midterm questions
c. cranial nerves VII and XIII
The ____ can be found in the IAC? a. cranial nerves VI and VII b. maxillary sinus c. cranial nerves VII an VIII
b. all
The cables from RF could can potentially harm the patient when: a. the fire department must be reminded of special precautions due to the magnetic nature of the scan room b. all c. the cable insulation is broken d. the cables are looped, rather than directed in a straight line
a. prostate
The figure below is from a ___ study. a. prostate b. bladder c. sacrum
b. sagittal T spine with T2 weighted image
The image in the figure below is a ____? a. sagittal T spine with T1 weighted image b. sagittal T spine with T2 weighted image c. sagittal T spine with T1 fat saturation image
c. coronal
The image in the figure below was acquired in the ____ orientation. a. transverse b. sagittal c. coronal
c. 166 seconds
The inversion time that will best null the fat signal on a 0.2 T MRI system when running a spectrally selective fat suppressed inversion recovery sequence (the t1 relaxation time of the fat is appropriately 240 ms at .2 T) a. 1.56 min b. 15.6 sec c. 166 sec
c. condyle of mandible
The line is pointing at (view image below). a. temporal bone b. ear canal c. condyle of mandible
c. radiofrequency
The line running through this image represents ____ artifacts. a. flow direction b. phase encoding c. radiofrequency
b. horizontal
The readout direction in this figure is ______. a. longitudinal b. horizontal c. vertical
c. fat and silicone
The signal from ____ is suppressed when evaluating ruptures in silicone breast implants using a single pulse sequence a. CSF b. fat c. fat and silicone d. silicone
c. transverse
The vessels in this figure are projected in the ____ orientation. a. sagittal b. coronal c. transverse
b. coronal
This image is projected in the _____ orientation. a. axial b. coronal c. sagittal
c. head first and supine
To generate the image in the figure below, the patient was most likely positioned ____. a. head first and prone b. feet first and supine c. head first and supine
b. small parts RF coil and thin slices
To perform the exam that results in this image, _____ should be used. a. thin slices b. small parts RF coil and thin slices c. small parts RF coil d. a large FOV
c. halfway between the iliac crest and symphysis pubis
What external landmark should be centered in the magnet in order to obtain the image? a. bellybutton b. at the iliac crest c. halfway between the iliac crest and symphysis pubis
c. a few inches below the xiphoid
What external landmark should be centered to obtain this image? a. at the nipple b. bellybutton c. a few inches below the xiphoid
b. rectus muscle
What is the line pointing at? a. optic nerve b. rectus muscle c. retina
b. sagittal gradient echo images with a single dark region anterior to the spine, in the areas of the overlapping saturation pulses
What is the result of the following gradient echo sequence with two with perfectly overlapping saturation region places in a coronal orientation anterior to sagittal slices in the cervical spine: 90 spoiler 90 spoiler 45 echo? a. axial gradient echo images with a single dark region anterior to the spine, in the area of overlapping saturation pulses. b. sagittal gradient echo images with a single dark region anterior to the spine, in the areas of the overlapping saturation pulses c. coronal gradient echo images with a single dark region anterior to the spine, in the area of overlapping saturation pulses
c. D
What line is pointing at the ulna? a. A b. B c. D d. C
a. B
What line points at the caudate nucleus? a. B b. E c. A d. D
a. C
What line points at the kidneys? a. C b. A c. D d. B
c. glandular tissues
What region is pointed at in the figure below? a. fat tissues b. muscles tissues c. glandular tissues
c. the net magnetization would decrease in amplitude
When RF energy is repeatedly transmitted (with short TR) into the same tissues of the body, one would expect which of the following occurrences over time, regarding the amplitude of the net magnetization of protons contained within the disturbed tissues? a. the amplitude of the net magnetization would stay the same b. the net magnetization would increase in amplitude c. the net magnetization would decrease in amplitude
