Mother Baby Final chapter 5-6 questions

A client asks the nurse at a prenatal class about acquired disorders. The nurse correctly responds that an acquired disorder: A. Typically occurs at or soon after birth. B. May result from problems experienced by the woman after her pregnancy. C. Can be defined as structural or functional or metabolic abnormalities at birth. D. Is very complex, involving many genes and gene products.

A

A client has given birth to a small-for-gestation-age (SGA) newborn. Which finding would the nurse expect to assess? A. Head larger than body B. Round flushed face C. Brown lanugo body hair D. Protuberant abdomen

A

A neonate has an injury to the brachial plexus. Which of the following conditions is a result of a brachial plexus injury? A. Erb palsy B. Bulbar palsy C. Cerebral palsy D. Bell palsy

A

A newborn is designated as very low birth weight. When weighing this newborn, the nurse would expect to find which weight? A. less than 1,500 g B. more than 4,000 g C. approximately 2,500 g D. less than 1,000 g

A

A postterm newborn develops perinatal asphyxia. The nurse understands that this condition is most likely the result of: A. Aging placenta B. Hypoxia from cord compression. C. Loss of subcutaneous fat. D. Increased production of red blood cells.

A

A woman who has a history of cocaine use disorder gives birth to a newborn. Which findings would the nurse expect to assess in the newborn? Select all that apply. A. Piercing cry B. Prolonged periods of sleeping C. Poor sucking D. Slow reflexes E. Inconsolability

A, C, E

All infants should be screened for developmental dysplasia of the hip (DDH) from birth up until 3 months of age. What procedure does the nurse use to assess for DDH? Select all that apply. A. Ortolani maneuver B. Allen test C. Kernig sign D. Hazelbaker assessment E. Barlow evaluation

A, E

A newborn is suspected of having gastroschisis at birth. How would the nurse differentiate this problem from other congenital defects? A. The abdominal contents are contained within a thin, transparent sac. B. The intestines appear reddened and swollen and have no sac around them. C. The umbilical cord comes out of middle of the defect. D. The skin over the abdomen is wrinkled and looks like a prune.

B

A nurse is caring for a baby girl born at 34 weeks' gestation. Which feature should the nurse identify as those of a preterm newborn? A. Paper-thin eyelids B. Shiny heels and palms C. Closely approximated labia D. Scant coating of vernix

B

A nurse is concerned that a 1-day-old newborn is becoming ill and may be septic. What sign of distress would validate the nurse's concerns? A. Respiratory rate of 40 breaths/min B. Temperature instability C. Heart rate of 152 bpm D. Erythema toxicum

B

A nurse is teaching the mother of a newborn experiencing cocaine withdrawal about caring for the neonate at home. The mother stopped using cocaine near the end of her pregnancy. The nurse determines that additional teaching is needed when the mother identifies which action as appropriate for her newborn? A. wrapping the newborn snugly in a blanket B. waking the newborn every hour C. checking the newborn's fontanels D. offering a pacifier

B

A term newborn is diagnosed with esophageal atresia. When reviewing the mother's prenatal records, which maternal complication would correlate with the diagnosis? A. preeclampsia B. polyhydramnios C. placenta previa D. severe anemia

B

The nurse prepares to assess a newborn who is considered to be large-for-gestational-age (LGA). Which characteristic would the nurse correlate with this gestational age variation? A. strong, brisk motor skills B. difficulty in arousing to a quiet alert state C. birthweight of 7 lb, 14 oz (3,572 g) D. wasted appearance of extremities

B

The parents of an infant diagnosed with phenylketonuria are not sure they agree with the diagnosis and proposed treatment. The nurse should point out that this condition can result in which additional condition if left untreated? A. Congenital heart defects B. Intellectual disability C. Increased intracranial pressure D. Strangulated intestine

B

Which facial change is characteristic in a neonate with fetal alcohol syndrome (FAS)? A. Macrocephaly B. Microcephaly C. Wide, palpebral fissures D. Well-developed philtrum

B

Which finding would lead the nurse to suspect that a large-for-gestational-age newborn is developing hyperbilirubinemia? A. Temperature instability B. Tea-colored urine C. Seizures D. Feeble sucking

