Mock 3
Arrange the following answers in order, beginning with the most appropriate course of action and ending with the least. Your patient speaks very little English, seems to understand some, but is not able to answer the questions you ask while trying to obtain her medical history. She is accompanied by her daughter, who is about ten, and speaks English well. Unordered List Ask the daughter to translate for her mother Speak loudly and slowly so that the patient can understand more of what you are saying Reschedule for a time the patient can return with a family translator who is over 18 Reschedule in order to have a medical interpreter present
1.Reschedule in order to have a medical interpreter present 2. Reschedule for a time the patient can return with a family translator who is over 18 3. Speak loudly and slowly so that the patient can understand more of what you are saying 4. Ask the daughter to translate for her mother
Shorter pulse length/duration in pulsed fluoroscopy has the following advantage(s) 1. Improved resolution 2. Higher SNR 3. Decreased patient dose 4. Improved temporal resolution A 1 and 3 only B 1 and 4 only C 2 and 3 only D 2 and 4 only
A 1 and 3 only
The PA projection of the sternoclavicular joints demonstrates: 1. Jugular notch 2. Lateral end of clavicle 3. Acromioclavicular joint A 1 only B 2 only C 2 and 3 only D 1, 2, and 3
A 1 only
The lateromedial lateral projection of the elbow requires that the 1. humeral epicondyles are parallel to the CR 2. humeral epicondyles are parallel to the IR 3. humeral epicondyles are perpendicular to the CR A 1 only B 1 and 2 only C 2 and 3 only D 1, 2, and 3
A 1 only
The left lateral projection of the sternum requires the CR to enter: 1. Perpendicular to IR 2. Parallel to sternum 3. Midway between jugular notch and sternal angle A 1 only B 2 only C 1 and 3 only D 2 and 3 only
A 1 only
What is the NCRP recommended minimum total filtration for x-ray equipment operating above 70 kV p? A 2.5 -mm aluminum equivalent B 1.5 - mm aluminum equivalent C 0.5 - mm aluminum equivalent D 2.0 - mm aluminum equivalent
A 2.5 -mm aluminum equivalent
To demonstrate the zygomatic arches free of superimposition, the AP axial projection, otherwise known as the modified Towne method can be utilized. For this position, which CR angulation is utilized? A 30° caudad B 45° caudad C 30° cephalic D 45° cephalic
A 30° caudad
The NCRP recommends that the annual occupational exposure to the hands, feet, and skin not exceed A 500 mSv B 150 mSv C 100 mSv D 50 mSv
A 500 mSv
In digital radiography, a pixel that is 16 bits deep means that it can display A 65,536 gray tones B High spatial resolution C A lower signal -to-noise ratio than with 10 bit depth pixels D 256 gray tones
A 65,536 gray tones
Which projection of the elbow best shows the trochlea in profile? A AP oblique medial rotation B Lateral C AP oblique lateral rotation D AP partial flexion
A AP oblique medial rotation
The following are safe injection practices according to the Centers for Disease Control (Select the three that apply). A Administer medication from single-dose vials whenever possible. B Wear a surgical mask when injecting into the subdural space or spinal canal. C When administering medication from one syringe to multiple patients, change the needle between each patient. D Discard multi-dose vials if the sterility is in question. E Keep multi-dose vials in patient treatment area at all times
A Administer medication from single-dose vials whenever possible. B Wear a surgical mask when injecting into the subdural space or spinal canal. D Discard multi-dose vials if the sterility is in question.
The purpose of the amorphous silicon photodiode in an indirect capture digital radiography system is to A Allow the current produced to flow in only one direction B Redirect light produced to a photomultiplier tube C Convert x-ray energy to light energy D Determine the histogram appropriate for the anatomical part being examined
A Allow the current produced to flow in only one direction
When positioning for an upright abdomen projection, where should the top of the imaging receptor be aligned? A Axilla B Xyphoid process C T12 D Jugular notch
A Axilla
The SSD in stationary/fixed fluoroscopy must A Be at least 38 cm B Not to exceed 38 cm C Not be less than 30 cm D Not exceed 30 cm
A Be at least 38 cm
Which of the following devices allow for the limitation of the beam to the area of clinical interest? A Collimator B Grid C Lead shields D Compensating Filter
A Collimator
Image quantum noise is caused by A Deficient mAs B Scattered photons C Excessive edge enhancement D Small metallic objects in the anatomical part being radiographed
A Deficient mAs
The AP oblique medial rotation projection of the knee demonstrates the following anatomical structures except: A Distal tibiofibular joint B Lateral femoral condyle C Neck of fibula D Patella
A Distal tibiofibular joint
Which of the following would be considered a potential disadvantage of CR vs. conventional/analog radiography? A Dose creep B Increased spatial resolution C Decreased IP fogging due to background radiation D Increased latitude
A Dose creep
Which of the following are possible complications of barium escaping from the gastrointestinal tract in to the peritoneum or vascular system? (Select the three that apply) A Embolus production B Allergic reaction C Peritonitis D Constipation E Formation of a barium granuloma
A Embolus production C Peritonitis E Formation of a barium granuloma
Post-processing a digital radiographic image using electronic masking would result in which of the following? A Enhanced visualization of the edges of the anatomical structures B Magnification of the radiographic image C Radiation dosage to the patient D Improved spatial resolution
A Enhanced visualization of the edges of the anatomical structures
For patients with an increased cervical lordotic curve, how should the angulation be adjusted on the AP axial projection of the cervical spine? A Increase by 5° B Decrease by 5° C Increase by 10° D Decrease by 10°
A Increase by 5°
Which of the following emergency medications can be used as vasoconstrictors in an emergency response to a severe allergic reaction to iodinated contrast media? (Select the three that apply) A Isoproterenol B Furosemide C Alprazolam D Epinephrine E Dopamine F Warfarin sodium
A Isoproterenol D Epinephrine E Dopamine
Where does the CR exit for a PA axial projection of the mandible? A Junction of lips B Acanthion C Nasion D Midlateral orbital margin
A Junction of lips
The number of ionizations occurring along the path of the x-ray photons refers to A LET B RBE C LNT D ALARA
A LET
During the "over-head" imaging portion of a barium enema examination, which position best demonstrates the right colic (hepatic) flexure? A LPO B RPO C Ventral decubitus lateral D LAO
A LPO
Which of the following would be considered a disadvantage of an indirect capture digital system compared to a direct capture digital system? A Lower MTF B Higher MTF C Smaller number of detectors D Limited field size
A Lower MTF