d. the entire 60 mm volume
When a 30 RF pulse is applied during 3D acquisition, with a 60 mm volume and 1mm slices, the magnetization of protons of _____ is deflected 30 towards the transverse plane. a. only the most positive 1mm of tissue b. only the most negative 1mm of tissue c. the entire 60 mm volume
b. ECG gating
When performing a cardiac study during a specific phase of the cardiac cycle, which of the following should be used? a. pulse triggering b. ECG gating c. pulse gating
c. faraday sheilding
Which of the following ensures that the RF energy used in MRI does NOT interfere with local radio stations? a. magnetic sheilding b. actively shielding gradients c. faraday sheilding
d. they are the same as truncation artifacts
Which of the following is FALSE regarding Gibb's artifact? a. they are rarely seen on clinical MR images b. on the mage of the phantom, they cause the pixels around the periphery to appear brighter than the rest of the phantom c. they originate from attempting to reconstruct image from discreet frequency and phase data d. they are the same as truncation artifacts
d. a metal artifact may be an indication of a contraindicated implant
Which of the following is FALSE regarding a metal artifact in an MR image? a. a metal artifact may appear as a scattering of RF energy, while all of the signal forms the anatomical structures remains intact b. a metal artifact may appear as a local distortion in the image c. metal artifact may appear as a severe distortion of the signal in the image d. a metal artifact may be an indication of a contraindicated implant
a. all
Which of the following is FALSE regarding an image acquired with a 3D pulse sequence? a. all b. the 3D image depicts anatomy depicts anatomy in a distorted way c. the 3D image can be seen around all sides d. one can tell an image is a 3D image just by looking at it
c. the patient should be positioned head first and prone, resting on the chin
Which of the following is FALSE regarding the positioning of a patient for a brain study? a. the glabella should be centered on the localizer right b. the interpupilary line should be strictly horizontal and perpendicular to the long axis of the body c. the patient should be positioned head first and prone, resting on the chin d. a mid-sagittal line through the patients head should be centered own the bore of the magnet
b. can acquire in the plane of the vessels
Which of the following is NOT a benefit of contrast enhanced MRA? a. completely non-invasive technique b. can acquire in the plane of the vessels c. exquisite contrast between the vessel and stationary background tissue d. true depiction of the vessel lumen in regions of turbulent flow
d. applying the no frequency wraps option
Which of the following is NOT a method that may reduce motion artifacts? a. increasing the number of signals averaged b. the use of positioning aids and motion restraints c. the application of physiological triggering or gating d. applying the no-frequency wraps option
c. negligence is a failure to fulfill the expected standard of care AND the MRI technologist is responsible for her own negligent act
Which of the following is TRUE about negligence on the part of a radiologic technologist? a. the tech's employer is not responsible for a tech's negligent act b. MRI tech is responsible for her won negligent act c. negligence is a failure to fulfill the expected standard of care AND the MRI technologist is responsible for her own negligent act d. negligence is a failure to fulfill the expected standard
a. SAR is the same on both sequences
Which of the following is TRUE about the SAR of a 3D spoiled gradient echo sequence is 16 slices versus a 2D spoiled gradient echo sequence with 16 slices, assuming all other parameters are the same? a. SAR is same on both sequences b. SAR of 3D sequence is 16x greater c. SAR of the 3D sequence is 4x greater d. SAR of the 2D is 16x greater