B

A nurse is assessing a postterm newborn. Which finding would the nurse correlate with this gestational age variation? A. Moist, supple, plum skin appearance B. Abundant lanugo and vernix C. Thin umbilical cord D. Absence of sole creases

C

Assessment reveals that a young mother has several risk factors for giving birth to an infant with a neural tube defect. Which laboratory test would the nurse expect to be used to monitor the fetus for this birth defect? A. Genetic studies B. Folic acid levels C. Alpha-fetoprotein levels D. Culture for infections

C

By preventing fetal distress during the intrapartum period, which condition is less likely? A. Hemolytic disease of the newborn B. Transient tachypnea of the newborn C. Meconium aspiration syndrome D. Neonatal abstinence syndrome

C

From which pair of metabolic disorders must the nurse instruct the parents to eliminate breast and cow's milk from the diet? A. Maple syrup urine disease and galactosemia B. Congenital hypothyroidism and phenylketonuria C. Galactosemia and phenylketonuria D. Turner syndrome and maple syrup urine disease

C

Which medication would be included in the plan of care for a newborn with acute neonatal abstinence syndrome who is not responding to conservative nursing approaches? A. Diazepam B. Duragesic C. Morphine sulfate D. Naloxone

C

A client with group AB blood whose husband has group O blood has just given birth. Which complication or test result is a major sign of ABO blood incompatibility that the nurse should look for when assessing this neonate? A. Negative Coomb's test B. Bleeding from the nose or ear C. Jaundice after the first 24 hours of life D. Jaundice within the first 24 hours of life

D

A nurse completes the initial assessment of a newborn. According to the due date on the antenatal record, the baby is 12 days' postmature. Which physical finding does not confirm that this newborn is 12 days' postmature? A. Meconium aspiration B. Absence of lanugo C. Hypoglycemia D. Increased amounts of vernix

D

A preterm newborn is receiving enteral feedings. Which finding would alert the nurse to suspect that the newborn is developing NEC? A. Irritability B. Sunken abdomen C. Clay-colored stools D. Feeding intolerance

D

The nurse notes a diminished level of consciousness in an infant with hydrocephalus. What is a priority action at this time? A. Taking the apical pulse B. Obtaining the blood pressure C. Testing the urine for protein D. Palpating the anterior fontanel

D

The nursing instructor is conducting a session with a group of nursing students exploring potential difficulties of newborns involving respiratory concerns. The instructor determines the session is successful after the students correctly choose which contributing factor for transient tachypnea of the newborn? A. Usually occurs with maternal history of hypertension B. Associated with fetal distress during labor C. Often seen with advanced gestational age D. Often seen with cesarean births

D

The parent has brought a 2-year-old to the public clinic for immunizations. The nurse documents the following characteristics: A duck waddle gait Shortened extremity Asymmetry of the gluteal folds Protruding abdomen The nurse then refers the toddler to the health care provider for potential diagnosis of which? A. Clubfoot B. Muscular dystrophy C. Scoliosis D. Developmental dysplasia of the hip

D

After a gavage feeding of a preterm neonate, the nurse aspirates 4 ml of undigested formula. This finding may indicate the development of which complication? A. Necrotizing enterocolitis B. Malabsorption syndrome C. Dumping syndrome D. Acute gastroenteritis

A

The perinatal nurse is assessing a large-for-gestational age infant born by breech birth and notes that the infant is irritable and does not move the right arm. For what would the nurse assess? A. midclavicular fracture B. brachial plexus injury C. phrenic nerve injury D. cranial nerve trauma

A

A perinatal nurse is providing care for a large for gestational age neonate admitted to the observational unit after a complicated vaginal birth resulting in shoulder dystocia. Which assessment would be a priority for the nurse to perform? A. Ballard assessment B. Moro assessment C. Dubowitz assessment D. Suck assessment

B

The nurse is caring for a neonate with epispadias. In which location will the nurse assess the anomaly? A. At the distal end of the testes B. On the dorsal end of the penis C. On the anterior scrotum D. On the ventral surface near the chordee