In the following list, identify the three procedures that are NOT covered by consent given by the patient at the time of hospital admission. A Myelogram B Spinal facet injection C Stress views of the ankle D Arteriogram E Scoliosis series F Acute abdominal series
A Myelogram B Spinal facet injection D Arteriogram
The layer of a PSP that is responsible for trapping electrons in F-centers during an exposure is called the A Phosphor layer B Protective layer C Reflective layer D Backing layer
A Phosphor layer
During post-processing of a digital radiographic image, the radiographer may increase the window width to change image contrast. This action does not change which of the following? A Pixel bit depth B Image contrast C Image visibility D A more black and white image to one with more gray tones
A Pixel bit depth
Which of the following is a formula to determine pixel size? A Pixel size = FOV/matrix size B Pixel size = ½ x sampling frequency C Pixel size = matrix size/bit depth D Pixel size = pixel pitch/2
A Pixel size = FOV/matrix size
Select the three correct statements from those listed below A Potential biologic effects increase as LET increases B Double strand DNA breaks occur with low LET radiation C The presence of oxygen increases tissue radiosensitivity D The direct effect is associated with formation of free radicals E Point mutations are not repairable F RBE increases as LET increases
A Potential biologic effects increase as LET increases C The presence of oxygen increases tissue radiosensitivity F RBE increases as LET increases
Which of the following statements are true with respect to reducing patient dose? (Select the four correct responses) A Protective shielding can be used to reduce exposure to radiosensitive tissues B Gonadal shielding should be used when the reproductive organs are within 5 cm of the primary beam if diagnostic objectives permit C Protective shielding can be used to compensate for inadequate beam restriction D Gonadal shielding for females can reduce gonadal dose by 50% E Higher mAs and lower kV values help to reduce patient dose F Dose to breast tissue is lower in AP projections than in PA projections G Gonadal shielding for males can reduce dose up to 95%
A Protective shielding can be used to reduce exposure to radiosensitive tissues B Gonadal shielding should be used when the reproductive organs are within 5 cm of the primary beam if diagnostic objectives permit D Gonadal shielding for females can reduce gonadal dose by 50% G Gonadal shielding for males can reduce dose up to 95%
You and one assistant receive an average size female patient on a gurney with possible spinal injury. You must transfer her to the exam table to complete her imaging exams. Which would be the best choice of transfer methods in this situation? A Sliding or "smoothie" board B Log roll method C Sheet transfer D Allow the patient to move herself if she is able
A Sliding or "smoothie" board
Review the following group of transmission-based precautions and identify the diseases that would require the following precautions: standard precautions, private room, negative air-pressure ventilation, N95 respirator for health care workers in contact with the patient, surgical mask is worn by patient when he or she is transferred outside of the negative air-pressure room. (Select the four that apply) A Small pox B Influenza C Varicella (chicken pox) D Rubeola E Sudden acute respiratory syndrome (SARS) F Ebola
A Small pox C Varicella (chicken pox) D Rubeola E Sudden acute respiratory syndrome (SARS)
Spatial resolution in a direct digital radiography system is determined by the A TFT detector element size B Signal-to-noise ratio C Detective quantum efficiency D Pixel bit depth
A TFT detector element size
Select the 3 correct statements regarding the Bucky slot cover A The Bucky slot cover is a hinged metal arm attached to the Bucky tray B The Bucky slot cover is in place when the Bucky tray is positioned at the foot of the x-ray table C The Bucky slot cover must have at least 0.5 mm Pb equiv D The Bucky slot cover reduces occupational gonadal dose E The Bucky slot cover increases patient dose
A The Bucky slot cover is a hinged metal arm attached to the Bucky tray B The Bucky slot cover is in place when the Bucky tray is positioned at the foot of the x-ray table D The Bucky slot cover reduces occupational gonadal dose
Which three statements are true regarding the lateral projection of the lumbar spine? A The MSP is parallel to the tabletop. B The pedicles are well visualized. C Vertebral foramina are well visualized. D The midcoronal plane is aligned with the midline of the grid E Zygapophyseal articulations nearest the IR are well demonstrated F The CR is usually angled 5-8° cephalad if the spine cannot be adjusted horizontally
A The MSP is parallel to the tabletop. B The pedicles are well visualized. D The midcoronal plane is aligned with the midline of the grid
Select the 3 incorrect statements regarding the cervical spine: A The atlas (C1) is a ring-shaped bone having a body and spinous process B The atlas is composed of anterior and posterior arches, 2 lateral masses, and 2 transverse processes. C The superior articular processes of C2 articulate with the skull at the atlanto-occipital joint D The axis (C2) has a superior projection, the dens, or odontoid process E The atlanto-occipital joint is a pivot joint F Typical cervical vertebrae have transverse foramina for passage of the vertebral arteries and veins G Cervical spinous processes are usually bifid H The axis articulates superiorly with the atlas at the atlantoaxial joint
A The atlas (C1) is a ring-shaped bone having a body and spinous process C The superior articular processes of C2 articulate with the skull at the atlanto-occipital joint E The atlanto-occipital joint is a pivot joint
A histogram graph demonstrates A The darkest gray values at right B The brightest values at right C Only the highest central brightness values D The brightness values on the y-axis and the number of brightness values for each part of the anatomical image on the x-axis
A The darkest gray values at right
Which three statements are true regarding x-ray intensity? A X-ray beam intensity refers to the number of x-ray photons in the useful beam B X-ray intensity regulates beam penetrability C X-ray beam intensity is measured in mGya D The quantity of x-ray photons is proportional to mAs E X-ray intensity is directly proportional to the square of the distance from the source F X-ray beam intensity is proportional to kV
A X-ray beam intensity refers to the number of x-ray photons in the useful beam C X-ray beam intensity is measured in mGya D The quantity of x-ray photons is proportional to mAs
Select the three correct statements regarding the x-ray tube anode A an induction motor rotates the anode B the anode is the negative electrode C the two parts of an induction motor are its stator and rotor D the anode rotates about 3600 RPM E the anode is heated by 3-5 A into 10-12 V F molybdenum is added to the focal track to help prevent pitting
A an induction motor rotates the anode C the two parts of an induction motor are its stator and rotor D the anode rotates about 3600 RPM
