Missed Review Questions
The answers below have been arranged to represent the DNS hierarchy, from the highest level of the DNS tree (1), to the lowest level (5). Which of these answers are out of order? (Select all that apply) 1. Root domain (".", e.g. the optional trailing dot in "example.com.") 2. Top level domain (e.g. ".com", ".org", or ".edu") 3. Subdomain (e.g. "department" in "department.example.com") 4. Second level domain (e.g. "example.com") 5. Host or resource name (e.g. "a" in "a.department.example.com")
3, 4
A company owner requests the network manager to configure clients with a Domain Name System (DNS) resolver. The owner would like for the DNS configuration to block domains known to host malicious content and provide a filtered service. Which of the following DNS resolvers will provide the options requested? A) 149.112.112.112 B) 9.9.9.10 C) 149.112.112.10 D) 8.8.4.4
A
A system sends a message that the system has matched a pattern that should be recorded. Evaluate event management in the logging system and determine what the system is providing. A) Notification B) Alert C) Heartbeat D) Threshold
A
A technician discovers a Virtual Local Area Network (VLAN) mismatch error. Analyze VLAN characteristics and determine what is the cause of the error. A) The native Virtual Identification (VID) is set differently at either end of the trunk line. B) An untagged port is operating as a trunk. C) The native VLAN is set with the same Virtual Identification (VID) as the default VLAN. D) A frame with a tag is addressed to a port in the same VLAN.
A
A technician is installing a horizontal cabling system that is compliant with Electronic Industries Association (EIA) 568. Evaluate the EIA 568 subsystems within a structured cabling system to determine what this system will connect. A) Will connect user work areas to the distribution frame B) Will connect secondary cross-connects to the main cross-connect C) Will connect to the access provider's network for inter-building communications D) Will connect clients to the network via a wall port
A
A technician needs to test a cable installation to verify that it is Electronic Industries Alliance (EIA)/Telecommunication Industries Association (TIA) Category 5e compliant. What tool can the technician use to verify the installation? A) Certifier B) Loopback adapter C) Cable tester D) Multimeter
A
A technician who does not have privileged access to the network driver is using Nmap port scanning. The technician needs to run a port discovery scan against an active Internet Protocol (IP) address. Recommend the type of scan the technician should use. A) -sT B) -sS C) -sU D) -p
A
An Ethernet switch table containing IP-to-MAC address mappings is called: A) ARP table B) Routing table C) MAC address table D) DNS table
A
An IPv4 address consists of: A) 32 bits B) 48 bits C) 64 bits D) 128 bits
A
An attacker managed to associate his/her MAC address with the IP address of the default gateway. In result, a targeted host is sending network traffic to the attacker's IP address instead of the IP address of the default gateway. Based on the given info, which type of attack is taking place in this scenario? A) ARP poisoning B) Replay attack C) Cross-site request forgery D) DNS poisoning
A
Border Gateway Protocol (BGP) falls into the category of: A) Hybrid routing protocols B) Link-state routing protocols C) Distance-vector routing protocols D) Static routing protocols
A
Evaluate the functions of the Transport layer in the Transmission Control Protocol/Internet Protocol (TCP/IP) protocol stack and determine which statement accurately depicts the Transport layer's role. A) The Transport layer establishes connections between the different applications that the source and destination hosts use to communicate. B) The Transport layer is where many of the high level protocols can be run, such as File Transfer Protocol (FTP). C) The Transport layer defines the host's connection to the network media and includes the hardware and software involved in the interchange of frames between hosts. D) The Transport layer provides addressing and routing functions along with the ability to fragment large frames from the Network Interface layer into smaller packets.
A
In an active directory environment, all resources on server-based systems use what to control access to the resource? A) Access Control List (ACL) B) Access key C) Group membership D) Permission
A
Remapping a domain name to a rogue IP address is an example of what kind of exploit? A) DNS poisoning B) Domain hijacking C) ARP poisoning D) URL hijacking
A
The IEEE 802.11a standard specifies a channel bandwidth of: A) 20 MHz B) 22 MHz C) 40 MHz D) 80 MHz
A
The IEEE 802.11g standard specifies a channel bandwidth of: A) 20 MHz B) 22 MHz C) 40 MHz D) 80 MHz
A
UDP port 69 is assigned to: A) TFTP B) SNMP C) DHCP D) LDAP
A
What is connection-oriented and establishes a specific path for all packets to follow? A) Virtual circuit B) Point-to-point C) Hub and spoke D) Partial mesh
A
Which crosstalk measurement is equivalent to a signal-to-noise ratio (SNR)? A) Attenuation to Crosstalk Ratio (ACR) B) Far End (FEXT) C) Power Sum D) Near End (NEXT)
A
Which of the EAP methods listed below relies on client-side and server-side certificates for authentication? A) EAP-TLS B) PEAP C) EAP-TTLS D) EAP-FAST
A
Which of the answers listed below refers to a binary representation of the decimal number 192? A) 10101100 B) 11000000 C) 01100010 D) 10101010
A
Which of the answers listed below refers to a network protocol used in the most common types of spoofing attacks? A) SMTP B) RDP C) SNMP D) Telnet
A
Which of the answers listed below refers to a technology designed to simplify network infrastructure management? A) SAN B) SDN C) SSP d) SEH
A
Which of the devices listed below is used for separating broadcast domains? A) Router B) Switch C) Repeater D) Hub
A
Which of the following allows an administrator to inspect the traffic passing through a network switch? A) Port mirroring B) VLAN tagging C) Fault-tolerant mode D) Port scanning
A
Which of the following answers lists an example of a modern network bridging device? A) WAP B) Active hub C) VoIP endpoint D) Wireless range extender
A
Which of the following answers refers to a bus topology network first developed for use in vehicles? A) CAN B)N PAN C) VNC D) SAN
A
Which of the following answers refers to a dedicated device designed to manage encrypted connections established over an untrusted network, such as the Internet? A) VPN concentrator B) Proxy server C) Distributed switch D) UTM appliance
A
Which of the following devices would be used for connecting a router to a T1 line? A) CSU/DSU B) Media converter C) IDF D) F-type connector
A
Which DNS record specifies a host and port information that allow to find specific services on a network? A) SRV B) NS C) PTR D) DKIM
A (A Service record (SRV record) is a specification of data in the Domain Name System defining the location, i.e., the hostname and port number, of servers for specified services)
CRC allows for collecting metrics that provide information on: A) Error rates B) Network utilization C) Packet drops D) Bandwidth/throughput
A (Cyclic Redundancy Check)
An SNMP-compliant device includes a virtual database containing information about configuration and state of the device that can be queried by an SNMP management station. This type of data repository is referred to as: A) MIB B) DCS C) NMS D) SIEM
A (Management Information Base)
Which type of agreement would be the most suitable for regulating responsibilities of users with administrative rights on a network? A) PUA B) NDA C) SOW D) AUP
A (Privileged User Agreement)
Analyze the process of decapsulation and select the options that accurately depict the process. (Select two) A) The receiving node performs decapsulation. B) The process extracts application data for processing by a software program. C) The sending nodes perform decapsulation. D) Each layer adds a header to the data payload as the message travels from one node to another.
