MSII E3

Secondary Drowning

Refers to delayed death from drowning due to pulmonary complications.

Emergency Severity Index

Review Table: 69-2 Five-level triage system that incorporates illness severity and resource utilization ESI-1 through ESI-5 Level 1 is Unstable/Most Severe to Level 5-Stable/Least Severe

Colored Tag System in Emergency Management

System of colored tags designates both seriousness of injury and likelihood of survival. -Green (minor injury) or yellow (non-life-threatening injury) tag indicates noncritical injury. -Red tag indicates life-threatening injury. -Blue tag indicates those who are expected to die. -Black tag identifies the dead.

Acute osteomyleitis

blood cultures from two sites, gentamicin, administer acetominophen, send for CT scan

Violence

-Acting out of emotions (e.g., fear or anger) to cause harm to someone or something -Organic disease -Psychosis -Antisocial behavior

Goals of Primary Survey

-Airway with cervical spine stabilization and/or immobilization -Maintain airway: least to most invasive method

Bioterrorism

-Anthrax, plague, and tularemia: treated with antibiotics, assuming sufficient supplies and nonresistant organisms -Smallpox can be prevented or ameliorated by vaccination even when first given after exposure.

Primary Survey: Breathing

-Assess for dyspnea, cyanosis paradoxic/asymmetric chest wall movement, decreased/absent breath sounds, tachycardia, hypotension. --- Many conditions, including fractured ribs, pneumothorax, penetrating injury, allergic reactions, pulmonary emboli, and asthma attacks, cause breathing alterations. 1. Administer high-flow O2 via a non-rebreather mask. 2. Bag-valve-mask (BVM) ventilation with 100% O2 and intubation for life-threatening conditions -Monitor patient response. -Life-threatening conditions, such as tension pneumothorax and flail chest, can severely and quickly compromise ventilation.

Additional Bioterrorism Methods

-Botulism is treated with antitoxin. -No treatment has been established for most viruses that cause hemorrhagic fever.

Secondary Survey

-Brief, systematic process to identify all injuries -Full set of vital signs/Five interventions/Facilitate family presence -Give comfort measures. -History and head-to-toe assessment -Inspect the posterior surfaces. -Evaluate need for tetanus prophylaxis. -Provide ongoing monitoring, and evaluate patient's response to interventions.

Triage System

-Categorizes patients so most critical are treated first -5 level system

Poisonings

-Chemicals that harm the body accidentally, occupationally, recreationally, or intentionally. -Severity depends on type, concentration, and route of exposure. -Management -Decreasing absorption -Dermal cleansing/eye irrigation -Enhance elimination -Hemodialysis/hemoperfusion

Animal Bites

-Children at greatest risk -Animal bites from dogs and cats are most common, followed by bites from wild or domestic rodents.

Emergency and Mass Casualty Incident Preparedness (More)

-Communities have initiated programs to develop community emergency response teams (CERTs). -All health care providers have a role in emergency and MCI preparedness. -Response to MCIs often requires the aid of a federal agency such as the National Incident Management System (NIMS). -National Disaster Medical System: organizes and trains volunteer disaster medical assistance teams (DMATs)

Hypothermia

-Core temperature <95º F (<35º C) -Risk factors -Mild hypothermia (93.2º to 96.8º F [34º to 36º C]) -Moderate hypothermia (86º to 93.2º F [30º to 34º C]) -Severe hypothermia (<86º F [30º C]) makes the person appear dead.

Treatment of Submersion Injuries

-Correct hypoxia. -Correct acid-base and fluid imbalances. -Support basic physiologic functions. -Rewarm if hypothermia is present. -Initial evaluation: ABCD. Mechanical ventilation with PEEP or CPAP to improve gas exchange when pulmonary edema is present. -Ventilation and oxygenation are the primary techniques for treating respiratory failure.

Gastric Lavage

-Decreases absorption -Intubate before lavage if altered level of consciousness or diminished gag reflex -Perform lavage within 2 hours of ingestion of most poisons. -Contraindicated -Caustic agents: Co-ingested sharp objects and ingested nontoxic substances

Signs/Symptoms of Compromised Airway

-Dyspnea -Inability to vocalize -Presence of foreign body in airway -Trauma to face or neck

Gerontologic Considerations: Emergency Care

-Elderly are at high risk for injury—primarily from falls. -Causes-Generalized weakness,Environmental hazards, Orthostatic hypotension, Important to determine whether physical findings may have caused fall or may be due to fall

Healthcare Provider's Role in Emergency Situations

-Emergency response plan includes individual roles and responsibilities of members of the response team and participation in emergency/MCI preparedness drills on a regular basis. -Drills include hospital disaster drills, computer simulations, and tabletop exercises.

Emergency Nursing: Primary Survey

-Focuses on airway, breathing, circulation, and disability, exposure (ABCDE) -Identifies life-threatening conditions -Interventions are started immediately and before proceeding to the next step of the survey (if ABCDE is identified)

Additional Methods of Poisoning Treatments

-Hemodialysis is reserved for patients who develop severe acidosis from ingestion of toxic substances (e.g., aspirin). -Sodium bicarbonate administration raises the pH (>7.5), which is particularly effective for phenobarbital and salicylate poisoning. -Vitamin C is added to IV fluids to enhance excretion of amphetamines and quinidine. -Chelation therapy is considered for heavy metal poisoning (e.g., edetate calcium disodium [Calcium EDTA] for lead poisoning).

Treatments of Animal/Human Bites

-Initial treatment: clean with copious irrigation, debridement, tetanus prophylaxis, and analgesics -Prophylactic antibiotics for bites at risk for infection -Wounds over joints -Wounds less than 6 to 12 hours old -Puncture wounds -Bites on hand or foot -Puncture wounds left open -Lacerations loosely sutured -Wounds over joints splinted

Terrorism

-Involves overt actions for the expressed purpose of causing harm -Disease pathogens (e.g., bioterrorism) -Chemical agents -Radiologic/nuclear, explosive devices

Mass Causality Incident

-Manmade or natural event or disaster that overwhelms community's ability to respond with existing resources

Activated Charcoal

-Most effective intervention for poisoning: administer orally or via gastric tube within 60 minutes of poison ingestion -Contraindications: Diminished bowel sounds, paralytic ileus Ingestion of substance poorly absorbed by charcoal -Charcoal can absorb and neutralize antidotes: do not give immediately before, with, or shortly after charcoal.

Death in the Emergency Room

-Must recognize importance of hospital rituals in preparing the bereaved to grieve (e.g., collecting belongings, viewing the body) -Determine if patient could be candidate for non-heart beating donation. -Tissues and organs (e.g., corneas, heart valves, skin, bone, kidneys) can be harvested from patient after death.

Family and Intimate Partner Violence

-Pattern of coercive behavior in a relationship; involves fear, humiliation, intimidation, neglect, and/or intentional physical, emotional, financial, or sexual injury -Found in all professions, cultures, socioeconomic groups, ages, and genders -Most victims are women, children, elderly -Screening for domestic violence is required in ED. -Appropriate interventions

Rapid Sequence Intubation

-Preferred procedure for unprotected airway -Involves sedation or anesthesia and paralysis

Triage

-Process of rapidly determining patient acuity -Represents a critical assessment skill

Heat Exhaustion/Heat Stroke

-Prolonged exposure to heat over hours or days -Leads to heat exhaustion -Clinical syndrome characterized by -Treatment of the patient -Monitor for signs of rhabdomyolysis, myoglobinuria, and disseminated intravascular coagulation.

Rabies:Prophylaxis for Bites

-Rabies prophylaxis essential in management of animal bites -Initial injection: rabies immune globulin -Series of five injections of human diploid cell vaccine: days 0, 3, 7, 14, and 28

Radiologic/Nuclear Agents of Terrorism

-Radiologic dispersal devices (RRDs) ("dirty bombs"): mix of explosives and radioactive material -When detonated, blast scatters radioactive dust, smoke, and other material into environment, resulting in radioactive contamination. -Main danger from RRDs: explosion -Ionizing radiation (e.g., nuclear bomb, damage to a nuclear reactor): serious threat to safety of casualties and environment -Exposure may or may not include skin contamination with radioactive material.

Explosive Devices as Agents of Terrorism

-Result in one or more of following types of injuries: blast, crush, or penetrating -Blast injuries from supersonic overpressurization shock wave that results from explosion -Damage to the lungs, middle ear, gastrointestinal tract

Human Bites

-Result in puncture wounds or lacerations -High risk of infection -Oral bacterial flora and Hepatitis virus -Common Bacteria: Staphylococcus aureus, Streptococcus, and hepatitis virus.

Submersion Injury

-Results when person becomes hypoxic as the result of submersion in substance, usually water -Drowning: death from suffocation after submersion in fluid -Aggressive resuscitation efforts and the mammalian diving reflex improve survival of near-drowning victims. Treatment of submersion injuries

Dermal cleansing/eye irrigation

-Skin and ocular decontamination: removal of toxins from skin and eyes using water or saline -With the exception of mustard gas, toxins can be removed with water or saline. -Water mixes with mustard gas and releases chlorine gas . -Decontamination takes priority over all interventions except basic life support measures.

Primary Survey

-Stabilize/immobilize cervical spine. -Breathing -Circulation -Disability -Exposure/environmental control

Treatment of Heat Exhaustion/Stroke

-Stablize ABCs and rapidly reduce temperature -Place patient in cool area and remove constrictive clothing. -Place moist sheet over patient to decrease core temperature. -Provide oral fluid. -Replace electrolytes. -Initiate normal saline IV solution if oral solutions are not tolerated.

Emergency and Mass Casualty Incident Preparedness

-System of colored tags designates both seriousness of injury and likelihood of survival. -Casualties need to be treated and stabilized. -Many casualties will arrive at hospitals on their own. -Total number of casualties a hospital can expect is estimated by doubling number of casualties that arrive in first hour.

Treatment for Hypothermia

-Warm patient to at least 90º F (32.2º C) before pronouncing dead. -Mild hypothermia: passive or active external rewarming -Moderate to severe hypothermia: active core rewarming

Additional Considerations with Heat Exhaustion/Stroke

-Watch for cardiac dysrthymias (due to electrolyte imbalance) -Cerebral Edema and hemorrhage -Muscle breakdown leading to myoglobinuria which can cause renal damage -No salt tablets to prevent gastric irritation and hypernatremia

Actions to Take in Mass Causality

-When an emergency or MCI occurs, first responders (e.g., police, emergency medical personnel) are dispatched. -Triage of casualties differs from usual ED triage and is conducted in <15 seconds.

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A client with osteoporosis needs education about diet and ways to increase bone density. Which of the following should be included in the teaching plan? Select all that apply. 1. Maintain a diet with adequate amounts of vitamin D, as found in fortified milk and cereals. 2. Choose good calcium sources, such as figs, broccoli, and almonds. 3. Use alcohol in moderation because a moderate intake has no known negative effects. 4. Try swimming as a good exercise to maintain bone mass. 5. Avoid the use of high-fat foods, such as avocados, salad dressings, and fried foods.

1, 2, 3. A diet with adequate amounts of vitamin D aids in the regulation, absorption, and subsequent utilization of calcium and phosphorus, which are necessary for the normal calcification of bone. Figs, broccoli, and almonds are very good sources of calcium. Moderate intake of alcohol has no known negative effects on bone density but excessive alcohol intake does reduce bone density. Swimming, biking, and other non- weight-bearing exercises do not maintain bone mass. Walking and running, which are weight-bearing exercises, do maintain bone mass. The client should eat a balanced diet but does not need to avoid the use of high-fat foods.

When developing a teaching plan for a client who is prescribed acetaminophen (Tylenol) for muscle pain, which information should the nurse expect to include? Select all that apply. 1. The drug can be used if the person is allergic to aspirin. 2. Acetaminophen does not affect platelet aggregation. 3. This drug causes little or no gastric distress. 4. Acetaminophen exerts a strong anti-inflammatory effect. 5. The client should have the International Normalized Ratio (INR) checked regularly.

1, 2, 3. Acetaminophen is an alternative for a client who is allergic to aspirin. It does not affect platelet aggregation and the client does not need to have coagulation studies (such as INR). Acetaminophen causes little or no gastric distress. Acetaminophen exerts no anti-inflammatory effects.