B

The nurse is most correct to assess for transient tachypnea of the newborn (TTN) in which neonate? A. The large-for-gestational-age neonate B. The neonate delivered by cesarean section C. The neonate whose mother received limited prenatal care D. The neonate born at 41 weeks' gestation

B

The nurse is providing care to a newborn who was born at 36 weeks' gestation. Based on the nurse's understanding of gestational age, the nurse identifies this newborn as: A. Preterm B. Late preterm C. Term D. Postterm

B

The nurse is providing education to the parents of an infant who was just diagnosed with transposition of the great arteries. The parents ask, "Which vessels were involved?" The nurse is correct to educate about: A. the superior and inferior vena cava. B. the aorta and pulmonary artery. C. the pulmonary vein and pulmonary artery. D. the inferior vena cava and pulmonary vein.

B

Which intervention should a nurse implement to promote thermal regulation in a preterm newborn? A. Assess the newborn's temperature every 8 hours until stable. B. Set the temperature of the radiant warmer at a fixed level. C. Observe for clinical signs of cold stress such as weak cry. D. Check the blood pressure of the infant every 2 hours.

C

What would the nurse use as evidence of effective resuscitation? A. pulse rate of 60 beats per minute B. weak cry C. retractions D. pink tongue

D

While reviewing a newborn's medical record, the nurse notes that the chest X-ray shows a ground glass pattern. The nurse interprets this as indicative of: A. Persistent pulmonary hypertension B. Asphyxia C. Transient tachpynea of the newborn D. Respiratory distress syndrome

D

A nurse is reading a journal article about birth defects and finds that some birth defects are preventable. Which risk factor would the nurse expect to find as being cited as the current leading preventable cause of birth defects? A. Alcohol B. Smoking C. Recreational drugs D. Obesity

A

A preterm newborn has just received synthetic surfactant through an endotracheal tube by a syringe. Which intervention should the nurse implement at this point? A. Tip the infant into an upright position. B. Immediately suction the infant's airway. C. Place the infant supine in a radiant heat warmer. D. Take a blood sample.

A

An infant has a grade 3 intraventricular hemorrhage (IVH). The nurse monitors the infant for which complication? A. Hydrocephalus B. Encephalitis C. Meningitis D. Intraparenchymal hemorrhage

A

The nurse is assessing a postterm newborn. Which finding would the nurse be least likely to assess? A. Thick umbilical cord. B. Creases on entire soles of feet. C. Meconium-stained skin D. Absent lanugo

A

What would the nurse expect to prioritize in the assessment of a newborn who has a positive Coombs test? A. Tremor activity B. Hyperglycemia C. Jaundice development D. Phenylketonuria

C

A nurse is administering prescribed enteral feedings to assist in preparing the gut of a preterm newborn. Which type of solution would the nurse most likely administer for the feeding? A. Breast milk B. Formula C. Sterile water D. Normal saline

A

A nurse is assessing a term newborn and finds the blood glucose level is 23 mg/dl. The newborn has a weak cry, is irritable, and exhibits bradycardia. Which intervention is most appropriate?. A. Administer dextrose intravenously B. Monitor the infant's hematocrit levels closely C. Administer PO glucose water D. Place the infant on a radiant warmer

A

An infant is born with respiratory depression. The provider begins actions to maintain effective ventilation. When would the nurse initiate chest compressions? A. When the heart rate is less than 60 beats per minute. B. When the infant has an apgar of 5. C. When no spontaneous respiratory effort is visible. D. When the pulse oximetry reading is less than 80%.

A

For which potential neonatal infection does the nurse anticipate using ophthalmic erythromycin? A. Chlamydia trachomatis B. Group B streptococcus (GBS)C C. Human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) D. Herpes simplex type 1

A

The nurse is assessing a small-for-gestational age (SGA) newborn, 12 hours of age, and notes the newborn is lethargic with cyanosis of the extremities, jittery with handling, and a jaundiced, ruddy skin color. The nurse expects which diagnosis as a result of the findings? A. Polycythemia B. Hyperglycemia C. Hypercalcemia D. Hyponatremia

A

Which congenital condition is an immediate emergency requiring notification of the health care provider? A. Hypospadias B. Cleft palate C. Tracheoesophageal fistula D. Atrial septal defect

C