A, B
For "something you have" authentication, which of the following are possible options to use? (Select two) A) One-time password B) Digital certificate C) Fingerprint D) IP address
A, B
Which of the answers listed below refer to IMAP4? (Select 2 answers) A) Offers improved functionality in comparison to POP3 B) Serves the same function as POP3 (email retrieval) C) Enables sending email messages from client devices D) Offers less functions than POP3 E) Enables email exchange between mail servers
A, B
Which of the answers listed below refer to a very basic UPS type commonly used for protecting a single PC? (Select 2 answers) A) Offline B) Standby C) Line-interactive D) Online E) Double-conversion
A, B
Which type of UPS provides the best power outage protection? (Select 2 answers) A) Online B) Double-conversion C) Standby D) Line-interactive E) Offline
A, B
What are the characteristics of the RG-59 cabling specification? (Select 3 answers) A) Twisted-pair copper cabling B) Suitable for short-distance cable runs C) Used for analog video and CCTV installations D) Coaxial cabling E) Suitable for long-distance cable runs F) Used for cable television, satellite television and cable modems
A, B, C
Which of the answers listed below refer to the characteristic features of the IEEE 802.11a wireless standard? (Select 3 answers) A) Maximum data signaling rate of 54 Mbps B) 5.0 GHz frequency band C) Carrier Sense Multiple Access / Collision Avoidance (CSMA/CA) network access method D) 2.4 GHz frequency band E) Maximum data signaling rate of 11 Mbps F) Carrier Sense Multiple Access / Collision Detection (CSMA/CD) network access method
A, B, C
Which of the answers listed below refer(s) to UTP cabling? (Select all that apply) A) Twisted-pair copper cabling B) Used in Ethernet networks and telephone systems C) Low cost and ease of installation D) Takes advantage of additional protective cover reducing signal interference from outside sources E) Coaxial cabling F) Not surrounded by any shielding that would provide protection against interference from outside sources G) Fiber-optic cabling H) In Ethernet networks, installed with RJ-45 connector type
A, B, C, F, H
Which of the answers listed below refer to the characteristic features of a modem? (Select 3 answers) A) Converts digital data into analog signal B) Allows a computer to send and receive information over telephone lines C) Forwards frames between network segments D) Converts analog signal into digital data E) Filters and transfers data packets between dissimilar types of computer networks
A, B, D
Which of the tools listed below can provide information on network latency problems? (Select 3 answers) A) ping B) Packet analyzer C) Network mapper D) tracert/traceroute E) netstat
A, B, D
Which of the solutions listed below add(s) redundancy in areas identified as single points of failure? (Select all that apply) A) RAID B) Dual-power supply C) Virtualization D) Failover clustering E) Load balancing
A, B, D, E
Which of the answers listed below refer(s) to the feature(s) of SFP? (Select all that apply) A) Small form factor transceiver B) Converts electrical signals to optical signals C) Data transfer of 10 Gbps D) Newer transceiver type that replaces GBIC E) Modular (hot swappable) interface F) Converts optical signals to electrical signals G) Fixed physical interface H) Data transfer of 1 Gbps
A, B, D, E, F, H
What are the characteristic traits of a network switch? (Select all that apply) A) Makes forwarding decisions in hardware (ASIC) B) Typically capable of connecting more network segments than bridge (more physical ports) C) Older and less effective type of network device in comparison to network bridge D) Makes forwarding decisions in software E) Sometimes referred to as multiport bridge F) Newer and more effective type of network device in comparison to network bridge G) Typically capable of connecting fewer network segments than bridge (fewer physical ports)
A, B, E, F
A network manager is implementing new Virtual Local Area Networks (VLANs) within a physical network. Recommend guidelines that the network manager can follow while configuring the network. (Select two) A) Design subnets for each VLAN and design a VLAN numbering system. B) Assign a unique native Virtual Identification (VID) on each trunk port. C) Map the logical topology to the physical switch topology. D) The maximum number of hosts in a single VLAN (/24 subnet) does not exceed 200.
A, C
The IEEE 802.11n standard specifies available channel bandwidth options of: (Select 2 answers) A) 20 MHz B) 22 MHz C) 40 MHz D) 80 MHz E) 160 MHz
A, C
What are the characteristics of an incremental backup? (Select two) A) It will include new files and files modified since the last backup. B) It will include all data modified since the last full backup. C) The archive attribute will be cleared. D) The archive attribute will not be cleared.