Of the clients listed below, who is at risk for developing rheumatoid arthritis (RA)? Select all that apply. 1. Adults between the ages of 20 and 50 years. 2. Adults who have had an infectious disease with the Epstein-Barr virus. 3. Adults that are of the male gender. 4. Adults who possess the genetic link, specifically HLA-DR4. 5. Adults who also have osteoarthritis.

1, 2, 4. Rheumatoid arthritis (RA) affects women three times more often than men, between the ages of 20 and 55 years. Research has determined that RA occurs in clients who have had infectious disease, such as the Epstein-Barr virus. The genetic link, specifically HLA-DR4, has been found in 65% of clients with RA. People with osteoarthritis are not necessarily at risk for developing rheumatoid arthritis.

Which of the following statements should the nurse include in the teaching session when preparing a client for arthrocentesis? Select all that apply. 1. "A local anesthetic agent may be injected into the joint site for your comfort." 2. "A syringe and needle will be used to withdraw fluid from your joint." 3. "The procedure, although not painful, will provide immediate relief." 4. "We'll want you to keep your joint active after the procedure to increase blood flow." 5. "You will need to wear a compression bandage for several days after the procedure."

1, 2, 5. An arthrocentesis is performed to aspirate excess synovial fluid, pus, or blood from a joint cavity to relieve pain or to diagnosis inflammatory diseases such as rheumatoid arthritis. A local agent may be used to decrease the pain of the needle insertion through the skin and into the joint cavity. Aspiration of the fluid into the syringe can be very painful because of the size and inflammation of the joint. Usually a steroid medication is injected locally to alleviate the inflammation; a compression bandage is applied to help decrease swelling; and the client is asked to rest the joint for up to 24 hours afterwards to help relieve the pain and promote rest to the inflamed joint. The client may experience pain during this time until the inflammation begins to resolve and swelling decreases.

A client with osteoarthritis will undergo an arthrocentesis on his painful edematous knee. What should be included in the nursing plan of care? Select all that apply. 1. Explain the procedure. 2. Administer preoperative medication 1 hour before surgery. 3. Instruct the client to immobilize the knee for 2 days after the surgery. 4. Assess the site for bleeding. 5. Offer pain medication.

1, 4, 5. To prepare a client for an arthrocentesis, the nurse should tell the client that a local anesthetic administered by the physician will decrease discomfort. There may be bleeding after the procedure, so the nurse should check the dressing. The client may experience pain. The nurse should offer pain medication and evaluate outcomes for pain relief. Because a local anesthetic is used, the client will not require preoperative medication. The client will rest the knee for 24 hours and then should begin range-of-motion and muscle strengthening exercises.

2. A client with rheumatoid arthritis states, "I can't do my household chores without becoming tired. My knees hurt whenever I walk." Which nursing diagnosis would be most appropriate? 1. Activity intolerance related to fatigue and pain. 2. Self-care deficit related to increasing joint pain. 3. Ineffective coping related to chronic pain. 4. Disturbed body image related to fatigue and joint pain.

1. Based on the client's complaints, the most appropriate nursing diagnosis would be Activity intolerance related to fatigue and pain. Nursing interventions would focus on helping the client conserve energy and decrease episodes of fatigue. Although the client may develop a self-care deficit related to the activity intolerance and increasing joint pain, the client is voicing concerns about household chores and difficulty around the house and yard, not self-care issues. Over time, the client may develop ineffective coping or body image disturbance as the disorder becomes chronic with increasing pain and fatigue.

After teaching the client with severe rheumatoid arthritis about prescribed methotrexate (Rheumatrex), which of the following statements indicates the need for further teaching? 1. "I will take my vitamins while I'm on this drug." 2. "I must not drink any alcohol while I'm taking this drug." 3. "I should brush my teeth after every meal." 4. "I will continue taking my birth control pills."

1. Because some over-the-counter vitamin supplements contain folic acid, the client should avoid self-medication with vitamins while taking methotrexate, a folic acid antagonist. Because methotrexate is hepatotoxic, the client should avoid the intake of alcohol, which could increase the risk for hepatotoxicity. Methotrexate can cause bone marrow depression, placing the client at risk for infection. Therefore, meticulous mouth care is essential to minimize the risk of infection. Contraception should be used during methotrexate therapy and for 8 weeks after the therapy has been discontinued because of its effect on mitosis. Methotrexate is considered teratogenic.

Which of the following statements indicates that the client with osteoarthritis understands the effects of capsaicin (Zostrix) cream? 1. "I always wash my hands right after I apply the cream." 2. "After I apply the cream, I wrap my knee with an elastic bandage." 3. "I keep the cream in the cabinet above the stove in the kitchen." 4. "I also use the same cream when I get a cut or a burn."

1. Capsaicin cream, which produces analgesia by preventing the reaccumulation of substance P in the peripheral sensory neurons, is made from the active ingredients of hot peppers. Therefore, clients should wash their hands immediately after applying capsaicin cream if they do not wear gloves, to avoid possible contact between the cream and mucous membranes. Clients are instructed to avoid wearing tight bandages over areas where capsaicin cream has been applied because swelling may occur from inflammation of the arthritis in the joint and lead to constriction on the peripheral neurovascular system. Capsaicin cream should be stored in areas between 59 ° F and 86 ° F (15 ° C and 30 ° C). The cabinet over the stove in the kitchen would be too warm. Capsaicin cream should not come in contact with irritated and broken skin, mucous membranes, or eyes. Therefore it should not be used on cuts or burns.

The client diagnosed with osteoarthritis states, "My friend takes steroid pills for her rheumatoid arthritis. Why don't I take steroids for my osteoarthritis?" Which of the following is the best explanation? 1. Intra-articular corticosteroid injections are used to treat osteoarthritis. 2. Oral corticosteroids can be used in osteoarthritis. 3. A systemic effect is needed in osteoarthritis. 4. Rheumatoid arthritis and osteoarthritis are two similar diseases.

1. Corticosteroids are used for clients with osteoarthritis to obtain a local effect. Therefore, they are given only via intra-articular injection. Oral corticosteroids are avoided because they can cause an acceleration of osteoarthritis. Rheumatoid arthritis and osteoarthritis are two different diseases.

Which of the following should lead the nurse to suspect that a client with a fracture of the right femur may be developing a fat embolus? 1. Acute respiratory distress syndrome. 2. Migraine-like headaches. 3. Numbness in the right leg. 4. Muscle spasms in the right thigh.

1. Fat emboli usually result in symptoms of acute respiratory distress syndrome, such as apprehension, chest pain, cyanosis, dyspnea, tachypnea, tachycardia, and decreased partial pressure of arterial oxygen resulting from poor oxygen exchange. Migraine-like headaches are not a symptom of a fat embolism, but mental confusion, memory loss, and a headache from poor oxygen exchange may be seen with central nervous system involvement. Numbness in the right leg is a peripheral neurovascular response that most likely is related to the femoral fracture. Muscle spasms in the right thigh are a symptom of a neuromuscular response affecting the local muscle around the femoral fracture site.

A postmenopausal client is scheduled for a bone-density scan. To plan for the client's test, what should the nurse communicate to the client? 1. Request that the client remove all metal objects on the day of the scan. 2. Instruct the client to consume foods and beverages with a high content of calcium for 2 days before the test. 3. Inform the client that she will need to ingest 600 mg of calcium gluconate by mouth for 2 weeks before the test. 4. Tell the client that she should report any significant pain to her physician at least 2 days before the test.

1. Metal will interfere with the test. Metallic objects within the examination field, such as jewelry, earrings, and dental amalgams, may inhibit organ visualization and can produce unclear images. Ingesting foods and beverages days before the test will not affect bone mineral status. Short-term calcium gluconate intake will also not influence bone mineral status. The client may already have had chronic pain as a result of a bone fracture or from osteoporosis.

A physician orders a lengthy X-ray examination for a client with osteoarthritis. Which of the following actions by the nurse would demonstrate client advocacy? 1. Contact the X-ray department and ask the technician if the lengthy session can be divided into shorter sessions. 2. Contact the physician to determine if an alternative examination could be scheduled. 3. Provide a dose of acetaminophen (Tylenol). 4. Cancel the examination because of the hard X-ray table.

1. Shorter sessions will allow the client to rest between the sessions. Changing the physician's order to a different examination will not provide the information needed for this client's treatment. Acetaminophen is a nonopioid analgesic and an antipyretic, not an anti-inflammatory agent. Thus, it would not help this client avoid the adverse effects of a lengthy X-ray examination. Although the X-ray table is hard, there are other options for making the client comfortable, rather than canceling the examination.

A client has a Pearson attachment on the traction setup. Which of the following is the purpose of this attachment? 1. To support the lower portion of the leg. 2. To support the thigh and upper leg. 3. To allow attachment of the skeletal pin. 4. To prevent flexion deformities in the ankle and foot.

1. The Pearson attachment supports the lower leg and provides increased stability in the overall traction setup. It also makes it easier to maintain correct alignment. It does not support the thigh and upper leg or prevent flexion deformities in the ankle and foot. It is not attached to the skeletal pin.

The client asks the nurse what his activity limitations are while he is in Buck's traction. The nurse should tell the client: 1. "You can sit up whenever you want." 2. "You must lie flat on your back most of the time." 3. "You can turn your body." 4. "You must lie on your stomach."

1. The client can sit up in bed, remaining in the supine position so that an even, sustained amount of traction is maintained under the bandage used in the Buck's traction. Maintenance of even, sustained traction decreases the chance that the bandage or traction strap might slip and cause compression or stress on the nerves or vascular tracts, resulting in permanent damage. The client does not have to remain flat but may adjust the head of the bed to varying degrees of elevation while remaining in the supine position. The client should not turn his body to another position because the bandage may slip.

The client has a nursing diagnosis of Self-care deficit related to the confinement of traction. Which of the following would indicate a successful outcome for this diagnosis? 1. The client assists as much as possible in his care, demonstrating increased participation over time. 2. The client allows the nurse to complete his care in an efficient manner without interfering. 3. The client allows his wife to assume total responsibility for his care. 4. The client allows his wife to complete his care to promote feelings of usefulness.

1. The client's assisting as much as possible in his care and increasing participation over time indicate that the client has accomplished self-care by gaining a sense of control. If the client lets the nurse complete his care without interfering, his behavior would indicate passivity, possibly from denial or depression. If the client allows his wife to assume total responsibility for his care or to complete his care, he still has a self-care deficit and a successful outcome has not been reached.

Because a client has a Thomas splint, the nurse should assess the client regularly for which of the following? 1. Signs of skin pressure in the groin area. 2. Evidence of decreased breath sounds. 3. Skin breakdown behind the heel. 4. Urine retention.

1. The nurse should assess for signs of skin pressure in the groin area because the Thomas splint, which is a half-ring that slips over the thigh and suspends the lower extremity in direct skeletal traction, may cause discomfort, pressure, or skin irritation in the groin. The nurse always assesses respirations as part of routine vital signs, but assessing for evidence of decreased breath sounds is not a routine assessment related directly to the Thomas splint. The head of the bed can be elevated to facilitate breathing, but not more than 25 degrees, to avoid continually moving the client toward the foot of the bed from the weight of the traction. The nurse always assesses for pressure areas on dependent parts, but assessing for skin breakdown behind the heel is not a routine assessment related directly to the Thomas splint, in which the heel is free of any contact with padding or metal parts of the Pearson attachment for the balanced suspension traction. The client who is in a Thomas splint is able to use a bedpan to urinate, especially the fracture bedpan for a female client and the urinal for a male. Urine retention should not be a special assessment directly related to the Thomas splint, but it may be a client-specific assessment.

A client has a tibial fracture that required casting. Approximately 5 hours later, the client has increasing pain distal to the left tibial fracture despite the morphine injection administered 30 minutes previously. Which of the following should be the nurse's next assessment? 1. Presence of a distal pulse. 2. Pain with a pain rating scale. 3. Vital sign changes. 4. Potential for drug tolerance.

