MLT ASCP Review 4

The volume of urine recommended for centrifugation for a microscopic examination is: - 1-3 mL - 10-15 mL - 15-20 mL - Volume is not important

10-15 mL

Red blood cell units that contain CPD can be stored for up to how many days? - 21 days - 28 days - 35 days - 42 days

21 days

What should be added to the cytocentrifuge chamber when preparing slides on serous fluids to aid in adhesion of cells to the slide and preserve cellular morphology? - Hylauronidase - 22% Albumin - 10% acetic acid - Sterile saline

22% Albumin

Serum proteins can be separated by cellulose acetate electrophoresis into how many basic fractions: - 4 fractions - 5 fractions - 6 fractions - 7 fractions

5 fractions

The A1 subgroup represents approximately what percentage of group A individuals? - 25-30% - 50-60% - 75-80% - 95-98%

75-80%

In heme synthesis, how many molecules of delta-aminolevulinic acid (ALA) are needed to form one molecule of heme? - 2 - 4 - 6 - 8

8

8-Hydroxyquinoline and Ortho-Cresolphthalein complex (CPC) reagent is commonly used in the determination of: - Phosphorus - Magnesium - Chloride - Calcium

Calcium

Which of the following media contains the X and V factors necessary for the growth of Haemophilus influenzae? - Thayer-Martin agar - Xylose lysine deoxycholate agar - Chocolate agar - Thiosulfate citrate-bile salts agar

Chocolate agar

Which of these parasites are hermaphroditic in their adult phase? - Clonorchis sinensis - Schistosoma haematobium - Wuchereria bancrofti - Trichuris trichiura

Clonorchis sinensis

In the ABO blood group system, the A antigen is inherited in what relation to the B antigen? - Codominant - Dominant - Recessive - Amorphic

Codominant

Which of the following is least likely to interfere with the measurement of hemoglobin? - Icteric plasma - Lipemia - Cold agglutinin - Leukocytosis

Cold agglutinin

The most highly specific indicator for rheumatoid arthritis is: - Rheumatoid factor - Cyclic citrullinated peptide antibodies (CCP antibodies) - Immune complexes - Complement

Cyclic citrullinated peptide antibodies (CCP antibodies)

What are the three main effects of active vitamin D on the body? - To absorb calcium in the intestines, from bone, and in the kidneys - To absorb calcium and phosphorus in the intestines, from bone and in the kidneys - To excrete calcium and phosphorus in the GI tract, by the kidneys, and by the mineralization of the bone - To excrete calcium in the GI tract, by the kidneys, and by the mineralization of bone

To absorb calcium and phosphorus in the intestines, from bone and in the kidneys

The motile, feeding stage of the amoebas and flagellates is called: - Cysts - Trophozoites - Eggs - Larvae

Trophozoites

All of the following crystals will normally be found in a urine specimen with a pH of 8.0, EXCEPT? - Ammonium biurates - Triple phosphates - Calcium carbonates - Uric acid

Uric acid

All of the following are considered aminoglycoside antibiotics, EXCEPT? - Gentamicin - Tobramycin - Vancomycin - Kanamycin

Vancomycin

When performing an anti-human globulin (AHG) test, it is important to completely wash the red cells because: - Washing eliminates concentrations of unbound antigns - Washing prevents elution of cell-bound antibody - Washing promotes false positive effects of rouleaux - Washing prevents neutralization of the AHG serum

Washing prevents neutralization of the AHG serum

The most common screening test for HbS, the hemoglobin solubility test, is based on which of the following principals? - Decreased solubility of deoxygenated HbS in solution produces visible turbidity - The reduction of iron from the ferrous to the ferric state produces visible turbidity - Increased solubility of deoxygenated HbS in solution produces visible turbidity - The fact that any unstable hemoglobin will result in visible turbidity