Guidelines for the use of protective shielding state that gonadal shielding should be used when (select the four correct completions) A imaging pediatric patients B the gonads are within 5 cm of the x-ray beam C the patient has a reasonable reproductive potential D collimation is not possible/feasible E diagnostic considerations permit
A imaging pediatric patients B the gonads are within 5 cm of the x-ray beam C the patient has a reasonable reproductive potential E diagnostic considerations permit
According to the Centers for Disease Control (CDC), how should waste that contains trace amounts (less than 3% of weight by original quantity, ex. empty vials) of chemotherapy drugs be disposed of? A in yellow waste containers B in red waste containers C in a waste bin D in a sharps container
A in yellow waste containers
Select the three essential requirements for x-ray production from those listed below A thermionic emission B solid state rectifiers C electron acceleration D induction motor E high-speed rotation F electron deceleration G source of direct-current
A thermionic emission C electron acceleration F electron deceleration
A megabyte is equal to: A 1,000,000 bytes B 1,000 bytes C 1,000,000,000 bytes D 1,000,000,000,000 bytes
A 1,000,000 bytes
Which of the following needle sizes has the largest bore? A 18-gauge B 20 -gauge C 22-gauge D 26-gauge
A 18-gauge
Which of the following environmental factors can reduce optimal image contrast while viewing an anatomical image on a monitor? A Ambient light B Pixel pitch C Scatter radiation D Room temperature
A Ambient light
Identify the 4 objective/physical signs below A Diaphoresis B Febrile C Pain level described by patient D Blood pressure E Rapid pulse F Patient description of anxiety
A Diaphoresis B Febrile D Blood pressure E Rapid pulse
Select the 5 correct examples of non-verbal communication A Eye contact B Using non-medical terminology C Orderly work area D Smile E Gentle touch F Speaking in a moderate tone G Neat personal appearance
A Eye contact C Orderly work area D Smile E Gentle touch
The area of anatomical information displayed in a matrix is determined by the A Field of view B Pixel size C Dynamic range D The number of bits in each pixel
A Field of view
The following symptoms are characteristic of what type of seizure? Symptoms: rigid muscles and arching of back, jerky and irregular body movements, possible vomiting, froth or blood streaked saliva from the mouth, urinary or fecal incontinence. A Generalized B Complex partial C Simple partial D Syncope
A Generalized
A larger number of pixels in the digital matrix image produces A Increased spatial resolution B Decreased spatial resolution C Increased contrast D Increased image brightness
A Increased spatial resolution
If a disease-causing microorganism is transmitted from one patient to another by means of an improperly cleaned instrument, the means of transmission is: A Indirect contact B Direct contact C Vehicle D Vector E Droplet contact
A Indirect contact
Which of the following cell types is related to bone building and calcification? A Osteoblasts B Chondroblasts C Osteocytes D Osteoclasts
A Osteoblasts
Which of the following describes a comminuted fracture of the distal finger or thumb? A Boxer fracture B Monteggia fracture C Tuft fracture D Pott fracture
C Tuft fracture
The bones that articulate with the occipital bone include 1. Temporal bones 2. Parietal bones 3. Ethmoid bone A 1 only B 1 and 2 only C 2 and 3 only D 1, 2, and 3
B 1 and 2 only
The principal stochastic effects of low-dose radiation received over a long period of time include the following 1. Genetic effects 2. Radiation induced malignancy 3. Cataract formation A 1 only B 1 and 2 only C 1 and 3 only D 1, 2, and 3
B 1 and 2 only
The thoracic spine articulates with the ribs at the 1. Costovertebral articulation 2. Costotransverse articulation 3. Vertebrosternal articulation A 1 only B 1 and 2 only C 2 and 3 only D 1, 2, and 3
B 1 and 2 only
Which of the following is true regarding the AP weight-bearing bilateral knee projection? 1. The patient should be positioned with feet straight forward 2. Weight should be evenly distributed to both feet 3. The CR should be angled 10° cephalic for thin patients A 1 only B 1 and 2 only C 1 and 3 only D 1, 2, and 3
B 1 and 2 only
Which of the following projections are typically included in a rib series to rule out pneumothorax? 1. PA chest 2. Lateral chest 3. AP chest in lateral decubitus position A 1 only B 1 and 2 only C 2 and 3 only D 1, 2, and 3
B 1 and 2 only
Which of the following statements is (are) true regarding the oblique projection of the cervical spine? 1. The MSP is 45° to the IR 2. The vertebral foramina are well visualized 3. The pedicles are well visualized A 1 and 2 only B 1 and 3 only C 2 and 3 only D 1, 2, and 3
B 1 and 3 only
The annual whole body dose equivalent limit to the general public is A 0.5 mSv B 1 mSv C 5 mSv D 50 mSv
B 1 mSv
Any occupational worker who may potentially be exposed to ______ or more of the effective dose limits must be monitored to determine estimated exposure. A 15% B 10% C Half D ¼
B 10%
Advantages of fewer fluoroscopic pulse/second sequences include 1. Less image noise 2. Lower patient dose 3. Less x-ray tube wear and tear 4. Greater temporal resolution A 1 and 2 only B 2 and 3 only C 1, 2, and 3 only D 1, 3, and 4 only
B 2 and 3 only
In the small bowel series, which time interval usually demonstrates barium reaching the ileocecal valve? A 1 hour B 2 hours C 3 hours D 4 hours
B 2 hours
Which of the following is true regarding alternative positioning for the lumbar spine: 1. Positioning the patient prone for a PA projection brings the intervertebral joint spaces more perpendicular to divergent rays 2. Performing the AP lumbar erect demonstrates natural positioning of the spine 3. Extension of the knees in the AP supine position allows for opening of the intervertebral joint spaces A 1 only B 2 only C 1 and 3 only D 2 and 3 only
B 2 only
Which of the following techniques could be used to depress the shoulders on lateral cervical spine imaging: 1. Suspend respiration on full inspiration 2. Utilize 5-10lb weights around each wrist 3. Clasp hands behind back to pull shoulders backward A 1 only B 2 only C 1 and 3 only D 1, 2, and 3
B 2 only
When a patient is complaining of posterior rib pain above the diaphragm, where should the CR enter on the AP projection? A The jugular notch B 3 to 4 inches below the jugular notch C At the xyphoid process D 2 inches below the xyphoid process
B 3 to 4 inches below the jugular notch
To increase chance of survival of sudden cardiac arrest to 50%, defibrillation must occur within what time frame? A 1-2 minutes from collapse B 3-5 minutes from collapse C 6-8 minutes from collapse D 10-15 minutes from collapse
B 3-5 minutes from collapse
Which projection is ideal to separate the loops of the rectosigmoid region in a barium enema? A Ventral decubitus lateral B AP axial C Left lateral decubitus D LPO
B AP axial
An elderly patient comes into the ER following a fall. The patient's elbow is swollen and she is unable to fully extend her arm. How should an AP projection of the elbow be obtained? A Coyle method B AP partial flexion projections C AP with perpendicular CR D External oblique projection