A, C
The IEEE 802.11n standard offers backward compatibility with which of the following standards? (Select all that apply) A) 802.11g B) 802.11ac C) 802.11b D) 802.11a
A, C, D
Which of the answers listed below refer(s) to PPP? (Select all that apply) A) Network protocol used for connecting devices on a WAN B) Transport layer (layer 4) protocol C) Enables encapsulation of IP traffic D) Used for establishing a direct connection between two networked devices E) Application layer (layer 7 protocol)
A, C, D
Which of the answers listed below refer(s) to example(s) of fiber-optic connectors (Select all that apply) A) LC B) DB-25 C) ST D) SC E) MT-RJ F) RG-6
A, C, D, E
Which of the answers listed below refer to highly directional antenna type used for long-range point-to-point bridging links? (Select 3 answers) A) Yagi antenna B) Omnidirectional antenna C) Dish antenna D) Non-directional antenna E) Parabolic antenna F) Dipole antenna
A, C, E
Explain vulnerabilities a network manager should be aware of within a signature detection solution. (Select two) A) The protection is only as good as the last signature update. B) It is easy to configure pattern matching. C) It generates more false negatives than false positives. D) It is ineffective at detecting previously unknown threats.
A, D
Which of the following connector types are used for RS-232 serial communications? (Select 2 answers) A) DE-9 B) RG-59 C) RJ-45 D) DB-25 E) RG-6 F) RJ-11
A, D
What are the characteristic features of satellite Internet connections? (Select 3 answers) A) High signal latency B) Lack of signal interference C) Cheaper in comparison to terrestrial links D) Interference (weather dependent) E) Low signal latency F) Relatively high cost in comparison to terrestrial links
A, D, F
The SMTP protocol is used for: (Select 2 answers) A) Sending email between mail servers B) Name resolution C) Serving of web pages D) Retrieving email from mail servers E) Sending email from a client device
A, E
Which of the following answers refer to common cabling type used for connecting workstations to network devices? (Select 2 answers) A) Patch cable B) RG-59 cable C) Crossover cable D) RG-6 cable E) Straight-through cable
A, E
A company network employs an authentication architecture that authenticates administrative access to routers and switches and uses the reliable delivery of the Transmission Control Protocol (TCP) over port 49. Analyze types of authentication architecture to determine which of the following the company uses. A) Remote Authentication Dial-in User Service (RADIUS) B) Terminal Access Controller Access Control System (TACACS+) C) Authentication, Authorization, and Accounting (AAA) D) Lightweight Directory Access Protocol (LDAP)
B
A dedicated storage appliance that can be added to a local network is known as: A) SPS B) NAS C) SAN D) NFS
B
A system administrator downloads an executable file to a Windows machine. The file is located at C:\Users\Admin\Desktop\Test. The administrator needs to perform a file integrity check using the Message-Digest 5 (MD5) algorithm. What command will the administrator use to perform this action? A) certutil -checksum C:\Users\Admin\Desktop\Test MD5 B) certutil -hashfile C:\Users\Admin\Desktop\Test MD5 C) certutil -hashfile MD5 C:\Users\Admin\Desktop\Test D) certutil -checksum MD5 C:\Users\Admin\Desktop\Test
B
A system administrator enters the command ping 127.0.0.1. What will the system administrator be able to verify from the results? A) The Internet Protocol (IP) of a workstation is added correctly and the network adapter is functioning B) The Transmission Control Protocol/Internet Protocol (TCP/IP) is installed and loaded correctly C) The default gateway is up and running and that it can communicate with a host on the local network D) The workstation can communicate with a remote host through a router
B
A technician is installing a fiber optic connection. The technician is using a bayonet-style connector that uses a push and twist locking mechanism. Evaluate the types of fiber optic connectors to determine which the technician is using. A) Subscriber Connector (SC) B) Straight Tip (ST) Connector C) Lucent Connector (LC) D) Mechanical Transfer Registered Jack (MTRJ)
B
An employee receives a notice that a certificate is untrusted. A network manager is investigating the cause of the notice. Which of the following is the most common reason for a certificate to not be trusted? A) Time is not correctly synchronized. B) The certificate issuer is not trusted. C) The name and Uniform Resource Locator (URL) do not match. D) The certificate is not being used for its stated purpose.
B
Character encoding, data compression and encryption/decryption take place at the: A) Application layer of the OSI model B) Presentation layer of the OSI model C) Session layer of the OSI model D) Transport layer of the OSI model
B
Host A sends a message to Host B. The routing table uses 0.0.0.0/0 to route the packet. What is the scenario simulating? A) Remote network routes B) Default routes C) Direct network routes D) Host routes
B
TCP port 389 is the default network port for: A) RDP B) LDAP C) SMB D) LDAPS
B
What is the most common type of a DSL Internet access? A) VDSL B) ADSL C) SDSL D) UDSL
B
What is the name of a solution that increases the efficiency of IP address space management by allowing network administrators to divide networks into subnets of different sizes? A) DNAT B) VLSM C) MPLS D) VLAN
B
Which VPN type enables direct communication links between remote hosts on a WAN? A) Site-to-site VPN B) DMVPN C) Remote-access VPN D) Client-to-site VPN
B
Which WAN technology takes advantage of cell towers that provide wireless signal coverage for mobile devices? A) WAP B) WWAN C) Satellite D) WLAN
B
Which ipconfig parameter allows to view the physical address of a Network Interface Card (NIC)? A) -S srcaddr B) /all C) -i address D) eth_addr
B
Which of the answers listed below refers to a channel bandwidth used in 802.11b networks? A) 20 MHz B) 22 MHz C) 40 MHz D) 80 MHz
B
Which of the answers listed below refers to a high-speed alternative to Fibre Channel technology? A) FCoE B) InfiniBand C) iSCSI D) PPPoE
B
Which of the answers listed below refers to the maximum data transfer rate of E1 connection? A) 1.544 Mbps B) 2.048 Mbps C) 34.368 Mbps D) 44.736 Mbps
B
Which of the following acronyms refers to a client authentication method used in WPA/WPA2 Personal modes? A) AES B) PSK C) RC4 D) IKE
B
Which of the following answers refer(s) to authentication protocol(s) providing the AAA functionality? (Select all that apply) A) CHAP B) TACACS+ C) PAP D) RADIUS E) MS-CHAP
B
Which of the following answers refers to a lower-cost alternative to Fibre Channel technology? A) ATM B) iSCSI C) InfiniBand D) MPLS
B
Which of the following answers refers to a set of bug fixes or code enhancements available in the form of a single installable package? A) Hotfix B) Service pack C) Software distribution D) System update
B
Which of the following network topologies is most commonly used in contemporary Ethernet LANs? A) Bus topology B) Star topology C) Ring topology D) Mesh topology
B
Which of the following standards implements PoE+? A) IEEE 802.1d B) IEEE 802.3at C) IEEE 802.1X D) IEEE 802.3ab
B
Which of the following tools would be of help in troubleshooting wireless signal loss and low wireless network signal coverage? A) Protocol analyzer B) WAP power level controls C) Logical network diagram D) Network mapper
B
Which of the solutions listed below would be used to provide redundant power source for datacenter server racks? A) Offline UPS B) Independent power circuits C) Backup generator D) Standby UPS
B
Which port enables the FTP's Data Connection for sending file data? A) UDP port 20 B) TCP port 20 C) UDP port 21 D) TCP port 21
B
Which protocol ensures the reliability of the Kerberos authentication process? A) EAP B) NTP C) IPsec D) RTP
B
Which type of switch simplifies virtual network configuration by enabling an option to configure switching for the entire network from a single interface? A) Managed switch B) Distributed switch C) Stackable switch D) Aggregation switch
B
A company implements a patch management policy of only applying patches that solve current issues. What is a valid justification for this policy? A) The company does not have enough personnel available to apply all patches. B) An update that fixes a vulnerability could cause software compatibility issues. C) The administrator will not be required to keep up to date with security bulletins. D) This policy provides the best protection against attacks and against flaws in software.