1. The nurse should assess the client's ability to move her toes and for the presence of distal pulses, including a neurovascular assessment of the area below the cast. Increasing pain unrelieved by usual analgesics and occurring 4 to 12 hours after the onset of casting or trauma may be the first sign of compartment syndrome, which can lead to permanent damage to nerves and muscles. Although the nurse can use a pain rating scale or assess for changes in vital signs to objectively assess the client's pain, the client's complaints suggest early and important signs of compartment syndrome requiring immediate intervention. The nurse should not confuse these signs with the potential for drug tolerance. This assessment might be appropriate once the suspicion of compartment syndrome has been ruled out.

A client returned from surgery with a debrided open tibial fracture and has a three-way drainage system. The nurse should first: 1. Review the results of culture and sensitivity testing of the wound. 2. Look for the presence of a pressure dressing over the wound. 3. Determine if the client has increased pain from exposed nerve endings. 4. Check the client's blood pressure for hypotension resulting from additional vessel bleeding.

1. The wound was left open with a three-way drainage system in place to irrigate the debrided wound with normal saline or an antibiotic. Before the debridement, a sample of the wound would be taken for culture and sensitivity testing so that an organism-specific antibiotic could be administered to prevent possible serious sequelae of osteomyelitis. Therefore, the nurse should review the results of the culture and sensitivity report. A pressure dressing would not be applied to an open wound. Rather, a wet-to-dry dressing most likely would be used. There should not be increased pain related to the exposure of nerve endings in the subcutaneous tissue of the wound that was left open to the environment. The bleeding of vessels should be controlled as it would have been if the wound had been closed. Therefore, additional vessel bleeding should not be a problem.

A patient with osteomyelitis is to receive vancomycin (Vancocin) 500 mg IV every 6 hours. The vancomycin is diluted in 100 mL of normal saline and needs to be administered over 1 hour. The nurse will set the IV pump for how many mL/minute?

1.67. To administer 100 mL in 60 minutes, the IV pump will need to provide 1.67 mL/minute.

The nurse prepares a teaching plan for a client about crutch walking using a two-point gait pattern. Which of the following should the nurse include? 1. Advance a crutch on one side and then advance the opposite foot; repeat on the opposite side. 2. Advance a crutch on one side and simultaneously advance and bear weight on the opposite foot; repeat on the opposite side. 3. Advance both crutches together and then follow by lifting both lower extremities to the level of the crutches. 4. Advance both crutches together and then follow by lifting both lower extremities past the level of the crutches.

2. A two-point gait involves partial weight bearing on each foot, with each crutch advancing simultaneously with the opposing leg. Advancing a crutch on one side and then advancing the opposite foot, and repeating on the opposite side, illustrates the four-point gait. When the client advances both crutches together and follows by lifting both lower extremities to the same level as the crutches, the gait is called a "swing to" gait. When the client advances both crutches together and follows by lifting both lower extremities past the level of the crutches, the gait is called a "swing through" gait. The "swing through" gait is often used by paraplegic clients because it allows them to place weight on their legs while the crutches are moved one stride ahead.

The client with a fractured femur is upset and agitated about her injury and its treatment. She says, "How can I stay like this for weeks? I can't even move!" Which of the following is the most appropriate nursing diagnosis? 1. Impaired physical mobility related to traction. 2. Ineffective coping related to prolonged immobility. 3. Deficient diversional activity related to prolonged hospitalization. 4. Activity intolerance related to impaired mobility.

2. Based on the client's statements, Ineffective coping is the most appropriate nursing diagnosis because the client is voicing frustration about the current situation and her inability to move. The nurse should seek ways to help the client adjust to and cope with her present state of immobility. Emphasis should be placed on what the client can do to care for herself, such as participating in her daily care and exercises to maintain muscle strength, to help her maintain some control over her situation. The data do not support a diagnosis of Impaired mobility, Deficient diversional activities, or Activity intolerance.

A 25-year-old client taking hydroxychloroquine (Plaquenil) for rheumatoid arthritis reports difficulty seeing out of her left eye. Correct interpretation of this assessment finding indicates which of the following? 1. Development of a cataract. 2. Possible retinal degeneration. 3. Part of the disease process. 4. A coincidental occurrence.

2. Difficulty seeing out of one eye, when evaluated in conjunction with the client's medication therapy regimen, leads to the suspicion of possible retinal degeneration. The possibility of an irreversible retinal degeneration caused by deposits of hydroxychloroquine (Plaquenil) in the layers of the retina requires an ophthalmologic examination before therapy is begun and at 6-month intervals. Although cataracts may develop in young adults, they are less likely, and damage from the hydroxychloroquine is the most obvious at-risk factor. Eyesight is not affected by the disease process of rheumatoid arthritis.

The client who had an open femoral fracture was discharged to her home where she developed fever, night sweats, chills, restlessness, and restrictive movement of the fractured leg. Which of the following reflects the best interpretation of these findings? 1. Pulmonary emboli. 2. Osteomyelitis. 3. Fat emboli. 4. Urinary tract infection.

2. Fever, night sweats, chills, restlessness, and restrictive movement of the fractured leg are clinical manifestations of osteomyelitis, which is a pyogenic bone infection caused by bacteria (usually staphylococci), a virus, or a fungus. The bone is inaccessible to macrophages and antibodies for protection against infections, so an infection in this site can become serious quickly. The client with a pulmonary or fat embolus would develop symptoms of pulmonary compromise, such as shortness of breath, chest pain, angina, and mental confusion. Signs and symptoms of urinary tract infection would include pain over the suprapubic, groin, or back region with fever and chills, with no restrictive movement of the leg.

Which of the following interventions would be least appropriate for a client who is in a double hip spica cast? 1. Encouraging the intake of cranberry juice. 2. Advising the client to eat large amounts of cheese. 3. Establishing regular times for elimination. 4. Having the client dangle at the bedside.

2. The client in a double hip spica cast should avoid eating foods that can be constipating, such as cheese. Rather, fresh fruits and vegetables should be encouraged and the client should be encouraged to drink at least 2,500 mL/ day. Drinking cranberry juice, which helps keep urine acidic, thereby avoiding the development of renal calculi, is encouraged. The client should be encouraged to establish regular times for elimination to promote regularity in bowel and bladder habits. The client will develop orthostatic hypotension unless the circulatory system is reconditioned slowly through dangling and standing exercises.

The nurse is planning care for a client with osteomyelitis. The client is taking an antibiotic, but the infection has not resolved. The nurse should advise the client to do which of the following? 1. Use herbal supplements. 2. Eat a diet high in protein and vitamins C and D. 3. Ask the health care provider for a change of antibiotics. 4. Encourage frequent passive range-of-motion to the affected extremity.

2. The goal of care for this client is healing and tissue growth while the client continues on long-term antibiotic therapy to clear the infection. A diet high in protein and vitamins C and D promotes healing. Herbal supplements may potentiate bleeding (e.g., ginkgo, ginger, tumeric, chamomile, kelp, horse chestnut, garlic, and dong quai) and have not been proven through research to promote healing. Frequent passive motion will increase circulation but may also aggravate localized bone pain. It is not appropriate to advise the client to change antibiotics as treatment may take time.

After teaching a group of clients with osteoarthritis about using regular exercise, which of the following client statements indicates effective teaching? 1. "Performing range-of-motion exercises will increase my joint mobility." 2. "Exercise helps to drive synovial fluid through the cartilage." 3. "Joint swelling should determine when to stop exercising." 4. "Exercising in the outdoors year-round promotes joint relaxation."

2. Weight-bearing exercise plays a very important role in stimulating regeneration of cartilage, which lacks blood vessels, by driving synovial fluid through the joint cartilage. Joint mobility is increased by weight-bearing exercises, not range-of-motion exercises, because surrounding muscles, ligaments, and tendons are strengthened. Pain is an early sign of degenerative joint bone problems. Swelling may not occur for some time after pain, if at all. Osteoarthritic pain is worsened in cold, damp weather; therefore, exercising outdoors is not recommended year round in all settings.

Which of the following client statements identifies a knowledge deficit about cast care? 1. "I'll elevate the cast above my heart initially." 2. "I'll exercise my joints above and below the cast." 3. "I can pull out cast padding to scratch inside the cast." 4. "I'll apply ice for 10 minutes to control edema for the first 24 hours."

3. Clients should not pull out cast padding to scratch inside the cast because of the hazard of skin breakdown and subsequent potential for infection. Clients are encouraged to elevate the casted extremity above the level of the heart to reduce edema and to exercise or move the joints above and below the cast to promote and maintain flexibility and muscle strength. Applying ice for 10 minutes during the first 24 hours helps to reduce edema.

At which of the following times should the nurse instruct the client to take ibuprofen (Motrin), prescribed for left hip pain secondary to osteoarthritis, to minimize gastric mucosal irritation? 1. At bedtime. 2. On arising. 3. Immediately after a meal. 4. On an empty stomach.

3. Drugs that cause gastric irritation, such as ibuprofen, are best taken after or with a meal, when stomach contents help minimize the local irritation. Taking the medication on an empty stomach at any time during the day will lead to gastric irritation. Taking the drug at bedtime with food may cause the client to gain weight, possibly aggravating the osteoarthritis. When the client arises, he is stiff from immobility and should use warmth and stretching until he gets food in his stomach.

The nurse teaches a client about heat and cold treatments to manage arthritis pain. Which of the following client statements indicates that the client still has a knowledge deficit? 1. "I can use heat and cold as often as I want." 2. "With heat, I should apply it for no longer than 20 minutes at a time." 3. "Heat-producing liniments can be used with other heat devices." 4. "Ten to 15 minutes per application is the maximum time for cold applications."

3. Heat-producing liniment can produce a burn if used with other heat devices that could intensify the heat reaction. Heat and cold can be used as often as the client desires. However, each application of heat should not exceed 20 minutes, and each application of cold should not exceed 10 to 15 minutes. Application for longer periods results in the opposite of the intended effect: vasoconstriction instead of vasodilation with heat, and vasodilation instead of vasoconstriction with cold.

A client who has been taking carisoprodol (Soma) at home for a fractured arm is admitted with a blood pressure of 80/ 50 mm Hg, a pulse rate of 115 bpm, and respirations of 8 breaths/ minute and shallow. The nurse interprets these findings as indicating which of the following? 1. Expected common adverse effects. 2. Hypersensitivity reaction. 3. Possible habituating effect. 4. Hemorrhage from gastrointestinal irritation.

3. Hypotension, tachycardia, and depressed respirations are signs of high levels of ingestion of muscle relaxants, and the client may be developing a habit of taking this drug for a prolonged period. The potential for abuse should be considered when large doses of a muscle relaxant such as carisoprodol are taken for prolonged periods. Expected common adverse effects would include drowsiness, fatigue, lassitude, blurred vision, headache, ataxia, weakness, and gastrointestinal upset. Hemorrhage from gastrointestinal irritation is not associated with this drug. Hypersensitivity reactions would be manifested by pruritus and rashes.

On a visit to the clinic, a client reports the onset of early symptoms of rheumatoid arthritis. The nurse should conduct a focused assessment for: 1. Limited motion of joints. 2. Deformed joints of the hands. 3. Early morning stiffness. 4. Rheumatoid nodules.

3. Initially, most clients with early symptoms of rheumatoid arthritis complain of early morning stiffness or stiffness after sitting still for a while. Later symptoms of rheumatoid arthritis include limited joint range of motion; deformed joints, especially of the hand; and rheumatoid nodules.

A client has a leg immobilized in traction. Which of the following activities demonstrated by the client indicate that the client understands actions to take to prevent muscle atrophy? 1. The client adducts the affected leg every 2 hours. 2. The client rolls the affected leg away from the body's midline twice per day. 3. The client performs isometric exercises to the affected extremity three times per day. 4. The client asks the nurse to add a 5-lb weight to the traction for 30 minutes/ day.

3. Isometric contractions increase the tension within a muscle but do not produce movement. Repeated isometric contractions make muscles grow larger and stronger. Adduction of the leg puts work onto the hip joint as well as altering the pull of traction. Rolling the leg, or external rotation, alters the pull of traction. Additional weight should not be added to traction unless ordered by the physician; it will not prevent muscle atrophy.

A client is in the acute phase of rheumatoid arthritis. Which of the following should the nurse identify as lowest priority in the plan of care? 1. Relieving pain. 2. Preserving joint function. 3. Maintaining usual ways of accomplishing tasks. 4. Preventing joint deformity.