B AP partial flexion projections
Which of the following areas or items are considered sterile when surgical asepsis is necessary? (Select the two that apply) A 2 inches below the sterile table top B An inch above the sterile person's waist C The cuffs of the sterile gown D The outward facing (when opened) edges of a sterile wrapper E The sleeves of the sterile gown in the forearm area F The sleeve of the sterile gown from shoulder to elbow
B An inch above the sterile person's waist E The sleeves of the sterile gown in the forearm area
Which of the following increases the risk of falling when a patient is moved from a wheelchair to an exam table? (Select the three that apply) A Locking the wheels of the wheelchair B An unnoticed urinary collection bag C Orthostatic hypotension D Using face-to-face assisted transfer E Placing the wheelchair perpendicular to the table
B An unnoticed urinary collection bag C Orthostatic hypotension E Placing the wheelchair perpendicular to the table
A patient receiving which of the following drug therapies is most susceptible to the healthcare associated infection (HAI) Clostridium difficile? A Laxatives B Antibiotics C Anticoagulants D Non-iodinated contrast media
B Antibiotics
Select the three phrases below that are associated with deterministic effects: A Have no threshold dose B Are predictable C Proportional to dose received D Characterized by linear dose responses E Increasing in number past two decades
B Are predictable C Proportional to dose received E Increasing in number past two decades
The plantodorsal axial projection of the calcaneus requires the CR to enter: A 1 inch above base of third metatarsal B At the base of the third metatarsal C 1 inch below base of third metatarsal D 1 inch below head of third metatarsal
B At the base of the third metatarsal
The higher the sampling frequency and the smaller the pixel pitch, the A Better the contrast resolution B Better the spatial resolution C Less detective quantum efficiency present D Less the patient exposure
B Better the spatial resolution
The type of interaction between x-ray photons and matter that does not involve ionization is A Compton interaction B Coherent interaction C Characteristic interaction D Photoelectric interaction
B Coherent interaction
What form of filtering amplifies high frequencies to increase contrast of large structures? A Smoothing B Edge enhancement C Window level D Window width
B Edge enhancement
Which group of symptoms are that of a moderate allergic reaction to contrast media? A Erythema, hypotension, and urticaria B Erythema, urticaria, and bronchospasm C Bronchospasm, bradycardia, and dysphasia D Coughing, nausea, and bronchospasm
B Erythema, urticaria, and bronchospasm
Select the 3 correct statements regarding x-ray beam protective filtration A Equipment operated above 70 kV must have at least 3.5 mm Al equivalent. B Filtration removes low-energy x-rays from primary beam, thereby reducing patient skin dose C Filtration removes low-energy x-rays from primary beam, thereby decreasing the average energy of the beam. D Filtration is usually expressed in millimeter of Pb equivalent. E Filtration removes low-energy x-rays from primary beam, thereby increasing the average energy of the beam. F Filters are built into the x-ray tube construction or added to the x-ray tube
B Filtration removes low-energy x-rays from primary beam, thereby reducing patient skin dose E Filtration removes low-energy x-rays from primary beam, thereby increasing the average energy of the beam. F Filters are built into the x-ray tube construction or added to the x-ray tube
The risk of occupational exposure is more significant in which 3 of the following? A Lumbar spine imaging B General fluoroscopy C Scoliosis series D Mobile imaging E Interventional procedures
B General fluoroscopy D Mobile imaging E Interventional procedures
What is the unit of radiation exposure that expresses air kerma in J/kg? A Gyt B Gya C Rad D Sv
B Gya
All the following statements regarding x-ray production are true, except: A X-ray production efficiency is independent of tube current B High-speed electron interaction with inner shell target atoms results in Brems radiation C X-ray production efficiency increases with increasing kV D Heat production increases with increasing kV
B High-speed electron interaction with inner shell target atoms results in Brems radiation
In digital fluoroscopy, a charge-coupled device A Replaces the film used in a conventional fluoroscopy unit B Is used instead of a camera in a conventional fluoroscopy unit C Eliminates electronic noise in the image D Minimizes the analog image produced at the input phosphor
B Is used instead of a camera in a conventional fluoroscopy unit
If a digital radiographic image is produced of a patient's body part and the radiographer did not collimate as closely as would be preferred prior to the exposure, the radiographer should do which of the following during post-processing of the image? A Use digital masking (shuttering) on the image prior to sending it to the radiologist B Leave all exposed areas of the anatomy visible on the final image sent to the radiologist C Repeat the projection with optimal collimation, then submit the image to the radiologist D Use the smoothing function to eliminate scatter fog in the image prior to submitting the image to the radiologist
B Leave all exposed areas of the anatomy visible on the final image sent to the radiologist
The following are clinical indications for the lateromedial projection of the wrist except: A Colle's fracture B March fracture C Smith's fracture D Barton's fracture
B March fracture
The anatomy best demonstrated in the posterior oblique pelvis, Judet method includes the following except: A Anterior rim of acetabulum on the downside B Posterior rim of acetabulum on downside C Obturator foramen on upside D Elongated iliac wing on downside
B Posterior rim of acetabulum on downside
The following abnormalities are indications for the dorsal decubitus position of the abdomen except: A Aortic calcifications B Renal calculi C Umbilical hernias D Abdominal aneurysms
B Renal calculi
Which is the most radioresistant stage of the cell cycle? A G1 B S C G2 D M
B S
The material responsible for converting x-ray energy to light energy in an indirect digital radiography system is called the A Photoconductor B Scintillator C CCD D Photomultiplier (photodetector)
B Scintillator
The basic methods of radiation protection are: A Collimation, time, no repeats B Shielding, time, distance C Collimation, distance, gonadal shielding D Time, distance, collimation
B Shielding, time, distance
Which three statements are true regarding the inferosuperior axial projection of the shoulder? A The medial portion of the coracoid processes demonstrated B The affected arm must be abducted at least 20° C More CR angulation is required with greater arm abduction D The humerus of the affected side is externally rotated E The CR is directed medially 15 to 30° F The greater tubercle is demonstrated in profile