B (selectively applying patches actually requires moire work than applying all patches because admins must be aware of all security configurations, bulletins, etc.)
A network manager is performing a process known as flashing the chip. Analyze patch management practices to determine characteristics of this process? (Select two) A) This process updates drivers that link the operating system to the device. B) This process updates software instructions in the flash memory. C) The software vendor supplies the setup program. D) The process is for updating endpoint systems only.
B, C
A host boots up and contacts the Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) server. Analyze the role of the DHCP server. Which optional settings may the server provide the host? (Select two) A) Internet Protocol (IP) address B) Default gateway C) Subnet mask D) Time synchronization
B, C (IP and subnet are NOT optional but mandatory for the DHCP server to provide)
What are the characteristic features of the 100BaseTX Ethernet standard? (Select 3 answers) A) Twisted-pair copper cabling (Category 3 or higher) B) Maximum cable segment length of 100 meters C) Transfer rate of 100 Mbps over two-pair Cat 5 or better cable D) Maximum cable segment length of 55 meters E) Twisted-pair copper cabling (Category 5 or higher) F) Transfer rate of 1000 Mbps (1 Gbps) over four-pair Cat 5 or better cable
B, C, D
What are the characteristics of the IEEE 802.11g wireless standard? (Select 3 answers) A) Carrier Sense Multiple Access / Collision Detection (CSMA/CD) network access method B) Maximum data signaling rate of 54 Mbps C) Carrier Sense Multiple Access / Collision Avoidance (CSMA/CA) network access method D) 2.4 GHz frequency range E) Maximum data signaling rate of 11 Mbps F) 5.0 GHz frequency range
B, C, D
What are the characteristic features of FCoE? (Select all that apply) A) Requires separate cabling infrastructure B) Takes advantage of copper cabling C) Enables connectivity between servers and data storage devices D) Does not require any specialized hardware E) Takes advantage of fiber-optic cabling F) Requires specialized hardware G) Does not require separate cabling infrastructure
B, C, D, G
Setting up a wireless connection in Network and Sharing Center Control Panel applet in MS Windows requires: (Select 3 answers) A) Typing in the network's subnet mask B) Providing the wireless network name C) Selecting security/encryption type D) Providing IP address of the Wireless Access Point (WAP) E) Typing in the network security key (Wi-Fi password)
B, C, E
Telnet: (Select 3 answers) A) Encrypts network connection B) Provides username & password authentication C) Transmits data in an unencrypted form D) Does not provide authentication E) Enables remote login and command execution
B, C, E
What are the characteristic traits of GBIC? (Select all that apply) A) Data transfer of 10 Gbps B) Modular (hot swappable) interface C) Converts optical signals to electrical signals D) Fixed physical interface E) Converts electrical signals to optical signals F) Data transfer of 1 Gbps
B, C, E, F
What are the characteristic features of RADIUS? (Select 3 answers) A) Encrypts the entire payload of the access-request packet B) Combines authentication and authorization C) Encrypts only the password in the access-request packet D) Primarily used for device administration E) Separates authentication and authorization F)
B, C, F
at are the characteristics of fiber-optic cabling? (Select all that apply) A) High signal attenuation B) Used for network backbone cabling C) Immunity to electromagnetic interference D) Less suitable for carrying digital information than copper cabling E) Limited bandwidth and maximum cable segment length in comparison to copper cabling F) Used for last-mile cable runs G) Provides higher level of security than copper cabling (difficult to tap into) H) More suitable for carrying digital information than copper cabling
B, C, G, H
A company implements a Port-based Network Access Control (PNAC) mechanism. Evaluate the Institute of Electrical and Electronics Engineers (IEEE) 802.1X standard to determine what features the PNAC mechanism will provide. (Select two) A) The authenticating server is typically a Terminal Access Controller Access Control System (TACACS+) B) A switch or router will perform authentication of the attached device before activating a port. C) Unauthenticated hosts will always be blocked from the network. D) The switch will enable the Extensible Authentication Protocol over LAN (EAPoL).