d. the sacrum is made up of 5 fused vertebrae AND a transverse slice through the sacrum results in an image that should show the SI joints
Which of the following is TRUE about the sacrum and coccyx? a. the sacrum is made up of 5 fused vertebrae b. the coccyx is made up of 5 small incomplete vertebrae c. a transverse slice through the sacrum results in an image that should show the SI joints d. the sacrum is made up of 5 fused vertebrae AND a transverse slice through the sacrum results in an image that should show the SI joints
b. an MRI technologist is considered a "level 2" personnel
Which of the following is TRUE of the ACR labels assigned to personnel work in or around the MRI suite? a. facility staff without any MRI training are considered level 1 personnel b. an MRI technologist is considered level l2 personnel c. a radiologist is considered level 3 personnel d. level 1 individuals may work in zone IV areas
b. all
Which of the following is TRUE regarding a 3D multi volume TOF MRA? a. requires several small volumes b. all c. the MIP process may be applied to a combines study of several adjacent volumes d. may be used for tortuous vascular anatomy
d. respiratory compensation reorders the filling of the raw data
Which of the following is TRUE regarding respiratory compensation? a. RC is never used for liver studies b. RC greatly increases the scan time c. RC uses extra RF pulses to eliminate signal from unwanted anatomy d. RC reorders the filling of raw data
c. all
Which of the following is TRUE regarding truncation artifacts? a. they are reduced by applying a raw dats filter b. they are reduced by using a high value for the image matrix c. all d. they are apparent when a high contrast border falls within a single pixel
c. the object may only be brought into a magnetic field under certain conditions
Which of the following is TRUE when the yellow symbol is shown? a. it is known as MR unsafe b. it means the same thing as the MR abbreviation inside the green square c. the object may only be brought into a magnetic field under certain conditions
a. use a wider receiver bandwidth
Which of the following is a method of reducing chemical shift artifact in MR images? a. use a wider receiver bandwidth b. apply a raw dats filter c. apply a saturation region d. use a wider transmitter bandwidth
a. increase the receiver bandwidth
Which of the following is a method of reducing the artifact seen in the figure? a. increase the receiver bandwidth b. apply gradient moment nulling c. use a spin echo pulse sequence d. use a lower matrix value
d. all
Which of the following is a result of reducing slice thickness to reduce partial volume effects? a. decrease SNR b. increase spatial resolution c. decreased anatomical coverage with the same number of slices d. all
a. only lesions will enhance, while the spinal cord will not
Which of the following is the expected result of administering a paramagnetic agent when looking for metastatic lesions in the cervical spinal cord on a T1 weighted image? a. only lesions will enhance, while the spinal cord will not b. neither the spinal cord nor the lesions in the spinal cord will enhance c. both the spinal cord and the lesions will enhance d. only the spinal cord will enhance
a. only scar tissue will enhance, while a recurrent disk will not
Which of the following is the expected result of administering a paramagnetic contrast agent to a post surgical spine within 15 minutes of the injection? a. only scar tissue will enhance, while a recurrent disk will not b. only a recurrent disk will enhance c. neither scar tissue nor recurrent disk will enhance d. both a recurrent disk and scar tissue will enhance
c. all of the above
Which of the following is true about MRI CSF flow exam for the brain? a. the main pulse in the CSF flow protocol uses a phase contrast technique b. on the image known as the phase image, forward flow is bright and reverse flow is dark c. all of the above d. the velocity of the CSF can be measured as it flows from the cerebral ventricles to the skull bone.