Decreased solubility of deoxygenated HbS in solution produces visible turbidity

A Rh negative individual has produced an anti-D antibody. Which situation has the ability to stimulate this production of anti-D? - Delivering a Rh negative baby - Delivering a Rh positive baby - Receiving Rh negative packed red blood cells - Receiving Rh positive fresh frozen plasma

Delivering a Rh positive baby

For which of these reasons would a molecular method NOT be used? - Determine blood type when the DAT is positive - Complex Rh genotypes (weak D expression) - Donor antibody screening - Type fetal blood

Donor antibody screening

There are colonies growing on the surface of a chocolate agar plate. The colonies were recovered from a subcutaneous infection of the forearm and had a bleach odor. The most likely identification is: - Moraxella lacunata - Haemophilus aphrophilus - Eikenella corrodens - Capnocytophaga canimorsus

Eikenella corrodens

Which of the following factors is Vitamin K-dependent? - Factor I - Factor VIII - Factor IX - Factor XI

Factor IX (factors are II, VII, IX, and X)

Which coagulation factor is found only in the extrinsic pathway? - Factor VII - Factor VIII - Factor IX - Factor X

Factor VII

Which of the following will give the best overall picture of a patient's iron stores: - Albumin - Transferrin - Haptoglobin - Ferritin

Ferritin

Which of these methods measures fetal hemoglobin or D positive red cells or both to evaluate fetomaternal hemorrhage? - Rosette test - Kleihauer-Betke test - Flow cytometry - AHG testing

Flow cytometry (Rosette = screening)

All of the following statements about fluorometry are true, EXCEPT: - Fluorometry is more sensitive than spectrophotometry - Both excitation and emission spectra are characteristics of the analyte - Fluorescence is indirectly proportional to the analyte being measured - Fluorometers typically utilize monochromators or optical films

Fluorescence is indirectly proportional to the analyte being measured

What is the ultimate goal of secondary hemostasis? - Formation of a platelet plug - Production of coagulation factors - Formation of a fibrin clot - Dissolution of the fibrin clot

Formation of a fibrin clot

Which of the following is true of genotype screening in pharmacogenomics? - Genotype screening gives a better overall picture of drug metabolism than measuring metabolism with probe drugs - Genotyping does not take into account drug interactions which can affect metabolism - Genotyping typically involves measuring only one mutation site or polymorphism - Genotyping has no known impact on drug metabolism

Genotyping does not take into account drug interactions which can affect metabolism

Which of the following statements reflect accurate identifications of Enterococcus species? - Gram positive cocci in chains, catalase negative, esculin positive, PYR negative: Enterococcus spp - Gram positive cocci in pairs, catalase negative, esculin positive, PYR positive, vancomycin intermediate, nonmotile, nonpigmented: Enterococcus gallinarum - Gram positive cocci in pairs or chains, catalase negative, black colonies on bile esculin agar, no growth in 6.5% salt broth: Enterococcus spp - Gram positive cocci in pairs or chains, catalase negative, esculin positive, PYR positive, vancomycin intermediate, motile, yellow pigment: Enterococcus casseliflavus

Gram positive cocci in pairs or chains, catalase negative, esculin positive, PYR positive, vancomycin intermediate, motile, yellow pigment: Enterococcus casseliflavus

All of the following descriptions about Pasteurella species are true, EXCEPT: - Forms large amounts of indole - Grows well on MacConkey agar - Many infections are caused by domestic animals - P. multocida is the species most frequently isolated from humans

Grows well on MacConkey agar (Pasteurella grows well on SBA and Chocolate)

What sero-marker is the first marker to become positive in Hepatitis B and is associated with the infective stage? - HBc antibody - HBe antigen - HBs antigen - Hbs antibody

HBs antigen

Which situation will cause a positive DAT in a newborn? - Hemolytic disease of the fetus and newborn - Mother is group AB and newborn is group O - Mother is Rh positive and newborn is Rh positive - Mother is Rh positive and newborn is Rh negative

Hemolytic disease of the fetus and newborn

Specimens for blood gas determination should be drawn into a syringe containing: - No additive - Heparin - EDTA - Sodium citrate

Heparin

For transfusion services in the United States, which of the following incidents must be reported to the Food and Drug Administration (FDA) because of a biological product deviation? - Incident A: A unit was issued with an incorrect expiration date. The expiration date was incorrectly marked as one day earlier than the actual expiration date - Incident B: A nurse in the ICU misidentified the patient and initiated the transfusion of Rh positive blood to an Rh negative patient - Incident C: The wrong specimen was used to crossmatch a unit and the unit was issued - Incident D: Donor reports information that is disqualifying based on revised questions. Previous collected units were distributed.