B, D
A solution that allows to supply electricity over standard Ethernet cables is known as: (Select 2 answers) A) IEEE 802.3ab B) PoE C) Metro-Ethernet D) IEEE 802.3af e) PSTN
B, D
What is the functionality provided by the Class of Service (CoS) parameter? (Select 2 answers) A) Security B) QoS C) Authentication D) Traffic management E) Accounting
B, D
Which of the answers listed below refer(s) to reversed TX/RX? (Select 2 answers) A) Far end crosstalk B) Wrong TIA/EIA cable standard type used C) Frequency mismatch D) Wrong pin/pair assignments on cable ends E) Near end crosstalk
B, D
Which of the following antenna types provide a 360-degree horizontal signal coverage? (Select 2 answers) A) Unidirectional antenna B) Dipole antenna C) Yagi antenna D) Omnidirectional antenna E) Dish antenna
B, D
Which of the following terms refer to solutions used for controlling network resources and assigning priority to different types of traffic? (Select 2 answers) A) Acceptable Use Policy (AUP) B) Packet shaping C) Bandwidth cap D) Quality of Service (QoS) E) Fair access policy
B, D
Which of the following would require troubleshooting if a network connectivity problem originates from mismatched transceiver types? (Select 2 answers) A) SPF B) GBIC C) ASIC D) SFP E) MDI-X
B, D (Gigabit interface convertor, small for-factor pluggable transceiver)
What are the characteristic traits of single-mode fiber optics? (Select 3 answers) A) Transmission distances of up to 2 km B) More expensive than multimode fiber optics C) Uses LED as the source of light D) Transmission distances of up to 100 km E) Uses laser as the source of light F) Less expensive than multimode fiber optics
B, D, E
Which of the answers listed below refer to methods for creating secure connections between clients and cloud service providers? (Select 3 answers) A) Telnet B) IPsec C) PAP D) SSL/TLS encryption E) VPN
B, D, E
Which of the answers listed below refer to the 10GBaseT Ethernet standard? (Select 3 answers) A) Single-mode fiber-optic cable B) 10 Gbps transfer rate over a maximum cable segment length of 55 meters (Cat 6 cable) C) Multimode fiber-optic cable D) 10 Gbps transfer rate over a maximum cable segment length of 100 meters (Cat 6A and Cat 7 cable) E) Twisted-pair copper cabling
B, D, E
Which of the answers listed below refer(s) to the characteristic feature(s) of Category 5 (Cat 5) cabling? (Select all that apply) A) Coaxial cabling B) 100 Mbps transfer rate over 2 pairs of cables (100BaseT networks) C) 55-meter cable segment length D) 1 Gbps transfer rate over all 4 pairs of cables (1000BaseT networks) E) BNC connector F) 100-meter cable segment length G) 10 Gbps transfer rate over all 4 pairs of cables (10GBaseT networks) H) Twisted-pair copper cabling I) RJ-45 connector J) Fiber-optic cabling
B, D, F, H, I
Which of the answers listed below refer(s) to the characteristic feature(s) of Category 5e (Cat 5e) cabling? (Select all that apply) A) BNC connector B) 100-meter cable segment length C) Coaxial cabling D) Twisted-pair copper cabling E) Fiber-optic cabling F) 1 Gbps transfer rate over 2 pairs of cables (1000BaseT networks) G) RJ-45 connector H) 55-meter cable segment length I) 1 Gbps transfer rate over 4 pairs of cables (1000BaseT networks) J) F-type connector
B, D, G, I
Which of the answers listed below refer to the characteristics of multimode fiber optics? (Select 3 answers) A) Uses laser as the source of light B) Transmission distances of up to 2 km C) More expensive than single-mode fiber optics D) Transmission distances of up to 100 km E) Less expensive than single-mode fiber optics F) Uses LED as the source of light
B, E, F
Which of the following answers refer to the characteristics of copper-based networks? (Select 3 answers) A) More expensive in comparison to optical fiber B) Used for last-mile cable runs C) Higher bandwidth and maximum cable segment length in comparison to fiber-optic links D) Used for network backbone cabling E) Less expensive in comparison to optical fiber F) Limited bandwidth and maximum cable segment length in comparison to fiber-optic links
B, E, F
A computer network connecting multiple LANs over an area of a city or campus is referred to as: A) PAN B) LAN C) MAN D) WAN
C
A device designed to filter and transfer data packets between dissimilar types of computer networks is called: A) Hub B) Load balancer C) Router D) Switch
C
A disaster recovery facility that provides only the physical space for recovery operations is called: A) Hot site B) Warm site C) Cold site D) Mirror site
C
A large frame fragments into smaller packets. In evaluating the layers of the Transmission Control Protocol/Internet Protocol (TCP/IP) protocol stack, which of the following is responsible for completing this task? A) Link layer B) Transport layer C) Internet layer D) Application layer
C
A network administrator applies the Bridge Protocol Data Unit (BPDU) Guard to filter Spanning Tree Protocol (STP) traffic. What is the goal of the network administrator? A) To have ports drop all Bridge Protocol Data Units (BPDUs) they receive B) To prevent other switches connected to the guarded port to become the root C) To disable ports that receive a Bridge Protocol Data Unit (BPDU) D) To prevent topology changes in the Spanning Tree Protocol (STP)
C
A new small company hires one technician that is responsible for designing and maintaining the network. The technician realizes a need for a Demilitarized Zone (DMZ). The primary concerns are knowledge and budget. Recommend a solution to the technician. A) Screened subnet B) Three-legged firewall C) Screened host D) Demilitarized Zone (DMZ) host
C
A security feature of a network switch that provides countermeasures against rogue DHCP servers is called: A) DHCP scope B) DHCP reservation C) DHCP snooping D) DHCP relay agent
C
A technician receives a trouble ticket for an employee workstation. The technician believes the issue may be cable related. The technician verifies that the necessary cables are plugged into the back of the workstation. What is the next step in troubleshooting? A) Verify the patch cord by swapping the cable to the wall socket. B) Verify the patch cable between the patch panel and the switch. C) Attempt to ping a known working system on the local subnet. D) Plug the problem system into a different network socket.