B The affected arm must be abducted at least 20° D The humerus of the affected side is externally rotated E The CR is directed medially 15 to 30°
For the superioinferior tangential (axial) projection of the nasal bones, the IR is placed at an angle underneath the chin. Which of the cranial positioning lines must the IR be in a perpendicular relationship to? A The orbitomeatal line (OML) B The glabelloalveolar line (GAL) C The lipsmeatal line (LML) D The acanthiomeatal line (AML)
B The glabelloalveolar line (GAL)
Images recorded as part of a radiographic exam are legally a part of the patient's medical record and are the property of what individual or entity? A The patient B The institution in which they were performed C The interpreting radiologist D The ordering physician
B The institution in which they were performed
Spatial resolution is determined by A The number of gray tones that can be demonstrated in the pixel image B The minimum distance between two anatomical structures that can be recognized as separate structures in the pixel image C The size of the field of view D The pixel bit depth
B The minimum distance between two anatomical structures that can be recognized as separate structures in the pixel image
All of the following statements below regarding stochastic effects of radiation are true, except: A Likelihood of stochastic effect occurrence depends upon the radiation dose B The severity of any stochastic effect is dependent upon the radiation dose C Stochastic effects include heritable genetic effects and some somatic effects D Stochastic effects are late effects of ionizing radiation exposure
B The severity of any stochastic effect is dependent upon the radiation dose
Why is the Béclere method for the intercondylar fossa not the preferred projection? A The position is more uncomfortable for patients B There is increased magnification due to OID C It requires a steep knee angulation compared to other methods D The supine position increased part rotation
B There is increased magnification due to OID
The majority of damage to biological tissue from medical radiation is attributable to A low LET radiation action x-rays on DNA B action of free radicals on DNA C low LET radiation action x-rays on DNA D high energy Compton scatter
B action of free radicals on DNA
What type of personnel radiation monitoring device has a gas filled ionization chamber and provides a reading at anytime via Internet connection? A pocket dosimeter B direct ion storage dosimeter C optically stimulated luminescence dosimeter D thermoluminescent dosimeter
B direct ion storage dosimeter
Select the three phrases that are associated with Compton interactions: A low energy incident photon B predominates in the diagnostic x-ray energy range C characteristic radiation is produced D portion of incoming photon energy is transferred E is directly related atomic number F responsible for increased patient dose G results in ionization and scattered photon
B predominates in the diagnostic x-ray energy range D portion of incoming photon energy is transferred G results in ionization and scattered photon
X-ray photons leaving the anode are referred to as the A remnant beam B primary beam C leakage radiation D scattered radiation
B primary beam
Select the three statements correctly identifying characteristics of the female/gynecoid pelvis A narrow and more vertical B shallow, from anterior to posterior C pelvic inlet large and round D pubic angle 100°or more E deep from front to back F pubic angle less than 90°
B shallow, from anterior to posterior C pelvic inlet large and round D pubic angle 100°or more
The exposure rate caused by scatter emerging from the patient during fluoroscopic procedures is greatest at A the exit surface of the patient B the entrance surface of the patient C the patient surface away from the x-ray tube D right angles to the patient
B the entrance surface of the patient
How far can pathogenic organisms that are transmitted by droplet travel? A 2 feet B 3 feet C 5 feet D 10 feet
B 3 feet
In CR, the latent image is considered a(n) A Digital image B Analog image C Manifest image D Post-processed image
B Analog image
Which of the following is a phosphor most likely to be used in an indirect digital radiography system? A BaSO4 B CsI C NaCl D a-Se
B CsI
A larger dynamic range in a digital image represents A Fewer gray tones displayed B More gray tones displayed C Higher spatial resolution D A greater signal-to-noise ratio
B More gray tones displayed
The brightness of a pixel depends on all of the following, except: A Bit depth B Pixel pitch C The exposure intensity D Brightness setting of the monitor
B Pixel pitch
The Nyquist frequency is directly related to A Contrast resolution B Spatial resolution C Signal-to-noise ratio D Field of view
B Spatial resolution
The AP axial inlet projection of the pelvis is used to best demonstrate: 1. Superior aperture 2. Ischial Spine 3. Greater trochanter A 1 only B 2 only C 1 and 2 only D 2 and 3 only
C 1 and 2 only
The application of pressure to LCD screens can be the cause of 1. "dead" pixels 2. "stuck" pixels 3. Mitotic pixels A 1 only B 2 only C 1 and 2 only D 1, 2, and 3
C 1 and 2 only
When performing the lateral view of the scapula for coracoid and acromion pathology, the 1. Patient's body will be rotated 60° toward side of interest 2. Arm will be crossed over the front of the body 3. Patient will be in LAO position for the left scapula A 1 only B 2 only C 1 and 3 only D 1, 2 and 3
C 1 and 3 only
Which of the following anatomical structures are demonstrated in the AP "open mouth" projection of the cervical spine: 1. Dens 2. Vertebral body of C1 3. Atlantoaxial joints A 1 only B 2 only C 1 and 3 only D 1, 2, and 3
C 1 and 3 only
Which of the following techniques should be employed for a lateromedial projection of the forearm? 1. Drop shoulder to bring humerus and forearm on the same plane 2. Slightly semipronate hand to ensure true lateral alignment of wrist 3. Include both elbow and wrist joints A 1 and 2 only B 2 and 3 only C 1 and 3 only D 1, 2, and 3
C 1 and 3 only
The RAO position to demonstrate the sternum requires the CR to enter: A 1 inch to the right of midline at a level between the jugular notch and xyphoid process B Midline to a point 1 inch below jugular notch C 1 inch to the left of midline at a level between the jugular notch and xyphoid process D Midline to a point 1 inch above xyphoid process
C 1 inch to the left of midline at a level between the jugular notch and xyphoid process
Radiography students younger than 18 years must not exceed what dose limit? A 50 mSv B 5 mSv C 1 mSv D 0.5 mSv
C 1 mSv
Which carpals are best demonstrated in the radial deviation position of the wrist? 1. Pisiform 2. Lunate 3. Triquetrum 4. Trapezium A 1 and 2 only B 2 and 4 only C 1, 2, and 3 only D 1, 3, and 4 only
C 1, 2, and 3 only
Select the three correct completions. Contraindications for performing a myelogram include: 1) presence of blood in the CSF2) absence of blood in the CSF3) increased cranial pressure4) recent lumbar puncture5) pain and numbness in the upper and lower limbs A 2, 3, and 4 B 2, 3, and 5 C 1, 3, and 4 D 1, 3, and 5