3. Maintaining usual ways of accomplishing tasks would be the lowest priority during the acute phase. Rather, the focus is on developing less stressful ways of accomplishing routine tasks. Pain relief is a high priority during the acute phase because pain is typically severe and interferes with the client's ability to function. Preserving joint function and preventing joint deformity are high priorities during the acute phase to promote an optimal level of functioning and reduce the risk of contractures.

The client with a fractured tibia has been taking methocarbamol (Robaxin). Which of the following indicate that the drug is having the intended effect? 1. Lack of infection. 2. Reduction in itching. 3. Relief of muscle spasms. 4. Decrease in nervousness.

3. Methocarbamol is a muscle relaxant and acts primarily to relieve muscle spasms. It has no effect on microorganisms, does not reduce itching, and has no effect on nervousness.

A client is in balanced suspension traction using a half-ring Thomas splint with a Pearson attachment that suspends the lower extremity and applies direct skeletal traction for a hip fracture. Which of the following nursing assessments would not be appropriate? 1. Greater trochanter skin checks. 2. Pin site inspection. 3. Neurovascular checks proximal to the splint. 4. Foot movement evaluation.

3. Neurovascular checks should be performed distal or past the site of the splint, not proximal or above the site of the splint, at least every 4 hours. An injury or compromise to the peripheral nervous innervation or blood flow will reflect a change on the site of the splint after the pathway from the heart and brain. Checking the skin over the greater trochanter is appropriate because the half-ring of the Thomas splint can slide around the greater trochanter area where the traction is applied; it should be checked routinely along with other areas at high risk for pressure necrosis, such as the fibular head, ischial tuberosity, malleoli, and hamstring tendons. Inspecting the pin site is appropriate because any drainage or redness might indicate an infection in the bone in which the pin is inserted. Immediate treatment is imperative to avoid osteomyelitis and possible loss of the limb. Evaluation of the foot for movement is important to obtain neuromuscular-vascular data for assessment in comparison with the baseline data of the affected extremity and with the opposite extremity to detect any compromise of the client's condition.

The client in balanced suspension traction is transported to surgery for closed reduction and internal fixation of his fractured femur. Which of the following should the nurse do when transporting the client to the operating room? 1. Transfer the client to a cart with manually suspended traction. 2. Call the surgeon to request an order to temporarily remove the traction. 3. Send the client on his bed with extra help to stabilize the traction. 4. Remove the traction and send the client on a cart.

3. The nurse should send the client to the operating room on his bed with extra help to keep the traction from moving to maintain the femur in the proper alignment before surgery. Transferring the client to a cart with manually suspended traction is inappropriate because doing so places the client at risk for additional trauma to the surrounding neurovascular and soft tissues, as would removing the traction. The surgeon need not be called because the decision about transferring the client is an independent nursing action.

When admitting a client with a fractured extremity, the nurse should first focus the assessment on which of the following? 1. The area proximal to the fracture. 2. The actual fracture site. 3. The area distal to the fracture. 4. The opposite extremity for baseline comparison.

3. The nursing assessment is first focused on the region distal to the fracture for neurovascular injury or compromise. When a nerve or blood vessel is severed or obstructed at the actual fracture site, innervation to the nerve or blood flow to the vessel is disrupted below the site; therefore, the area distal to the fracture site is the area of compromised neurologic input or vascular flow and return, not the area above the fracture site or the fracture site itself. The nurse may assess the opposite extremity at the area proximal to the fracture site for a baseline comparison of pulse quality, color, temperature, size, and so on, but the comparison would be made after the initial neurovascular assessment.

4. The nurse would instruct the patient which of the following to minimize complications? a) drinking a minimum of 3000 ml of fluid per day b) eating a minimum of 2500 calories per day c) walking at least three miles per day d) resting at least three hours per day

4) A - renal urate lithiasis (kidney stones) may result from precipitation of uric acid in the presence of low urinary pH. This can be avoided by allowing the patient liberal fluid intake to promote urinary excretion of uric acid.

After teaching the client with rheumatoid arthritis about measures to conserve energy in activities of daily living involving the small joints, which of the following, if stated by the client, would indicate the need for additional teaching? 1. Pushing with palms when rising from a chair. 2. Holding packages close to the body. 3. Sliding objects. 4. Carrying a laundry basket with clinched fingers and fists.

4. Carrying a laundry basket with clinched fingers and fists is not an example of conserving energy of small joints. The laundry basket should be held with both hands opened as wide as possible and with outstretched arms so that pressure is not placed on the small joints of the fingers. When rising from a chair, the palms should be used instead of the fingers so as to distribute weight over the larger area of the palms. Holding packages close to the body provides greater support to the shoulder, elbow, and wrist joints because muscles of the arms and hands are used to stabilize the weight against the body. This decreases the stress and weight or pull on small joints such as the fingers. Objects can be slid with the palm of the hand, which distributes weight over the larger area of the palms instead of stressing the small joints of the fingers to pick up the weight of the object to move it to another place.

Which of the following should the nurse assess when completing the history and physical examination of a client diagnosed with osteoarthritis? 1. Anemia. 2. Osteoporosis. 3. Weight loss. 4. Local joint pain.

4. Osteoarthritis is a degenerative joint disease with local manifestations such as local joint pain, unlike rheumatoid arthritis, which has systemic manifestation such as anemia and osteoporosis. Weight loss occurs in rheumatoid arthritis, whereas most clients with osteoarthritis are overweight.

A client with a fractured right femur has not had any immunizations since childhood. Which of the following biologic products should the nurse administer to provide the client with passive immunity for tetanus? 1. Tetanus toxoid. 2. Tetanus antigen. 3. Tetanus vaccine. 4. Tetanus antitoxin.

4. Passive immunity for tetanus is provided in the form of tetanus antitoxin or tetanus immune globulin. An antitoxin is an antibody to the toxin of an organism. Administering tetanus toxoid, antigen, or vaccine would provide active immunity by stimulating the body to produce its own antibodies.

The teaching plan for the client with rheumatoid arthritis includes rest promotion. Which of the following would the nurse expect to instruct the client to avoid during rest periods? 1. Proper body alignment. 2. Elevating the part. 3. Prone lying positions. 4. Positions of flexion.

4. Positions of flexion should be avoided to prevent loss of functional ability of affected joints. Proper body alignment during rest periods is encouraged to maintain correct muscle and joint placement. Lying in the prone position is encouraged to avoid further curvature of the spine and internal rotation of the shoulders.

After teaching the client with a femoral fracture about the purpose of treatment with skeletal traction, which of the following, if stated by the client, would indicate the need for additional teaching? 1. To align injured bones. 2. To provide long-term pull. 3. To apply 25 lb of traction. 4. To pull weight with a boot.

4. Skeletal traction is not used to pull weight with a boot. Skeletal traction involves the insertion of a wire or a pin into the bone to maintain a pull of 5 to 45 lb on the area, promoting proper alignment of the fractured bones over a long term.

A client with rheumatoid arthritis tells the nurse, "I know it is important to exercise my joints so that I won't lose mobility, but my joints are so stiff and painful that exercising is difficult." Which of the following responses by the nurse would be most appropriate? 1. "You are probably exercising too much. Decrease your exercise to every other day." 2. "Tell the physician about your symptoms. Maybe your analgesic medication can be increased." 3. "Stiffness and pain are part of the disease. Learn to cope by focusing on activities you enjoy." 4. "Take a warm tub bath or shower before exercising. This may help with your discomfort."

4. Superficial heat applications, such as tub baths, showers, and warm compresses, can be helpful in relieving pain and stiffness. Exercises can be performed more comfortably and more effectively after heat applications. The client with rheumatoid arthritis must balance rest with exercise every day, not every other day. Typically, large doses of analgesics, which can lead to hepatotoxic effects, are not necessary. Learning to cope with the pain by refocusing is inappropriate.

The nurse is planning care for the client with a femoral fracture who is in balanced suspension traction. Which of the following would the nurse be least likely to include in the plan of care? 1. Use of a fracture bedpan. 2. Checks for redness over the ischial tuberosity. 3. Elevation of the head of bed no more than 25 degrees. 4. Personal hygiene with a complete bed bath.

4. The client with a femoral fracture in balanced suspension traction should not be given a complete bed bath. Rather, the client is encouraged to participate in self-care and movement in bed, such as with a trapeze triangle. Use of a fracture bedpan is appropriate. A fracture bedpan is lower, and it is easier for the client to move on and off the bedpan without altering the line of traction. Checking for areas of redness or pressure over all areas in contact with the traction or bed, including the ischial tuberosity, is important to prevent possible skin breakdown. The client should be positioned so that the feet do not press against the footboard. Therefore, elevating the head of the bed no more than 25 degrees is recommended to keep the client from moving down in the bed.

A client with a fracture develops compartment syndrome. Which of the following signs should alert the nurse to impending organ failure? 1. Crackles. 2. Jaundice. 3. Generalized edema. 4. Dark, scanty urine.

4. The client with compartment syndrome may release myoglobin from damaged muscle cells into the circulation. This becomes trapped in the renal tubules, resulting in dark, scanty urine, possibly leading to acute renal failure. Crackles may suggest respiratory complications; jaundice suggests liver failure; and generalized edema may suggest heart failure. However, these are not associated with compartment syndrome.

The client with rheumatoid arthritis tells the nurse, "I have a friend who took gold shots and had a wonderful response. Why didn't my physician let me try that?" Which of the following responses by the nurse would be most appropriate? 1. "It's the physician's prerogative to decide how to treat you. The physician has chosen what is best for your situation." 2. "Tell me more about your friend's arthritic condition. Maybe I can answer that question for you." 3. "That drug is used for cases that are worse than yours. It wouldn't help you, so don't worry about it." 4. "Every person is different. What works for one client may not always be effective for another."

4. The nurse's most appropriate response is one that is therapeutic. The basic principle of therapeutic communication and a therapeutic relationship is honesty. Therefore, the nurse needs to explain truthfully that each client is different and that there are various forms of arthritis and arthritis treatment. To state that it is the physician's prerogative to decide how to treat the client implies that the client is not a member of his or her own health care team and is not a participant in his or her care. The statement also is defensive, which serves to block any further communication or questions from the client about the physician. Asking the client to tell more about the friend presumes that the client knows correct and complete information, which is not a valid assumption to make. The nurse does not know about the client's friend and should not make statements about another client's condition. Stating that the drug is for cases that are worse than the client's demonstrates that the nurse is making assumptions that are not necessarily valid or appropriate. Also, telling the client not to worry ignores the underlying emotions associated with the question, totally discounting the client's feelings.

A patient arrives in the emergency department after exposure to radioactive dust. Which action should the nurse take first? a. Place the patient in a shower. b. Obtain the patient's vital signs. c. Determine the type of radioactive agent. d. Obtain a baseline complete blood count.

A The initial action should be to protect staff members and decrease the patient's exposure to the radioactive agent by decontamination. The other actions can be done after the decontamination is completed.

Situation: Maco, a newly registered nurse, works as a private duty nurse of a 55 year old female Canadian national who has gout. 3. Which of the following nursing diagnoses is a priority for a patient with gout? a) pain b) fatigue c) risk for infection d) risk for peripheral neurovascular dysfunction

A - Gouty arthritis is a metabolic disorder characterized by accumulation and deposition of uric acid crystals, called tophi, in tissues especially in joints that results in inflammatory response. It is caused by prolonged hyperuricemia due to problems in synthesizing purines or by poor excretion of uric acid by the kidney. This disorder is more common in men, with onset around age 50. Other signs and symptoms include: malaise pruritus headache elevated serum uric acid presence of tophi positive monsodium urate crystals in synovial fluid inflammation of affected joint Nursing care during the acute phase when severe joint pain afflicts the patient includes: provide bed rest use bed cradle to support bed sheets and keep pressures of sheets off joint perform range of motion exercise gently carefully align joints so they are slightly flexed administer medications

Which of the following will contribute to the development of primary gout? a) beer and wine b) eggs and milk c) vegetables and meat d) butter and fruits

A - beer and wine are purine-rich beverages. Gout is a metabolic disorder of purine. Other foods rich in purine are: organ meats, legumes, salted anchovies, shellfish, mushroom, sweetbreads, consomme, hearing fish.