Incident C: The wrong specimen was used to crossmatch a unit and the unit was issued

The classic TORCH panel of tests includes the following diseases with the exception of: - Rubella - Toxoplasma gondii - Infectious mononucleosis - Cytomegalovirus

Infectious mononucleosis

Which of the following types of influenza tends to be more severe than the others? - Influenza A - Influenza B - Influenza C - Influenza D

Influenza A

A characteristic of a good cardiac biomarker is that: - It can be detected only if it is present in a HIGH concentration in the peripheral blood - It can be detected even if it is present in a LOW concentration in the peripheral blood - It can be detected if it is present in a HIGH concentration in urine - It can be detected even if it is present in a LOW concentration in urine

It can be detected even if it is present in a LOW concentration in the peripheral blood

Which one of the following statements about E.coli O157:H7 is FALSE? - It has been reported in contaminated unpasteurized milk, unpasteurized apple juice, and undercooked hamburger - It can cause hemolytic-uremic syndrome (HUS) in children - It causes hemorrhagic diarrhea, abdominal pain, and other symptoms - It ferments sorbitol rapidly

It ferments sorbitol rapidly (O157:H7 is sorbitol negative)

The immunoglobulin molecule is made up of both heavy and light chains. The light chains can be comprised of which of the following? - Alpha or beta - Alpha or lambda - Kappa or beta - Kappa or lambda

Kappa or lambda (Heavy chain = alpha and beta Light chain = kappa and lambda)

Buffered Charcoal Yeast Extract (BCYE) is the nonselective solid culture medium used for the primary recovery of: - Treponema pallidum - Mycoplasma pneumoniae - Legionella pneumophila - Spirillum minus

Legionella pneumophila

Which one of the following adipocyte products is an important messenger in metabolism, signaling the hypothalamus that there are changes in fat stores? - Leptin - Resistin - IL-6 - Angiotensinogen

Leptin

If a patient has a white blood count of 40,000/uL, what would be the most useful staining procedure to distinguish between bacterial infection and chronic myelogenous leukemia (CML)? - Wright's stain - Peroxidase - Alpha-naphthyl acetate - Leukocyte alkaline phosphatase (LAP)

Leukocyte alkaline phosphatase

Nephelometry involves the measurement of: - Light scatter - Atomic absorption - Light absorption - Light transmission

Light scatter

Which term listed below refers to the process that must be followed when notification is received that a donor of a unit transfused now tests positive for an infectious disease? - Look-back - Donor notification - Minor crossmatch - Major crossmatch

Look-back

Which of the following characteristics can be seen in the microcytes present in some hemolytic disorders? - Diameter 7.5 um - Spherocytosis - MVC 90 fL - Hypochromasia

Spherocytosis

A WBC differential count on CSF should be performed using the following technique: - Wet mount of sample from collection tube - Stained smear of a cytocentrifuged specimen - Directly from hemocytometer chamber count - Directly from stained hemocytometer count

Stained smear of a cytocentrifuged specimen

A presumptive identification of a bacterial species can often be made by observing the type of hemolysis when grown on 5% sheep's blood agar. Which of the following organisms is nearly always alpha hemolytic? - Streptococcus pyogenes - Streptococcus pneumoniae - Enterococcus spp - Streptococcus agalactiae

