is now recovering from Group A strep pharyngitis. Out of curiosity, the pediatrician does a throat culture on the mother which is positive for Group A strep even though she doesn't have a sore throat. The pediatrician also does an ASLO titer and anti DNAse B assay on her both of which are negative. At this point we would say that she: 1) Has asymptomatic infection 2) Has opportunistic infection 3) Is a carrier 4) Is immunosuppressed 5) Has specific unresponsiveness to streptolysin
3
A 30-year-old patient comes to clinic complaining of a three-week history of cough. He started with a runny nose, fever and sneezing for a few days followed by a dramatic cough that keeps him up at night. He complains of episodes of coughing where he will have "fits" of coughing with 10-15 coughs during one exhalation to the point that he is afraid that he will never be able to take in a breath. These coughing episodes are so severe that his ribs are extremely sore. An organism you should consider would be: 1) Staph. aureus 2) Streptococcus pyogenes 3) Bordetella pertussis 4) Haemophilus influenzae
3
A patient comes to the doctor after complaining of severe gastroenteritis and „ricewater like" stools following a trip outside of the Europe. Stool samples and blood work were collected. Colonies that grew on TCBS were oxidase positive. Growth in alkaline peptone broth was positive. What do you suspect? 1) Staphylococcus aureus 2) Shigella sonnei 3) Vibrio cholerae 4) Campylobacter jejuni
3
All Enterobacteriaceae share all of the following characteristics EXCEPT: 1) Ferment glucose 2) Reduce nitrates to nitrites 3) Oxidase positive 4) Gram negative 5) Rod-shaped (bacilli)
3
All of the following are true of diphtheria EXCEPT: 1) it is caused by a gram positive, non-endospore-forming rod 2) symptoms include the formation of a thick pseudomembrane in the throat 3) it is readily treated with antibiotics 4) it is prevented by immunization with diphtheria toxoid
3
Haemophilis influenzae can cause all of the following respiratory infections EXCEPT: 1) sinusitis 2) otitis media 3) influenza 4) epiglottis
3
Helicobacter pylori: 1) Is the presumed cause of colon cancer 2) Is the cause of most cases of acute food poisoning in the U.S. 3) Is the cause of most cases of peptic ulcers 4) Is urease negative 5) Is non-motile
3
Infection with which of the following results in a purulent urethral discharge containing intracellular (in polymorphonuclear neutrophils) gram-negative diplococci? 1) Haemophilus ducreyi 2) Streptococcus pneumoniae 3) Neisseria gonorrhoeae 4) Corynebacterium pseudodiphtheriticum
3
Protein A is an anti-phagocytic protein produced by 1) Arcanobacterium haemolyticum 2) Group A streptococcus ( S. pyogenes) 3) Staphylococcus aureus 4) Escherichia coli
3
The antibiotic drug of first choice in streptococcal infection is 1) Glycopeptide 2) Erythromycin 3) Penicillin 4) Tetracycline 5) Clindamycin
3
The antistreptolysin O titre is raised in infections caused by 1) Streptococcus sanguis 2) Streptococcus pneumoniae 3) Streptococcus pyogenes 4) Streptococcus bovis 5) Streptococcus mutans
3
Which of the following signs and symptoms is not linked to Haemophilus influenzae? 1) Otitis media 2) Pneumonia 3) Genital ulcers 4) Epiglottis 5) Arthritis
3
You are interested in the microbiology culture results on one of your patients and come to the microbiology laboratory to get an update. The microbiology lab supervisor tells you that your patient is growing gram positive bacilli from both blood cultures you drew and from a urine sample. He volunteers that he doesn't think you ought to worry since these results aren't likely to be important. His rationale is: 1) Gram positive bacilli are so rare that they aren't likely to cause disease 2) Gram positive bacilli do not cause urinary tract disease 3) Gram positive bacilli are common contaminants so cultures growing them are not of much value 4) Gram positive bacilli cause infections that patients usually resolve without antibiotic therapy, so there is no need to pursue this situation further
3
A 12 year old boy presents with acute onset of sore throat, fever to 38.9 degrees C and painful anterior cervical lymphadenopathy. On exam the pharynx is red and swollen and the tonsils are covered with yellow-white exudate. The child also has halitosis. Which of the following non-suppurative complications are of concern? 1) Sinusitis 2) Acute rheumatic fever alone 3) Acute glomerulonephritis alone 4) Acute rheumatic fever and acute glomerulonephritis 5) Scarlet fever alone
4
A 15 year old boy comes in to clinic with pain in his right ear. He is on his school swim team and spends about 2 hours per day in the pool. Along with the pain in his ear, he has watery drainage coming from the ear canal. On exam his vital signs are normal, and he appears healthy, but his left external ear looks quite red and there is copious watery, slightly green drainage coming from the ear. Thus, the causing organism produces water soluble pigment and mostly likely this is: 1) Staphylococcus aureus 2) Viridans group streptococci 3) Streptococcus pneumoniae 4) Pseudomonas aeruginosa 5) Serratia marcescens