C 1, 3, and 4
What is the recommended amount of time that a patient should remain in the lateral decubitus position to assess air-fluid levels in the abdomen? A 3 minutes B Maximum of 5 minutes C 10-20 minutes D At least 30 minutes
C 10-20 minutes
The following is/are associated with the photoelectric interaction: 1. Outer shell interaction 2. Total absorption of incident photon 3. Low energy incident photon A 1 only B 1 and 2 only C 2 and 3 only D 1, 2, and 3
C 2 and 3 only
The types of secondary radiation include 1. Remnant radiation 2. Scattered radiation 3. Leakage radiation A 1 only B 1 and 2 only C 2 and 3 only D 1, 2, and 3
C 2 and 3 only
When utilizing the infraorbitomeatal line (IOML) as a landmark for the AP axial projection of the temporomadibular joints (TMJs), how many degrees must the CR be angled? A 30° caudad B 35° caudad C 42° caudad D 45° caudad
C 42° caudad
In CR, if the exposure field (collimated margins) is not correctly located, an analysis would be performed by the system on all the exposure data, which may lead to A Decreased spatial resolution B IP erasure C A histogram analysis error D Failure of the stored IP energy to be released when scanned by a laser beam
C A histogram analysis error
Which of the following anatomical structures is best demonstrated in an axiolateral oblique projection of the mandible when a 30° rotation toward the IR is utilized? A Mentum B Ramus C Body D Condyloid process
C Body
If a radiation-damaged cell ceases its efforts to repair itself, this is called A Synthesis B Based damage C Cell cycle arrest D Apoptosis
C Cell cycle arrest
What is the quantity that reflects the volume of irradiated tissue as well as energy deposited/dose? A Wt B Erg C DAP D AEC
C DAP
Which of the following movements decreases the angle between the lower leg and dorsal surface of the foot? A Eversion B Inversion C Dorsiflexion D Plantar flexion
C Dorsiflexion
Which of the following statements is TRUE about the five stages of grieving, as described by Dr. Elizabeth Kubler-Ross? A The five stages generally occur in order. B When a person is in the "denial" stage, medical professionals should try to overcome the denial by stating the truth. C During the "anger" stage, it is possible that the person will take out anger at the situation on family or healing professionals. D Each person dealing with grief will experience all five stages at some time during the grieving process.
C During the "anger" stage, it is possible that the person will take out anger at the situation on family or healing professionals.
All of the following conditions are clinical indications for the AP lordotic projection of the chest except: A Apical calcifications B Masses C Hemothorax D Tuberculosis
C Hemothorax
The alternate inferosuperior axial projection of the shoulder (Lawrence method) with exaggerated external rotation would be performed to confirm which pathological occurrence? A Scapular fracture B Greater tubercle fracture C Hill-Sachs defect D Calcification of acromioclavicular joint
C Hill-Sachs defect
What is the purpose of using filtration in regards to minimizing the patient exposure? A It increases the patient dose so you can lower your technique B It allows you to see where you should be aligning the tube C It is used to selectively absorb low-energy photons D It allows for adequate gonadal shielding
C It is used to selectively absorb low-energy photons
What changes occur with the alternative AP projection of the wrist versus the PA projection? A It places the intercarpal spaces more perpendicular to the divergent rays B It increases the distance of the carpals to the IR C It places the intercarpal spaces more parallel to the divergent rays D It requires higher kVp
C It places the intercarpal spaces more parallel to the divergent rays
When transporting a patient who has a Foley catheter in place, which of the following methods will help to prevent backflow and possible introduction of bacteria or infection? A Keep the collection bag below the heart B Drain collection bag as often as possible C Keep the collection bag below the bladder D Do not empty the collection bag
C Keep the collection bag below the bladder
In a double-contrast barium enema, which position best exhibits the air-filled lateral border of the ascending colon? A Right lateral decubitus B Ventral decubitus lateral C Left lateral decubitus D Dorsal decubitus
C Left lateral decubitus
When performing an AP projection of the left-sided ribs, where would the CR enter to best demonstrate ribs below the diaphragm? A Midway between midsagittal plane and right side of thorax B At midsagittal plane When performing an AP projection of the left-sided ribs, where would the CR enter to best demonstrate ribs below the diaphragm? C Midway between midsagittal plane and left side of thorax D 1 inch to the left of the spinal column
C Midway between midsagittal plane and left side of thorax
The condition characterized by degeneration of articular cartilage is termed A Osteomyelitis B Osteopenia C Osteoarthritis D Osteomalacia
C Osteoarthritis
What is the most dangerous source of radiation for the technologist who remains in the room during a fluoroscopic procedure? A X-ray Tube B Bucky C Patient D Primary Radiation
C Patient
To obtain the submentovertical (SMV) projection of the skull in patients with limited neck mobility, which of the following techniques should be utilized: A Patient erect with CR angled parallel to IOML B Patient supine with CR angled perpendicular to OML C Patient erect with CR angled perpendicular to IOML D Patient prone with CR angled parallel to OML
C Patient erect with CR angled perpendicular to IOML
For the small bowel series, the 15- or 30-minute PA projection of the abdomen requires the IR to be positioned _______ and centered ________: A Perpendicular; to iliac crest B Parallel; to iliac crest C Perpendicular; 2 inches above iliac crest D Parallel; 2 inches below iliac crest
C Perpendicular; 2 inches above iliac crest
The center of one pixel to the center of an adjacent pixel is referred to as A Pixel matrix B Granularity C Pixel pitch D Megapixel
C Pixel pitch
When imaging the AP supine abdomen for kidney stones, which anatomical structure must be included to visualize calculi in the bladder? A Psoas major B Lower rib margin C Symphysis pubis D Obturator foramina
C Symphysis pubis
Which of the following indicates the amount of exposure used in digital radiography? A The degree of spatial resolution B The degree of contrast resolution C The exposure indicator D The signal-to-noise ratio
C The exposure indicator
Which of the following is an example of therapeutic non-verbal communication between a radiographer and patient? A Radiographer stands with arms crossed while gathering patient history. B Radiographer tells the patient that he or she will feel no pain during the procedure, but will not return the patient's eye contact. C The radiographic examination room is neat and organized. D The radiographer hugs the patient at the end of the exam because she seems anxious.
C The radiographic examination room is neat and organized.