b. an increase in the SAR of the sequence and the homogeneity of the magnet affects the degree and uniformity of fat suppression
Which of the following is true regarding spectral fat saturation? a. an increase in the SAR of the sequence b. an increase in the SAR of the sequence and the homogeneity of the magnet affects the degree and uniformity of fat suppression c. the homogeneity of the magnet affects the degree and uniformity of fat suppression d. the mechanism by which it works relies upon the short T1 relaxation time of fat
a. phase gradient
Which of the following logical gradients is NOT balanced for phase prior to collecting the echo? a. phase gradient b. all three gradient must be balanced for phase c. readout gradient d. slice select gradient
c. 40
Which of the following numbers of slices would most closely approximate isotropic 3D anatomical data if the FOV 41x41cm, the matrix = 256x256, and the 3D volume is 64 thick? a. 20 b. 50 c. 40 d. 30
a. stationary tissue is darker than if a long TR was selected
Which of the following occurs to the appearance of stationary background tissue on the resulting 3D TOF projection imaged as the TR is shortened? a. stationary tissue is darker than if a long TR was selected b. stationary tissue has the same appearance regardless of the TR stationary tissue is brighter than if a longer TR was selected c. stationary tissue is brighter than if a longer TR was selected d. stationary tissue appears striated when a shorter TR is selected
d. y gradient
Which of the following physical gradients is used for phase encoding in the figure (assuming the coordination convention at the beginning of the post-test section)? a. z gradient b. both x and z gradients c. x gradient d. y gradient
c. all
Which of the following should be performed to reduce patient motion in the MR images? a. explain to patient the importance of remaining still throughout the entire procedure b. make the patient as comfortable as possible c. all d. use pads to immobilize the anatomy
a. a 5 ml injection of normal saline
Which of the following should typically occur following the injection of paramagnetic contract agent? a. a 5 ml injection of normal saline b. a 5ml injection of water c. a second injection of contrast
b. motion artifact control techniques are not generally used with MRA
Which of the following statements about motion artifacts control techniques is FALSE regarding their application to MRA? a. spectral fat saturation is useful in TOF angiography in order to reduce the signal of fatty structures and ensure that vascular structure maintain the brightest signal b. motion artifact control techniques are not generally used with MRA c. saturation pulses are often selected to eliminate the venous flow when studying arterial flow
b. MRI depicts micro calcifications better than mammography
Which of the following statements is FALSE regarding MRI of the breast? a. breast MRI is not a substitute for annual mammogram screening for the general population b. MRI depicts micro calcifications better than mammography c. breast MRI is useful for detecting very small lesions in patients with family history of breast cancer d. MRI is commonly used to evaluate silicone breast implants for rupture
b. a sequence with gradient moment nulling only rephrasing moving protons, not stationary protons
Which of the following statements is FALSE regarding a sequence with gradient moment nulling? a, when using a sequence with gradient moment nulling, vessels generally appear bright, provided that there is blood flow b. a sequence with gradient moment nulling only rephrasing moving protons, not stationary protons c. a sequence with gradient moment nulling utilizes extra gradient pulse to rephrase the signal from moving protons d. a sequence with gradient moment nulling generally tends to be effective in reducing CSF pulsation artifacts in the cervical spine
c. 3D PCA
Which of the following techniques provides the best stationary tissue suppression? a. 3D multi volume TOF b. 2D TOF c. 3D PCA d. 3D TOF
c. fat saturation
Which of the following techniques would be inefficient at reducing motion artifacts created by blood flowing through the sagittal sinus? a. flow compensation b. ECG triggering c. fat saturation d. saturation pulses
d. use a larger FOV localizer and count down the vertebral body of interest from C2
Which of the following us the best way to determine the level of a specific vertebral body or disk in the thoracic spine? a. count down the vertebral body of interest, starting from T1 b. mark the location externally with a metal pellet c. the level of any given vertebral body in the thoracic spine is evident just by looking at the anatomy d. use a larger FOV localizer and count down the vertebral body of interest from C2
b. one cannot tell form which direction the vessels are projected