Streptococcus pneumoniae

Severe combined immunodeficiency (SCID) is characterized by all of the following immunodeficiencies EXCEPT: - T-cell reduction or dysfunction - B-cell reduction or dysfunction - Natural Killer (NK) cell reduction - A deficiency of stem cells

A deficiency of stem cells

When the body compensates for a respiratory or metabolic disorder, the MAIN goal is to achieve: - A normal pH - Normal p02 and pCo2 for normal respiration - Correct bicarbonate level, since it is the most important system in the body - Correct carbonic acid level, since it is the most important system in the body

A normal pH

What is the composition of basophilic stippling? - Aggregation of DNA - Aggregation of hemoglobin - Aggregation of ribosomes - Aggregation of iron

Aggregation of ribosomes

The reagent strip method for protein primarily tests for which type of protein ? - Globulin - Bence-Jones protein - Albumin - Mucoprotein

Albumin

Hormonal variation throughout the menstrual cycle typically shows: - An abrupt rise in luteinizing hormone (LH) 3-36 hours prior to ovulation - Progesterone peaking at ovulation then falling - Estrogen peaking at ovulation then falling - An abrupt decrease of LH 3-36 hours prior to ovulation

An abrupt rise in luteinizing hormone (LH) 3-36 hours prior to ovulation

If detected in antibody screen testing, which of the following antibodies is NOT considered clinically significant in prenatal patients? - Anti-M - Anti-N - Anti-Leb - Anti-Fya

Anti-Leb

All of the following are likely the causes of an abnormal thrombin time (TT) EXCEPT: - Fibrin split products - Heparin - Aspirin - Dysfibrinogenemia

Aspirin (It affects platelet function, not thrombin time)

C-reactive protein (CRP) is often used as a marker of inflammation. However, it also has a low ___________. - Sensitivity - Specificity - Accuracy - Precision

Specificity

Acridine orange is used to detect the presence of which of the following? - Parasites - Viruses - Bacteria - Molds

Bacteria

What is the most common infective agent to be transmitted through blood transfusion that results in morbidity and mortality? - Bacteria - HIV - Hepatitis A virus (HAV) - Malarial parasites

Bacteria

In a case involving actual lead poisoning, what would a technologist expect to find on a Wright-stained blood smear? - Reticulocytes - Spherocytes - Basophilic stippling - Cabot rings

Basophilic stippling

Which of the following enzymes, produced by Staphylococcus aureus is responsible for preventing penicillin antibiotics from being effective? - Beta-lactamase - Coagulase - Catalase - Hyaluronidase

Beta-lactamase

Carbon dioxide is predominantly found in the blood in the form of: - Bound CO2 - Bicarbonate ions - Sodium carbonate - pCO2

Bicarbonate ions

Performing quantitative cultures on bronchoalveolar lavage and protected brush specimens are better than performing routine semi-quantitative cultures because in quantitative cultures there should be which of the following? - Low numbers of contaminating normal respiratory flora and colonizing organisms and higher numbers of potential pathogens - Low numbers of contaminating normal respiratory flora and colonizing organisms and low numbers of potential pathogens - High numbers of contaminating normal respiratory flora and colonizing organisms and higher numbers of potential pathogens - High numbers of contaminating normal respiratory flora and colonizing organisms and lower numbers of potential pathogens

Low numbers of contaminating normal respiratory flora and colonizing organisms and higher numbers of potential pathogens

Almost all individuals possess which Lutheran antigen profile? - Lu(a-b-) - Lu(a+b-) - Lu(a-b+) - Lu(a+b+)

Lu(a-b+)

The presence of an increased number of hypersegmented neutrophils in the peripheral blood is an indication of which of the following conditions? - Preleukemia - Megaloblastic anemia - Aplastic anemia - Myeloproliferative disorder

Megaloblastic anemia

Which of the following is an example of a desirable characteristic of a Point of Care Testing (POTC) analyzer? - Complex to use and requires extensive training - Method accuracy and comparability to the main laboratory method - Stationary, unable to transport - Manual patient ID entry