5. Foods allowed in the diet of gout patient include: a) cheese b) beef c) sardines d) liver

A - preventive measures for gout: uric acid is formed from metabolism of purine. To prevent further formation and accumulation of uric acid, the patient must be advised to stick on a low purine diet. This means that the patient must avoid: sweet breads, yeast, heart, herring, sardines, anchovies, shellfish, heavy alcohol intake avoidance of excessive weight gain alkaline ash diet to increase the pH of urine to discourage precipitation of uric acid and enhance the action of drugs such as probenicid (Benemid)

6. The patient is placed on allopurinol (Zyloprim) therapy. To monitor effectiveness of the therapy, the nurse will monitor which the following serum laboratory values? a) uric acid b) fasting blood glucose c) serum calcium d) alkaline phosphatase

A - preventive therapy - prevention of future gout attacks is by placing the patient on daily medication that either promote uric acid excretion or prevent uric acid formation. To evaluate the effectiveness of the therapy, serum uric acid level of the patient must be monitored. The medication is effective when uric acid goes down to normal level below 6.9 mg/dl.

A nurse arrives on the scene of a multi-motor vehicle accident. The nurse determines that which of the following clients should be seen first? a) A 48 year old male who is pale, diaphoretic and reporting chest pain and shortness of breath b) a 16 year old male with ecchymosis, pain, and swelling of the right arm c) a 42 year old female who has a laceration on the forehead and is reporting neck and shoulder pain d) an 8 year old child who is crying hysterically and reports abdominal pain

A - the client with problem of the airway and who has unstable condition should be given highest priority. Priority ABC.

2. Which of the following guidelines should a nurse include in the teaching plan for a patient who has osteoarthritis? a) achieve ideal body weight b) increase daily calcium intake to 1500 mg c) maintain a high fiber diet d) sleep at least 10 hours each day

A - the primary cause of arthritis is not yet known but it is often-associated with obesity, aging, trauma, fractures, and infections. Osteoarthritis is a wear and tear disease of the joints. The more pressure it takes the more severe and the faster is the progression of the disease. Thus, one of the important aspects of management if the patient is obese is to lose weight to lessen the pressure on the joints

A child reports to the camp nurse's office after stepping on a bee. The child has pain, erythema, and edema of the lower aspect of the left foot. As the nurse is observing the foot, the child says, "I feel like my throat is getting tight." The first action the nurse should take is: a) assess the child's airway and breathing b) call 911 and request an ambulance c) administer subcutaneous epinephrine d) remove the stinger from the foot

A - the situation indicates that the child is having anaphylactic reaction. The first action by the nurse is to assess airway and breathing. Priority assessment is ABC.

During the primary assessment of a trauma victim, the nurse determines that the patient is breathing and has an unobstructed airway. Which action should the nurse take next? a. Observe the patient's respiratory effort. b. Check the patient's level of consciousness. c. Palpate extremities for capillary refill time. d. Examine the patient for any external bleeding.

A Even with a patent airway, patients can have other problems that compromise ventilation, so the next action is to assess the patient's breathing. The other actions also are part of the initial survey but assessment of breathing should be done immediately after assessing for airway patency.

A patient who has experienced blunt abdominal trauma during a car accident is complaining of increasing abdominal pain. The nurse will plan to teach the patient about the purpose of a. ultrasonography. b. peritoneal lavage. c. nasogastric (NG) tube placement. d. magnetic resonance imaging (MRI).

A For patients who are at risk for intraabdominal bleeding, focused abdominal ultrasonography is the preferred method to assess for intraperitoneal bleeding. An MRI would not be used. Peritoneal lavage is an alternative, but it is more invasive. An NG tube would not be helpful in diagnosis of intraabdominal bleeding.

A patient arrives in the emergency department (ED) a few hours after taking "20 to 30" acetaminophen (Tylenol) tablets. Which action will the nurse plan to take? a. Give N-acetylcysteine (Mucomyst). b. Discuss the use of chelation therapy. c. Have the patient drink large amounts of water. d. Administer oxygen using a non-rebreather mask.

A N-acetylcysteine is the recommended treatment to prevent liver damage after acetaminophen overdose. The other actions might be used for other types of poisoning, but they will not be appropriate for a patient with acetaminophen poisoning.

When preparing to rewarm a patient with hypothermia, the nurse will plan to a. attach a cardiac monitor. b. insert a urinary catheter. c. assist with endotracheal intubation. d. have sympathomimetic drugs available.

A Rewarming can produce dysrhythmias, so the patient should be monitored and treated if necessary. Urinary catheterization and endotracheal intubation are not needed for rewarming. Sympathomimetic drugs tend to stimulate the heart and increase the risk for fatal dysrhythmias such as ventricular fibrillation.

When assessing a patient admitted to the emergency department (ED) with a broken arm and facial bruises, the nurse notes multiple additional bruises in various stages of healing. Which statement or question by the nurse is most appropriate? a. "Is someone at home hurting you?" b. "You should not return to your home." c. "Would you like to see a social worker?" d. "I have to report this abuse to the police."

A The nurse's initial response should be to further assess the patient's situation. Telling the patient not to return home may be an option once further assessment is done. The patient, not the nurse, is responsible for reporting the abuse. A social worker may be appropriate once further assessment is completed.

A triage nurse in a busy emergency department assesses a patient who complains of 6/10 abdominal pain and states, "I had a temperature of 104.6º F (40.3º C) at home." The nurse's first action should be to a. assess the patient's current vital signs. b. obtain a clean-catch urine for urinalysis. c. tell the patient that it may be several hours before being seen by the doctor. d. ask the health care provider to order an analgesic medication for the patient.

A The patient's pain and statement about an elevated temperature indicate that the nurse should obtain vital signs before deciding how rapidly the patient should be seen by the health care provider. A urinalysis may be needed, but vital signs will provide the nurse with the data needed to determine this. The health care provider will not order a medication before assessing the patient.

The following actions are part of the routine emergency department (ED) protocol for a patient who has been admitted with multiple bee stings to the hands. Which action should the nurse take first? a. Remove the patient's rings. b. Place ice packs on both hands. c. Apply calamine lotion to any itching areas. d. Give diphenhydramine (Benadryl) 100 mg PO.

A The patient's rings should be removed first because it might not be possible to remove them if swelling develops. The other orders also should be implemented as rapidly as possible after the nurse has removed the jewelry.

Following an earthquake, patients are triaged by emergency medical personnel and are transported to the hospital. Which of these patients will the nurse need to assess first? a. A patient with a red tag b. A patient with a blue tag c. A patient with a yellow tag d. A patient with a green tag

A The red tag indicates a patient with a life-threatening injury requiring rapid treatment. The other tags indicate patients with less urgent injuries or those who are likely to die.

After resuscitation, a patient who had a cardiac arrest is nonresponsive to commands and therapeutic hypothermia is prescribed. Which action will the nurse include in the plan of care? a. Rapidly infuse cold normal saline. b. Avoid the use of sedative medications. c. Check neurologic status every 30 minutes. d. Rewarm if temperature is >91° F (32.8° C).

A When therapeutic hypothermia is used postresuscitation, cold normal saline is infused to rapidly lower body temperature to 89.6° F to 93.2° F (32° C to 34° C). Since hypothermia will decrease brain activity, neurologic assessment every 30 minutes is not needed. Sedative medications are administered during therapeutic hypothermia.

A nurse in a long term facility is planning care for an elderly client with confusion. Which action should the nurse take first? a) sit the client in a geriatric chair with an activity b) apply a vest restraint when the client is in a chair c) apply bilateral wrist restraints when the client is in bed d) have a staff member sit with the client at all times

A promotion of safety and providing diversional activities are priority nursing care for confused elderly clients. Application of restraints should be the last resort. Having a staff member sit with the client at all times is not necessary, unless the client is at risk to injury.

Which individuals would be at high risk for low back pain (select all that apply)? a.A 63-year-old man who is a long-distance truck driver b.A 36-year-old 6 ft, 2 in construction worker who weighs 260 lb c.A 28-year-old female yoga instructor who is 5 ft, 6 in and weighs 130 lb d.A 30-year-old male nurse who works on an orthopedic unit and smokes e.A 44-year-old female chef with prior compression fracture of the spine

A, B, D, E Risk factors associated with low back pain include a lack of muscle tone and excess body weight, stress, poor posture, cigarette smoking, pregnancy, prior compression fractures of the spine, spinal problems since birth, and a family history of back pain. Jobs that require repetitive heavy lifting, vibration (such as a jackhammer operator), and prolonged periods of sitting are also associated with low back pain. Low back pain is most often caused by a musculoskeletal problem. The causes of low back pain of musculoskeletal origin include (1) acute lumbosacral strain, (2) instability of the lumbosacral bony mechanism, (3) osteoarthritis of the lumbosacral vertebrae, (4) degenerative disc disease, and (5) herniation of an intervertebral disc. Health care personnel are at high risk for the development of low back pain. Lifting and moving patients, excessive time being stooped over or leaning forward, and frequent twisting can result in low back pain.

In which order will the nurse implement these collaborative interventions prescribed for a patient being admitted who has acute osteomyelitis with a temperature of 101.2° F? (Put a comma and a space between each answer choice [A, B, C, D].) a. Obtain blood cultures from two sites. b. Send to radiology for computed tomography (CT) scan of right leg. c. Administer gentamicin (Garamycin) 60 mg IV. d. Administer acetaminophen (Tylenol) now and every 4 hours PRN for fever.

A, C, D, B. The highest priority for possible osteomyelitis is initiation of antibiotic therapy, but cultures should be obtained before administration of antibiotics. Addressing the discomfort of the fever is the next highest priority. Because the purpose of the CT scan is to determine the extent of the infection, it can be done last.

Which nursing intervention will be included in the plan of care after a patient with a right femur fracture has a hip spica cast applied? a. Avoid placing the patient in prone position. b. Ask the patient about abdominal discomfort. c. Discuss remaining on bed rest for several weeks. d. Use the cast support bar to reposition the patient.

ANS: B Assessment of bowel sounds, abdominal pain, and nausea and vomiting will detect the development of cast syndrome. To avoid breakage, the support bar should not be used for repositioning. After the cast dries, the patient can begin ambulating with the assistance of physical therapy personnel and may be turned to the prone position

Which actions will the nurse include in the plan of care when caring for a patient with metastatic bone cancer of the left femur (select all that apply)? a. Monitor serum calcium level. b. Teach about the need for strict bed rest. c. Avoid use of sustained-release opioids for pain. d. Support the left leg when repositioning the patient. e. Support family as they discuss the prognosis of patient

A, D, E. The nurse will monitor for hypercalcemia caused by bone decalcification. Support of the leg helps reduce the risk for pathologic fractures. Although the patient may be reluctant to exercise, activity is important to maintain function and avoid the complications associated with immobility. Adequate pain medication, including sustained-release and rapidly acting opioids, is needed for the severe pain that is frequently associated with bone cancer. The prognosis for metastatic bone cancer is poor so the patient and family need to be supported as they deal with the reality of the situation.

The nurse provides instructions to a 30-year-old female office worker who has low back pain. Which statement by the patient requires an intervention by the nurse? A. "Acupuncture to the lower back would cause irreparable nerve damage." B. "Smoking may aggravate back pain by decreasing blood flow to the spine." C. "Sleeping on my side with knees and hips bent reduces stress on my back." D. "Switching between hot and cold packs provides relief of pain and stiffness."

A. "Acupuncture to the lower back would cause irreparable nerve damage." Acupuncture is a safe therapy when the practitioner has been appropriately trained. Very fine needles are inserted into the skin to stimulate specific anatomic points in the body for therapeutic purposes.

A 54-year-old patient with acute osteomyelitis asks the nurse how this problem will be treated. Which response by the nurse is most appropriate? A. "IV antibiotics are usually required for several weeks." B. "Oral antibiotics are often required for several months." C. "Surgery is almost always necessary to remove the dead tissue that is likely to be present." D. "Drainage of the foot and instillation of antibiotics into the affected area is the usual therapy."