Which of the statements is TRUE regarding the vessels in the figure below? a. the vessels are located on the left side of the body b. one cannot tell form which direction the vessels are projected c. the vessels are projected from the left to right side
a. saturation pulse was applied anterior to the spine to minimize motion artifacts
Why are there no structures apparent in the cervical spine in the picture? a. saturation pulse was applied anterior to the spine to minimize motion artifacts b. technique selection c. slice selection is very precise
d. techniques such as image subtraction require identical patient positioning during subsequent acquisitions and calibration scans for parallel imaging require identical patient positioning during subsequent acquisitions
Why should the patient remain still inside the MR magnet even when the gradients are not making noise? a. techniques such as image subtractions require identical patient positioning during subsequent acquisitions b. calibration scans for parallel imaging require identical patient positioning during subsequent acquisitions c. moving body throughout the magnetic field can cause burns d. techniques such as image subtraction require identical patient positioning during subsequent acquisitions and calibration scans for parallel imaging require identical patient positioning during subsequent acquisitions
b. metal
___ artifact is evident in the patients left knee in this figure. a. aliasing b. metal c. flow
c. respiratory compensation and ECG triggering
_____ should be used for this study (view image below). a. peripheral pulse triggering b. respiratory compensation c. respiratory compensation and ECG triggering d. ECG triggering
a. all
_____ should not be used for an ankle study like the one shown in the figure. a. all b. peripheral pulse triggering c. ECG triggering d. respiratory compensation
a. ECG triggering
_____ would be the most effective at reducing the artifact depicted in this figure? a. ECG triggering b. respiratory gating c. peripheral gating
unsure
A given 3D pulse sequence excites a 24 mm volume, has 16 slices and a 384x384mm FOV. Which of the following matrixes should be chosen to ensure isotropic voxels? a. 256x256 b. 512x512 c. 256x512 d. 128x256
a. renal artery
A maximum intensity project of (view image below)? a. renal artery b. hepatic artery c. mesenteric artery
a. B
Consider a hypothetical study in which a set of images is acquired perpendicular to a vessel with normal flow. Which is in the phase direction of the image is left to right? a. B b. C c. A d. D
c. paramagnetic contrast media
Contrast enhanced MRA depends upon _____ to generate the bright intensity in the flowing blood. a. oral contrast b. saline water c. paramagnetic contrast media
a. fat suppression reduces the signal from fatty tissues, and with a darker signal the tissues will generate less motion artifact.
How can fat suppression act as a motion reduction technique? a. fat suppression reduces the signal from fatty tissues, and with a darker signal the tissues will generate less motion artifact b. fat suppression doesn't influence the signal from fatty tissues, and with a signal, the tissues will generate less motion artifact c. fat suppression increase the signal from fatty tissues, and with a lighter signal, the tissues will generate less motion artifact
a. the resolution of the reconstructed images compared to the original depends on the orientation of the reconstruction
If MPR is performed on an anisotropic 3D anatomical data set, which of the following describes the resolution of the reconstructed images compared to the originally acquired images? a. the resolution of the reconstructed images compared to the original depends on the orientation of the reconstruction b. the reconstructed images will always have more resolution than the originals c. the reconstructed images will always have the same resolution as the originals d. the reconstructed images will always have less resolution than the originals
c. y-gradient
If a coronal saturation is places anterior to the cervical spine to eliminate motion artifacts from swallowing, which gradient must be turned on during the transmission of the initial saturation 90 degree RF pulse? a. z-gradient b. x-gradient c. y-gradient
b. be unaffected
If a thickness of a single saturation region is doubles, the SAR will. a. be unaffected b. increase by double c. increase by a factor of 4
b. an electrical fire
If four technologists forcibly remove a ferromagnetic gurney from the side of a high field magnet, which of the following would NOT occur? a. injury to one or more of the technologists b. an electrical fire c. quench
c. 30
In 3d TOF MRA, it is important to keep the voxel size small to minimize de-phasing. If a 3D volume is chosen to be 30 mm, the TR is 30 ms, the flip angle is 20*, the FOV is 256mm, and the matrix is 256x256, ___ slices should be selected to guarantee 1mm voxels. a. 35 b. 25 c. 30