C
A type of diagnostic tool used for measuring the strength of a wireless signal is referred to as: A) Tone generator B) Multimeter C) Spectrum analyzer D) Network mapper
C
A type of protocol used in network management systems for monitoring network-attached devices is called: A) SMB B) NTP C) SNMP D) RDP
C
A wireless disassociation attack is a type of: A) Downgrade attack B) Brute-force attack C) Denial of Service (DoS) attack D) Cryptographic attack
C
An Ethernet straight-through cable is also commonly referred to as: A) Rollover cable B) Crossover cable C) Patch cable D) Yost cable
C
An optimal Wireless Access Point (WAP) antenna placement provides a countermeasure against: A) War chalking B) Spoofing C) War driving D) Insider threat
C
Analyze the naming convention of Ethernet media specifications. What does the second part of the convention tell the user? A) Bit rate B) Media type C) Signal mode D) Distance
C
Evaluate the Extensible Authentication Protocol (EAP) to determine what the authenticator component provides within the framework. A) Is typically a RADIUS or a TACACS+ server that performs the authentication. B) Uses a certificate to set up an encrypted tunnel for user authentication. C) Establishes a channel for the server to exchange credentials using the EAPoL protocol. D) Uses a PAC to set up the tunnel for user authentication.
C
Host A sends a packet to Host B. A corrupted routing table causes a delay and the package begins to loop. The router discards the packet. What type of message will the Internet Control Message Protocol (ICMP) send? A) Destination unreachable B) Redirect C) Time exceeded D) Request timed out
C
In order to connect to a website and display its contents, a URL entered in the web browser address bar needs to be translated into an IP address. Which of the servers listed below is used to handle this type of request? A) ICS server B) Web server C) DNS server D) DHCP server
C
LDAP is an example of: A) Authentication protocol B) Address resolution protocol C) Directory access protocol D) File exchange protocol
C
Malware that restricts access to a computer system by encrypting files or locking the entire system down until the user performs requested action is called: A) Grayware B) Adware C) Ransomware D) Spyware
C
The File Transfer Protocol (FTP) Control Connection for administering a session is established through: A) TCP port 20 B) UDP port 20 C) TCP port 21 D) UDP port 21
C
The arp command can be used to perform what kind of resolution? A) IP to FQDN B) MAC to IP C) IP to MAC D) FQDN to IP
C
The term "Brownout" refers to what kind of situation? A) Power spike B) EMI C) Drop in voltage D) Power outage
C
What remote administration tool does not support file transfer directly but allows an administrator to use the same commands as a local user? A) Secure Shell (SSH) B) Remote Desktop Protocol (RDP) C) Telnet D) Virtual Network Computing (VNC)
C
Which netstat parameter allows to display the names of applications and executable file components that are accessing the network? A) -a B) -n C) -b D) -p
C
Which of the answers listed below refers to an ipconfig command parameter used for displaying the full TCP/IP configuration information for all adapters? A) -a B) /? C) /all D) /-a
C
Which of the following answers lists the CIDR notation of the 255.255.255.224 subnet mask? A) /25 B) /26 C) /27 D) /28
C
Which of the following answers refers to a connector type not used with copper cabling? A) RJ-11/RJ-45 B) BNC C) MT-RJ D) DB-9/DB-25 E) F-type
C
Which of the following answers refers to the minimum requirement for twisted-pair copper cabling in modern Ethernet networks? A) Cat 3 B) Cat 5 C) Cat 5e D) Cat 6 E) Cat 6A
C
Which of the following cloud service types would provide the best solution for a web developer intending to create a web app? A) MaaS B) SaaS C) PaaS D) IaaS
C
Which of the following is an example of a hotfix? A) A collection of updates released since the last service pack B) A collection of updates that includes product improvements C) An update designed and released to certain customers D) An update that fixes a bug in a software program
C
Which of the following terms is used to describe an average time required to repair a failed component or device? A) MTBF B) RPO C) MTTR D) SLA
C
Which of the terms listed below does not fall into the category of preventive physical security controls? A) ID badges B) Biometrics C) Video surveillance D) Smart cards E) Key fobs F) Hardware locks
C
Which optional field in an Ethernet frame header can be used to enable the Quality of Service (QoS) functionality? A) CRC B) Preamble C) CoS D) Payload
C
Which type of RAID does not offer fault tolerance? A) RAID 5 B) Disk duplexing C) RAID 0 D) Disk mirroring E) RAID 1
C
Which type of network documentation would be of help in determining the physical location of a network server? A) Network diagram B) IDF documentation C) Rack diagram D) MDF documentation
C
Which of the answers listed below refers to a special type of frame used by STPs? A) MTU B) Jumbo frame C) BPDU D) ATM cell
C (Bridge Protocol Data Unit)
An IPv6 protocol used by routers to advertise their presence on a network is known as: A) NDR B) NCP C) NDP D) NTP
C (Neighbor Discovery Protocol is used to identify the relationships between different neighboring devices in an IPv6 network)
What is the fastest way for validating a digital certificate? A) CRL B) Key escrow C) OCSP D) CSR
C (Online Certificate Status Protocol)
Which of the answers listed below refers to an ISDN service designed for larger organizations that take advantage of digital PBX systems? A) BRI B) N-ISDN C) PRI D) B-ISDN
C (Primary Rate Interface, used for larger enterprises)
Differentiate between the characteristics of 2.4 gigahertz (GHz) and 5 GHz frequencies in wireless technologies. (Select two) A) 2.4 GHz bands support more individual channels with less congestion. B) 2.4 GHz experiences less interference due to the amount of technologies using 5 GHz. C) 2.4 GHz is better at propagating through solid surfaces than 5 GHz. D) 2.4 GHz provides a longer range than 5 GHz.