A. "IV antibiotics are usually required for several weeks." The standard treatment for acute osteomyelitis consists of several weeks of IV antibiotic therapy. This is because bone is denser and less vascular than other tissues, and it takes time for the antibiotic therapy to eradicate all of the microorganisms. Surgery may be used for chronic osteomyelitis, which may include debridement of the devitalized and infected tissue and irrigation of the affected bone with antibiotics.

The nurse is admitting a patient to the nursing unit with a history of a herniated lumbar disc and low back pain. In completing a more thorough pain assessment, the nurse should ask the patient if which action aggravates the pain? A. Bending or lifting B. Application of warm moist heat C. Sleeping in a side-lying position D. Sitting in a fully extended recliner

A. Bending or lifting Back pain that is related to a herniated lumbar disc often is aggravated by events and activities that increase the stress and strain on the spine, such as bending or lifting, coughing, sneezing, and lifting the leg with the knee straight (straight leg-raising test). Application of moist heat, sleeping position, and ability to sit in a fully extended recliner do not aggravate the pain of a herniated lumbar disc.

The nurse evaluating effectiveness of prescribed calcitonin (Cibacalcin) and ibandronate (Boniva) for a patient with Paget's disease will consider the patient's a. pain level. b. oral intake. c. daily weight. d. grip strength.

A. Bone pain is one of the common early manifestations of Paget's disease, and the nurse should assess the pain level to determine whether the treatment is effective. The other information will also be collected by the nurse, but will not be used in evaluating the effectiveness of the therapy.

The nurse is caring for a patient hospitalized with exacerbation of chronic bronchitis and herniated lumbar disc. Which breakfast choice would be most appropriate for the nurse to encourage the patient to check on the breakfast menu? A. Bran muffin B. Scrambled eggs C. Puffed rice cereal D. Buttered white toast

A. Bran muffin Each meal should contain one or more sources of fiber, which will reduce the risk of constipation and straining with defecation, which increases back pain. Bran is typically a high-fiber food choice and is appropriate for selection from the menu. Scrambled eggs, puffed rice cereal, and buttered white toast do not have as much fiber.

A patient with acute osteomyelitis of the left femur is hospitalized for regional antibiotic irrigation. Which intervention will be included in the initial plan of care? a. Immobilization of the left leg b. Positioning the left leg in flexion c. Assisted weight-bearing ambulation d. Quadriceps-setting exercise repetitions

A. Immobilization of the affected leg helps decrease pain and reduce the risk for pathologic fractures. Weight-bearing exercise increases the risk for pathologic fractures. Flexion of the affected limb is avoided to prevent contractures.

Which action will the nurse take when caring for a patient with osteomalacia? a. Teach about the use of vitamin D supplements. b. Educate about the need for weight-bearing exercise. c. Discuss the use of medications such as bisphosphonates. d. Emphasize the importance of sunscreen use when outside.

A. Osteomalacia is caused by inadequate intake or absorption of vitamin D. Weight-bearing exercise and bisphosphonate administration may be used for osteoporosis but will not be beneficial for osteomalacia. Because ultraviolet light is needed for the body to synthesize vitamin D, the patient might be taught that 20 minutes/day of sun exposure is beneficial.

An assessment finding for a 55-year-old patient that alerts the nurse to the presence of osteoporosis is a. a measurable loss of height. b. the presence of bowed legs. c. the aversion to dairy products. d. a statement about frequent falls.

A. Osteoporosis occurring in the vertebrae produces a gradual loss of height. Bowed legs are associated with osteomalacia. Low intake of dairy products is a risk factor for osteoporosis, but it does not indicate that osteoporosis is present. Frequent falls increase the risk for fractures but are not an indicator of osteoporosis.

Which nursing intervention is most appropriate when turning a patient following spinal surgery? A. Placing a pillow between the patient's legs and turning the body as a unit B. Having the patient turn to the side by grasping the side rails to help turn over C. Elevating the head of bed 30 degrees and having the patient extend the legs while turning D. Turning the patient's head and shoulders and then the hips, keeping the patient's body centered in the bed

A. Placing a pillow between the patient's legs and turning the body as a unit Placing a pillow between the legs and turning the patient as a unit (logrolling) helps to keep the spine in good alignment and reduces pain and discomfort following spinal surgery. Having the patient turn by grasping the side rail to help, elevating the head of the bed, and turning with extended legs or turning the patient's head and shoulders and then the hips will not maintain proper spine alignment and may cause damage.

A patient with OA asks the nurse whether he could try glucosamine and chondroitin for control of his symptoms. The best response by the nurse includes the information that a. some patients find these supplements helpful for relieving arthritis knee pain and improving mobility b. although these substances may not help, there is no evidence that they can cause any untoward effects c. these supplements are a fad that has not been shown to reduce pain or increase joint mobility in patients with OA d. only dosages of these supplements available by prescription are high enough to provide any benefit in treatment of OA

A. Some patients find these supplements helpful for relieving arthritis knee pain and improving mobilitiy

A patient taking ibuprofen (Motrin) for treatment of OA has good pain relief but is experiencing increased dyspepsia and nausea with the drug's use. The nurse consults the patient's primary care provider about a. adding misoprostol (Cytotec) to the patient's drug regimen b. substituting naproxen (Naprosyn) for the ibuprofen (Motrin) c. administering the ibuprofen with antacids to decrease the GI irritation d. returning to the use of acetaminophen, but at a dose of 5 g/day instead of 4 g/day

A. adding misoprostol (Cytotec) to the patient's drug regimen

The pathophysiology of systemic lupus erthematosus (SLE) is characterized by a. destruction of nucleic acids and other self-proteins by autoantibodies b. overproduction of collagen that disrupts the functioning of internal organs c. formation of abnormal IgG that attaches to cellular antigens, activating complement d. increased activity of T-suppressor cells with B-cell hypoactivity, resulting in an immunodeficiency

A. destruction of nucleic acids and other self-proteins by autoantibodies

Teaching that the nurse will plan for the patient with SLE includes a. ways to avoid exposure to sunlight b. increasing dietary protein and carbohydrate intake c. the necessity of genetic counseling before planning a family d. the use of no pharmacologic pain interventions instead of analgesics

A. ways to avoid exposure to sunlight

A patient with a right lower leg fracture will be discharged home with an external fixation device in place. Which information will the nurse teach? a. "You will need to check and clean the pin insertion sites daily." b. "The external fixator can be removed for your bath or shower." c. "You will need to remain on bed rest until bone healing is complete." d. "Prophylactic antibiotics are used until the external fixator is removed."

ANS: A Pin insertion sites should be cleaned daily to decrease the risk for infection at the site. An external fixator allows the patient to be out of bed and avoid the risks of prolonged immobility. The device is surgically placed and is not removed until the bone is stable. Prophylactic antibiotics are not routinely given when an external fixator is used.

The occupational health nurse will teach the patient whose job involves many hours of typing about the need to a. obtain a keyboard pad to support the wrist. b. do stretching exercises before starting work. c. wrap the wrists with compression bandages every morning. d. avoid using nonsteroidal antiinflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) for pain.

ANS: A Repetitive strain injuries caused by prolonged times working at a keyboard can be prevented by the use of a pad that will keep the wrists in a straight position. Stretching exercises during the day may be helpful, but these would not be needed before starting. Use of a compression bandage is not needed, although a splint may be used for carpal tunnel syndrome. NSAIDs are appropriate to use to decrease swelling.

Which nursing action for a patient who has had right hip replacement surgery can the nurse delegate to experienced unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP)? a. Reposition the patient every 1 to 2 hours. b. Assess for skin irritation on the patient's back. c. Teach the patient quadriceps-setting exercises. d. Determine the patient's pain level and tolerance.

ANS: A Repositioning of orthopedic patients is within the scope of practice of UAP (after they have been trained and evaluated in this skill). The other actions should be done by licensed nursing staff members.

A 32-year-old patient who has had an open reduction and internal fixation (ORIF) of left lower leg fractures continues to complain of severe pain in the leg 15 minutes after receiving the prescribed IV morphine. Pulses are faintly palpable and the foot is cool. Which action should the nurse take next? a. Notify the health care provider. b. Assess the incision for redness. c. Reposition the left leg on pillows. d. Check the patient's blood pressure.

ANS: A The patient's clinical manifestations suggest compartment syndrome and delay in diagnosis and treatment may lead to severe functional impairment. The data do not suggest problems with blood pressure or infection. Elevation of the leg will decrease arterial flow and further reduce perfusion.

Anakinra (Kineret) is prescribed for a patient who has rheumatoid arthritis (RA). When teaching the patient about this drug, the nurse will include information about a. self-administration of subcutaneous injections. b. taking the medication with at least 8 oz of fluid. c. avoiding concurrently taking aspirin or nonsteroidal antiinflammatory drugs (NSAIDs). d. symptoms of gastrointestinal (GI) irritation or bleeding.

ANS: A Anakinra is administered by subcutaneous injection. GI bleeding is not a side effect of this medication. Because the medication is injected, instructions to take it with 8 oz of fluid would not be appropriate. The patient is likely to be concurrently taking aspirin or NSAIDs, and these should not be discontinued.

After teaching a patient diagnosed with progressive systemic sclerosis about health maintenance activities, the nurse determines that additional instruction is needed when the patient says, a. "I should lie down for an hour after meals." b. "Paraffin baths can be used to help my hands." c. "Lotions will help if I rub them in for a long time." d. "I should perform range-of-motion exercises daily."

ANS: A Because of the esophageal scarring, patients should sit up for 2 hours after eating. The other patient statements are correct and indicate that the teaching has been effective.

A patient with an acute attack of gout is treated with colchicine. The nurse determines that the drug is effective upon finding a. relief of joint pain. b. increased urine output. c. elevated serum uric acid. d. decreased white blood cells (WBC).

ANS: A Colchicine produces pain relief in 24 to 48 hours by decreasing inflammation. The recommended increase in fluid intake of 2 to 3 L/day would increase urine output but would not indicate the effectiveness of colchicine. Elevated uric acid levels would result in increased symptoms. The WBC count might decrease with decreased inflammation, but this would not be as useful in determining the effectiveness of colchicine as a decrease in pain.

A patient with an exacerbation of rheumatoid arthritis (RA) is taking prednisone (Deltasone) 40 mg daily. Which of these assessment data obtained by the nurse indicate that the patient is experiencing a side effect of the medication? a. The patient's blood glucose is 165 mg/dL. b. The patient has no improvement in symptoms. c. The patient has experienced a recent 5-pound weight loss. d. The patient's erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) has increased.

ANS: A Corticosteroids have the potential to cause diabetes mellitus. The finding of an elevated blood glucose reflects this side effect of prednisone. Corticosteroids increase appetite and lead to weight gain. An elevated ESR and no improvement in symptoms would indicate that the prednisone was not effective but would not be side effects of the medication

Which assessment finding about a patient who has been using naproxen (Naprosyn) for 3 weeks to treat osteoarthritis is most important for the nurse to report to the health care provider? a. The patient has dark colored stools. b. The patient's pain has not improved. c. The patient is using capsaicin cream (Zostrix). d. The patient has gained 3 pounds over 3 weeks.

ANS: A Dark colored stools may indicate that the patient is experiencing gastrointestinal bleeding caused by the naproxen. The information about the patient's ongoing pain and weight gain also will be reported and may indicate a need for a different treatment and/or counseling about avoiding weight gain, but these are not as large a concern as the possibility of gastrointestinal bleeding. Use of capsaicin cream with oral medications is appropriate.

Which statement by a 24-year-old woman with systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) indicates that the patient has understood the nurse's teaching about management of the condition? a. "I will use a sunscreen whenever I am outside." b. "I will try to keep exercising even if I am tired." c. "I should take birth control pills to keep from getting pregnant." d. "I should not take aspirin or nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs."

ANS: A Severe skin reactions can occur in patients with SLE who are exposed to the sum. Patients should avoid fatigue by balancing exercise with rest periods as needed. Oral contraceptives can exacerbate lupus. Aspirin and nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs are used to treat the musculoskeletal manifestations of SLE.