Method accuracy and comparability to the main laboratory method

A 67 year old homeless man was seen in the ambulatory clinic for chest pain and sputum production. A mycobacterial culture showed the following: rough, non-pigmented colonies, which grew after two weeks at 35*C and failed to grow at other temperatures, serpentine cording, a strongly positive niacin test, nitrate reduction, and loss of catalase activity after heating at 68*C in pH 7. What is the most likely identification? - Mycobacterium bovis - Mycobacterium intracellulare - Mycobacterium kansasii - Mycobacterium tuberculosis

Mycobacterium tuberculosis

Which organisms/conditions would be classified as Biosafety Level 3 agents? - Mycobacterium tuberculosis and Coxiella burnetti - Marburg virus and Congo-Crimean hemorrhagic fever - Bacillus subtilis and Naegleria gruberi - HIV and Hepatitis B Virus

Mycobacterium tuberculosis and Coxiella burnetti

Which of the following cells are considered abnormal and clinically significant on a CSF differential? - Ependymal - Myeloblast - Pia arachnoid mesothelial - Choroidal cells

Myeloblast

The following steps were used in a procedure to identify M. kansasii: 1. Extraction 2. Denaturization 3. Hybridization 4. Hydrolysis of excess reagent 5. Detection of acridinium ester Which of the following methods has been described? - Polymerase chain reaction - Indirect fluorescent microscopy - Nucleic acid probes - Lysis-centrifugation

Nucleic acid probes

A male patient's urea nitrogen value is 15 mg/dL and his creatinine is 5 mg/dL. If this patient is not undergoing dialysis, what conclusion would you draw from these results? - Patients laboratory results are normal - Patient is in early stage of renal disease - One of the values is in error - Patient has suffered muscle deterioration

One of the values is in error (Urea nitrogen = 6-20 and Creatinine is .6-1.2 and ratio is between 10:1 or 20:1)

Which EBV markers would be MOST likely positive for an individual who had infectious mononucleosis nine years ago? - All markers will remain positive - Only anti-viral capsid antigen (VCA) - IgM and heterophile are positive - Only anti-VCA (IgG) and anti-Epstein-Barr nuclear antigen (EBNA) are positive - None of the markers would be positive after nine years

Only anti-VCA (IgG) and anti-Epstein-Barr nuclear antigen (EBNA) are positive

If a father carried the Xga allele, to which of his children will he pass it along? - Only to his sons - Only to his daughters - To all of his children - Each child has the same probability of inheriting it

Only to his daughters

Which patient population benefits from HLA matching to provide patients with the best outcomes? - Transfusion recipients - Organ transplant recipients - Neonates - Patients with high-incidence antibodies

Organ transplant recipients

Which of the following is considered an indication for Rh immunoglobulin (RhIG) administration in postpartum women? - Long term protection - Antibody blocking - Passive protection - Active immunity

Passive protection

Which of the following is a common contaminant that first rapidly produces white growth and then becomes powdery, bluish-green growth? The microscopic examination shows spore-bearing hyphae that characteristically form a brush with unbranched conidia arising from sterigmata that are arranged in whorls. - Aspergillus - Penicillium - Fusarium - Rhizopus

Penicillium

Which of the following is considered the major transport protein for Vitamin A? - Transthyretin - Retinol-binding protein - Transferrin - Haptoglobin

Retinol-binding protein

Which of the following is an important technique consideration in order to obtain consistently high quality bone marrow smears? - Use the largest drop of marrow possible for each slide - Do not prepare the slides at the patient bedside - Select or concentrate bone marrow spicules, ensuring they are transferred to the slide - Only make one slide

Select or concentrate bone marrow spicules, ensuring they are transferred to the slide

All of the following Enterobacteriaceae below are appropriately match with the characteristic listed, EXCEPT: - Escherichia coli - indole positive - Citrobacter freundii - H2S positive - Serratia marscens - Vouges-Proskauer negative - Klebsiella pneumoniae - indole negative

Serratia marscens - Vouges-Proskauer negative