All of the following are characteristics of x-rays, except: A X-rays are electrically neutral B X-rays have a physiological effect on living tissue C X-rays are focused in straight lines D X-rays have a penetrating effect on all matter
C X-rays are focused in straight lines
The type of personnel radiation monitor having an ionization chamber using Bluetooth technology is the A pocket dosimeter B optically stimulated luminescence dosimeter C direct ion storage dosimeter D thermoluminescent dosimeter
C direct ion storage dosimeter
Select the three correct completions. An AP axial projection of the lumbosacral spine can be used to demonstrate the A vertebral bodies L1 through L4 B intervertebral foramina C lumbosacral articulation D both sacroiliac joints E sacral foramina F zygapophyseal articulations
C lumbosacral articulation D both sacroiliac joints E sacral foramina
Select the correct sequence of events that follow high level radiation exposure resulting in acute radiation syndrome A manifest illness, prodromal period, latent period B manifest illness, latent period, prodromal period C prodromal period, latent period, manifest illness D latent period, prodromal period, manifest illness
C prodromal period, latent period, manifest illness
Who is responsible to be certain that occupationally exposed personnel understand and employees use of appropriate radiation safety measures? A section leader B chief radiologist C radiation safety officer D radiology department administrator
C radiation safety officer
In a digital image, a metallic object would appear as A A medium gray value B A dark gray value C A white value D A black value
C A white value
Defective pixels that do not function at all are called A Lag pixels B Displaced pixels C Dead pixels D Ghost pixels
C Dead pixels
Which of the following radiographic contrast media is characterized by having the property of molecular dissociation into two charged particles when becoming part of a solution? A Iodinated contrast B Positive contrast C Ionic contrast D Barium
C Ionic contrast
The intrathecal route of drug administration falls into which category of administration? A Enteral B Topical C Parenteral D Intravenous
C Parenteral
Which of the following is a legal doctrine that may apply in a medical malpractice case in which negligence would be obvious to any reasonable person? A Repondeat superior B Tort C Res ipsa loquitor D Attribution
C Res ipsa loquitor
The dynamic range in a digital image is determined by the A Field of view B The amount of magnification in the image C The pixel bit depth D The matrix size
C The pixel bit depth
In computed radiography (CR), energy stored in the PSP is stimulated in the scanner by A low energy X-rays B microwaves C red light D ultraviolet light
C red light
When performed with the Camp Coventry method, the PA axial projection (tunnel view) of the knee requires: 1. 40-50° knee flexion 2. Prone positioning 3. CR parallel to tibia A 1 only B 3 only C 1 and 3 only D 1 and 2 only
D 1 and 2 only
Which of the following are reasons to perform an abdomen in the prone position? 1. To reduce dose to the ovaries 2. To decrease OID between the kidneys and the image receptor 3. To compress abdominal adipose tissue A 1 only B 3 only C 1 and 2 only D 1 and 3 only
D 1 and 3 only
Which of the following statements regarding the time on fluoroscopy machines is true? 1. It is a federal law that requires machines in the United States to an audible 5-minute timer. 2. Once 5 minutes has elapsed the radiographer must stop the procedure. 3. The timer can be set as many times as necessary to complete a procedure. A 1 only B 1, 2, and 3 C 2 only D 1 and 3 only
D 1 and 3 only
Characteristics of tungsten that make it a useful component of x-ray tubes include 1. High melting point 2. Thermal conductivity 3. High atomic number A 1 only B 1 and 2 only C 2 and 3 only D 1, 2, and 3
D 1, 2, and 3
Patient dose received during imaging procedures can be specified in terms of 1. Bone marrow dose 2. Gonadal dose 3. Entrance skin exposure A 1 and 2 only B 1 and 3 only C 2 and 3 only D 1, 2, and 3
D 1, 2, and 3
Primary protective barriers function to protect __________ from the unscattered/primary beam 1. Occupational workers 2. General public 3. Ancillary personnel A 1 and 2 only B 1 and 3 only C 2 and 3 only D 1, 2, and 3
D 1, 2, and 3
Quantum noise in digital imaging can be caused by 1. Incorrect algorithm selection 2. Inadequate beam restriction 3. Underexposure A 1 only B 1 and 2 only C 2 and 3 only D 1, 2, and 3
D 1, 2, and 3
When obtaining an AP elbow on a patient in partial flexion near 90º, the two AP images would be captured utilizing a CR angle of: A 5-10° toward the elbow joint B 10-15° away from the elbow joint C 5-10° away from the elbow joint D 10-15° toward the elbow joint
D 10-15° toward the elbow joint
The NCRP recommends that the annual occupational exposure to the lens of the eye not exceed A 5 mSv B 15 mSv C 50 mSv D 150 mSv
D 150 mSv
Which of the following statements are correct regarding the lateral projection of the chest? 1) The left hemidiaphragm is more superior than the right hemidiaphragm. 2) The right hemidiaphragm is more superior than the left hemidiaphragm. 3) A left lateral is typically performed to decrease heart magnification. 4) A left lateral is typically performed to increase heart magnification. 5) Chest radiographs are only performed on inspiration. 6) Separation of the costophrenic angles could indicate patient rotation. A 1, 3, and 6 B 1, 4, and 6 C 1, 4, 5, and 6 D 2, 3, and 6 E 2, 4, 5, and 6
D 2, 3, and 6
Radiation exposure should always be kept at the lowest possible level for the general public. Which of the following describes a medically justified procedure? 1. Tuberculosis screening chest x-rays 2. Hospital admission chest x-rays 3. Mammography screenings A 1 only B 1 and 3 only C 1, 2, and 3 D 3 only
D 3 only
The RAO position for the chest requires which degree of obliquity when the heart and great vessels are of interest? A 10-15° B 15-20° C 30-45° D 45-60°
D 45-60°
What is the annual dose limit to the extremities? A 50 mSv B 150 mSv C 300 mSv D 500 mSv
D 500 mSv
When performing the Holmblad method of the intercondylar fossa, what is the correct flexion of the patient's knee? A 20° to 30° B 40° to 45° C 40° to 50° D 60° to 70°
D 60° to 70°
In the circumstance that a patient is required to give informed consent for a procedure that involves risk or is experimental, which of the following truly defines informed consent? A If the procedure is the same, the physician performing the procedure can be changed after consent is signed. B A parent, grandparent, or legal guardian can sign for a minor. C Informed consent cannot be revoked. D A patient must receive full explanation of the procedure, risks, and benefits before being anesthetized.
D A patient must receive full explanation of the procedure, risks, and benefits before being anesthetized.