When helping a patient with rheumatoid arthritis (RA) plan a daily routine, the nurse informs the patient that it is most helpful to start the day with a. a warm bath followed by a short rest. b. a short routine of isometric exercises. c. active range-of-motion (ROM) exercises. d. stretching exercises to relieve joint stiffness.

ANS: A Taking a warm shower or bath is recommended to relieve joint stiffness, which is worse in the morning. Isometric exercises would place stress on joints and would not be recommended. Stretching and ROM should be done later in the day, when joint stiffness is decreased.

A patient who had arthroscopic surgery of the left knee 5 days ago is admitted with a red, swollen, and hot knee. Which assessment finding by the nurse should be reported to the health care provider immediately? a. The blood pressure is 88/46 mm Hg. b. The white blood cell count is 14,200/µL. c. The patient is taking ibuprofen (Motrin). d. The patient says the knee is very painful.

ANS: A The low blood pressure suggests that the patient may be developing septicemia as a complication of septic arthritis. Immediate blood cultures and initiation of antibiotic therapy are indicated. The other information is typical of septic arthritis and also should be reported to the health care provider, but it does not indicate any immediately life-threatening problems.

During assessment of the patient with fibromyalgia syndrome (FMS), the nurse would expect the patient to report (select all that apply)? a. sleep disturbances. b. multiple tender points. c. cardiac palpitations and dizziness. d. multijoint pain with inflammation and swelling. e. widespread bilateral, burning musculoskeletal pain.

ANS: A, B, C, E These symptoms are commonly described by patients with FMS. Cardiac involvement and joint inflammation are not typical of FMS.

The nurse will instruct the patient with a fractured left radius that the cast will need to remain in place a. for several months. b. for at least 3 weeks. c. until swelling of the wrist has resolved. d. until x-rays show complete bony union.

ANS: B Bone healing starts immediately after the injury, but since ossification does not begin until 3 weeks postinjury, the cast will need to be worn for at least 3 weeks. Complete union may take up to a year. Resolution of swelling does not indicate bone healing.

Which action will the nurse take in order to evaluate the effectiveness of Buck's traction for a 62-year-old patient who has an intracapsular fracture of the right femur? a. Check peripheral pulses. b. Ask about hip pain level. c. Assess for hip contractures. d. Monitor for hip dislocation.

ANS: B Buck's traction keeps the leg immobilized and reduces painful muscle spasm. Hip contractures and dislocation are unlikely to occur in this situation. The peripheral pulses will be assessed, but this does not help in evaluating the effectiveness of Buck's traction.

Which information obtained by the nurse about a 29-year-old patient with a lumbar vertebral compression fracture is most important to report to the health care provider? a. Patient refuses to be turned due to back pain. b. Patient has been incontinent of urine and stool. c. Patient reports lumbar area tenderness to palpation. d. Patient frequently uses oral corticosteroids to treat asthma.

ANS: B Changes in bowel or bladder function indicate possible spinal cord compression and should be reported immediately because surgical intervention may be needed. The other findings are also pertinent but are consistent with the patient's diagnosis and do not require immediate intervention.

A young man arrives in the emergency department with ankle swelling and severe pain after twisting his ankle playing basketball. Which of these prescribed collaborative interventions will the nurse implement first? a. Take the patient to have x-rays. b. Wrap the ankle and apply an ice pack. c. Administer naproxen (Naprosyn) 500 mg PO. d. Give acetaminophen with codeine (Tylenol #3).

ANS: B Immediate care after a sprain or strain injury includes the application of cold and compression to the injury to minimize swelling. The other actions should be taken after the ankle is wrapped with a compression bandage and ice is applied

A patient is being discharged 4 days after hip replacement surgery using the posterior approach. Which patient action requires immediate intervention by the nurse? a. The patient uses crutches with a swing-to gait. b. The patient leans over to pull shoes and socks on. c. The patient sits straight up on the edge of the bed. d. The patient bends over the sink while brushing teeth.

ANS: B Leaning over would flex the hip at greater than 90 degrees and predispose the patient to hip dislocation. The other patient actions are appropriate and do not require any immediate action by the nurse to protect the patient

A patient who is to have no weight bearing on the left leg is learning to walk using crutches. Which observation by the nurse indicates that the patient can safely ambulate independently? a. The patient moves the right crutch with the right leg and then the left crutch with the left leg. b. The patient advances the left leg and both crutches together and then advances the right leg. c. The patient uses the bedside chair to assist in balance as needed when ambulating in the room. d. The patient keeps the padded area of the crutch firmly in the axillary area when ambulating.

ANS: B Patients are usually taught to move the crutches and the injured leg forward at the same time and then to move the unaffected leg. Patients are discouraged from using furniture to assist with ambulation. The patient is taught to place weight on the hands, not in the axilla, to avoid nerve damage. If the 2- or 4-point gaits are to be used, the crutch and leg on opposite sides move forward, not the crutch and same-side leg

The day after a having a right below-the-knee amputation, a patient complains of pain in the right foot. Which action is best for the nurse to take? a. Explain the reasons for the phantom limb pain. b. Administer prescribed analgesics to relieve the pain. c. Loosen the compression bandage to decrease incisional pressure. d. Inform the patient that this phantom pain will diminish over time.

ANS: B Phantom limb sensation is treated like any other type of postoperative pain would be treated. Explanations of the reason for the pain may be given, but the nurse should still medicate the patient. The compression bandage is left in place except during physical therapy or bathing. Although the pain may decrease over time, it still requires treatment now.

A 22-year-old tennis player has an arthroscopic repair of a rotator cuff injury performed in same-day surgery. When the nurse plans postoperative teaching for the patient, which information will be included? a. "You will not be able to serve a tennis ball again." b. "You will work with a physical therapist tomorrow." c. "The doctor will use the drop-arm test to determine the success of surgery." d. "Leave the shoulder immobilizer on for the first 4 days to minimize pain."

ANS: B Physical therapy after a rotator cuff repair begins on the first postoperative day to prevent "frozen shoulder." A shoulder immobilizer is used immediately after the surgery, but leaving the arm immobilized for several days would lead to loss of range of motion (ROM). The drop-arm test is used to test for rotator cuff injury, but not after surgery. The patient may be able to return to pitching after rehabilitation.

When assessing for Tinel's sign in a patient with possible right-sided carpal tunnel syndrome, the nurse will ask the patient about a. weakness in the right little finger. b. tingling in the right thumb and fingers. c. burning in the right elbow and forearm. d. tremor when gripping with the right hand.

ANS: B Testing for Tinel's sign will cause tingling in the thumb and first three fingers of the affected hand in patients who have carpal tunnel syndrome. The median nerve does not innervate the right little finger or elbow and forearm. Tremor is not associated with carpal tunnel syndrome.

The nurse obtains this information when assessing a patient who is taking hydroxychloroquine (Plaquenil) to treat rheumatoid arthritis. Which symptom is most important to report to the health care provider? a. Abdominal cramping b. Complaint of blurry vision c. Phalangeal joint tenderness d. Blood pressure 170/84 mm Hg

ANS: B Plaquenil can cause retinopathy; the medication should be stopped. The other findings are not related to the medication, although they also will be reported.

A patient with a complex pelvic fracture from a motor vehicle crash is on bed rest. Which nursing assessment finding is important to report to the health care provider? a. The patient states that the pelvis feels unstable. b. Abdomen is distended and bowel sounds are absent. c. There are ecchymoses across the abdomen and hips. d. The patient complains of pelvic pain with palpation.

ANS: B The abdominal distention and absent bowel sounds may be due to complications of pelvic fractures such as paralytic ileus or hemorrhage or trauma to the bladder, urethra, or colon. Pelvic instability, abdominal pain with palpation, and abdominal bruising would be expected with this type of injury.

When doing discharge teaching for a 19-year-old patient who has had a repair of a fractured mandible, the nurse will include information about a. administration of nasogastric tube feedings. b. how and when to cut the immobilizing wires. c. the importance of high-fiber foods in the diet. d. the use of sterile technique for dressing changes.

ANS: B The jaw will be wired for stabilization, and the patient should know what emergency situations require that the wires be cut to protect the airway. There are no dressing changes for this procedure. The diet is liquid, and patients are not able to chew high-fiber foods. Initially, the patient may receive nasogastric tube feedings, but by discharge, the patient will swallow liquid through a straw

A patient who has had an open reduction and internal fixation (ORIF) of a hip fracture tells the nurse that he is ready to get out of bed for the first time. Which action should the nurse take? a. Use a mechanical lift to transfer the patient from the bed to the chair. b. Check the postoperative orders for the patient's weight-bearing status. c. Avoid administration of pain medications before getting the patient up. d. Delegate the transfer of the patient to nursing assistive personnel (NAP).

ANS: B The nurse should be familiar with the weight-bearing orders for the patient before attempting the transfer. Mechanical lifts are not typically needed after this surgery. Pain medications should be given because the movement is likely to be painful for the patient. The registered nurse (RN) should supervise the patient during the initial transfer to evaluate how well the patient is able to accomplish this skill.

A patient undergoes a left above-the-knee amputation with an immediate prosthetic fitting. When the patient arrives on the orthopedic unit after surgery, the nurse should a. place the patient in a prone position. b. check the surgical site for hemorrhage. c. remove the prosthesis and wrap the site. d. keep the residual leg elevated on a pillow.

ANS: B The nurse should monitor for hemorrhage after the surgery. The prosthesis will not be removed. To avoid flexion contracture of the hip, the leg will not be elevated on a pillow. The patient is placed in a prone position after amputation to prevent hip flexion, but this would not be done during the immediate postoperative period.

Which statement by a 62-year-old patient who has had an above-the-knee amputation indicates that the nurse's discharge teaching has been effective? a. "I should elevate my residual limb on a pillow 2 or 3 times a day." b. "I should lay flat on my abdomen for 30 minutes 3 or 4 times a day." c. "I should change the limb sock when it becomes soiled or each week." d. "I should use lotion on the stump to prevent skin drying and cracking."

ANS: B The patient lies in the prone position several times daily to prevent flexion contractures of the hip. The limb sock should be changed daily. Lotion should not be used on the stump. The residual limb should not be elevated because this would encourage flexion contracture

Before assisting a patient with ambulation 2 days after a total hip replacement, which action is most important for the nurse to take? a. Observe the status of the incisional drain device. b. Administer the ordered oral opioid pain medication. c. Instruct the patient about the benefits of ambulation. d. Change the hip dressing and document the wound appearance.

ANS: B The patient should be adequately medicated for pain before any attempt to ambulate. Instructions about the benefits of ambulation may increase the patient's willingness to ambulate, but decreasing pain with ambulation is more important. The presence of an incisional drain or timing of dressing change will not affect ambulation.

After being hospitalized for 3 days with a right femur fracture, a 32-year-old patient suddenly develops shortness of breath and tachypnea. The patient tells the nurse, "I feel like I am going to die!" Which action should the nurse take first? a. Stay with the patient and offer reassurance. b. Administer the prescribed PRN oxygen at 4 L/min. c. Check the patient's legs for swelling or tenderness. d. Notify the health care provider about the symptoms.

ANS: B The patient's clinical manifestations and history are consistent with a pulmonary embolus, and the nurse's first action should be to ensure adequate oxygenation. The nurse should offer reassurance to the patient, but meeting the physiologic need for oxygen is a higher priority. The health care provider should be notified after the oxygen is started and pulse oximetry and assessment for fat embolus or venous thromboembolism (VTE) are obtained

When caring for a patient who is using Buck's traction after a hip fracture, which action can the nurse delegate to unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP)? a. Monitor the skin under the traction boot for redness. b. Ensure that the weight for the traction is off the floor. c. Check for intact sensation and movement in the affected leg. d. Offer reassurance that hip and leg pain are normal after hip fracture.

ANS: B UAP can be responsible for maintaining the integrity of the traction once it has been established. Assessment of skin integrity and circulation should be done by the registered nurse (RN). UAP should notify the RN if the patient experiences hip and leg pain because pain and effectiveness of pain relief measures should be assessed by the RN.

A patient has a long-arm plaster cast applied for immobilization of a fractured left radius. Until the cast has completely dried, the nurse should a. keep the left arm in dependent position. b. avoid handling the cast using fingertips. c. place gauze around the cast edge to pad any roughness. d. cover the cast with a small blanket to absorb the dampness.