C, D
Examples of distance-vector routing protocols include: (Select 2 answers) A) EGP B) OSPF C) RIP D) EIGRP e) BGP
C, D
Shielded Twisted-Pair (STP) cabling reduces what kind of interference? (Select 2 answers) A) Jitter B) Signal attenuation C) Crosstalk D) EMI E) Signal latency
C, D
EMI shielding protects the transferred data signals from: (Select 2 answers) A) Decryption B) Signal refraction C) Outside interference D) Eavesdropping E) Signal attenuation
C, D (EMI = Electromagentic Interference)
Which of the answers listed below refer(s) to MPLS? (Select all that apply) A) Circuit-switching method B) Used for connecting devices on a LAN C) Enables delivery of various data packet types over the same network link D) Packet-switching method E) Used for connecting devices on a WAN F) Designed to simplify and improve the performance of routing process
C, D, E, F (Multiprotocol Label Switching is a routing technique in telecommunications networks that directs data from one node to the next based on short path labels rather than long network addresses, thus avoiding complex lookups in a routing table and speeding traffic flows)
Which DNS records are commonly used with the DNS TXT record? (Select 2 answers) A) PTR B) CNAME C) SPF D) MX E) DKIM
C, E
Which DNS records are used to protect a domain from being wrongfully identified as a source of email spam? (Select 2 answers) A) PTR B) CNAME C) SPF D) MX E) DKIM
C, E
VoIP gateway is a network device that converts voice and fax calls, in real time, between an IP network and: (Select 2 answers) A) T1/T3 lines B) Site-to-site VPN C) PSTN D) E1/E3 lines E) Remote-access VPN F) POTS
C, F
Which of the answers listed below refer to implementations of certificate-based authentication? (Select 2 answers) A) CHAP B) 802.3at C) Smart cards D) 802.3af E) PAP F) 802.1X
C, F
A Synchronous Optical Network (SONET) uses a Point-to-Point Protocol (PPP). Simulate the process of the network establishing a PPP connection to determine the third step. A) The Link Control Protocol (LCP) negotiates link parameters, such as frame size. B) The client and server negotiate the use of an authentication protocol and exchange authentication messages. C) The link is open and PPP frames are exchanged. D) The Network Control Protocols (NCPs) configure the layer 3 protocol(s) for use on the local network.
D
A computer network connecting multiple smaller networks over very large geographical areas is known as: A) PAN B) LAN C) MAN D) WAN
D
A dedicated local network consisting of devices providing data access is called: A) SDN B) NAS C) iSCSI D) SAN
D
A network administrator discovers a service while using Nmap. The administrator would like to probe the host to discover the software operating each port. Recommend a switch the administrator can use to perform this action. A) -sT B) -sS C) -sU D) -sV
D
A network administrator is experiencing problems with packet delivery. The network administrator enters arp -d 100.23.56.10 into the command line. Analyze the arp command and the associated switches to determine what will occur. A) The contents of the Address Resolution Protocol (ARP) table will be displayed for 100.23.56.10. B) An entry will be added to the Address Resolution Protocol (ARP) table for 100.23.56.10. C) The Address Resolution Protocol (ARP) table will block 100.23.56.10 from communicating. D) The Address Resolution Protocol (ARP) table will delete the cache for 100.23.56.10.
D
A network administrator uses Microsoft's Hyper-V virtualization platform to create a virtual external switch. What result will this produce? A) The switch will create a bridge that is usable only by Virtual Machines (VMs) on the host (and the host itself) while restricting access to the wider physical network. B) The switch will only be usable by the Virtual Machines (VMs) and the VMs cannot use the switch to communicate with the host. C) The switch will bind the host's Media Access Control (MAC) to the Virtual Machines (VMs), enabling communication on the virtual network. D) The switch will bind to the host's Network Interface Card (NIC) to allow the Virtual Machine (VM) to communicate on the physical network, via a bridge.
D
A range of IP addresses that a DHCP server can lease out to DHCP clients is known as: A) Lease B) Reservation C) Pool D) Scope
D
A simple device consisting of multiple connector blocks and ports used for cable management is known as: A) Media converter B) Demarc C) Main Distribution Frame (MDF) D) Patch panel
D
A solution that allows to control access to a shared transmission medium in 802.11 networks is known as: A) CWDM B) CSMA/CD C) CDMA D) CSMA/CA
D
A system administrator cannot contact a remote Internet Protocol (IP) address. The administrator has successfully used the ping command for the loopback address, the local workstation, and a local host. What is the next troubleshooting step the administrator should take? A) Use the tracert command to investigate the route B) Manually add the route using the route command C) Check for a name resolution problem D) Check the default gateway parameter on the local host
D
A system administrator uses Information Technology Infrastructure Library (ITIL) for configuration management. What is a Configuration Item (CI) element in ITIL? A) Things, processes, or people that contribute to the delivery of an Information Technology (IT) service B) A representation of the way a network was designed C) Tools and databases that collect, store, manage, update, and present information D) An asset that requires specific management procedures prior to using it to deliver a service
D
A technician needs to install a twisted pair cable solution that will provide a frequency of 400 MegaHertZ (MHz) for up to 300 feet. The technician wants to keep cost in mind and not install a higher Category (Cat) than required. Consider the Electronic Industries Alliance (EIA) 568 Commercial Building Telecommunication Cabling Standards to determine which Cat cabling solution will meet the needs of the technician. A) Cat 5 B) Cat 5e C) Cat 6 D) Cat 6A
D
A technician supporting a network with contention-based access methods needs to eliminate the effect of contention. Which action should the technician take to improve transmission? A) Install a switch and configure it for half-duplex, and use the CSMA/CD protocol B) Install a switch and configure it for half-duplex, and do not use the CSMA/CD protocol C) Install a switch and configure it for full duplex, and use the CSMA/CD protocol D) Install a switch and configure it for full duplex, and do not use the CSMA/CD protocol
D