Personnel protection is significantly impacted by (select the three correct completions) A Minimum filtration B Dose Area Product C Grids D ALARA concept E Dose equivalent limits F Bucky slot cover
D ALARA concept E Dose equivalent limits F Bucky slot cover
An optically stimulated luminescence dosimetry system is most likely to use which of the following active ingredients? A Silver bromide B Air C Lithium fluoride D Aluminum oxide
D Aluminum oxide
All of the following contribute to the manifest digital image, except A Matrix size B Pixel bit depth C Pixel pitch D Analog signal
D Analog signal
All of the following pertain to the manner in which specific anatomic details are displayed in digital imaging, except: A By specific pixels in the digital image B As a specific portion of the image matrix C As a digital image component displaying specific gray tones D As a permanent set of brightness levels that cannot be changed
D As a permanent set of brightness levels that cannot be changed
A supine 45° LPO position best demonstrates: A Axillary right ribs above the diaphragm B Axillary right ribs below the diaphragm C Axillary left ribs above the diaphragm D Axillary left ribs below the diaphragm
D Axillary left ribs below the diaphragm
Which of the following represents contrast resolution in the image acquisition process? A Pixel B Pixel size C Pixel pitch D Bit depth
D Bit depth
Which of the following advance directives names a proxy to make decisions if the patient becomes unable to make or communicate medical decisions? A Do Not Intubate (DNI) B Living will C Do Not Resuscitate (DNR) D Durable power of attorney for healthcare (DPOA)
D Durable power of attorney for healthcare (DPOA)
What postprocessing option serves to produce a more uniform image appearance by altering pixel value brightness? A Subtraction B Windowing C Smoothing D Equalization
D Equalization
The PSP in computed radiography (CR) can retain residual energy from previous radiation exposures. Therefore, it is important for the radiographer to: A Scan the PSP image plate a second time to capture additional anatomical information for the radiologist to interpret B Reduce the exposure factors used during subsequent radiographic procedures to take advantage of the residual energy, thereby optimizing ALARA C Remove this residual energy during image post-processing of the original image to avoid ghost image artifacts D Erase any potential residual energy within the PSP by exposing the IP to intense light in the CR scanner
D Erase any potential residual energy within the PSP by exposing the IP to intense light in the CR scanner
All of the following have an inverse relationship, except A Pixel size/spatial resolution B Collimation/patient exposure C Matrix size/pixel size D FOV/patient exposure
D FOV/patient exposure
Which of the following is necessary to prove when claiming a case of malpractice? A Negligence occurred but did not result in an injury or loss to the patient B Defendant provided mediocre care for the patient C Plaintiff's actions contributed to the injury or loss D Improper practices by the defendant caused the injury
D Improper practices by the defendant caused the injury
Patient demographic information is critical in digital radiography systems because of all of the following, except A It is tied to an MRN or accession number that can be retrieved for viewing or stored in a PACS B Ensures the correct diagnosis is matched with the correct patient C Enables proper billing to the correct patient D It enables the system to use a histogram that is most appropriate for the patient
D It enables the system to use a histogram that is most appropriate for the patient
Which of the following projections best demonstrates the tuberosity at the base of the fifth metatarsal and the cuboid? A Plantodorsal projection of the calcaneous B Lateral weight-bearing foot C Lateral oblique of the foot D Medial oblique of the foot
D Medial oblique of the foot
Which of the following personnel monitoring devices are regarded as being the most sensitive? A Pocket ionization chamber B Film badge C Thermoluminescent dosimeter D Optically stimulated luminescence dosimeter
D Optically stimulated luminescence dosimeter
Which interaction is most likely to be associated with increased patient dose? A Bremsstrahlung B Compton C Coherent D Photoelectric
D Photoelectric
The number of pixels identified in length and width of an active display matrix screen dimension is used to describe A LCD B VOI C Brightness D Resolution
D Resolution
Epinephrine may be administered to a patient having which of the following reactions to iodinated contrast media? A Mild B Moderate C Vasovagal D Severe (anaphylactic)
D Severe (anaphylactic)
Review the following sets of vital signs for adult female patients. Which patient displays a reading that falls outside of the normal range? A Pulse: 68 bpm, respiration: 15 breaths per minute, blood pressure: 100/70 B Pulse: 95 bpm, temperature (oral): 98.7, blood pressure: 95/68 C Respiration: 17 breaths per minute, temperature (oral): 98.6, pulse: 75 bpm D Temperature (oral): 98.6, blood pressure: 135/79, respiration: 13 breaths per minute
D Temperature (oral): 98.6, blood pressure: 135/79, respiration: 13 breaths per minute
When dealing with a pediatric patient as young as 3 or 4 years of age, what should be your first choice in regards to immobilizing the patient? A Sheet Restraints B Pigg-O-Stat C Plexiglas paddle D Try to gain the trust of the child by communicating on their age level
D Try to gain the trust of the child by communicating on their age level
Using post-processing, a radiographer can enhance the subject contrast when using CR by: A Increasing the kilovoltage B Using increased filtration of the primary beam C Increasing OID D Using a narrower window width setting to display image
D Using a narrower window width setting to display image
If a physician were to complain about poor spatial resolution seen in radiographic images produced in a medical imaging department, the best technical solution would be which of the following? A Have radiographers increase collimation B Have radiographers use the smoothing function during post-processing C Have radiographers increase the field of view D Utilize a larger matrix size to produce the images
D Utilize a larger matrix size to produce the images
Which of the following anatomy is evaluated during an ERCP? A stomach and spleen B liver and gallbladder C pancreas and liver D biliary system and pancreas
D biliary system and pancreas
All of the following body parts can be imaged to assess bone age except: A hand B wrist C knee D skull
D skull
All of the following are found in a direct capture digital radiography system, except A Photoconductor B TFT C Amorphous selenium D Amorphous silicon
D Amorphous silicon
Which of the following terms is used to describe a condition that can result from blunt trauma to the chest, in which the heart is bruised and can hemorrhage into the pericardium and prevent expansion of the heart? A Hematoma B Myocardial infarction C Hemothorax D Cardiac tamponade
D Cardiac tamponade
The ability of a digital detector to convert an x-ray exposure into a useful image is called A Contrast resolution B Spatial resolution C Pixel sampling D Detective quantum efficiency
D Detective quantum efficiency
All of the following are types of digital imaging artifacts, except A Aliasing B Image compression C Collimation D Pixel pitch
D Pixel pitch
Arrange the following examinations in the proper scheduling sequence for a patient having multiple imaging tests in one day. Unordered List CT IVP Chest x-ray Barium enema Ultrasound of the gall bladder Esophagram
Ultrasound of the gall bladder Chest x-ray CT IVP Barium enema Esophagram