d. 256
In a 3D volume pulse sequence with a 256x256 matrix, 16 transverse slices, and the Y-gradient responsible for in-plane phase encoding, ___ unique phases must be generated by the y-gradient a. 384 b. 512 c. 192 d. 256
b. spectral fat saturation
In a gadolinium brain study, which of the following is the most appropriate technique for reducing fat signal? a. gradient moment nulling b. spectral fat saturation c. fat suppressed inversion recovery d. respiratory triggering
b. all
In a set of volume images, a motion artifact may be seen along the _____. a. takes half the time to acquire b. all c. has fewer total phase steps d. in plane phase direction
b. mipping
In an MR spectroscopy, ___ is not required. a. 3 plane reformatting b. mipping c. cone reconstruction
c. the signal from the protons in the blood is mismapped along the phase encoding gradient
In an image which does NOT employ flow compensation, which of the following explains the reason for a dark signal in a vessel with normal flow? a. the signal from the protons in blood always appears dark on T1 and T2 weighted images b. there are no hydrogen protons in flowing blood. c. the signal from the protons in blood is mis-mapped along the phase encoding gradient
a. it gets darker on the T2 weighted image
In perfusion weighted imaging, what happens to the signal intensity as the bolus of paramagnetic contrast media passes? a. it gets darker on the T2 weighted image b. it is the same on the T2 weighted image c. it gets lighter on the T2 weighted image
b. remove their eye glasses and dentures
In preparation for an MRI exam, patients should: a. retain their hearing aids so they can hear the technologists b. remove their eye glasses and dentures c. wear a watch d. wear a lot of cosmetics in order to look their best
c. C4/5
In the figure below, what is B? a. C3/4 b. C5/6 c. C4/5
b. conus medullaris
In this figure, the line is pointing at _____. a. L2 vertebrae b. conus medullaris c. spinous process
b. transverse, inferior to the region of interest
In what orientation and position should a saturation region be located in order to eliminate carotid blood flow from the transverse images of the cervical spine? a. coronal, inferior to the region of interest b. transverse, inferior to the region of interest c. transverse, superior to the region of interest
b. all
In which of the directions may aliasing occur with 3D volume acquisition? a. slice selection direction b. all c. phase encoding direction
c. inferior vena cava
Line A is pointing to? a. descending aorta b. renal artery c. inferior vena cava
b. pituitary gland
Line B is pointing at ____? a. pons b. pituitary gland c. posterior ventricle
a. uterus
Line B is pointing to the _____. a. uterus b. bladder c. rectum
a. humeral head
Line C is pointing at the (view image below). a. humeral head b. humeral neck c. scapula
a. anterior cruciate ligament
Line E is pointing at (see figure below). a. anterior cruciate ligament b. posterior cruciate ligament c. medial meniscus
a. tibia
Line E points at (see figure below). a. tibia b. fibula c. calcaneus
c. white matter
Line E points to _____. a. blue matter b. gray matter c. white matter
c. the shortened T1 relaxation time
Paramagnetic contrast agents enhance the appearance of pathology on T1 weighted images because the agent penetrates the region of pathology, which then appears bright on the resulting images because: a. an increased absorption of RF energy b. the lengthened T2 relaxation time c. the shortened T1 relaxation time
d. all
Physiological responses generated by very high time varying magnetic fields may include: a. involuntary muscle contractions b. cardiac arrhythmia c. appearance of flashing lights due to excitation of neural tissue d. all
d. all
An NMR spectrum: a. is typically expressed in PPM b. is the Fourier transform of the FID c. is the graph of signal intensity verses frequency d. all
c. all
Assuming all other parameters remain constant, a 60 mm volume in which 30 slices are acquired ____ compared to a 60 mm volume in which 60 slices are acquired. a. has fever total phase steps b. takes half the time to acquire c. all d. will have a lower SNR
b. z-gradient
Assuming the coordinate system shown in the figure below, if gradient moment nulling is applied only along the slice direction of a transverse set of brain images, which physical gradient must use extra pulses?
b. gradient echo techniques do not produce T2 contrast
Gradient echo sequences are rarely used to delineating tumors because: a. partial volume artifacts are more common with gradient echo sequences b. gradient echo techniques do not produce true T2 contrast c. gradient echo sequences are too complicated to run