4
A Tech reported a fruity odor and did an oxidase test which was positive. The Tech should suspect which organism? 1) Yersinia enterocolitica 2) Acinetobacter baumanni 3) Stenotrophomonas multophilia 4) Pseudomonas aeruginosa
4
A positive CAMP test by beta hemolytic colonies provides an excellent screening test for the identification of: 1) Streptococcus pyogenes 2) Neisseria meningitidis 3) Enterococcus faecalis 4) Streptococcus agalactiae
4
According the Lancefield classification /serological classification of streptococcal bacteria/ Enterococci and Streptococcus bovis belongs to 1) A group 2) B group 3) C group 4) D group 5) No group
4
According their hemolytic pattern isolates of GBS are classified as : 1) α(incomplete) 2) γ(incomplete) 3) γ(no) 4) β(complete) 5) α(complete)
4
According their hemolytic pattern isolates of Streptococcus pyogenes are classified as : 1) α(incomplete) 2) β(incomplete) 3) γ(no) 4) β(complete) 5) α(complete)
4
Rheumatic fever is a possible complication of respiratory tract infections by strains of: 1) Corynebacterium diphtheriae 2) Bordetella pertussis 3) Staphylococcus aureus 4) Streptococcus pyogenes
4
The DNA expressing for production of cholera toxin of Vibrio cholerae is located in 1) chromosome 2) plasmid 3) transposone 4) phage
4
This urinary pathogen "swarms" across agar surfaces and may cause bladder and renal calculi (stones). 1) Citrobacter freundii 2) Enterobacter aerogenes 3) Serratia marcescens 4) Proteus mirabilis
4
Which of the following bacteria has the infective dose 102 bacteria (i.e. 102 bacteria can establish disease)? 1) Campylobacter jejuni 2) Salmonella typhi 3) Vibrio cholerae 4) Shigella sonnei
4
Which of the following extracellular enzymes produced by Group A streptococci is called "spreading factor," an enzyme important in skin and soft tissue infection? 1) Streptokinase 2) Hyaluronidase 3) M Protein 4) Deoxyribonuclease C
4
Which of the following is NOT true concerning Staphylococcus aureus? 1) S.aureus is related to inflammation 2) S.aureus can cause pneumonia 3) S.aureus can lead to acute bacterial endocarditis 4) S.aureus does not make coagulase 5) S.aureus can cause vomiting and diarrhea
4
Which of the following microorganisms has NOT been linked to UTI's? 1) E.coli 2) Pseudomonas 3) Klebsiella 4) Haemophilus 5) Streptococcus agalactiae
4
Which of the following virulence factors of E. coli is important for attachment to host epithelial cells in the pathogenesis of urinary tract infections? 1) alpha hemolysin 2) urease 3) K1 antigen 4) pili
4
Which of the following virulence factors of E.coli is important for attachment to host epithelial cells in the pathogenesis of urinary tract infections? 1) Alpha hemolysin 2) Urease 3) K1 antigen 4) Pili 5) Flagella
4
Which two organisms are notorious for causing problems in cystic fibrosis patients? 1) Vibrio cholerae and Staphylococcus aureus 2) Pseudomas aeruginosa and Helicobacter pylori 3) Acinetobacter pyogenes and Pseudomonas stutzeri 4) Pseudomonas aeruginosa and Burkholderia cepacia
4
You receive a urine culture report from the laboratory on a 45 year old patient who is a quadriplegic with an indwelling urinary tract catheter. The urine culture is growing >100,000 oxidase positive gram negative bacilli. The most likely organism is: 1) E. coli 2) Enterococcus 3) Klebsiella 4) Pseudomonas aeruginosa
4
According the Lancefield classification /serological classification of streptococcal bacteria/ Streptococcus pneumoniae belongs to 1) A group 2) B group 3) C group 4) D group 5) No group
5
All of the following statements about the M-protein of Group A Streptococci are correct EXCEPT: 1) The amino terminal portion (distal portion) is variable, accounting for among 100 distinct serotypes. 2) M proteins allow streptococci to resist phagocytosis. 3) Antibodies to M protein confer type-specific immunity. 4) M protein is the virulence factor of Group A streptococci. 5) M protein is the major constituent of the capsule of Group A streptococci.
5
This urinary pathogen raises urine pH and facilitates the formation of renal calculi (stones). 1) Citrobacter freundii 2) Enterobacter aerogenes 3) Serratia marcescens 4) Klebsiella oxytoca 5) Proteus mirabilis
5
What is the O antigen of Enterobacteriaceae? 1) Capsule polysaccharide 2) A channel controlling substance taken into the organism. 3) A flagellar protein 4) A peptidoglycan matrix important for cellular rigidity 5) Part of cell wall lipopolysaccharide
5
Which of the following extracellular enzymes produced by Group A streptococci are responsible for the rash observed in patients with scarlet fever 1) Streptokinase 2) Hyaluronidase 3) M Protein 4) Deoxyribonuclease C 5) Pyrogenic exotoxins
5
Which of the following statements regarding enterotoxigenic E.coli are CORRECT? 1) They are important causes of traveler's diarrhea. 2) Transmission occurs from ingestion of contaminated food and water. 3) Disease is caused by production of one or both of two types of enterotoxins. 4) None of the above are correct. 5) All answers are correct.
5