A type of Ethernet interface that automatically detects the required cable connection type (straight-through vs. crossover) and configures the connection appropriately is known as: A) GBIC B) Basic-Rate Interface (BRI) C) UC gateway D) Auto MDI-X
D
An OC-3 line supports transmission rates of up to: A) 1.544 Mbps B) 44.736 Mbps C) 51.84 Mbps D) 155.52 Mbps
D
IPv4 addresses are expressed with the use of: A) Octagonal numbers B) Binary numbers C) Hexadecimal numbers D) Decimal numbers
D
QSFP offers data transfer rates of up to: A) 1 Gbps B) 1.6 Gbps C) 2 Gbps D) 4 Gbps
D
T3 lines support data transfer rates of up to: A) 1.544 Mbps B) 2.048 Mbps C) 34.368 Mbps D) 44.736 Mbps
D
TCP port 25 is used by: A) SNMP B) Telnet C) FTP D) SMTP
D
What is the network address for a 154.24.67.147/22 host? A) 154.24.48.0 B) 154.24.60.0 C) 154.24.62.0 D) 154.24.64.0
D
Which OSI layer assumes the responsibility for managing network connections between applications? A) Network layer B) Data link layer C) Application layer D) Session layer
D
Which Transmission Control Protocol (TCP) header field provides the type of content in the segment? A) Checksum B) Window C) Urgent Pointer D) Flags
D
Which of the answers listed below refers to a cloud computing delivery model in which clients, instead of buying all the hardware and software, purchase computing resources as an outsourced service from suppliers who own and maintain all the necessary equipment and software? A) SaaS B) MaaS C) PaaS D) IaaS
D
Which of the answers listed below refers to a technology designed to provide connectivity between servers and data storage devices over fiber-optic or copper cable links? A) FCoE B) Frame relay C) DMVPN D) Fibre Channel
D
Which of the answers listed below refers to the maximum data transfer rate of OC-192 connection? A) 622.08 Mbps B) 1244.16 Mbps (1.24 Gbps) C) 2488.32 Mbps (2.49 Gbps) D) 9953.28 Mbps (9.95 Gbps)
D
Which of the following answers refers to a dedicated local network consisting of devices that provide data access? A) SDN B) NAS C) iSCSI D) SAN
D
Which of the following answers refers to a link-state routing protocol? A) BGP B) EIGRP C) RIP D) OSPF
D
Which of the following authentication protocols can be used to enable SSO? A) PAP B) LDAP C) MS-CHAP D) Kerberos
D
Which of the following passwords is the most complex? A) T$7C52WL4SU B) GdL3tU8wxYz C) @TxBL$nW@Xt D) G$L3tU8wY@z
D
Which of the password policy settings listed below prevents attackers using cracked passwords from gaining permanent access to a Windows workstation? A) Login time restrictions B) Password complexity setting C) Account lockout threshold setting D) Maximum password age setting
D
Which of the tools listed below would be used to identify running services on a networked host? A) Packet sniffer B) Loopback interface C) Protocol analyzer D) Port scanner
D
A network protocol that allows for secure file transfer over SSL is called: A) TFTP B) SCP C) SFTP D) FTPS
D (FTP Secure)
Which of the protocols listed below provide protection against switching loops? (Select 2 answers) A) RTP B) SRTP C) RDP D) STP E) RSTP
D, E
Which of the following answers describe the features of a network bridge? (Select 3 answers) A) Makes forwarding decisions in hardware (ASIC) B) Newer and more effective type of network device in comparison to network switch C) Typically capable of connecting more network segments than switch (more physical ports) D) Makes forwarding decisions in software E) Typically capable of connecting fewer network segments than switch (fewer physical ports) F) Older and less effective type of network device in comparison to network switch
D, E, F
Which of the following answers refer to the IEEE 802.11b wireless standard? (Select 3 answers) A) Maximum data signaling rate of 54 Mbps B) 5.0 GHz frequency range C) Carrier Sense Multiple Access / Collision Detection (CSMA/CD) network access method D) 2.4 GHz frequency range E) Maximum data signaling rate of 11 Mbps F) Carrier Sense Multiple Access / Collision Avoidance (CSMA/CA) network access method
D, E, F
Which of the following answers refer to the RG-6 cabling specification? (Select 3 answers) A) Twisted-pair copper cabling B) Suitable for short-distance cable runs C) Used for analog video and CCTV installations D) Coaxial cabling E) Suitable for long-distance cable runs F) Used for cable television, satellite television and cable modems
D, E, F
The IEEE 802.11ac standard specifies a maximum channel bandwidth of: A) 20 MHz B) 22 MHz C) 40 MHz D) 80 MHz E) 160 MHz
E
Which of the answers listed below refers to an example of a valid subnet mask? A) 255.255.225.0 B) 255.255.191.0 C) 255.255.127.0 D) 255.255.64.0 E) None of the above is a valid subnet mask
E
Which of the following answers refer to the IPv4 multicast address block? (Select 2 answers) A) 128 - 191 B) Class B range C) 192 - 223 D) Class C range E) 224 - 239 F) Class D range
E, F
True or False: A dedicated communication channel used exclusively between two connected hosts is a characteristic feature of packet-switching networks.
False
True or False: Circuit-switching networks move data divided into small blocks over a shared connection.
False
True or False: Domain information groper (dig) and nslookup are command-line tools used for DNS queries. Both utilities are available on Windows and Linux. Of the two, nslookup is the preferred tool on UNIX-like systems; dig is the default DNS query tool for MS Windows.
False
True or False: Establishing a theory of probable cause of the problem is a troubleshooting step that apart from conducting research based on symptoms may also involve asking for assistance of a more experienced tech.
False
True or False: Plenum-rated cabling features a fire-retardant jacket made of polyvinyl chloride (PVC).
False
True or False: The term "DHCP snooping" refers to an exploit that enables operation of a rogue DHCP network server.
False
True or False: In a differential backup strategy, restoring data from backup requires only a working copy of the last full backup.
False (requires files that have changed since the last full backup)
Which of the statements listed below is not true? A) The ATM PDU is the cell B) OSI physical layer PDU is the bit C) OSI data link layer PDU is the frame D) OSI network layer PDU is the packet E) OSI transport layer PDU is the segment F) PDUs between OSI session and application layers are referred to simply as the data G) All of the above statements are true
G
True or False: One of the features of the Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) is the capability for static allocation of an IP address based on the IP-to-MAC address mapping.
True
True or False: The term "Metropolitan Ethernet" refers to an Ethernet-based Metropolitan Area Network (MAN).
True