ANS: B Until a plaster cast has dried, using the palms rather than the fingertips to handle the cast helps prevent creating protrusions inside the cast that could place pressure on the skin. The left arm should be elevated to prevent swelling. The edges of the cast may be petaled once the cast is dry, but padding the edges before that may cause the cast to be misshapen. The cast should not be covered until it is dry because heat builds up during drying.

Which information will the nurse include when teaching range-of-motion exercises to a patient with an exacerbation of rheumatoid arthritis? a. Affected joints should not be exercised when pain is present. b. Application of cold packs before exercise may decrease joint pain. c. Exercises should be performed passively by someone other than the patient. d. Walking may substitute for range-of-motion (ROM) exercises on some days.

ANS: B Cold application is helpful in reducing pain during periods of exacerbation of RA. Because the joint pain is chronic, patients are instructed to exercise even when joints are painful. ROM exercises are intended to strengthen joints as well as improve flexibility, so passive ROM alone is not sufficient. Recreational exercise is encouraged but is not a replacement for ROM exercises.

A patient with dermatomyositis is receiving long-term prednisone (Deltasone) therapy. Which assessment finding by the nurse is most important to report to the health care provider? a. The blood glucose is 112 mg/dL. b. The patient has painful hematuria. c. The patient has an increased appetite. d. Acne is noted on the back and face.

ANS: B Corticosteroid use is associated with increased risk for infection, so the nurse should report the urinary tract symptoms immediately to the health care provider. The increase in blood glucose, increased appetite, and acne also are adverse effects of corticosteroid use, but do not need diagnosis and treatment as rapidly as the probable urinary tract infection.

Which information will the nurse include when teaching a patient with newly diagnosed ankylosing spondylitis (AS) about the management of the condition? a. Exercise by taking long walks. b. Do daily deep breathing exercises. c. Sleep on the side with hips flexed. d. Take frequent naps during the day.

ANS: B Deep breathing exercises are used to decrease the risk for pulmonary complications that may occur with the reduced chest expansion that can occur with ankylosing spondylitis (AS). Patients should sleep on the back and avoid flexed positions. Prolonged standing and walking should be avoided. There is no need for frequent naps.

Which finding will the nurse expect when assessing a 60-year-old patient who has osteoarthritis (OA) of the left knee? a. Heberden's nodules b. Pain upon joint movement c. Redness and swelling of the knee joint d. Stiffness that increases with movement

ANS: B Initial symptoms of OA include pain with joint movement. Heberden's nodules occur on the fingers. Redness of the joint is more strongly associated with rheumatoid arthritis (RA), and stiffness in OA is worse right after the patient rests and decreases with joint movement.

A patient has systemic sclerosis manifested by CREST (calcinosis, Raynaud's phenomenon, esophageal dysfunction, sclerodactyly, telangiectasia) syndrome. Which action will the nurse include in the plan of care? a. Avoid use of capsaicin cream on hands. b. Keep patient's room warm and draft free. c. Obtain capillary blood glucose before meals. d. Assist to bathroom every 2 hours while awake.

ANS: B Keeping the room warm will decrease the incidence of Raynaud's phenomenon, one aspect of the CREST syndrome. Capsaicin cream may be used to improve circulation and decrease pain. There is no need to obtain blood glucose levels or to assist the patient to the bathroom every 2 hours.

The health care provider has prescribed the following collaborative interventions for a 49-year-old who is taking azathioprine (Imuran) for systemic lupus erythematosus. Which order will the nurse question? a. Draw anti-DNA blood titer. b. Administer varicella vaccine. c. Use naproxen (Aleve) 200 mg BID. d. Take famotidine (Pepcid) 20 mg daily.

ANS: B Live virus vaccines, such as varicella, are contraindicated in a patient taking immunosuppressive drugs. The other orders are appropriate for the patient.

A patient with gout tells the nurse that he takes losartan (Cozaar) for control of the condition. The nurse will plan to monitor a. blood glucose. b. blood pressure. c. erythrocyte count. d. lymphocyte count.

ANS: B Losartan, an angiotensin II receptor antagonist, will lower blood pressure. It does not affect blood glucose, red blood cell count (RBC), or lymphocytes.

After obtaining the health history from a 28-year-old woman who is taking methotrexate (Rheumatrex) to treat rheumatoid arthritis, which information about the patient is most important for the nurse to report to the health care provider? a. The patient had a history of infectious mononucleosis as a teenager. b. The patient is trying to have a baby before her disease becomes more severe. c. The patient has a family history of age-related macular degeneration of the retina. d. The patient has been using large doses of vitamins and health foods to treat the RA.

ANS: B Methotrexate is teratogenic, and the patient should be taking contraceptives during methotrexate therapy. The other information will not impact the choice of methotrexate as therapy.

A 22-year-old patient hospitalized with a fever and red, hot, and painful knees is suspected of having septic arthritis. Information obtained during the nursing history that indicates a risk factor for septic arthritis is that the patient a. has a parent who has reactive arthritis. b. is sexually active and has multiple partners. c. recently returned from a trip to South America. d. had several sports-related knee injuries as a teenager.

ANS: B Neisseria gonorrhoeae is the most common cause for septic arthritis in sexually active young adults. The other information does not point to any risk for septic arthritis.

After the nurse has finished teaching a patient with osteoarthritis (OA) of the left hip and knee about how to manage the OA, which patient statement indicates a need for more education? a. "I can take glucosamine to help decrease my knee pain." b. "I will take 1 g of acetaminophen (Tylenol) every 4 hours." c. "I will take a shower in the morning to help relieve stiffness." d. "I can use a cane to decrease the pressure and pain in my hip."

ANS: B No more than 4 g of acetaminophen should be taken daily to avoid liver damage. The other patient statements are correct and indicate good understanding of OA management.

When teaching a patient who has rheumatoid arthritis (RA) about how to manage activities of daily living, the nurse instructs the patient to a. stand rather than sit when performing household chores. b. avoid activities that require continuous use of the same muscles. c. strengthen small hand muscles by wringing sponges or washcloths. d. protect the knee joints by sleeping with a small pillow under the knees.

ANS: B Patients are advised to avoid repetitious movements. Sitting during household chores is recommended to decrease stress on joints. Wringing water out of sponges would increase the joint stress. Patients are encouraged to position joints in the extended position, and sleeping with a pillow behind the knees would decrease the ability of the knee to extend and also decrease knee range of motion (ROM).

When the nurse is reviewing laboratory results for a patient with systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE), which result is most important to communicate to the health care provider? a. Decreased C-reactive protein (CRP) b. Elevated blood urea nitrogen (BUN) c. Positive antinuclear antibodies (ANA) d. Positive lupus erythematosus cell prep

ANS: B The elevated BUN and creatinine levels indicate possible lupus nephritis and a need for a change in therapy to avoid further renal damage. The positive lupus erythematosus (LE) cell prep and ANA would be expected in a patient with SLE. A drop in CRP shows an improvement in the inflammatory process.

A 35-year-old patient with three school-age children who has recently been diagnosed with rheumatoid arthritis (RA) tells the nurse that the inability to be involved in many family activities is causing stress at home. Which response by the nurse is most appropriate? a. "You may need to see a family therapist for some help." b. "Tell me more about the situations that are causing stress." c. "Perhaps it would be helpful for you and your family to get involved in a support group." d. "Your family may need some help to understand the impact of your rheumatoid arthritis."

ANS: B The initial action by the nurse should be further assessment. The other three responses might be appropriate based on the information the nurse obtains with further assessment.

A patient hospitalized with polymyositis has joint pain, an erythematosus facial rash with eyelid edema, and a weak, hoarse voice. The priority nursing diagnosis for the patient is a. acute pain related to inflammation. b. risk for aspiration related to dysphagia. c. risk for impaired skin integrity related to scratching. d. disturbed visual perception related to eyelid swelling.

ANS: B The patient's vocal weakness and hoarseness indicate weakness of the pharyngeal muscles and a high risk for aspiration. The other nursing diagnoses also are appropriate but are not as high a priority as the maintenance of the patient's airway.

Which action will the urgent care nurse take when caring for a patient who has a possible knee meniscus injury? a. Encourage bed rest for 24 to 48 hours. b. Avoid palpation or movement of the knee. c. Apply a knee immobilizer to the affected leg. d. Administer intravenous narcotics for pain relief.

ANS: C A knee immobilizer may be used for several days after a meniscus injury to stabilize the knee and minimize pain. Patients are encouraged to ambulate with crutches. The knee is assessed by flexing, internally rotating, and extending the knee (McMurray's test). The pain associated with a meniscus injury will not typically require IV opioid administration; nonsteroidal antiinflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) are usually recommended for pain relief.

A patient arrived at the emergency department after tripping over a rug and falling at home. Which finding is most important for the nurse to communicate to the health care provider? a. There is bruising at the shoulder area. b. The patient reports arm and shoulder pain. c. The right arm appears shorter than the left. d. There is decreased shoulder range of motion.

ANS: C A shorter limb after a fall indicates a possible dislocation, which is an orthopedic emergency. Bruising, pain, and decreased range of motion also should be reported, but these do not indicate that emergent treatment is needed to preserve function.

When teaching seniors at a community recreation center, which information will the nurse include about ways to prevent fractures? a. Tack down scatter rugs in the home. b. Most falls happen outside the home. c. Buy shoes that provide good support and are comfortable to wear. d. Range-of-motion exercises should be taught by a physical therapist.

ANS: C Comfortable shoes with good support will help decrease the risk for falls. Scatter rugs should be eliminated, not just tacked down. Activities of daily living provide range of motion exercise; these do not need to be taught by a physical therapist. Falls inside the home are responsible for many injuries

Which discharge instruction will the emergency department nurse include for a patient with a sprained ankle? a. Keep the ankle loosely wrapped with gauze. b. Apply a heating pad to reduce muscle spasms. c. Use pillows to elevate the ankle above the heart. d. Gently move the ankle through the range of motion.

ANS: C Elevation of the leg will reduce the amount of swelling and pain. Compression bandages are used to decrease swelling. For the first 24 to 48 hours, cold packs are used to reduce swelling. The ankle should be rested and kept immobile to prevent further swelling or injury.

Which statement by the patient indicates a good understanding of the nurse's teaching about a new short-arm plaster cast? a. "I can get the cast wet as long as I dry it right away with a hair dryer." b. "I should avoid moving my fingers and elbow until the cast is removed." c. "I will apply an ice pack to the cast over the fracture site off and on for 24 hours." d. "I can use a cotton-tipped applicator to rub lotion on any dry areas under the cast."

ANS: C Ice application for the first 24 hours after a fracture will help reduce swelling and can be placed over the cast. Plaster casts should not get wet. The patient should be encouraged to move the joints above and below the cast. Patients should not insert objects inside the cast.

When giving home care instructions to a patient who has comminuted forearm fractures and a long-arm cast on the left arm, which information should the nurse include? a. Keep the left shoulder elevated on a pillow or cushion. b. Keep the hand immobile to prevent soft tissue swelling. c. Call the health care provider for increased swelling or numbness of the hand. d. Avoid nonsteroidal antiinflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) for 24 hours after the injury.

ANS: C Increased swelling or numbness may indicate increased pressure at the injury, and the health care provider should be notified immediately to avoid damage to nerves and other tissues. The patient should be encouraged to move the joints above and below the cast to avoid stiffness. There is no need to elevate the shoulder, although the forearm should be elevated to reduce swelling. NSAIDs are appropriate to treat pain after a fracture.

When a patient arrives in the emergency department with a facial fracture, which action will the nurse take first? a. Assess for nasal bleeding and pain. b. Apply ice to the face to reduce swelling. c. Use a cervical collar to stabilize the spine. d. Check the patient's alertness and orientation.

ANS: C Patients who have facial fractures are at risk for cervical spine injury and should be treated as if they have a cervical spine injury until this is ruled out. The other actions are also necessary, but the most important action is to prevent cervical spine injury.

A 42-year-old patient is admitted to the emergency department with a left femur fracture. Which information obtained by the nurse is most important to report to the health care provider? a. Ecchymosis of the left thigh b. Complaints of severe thigh pain c. Slow capillary refill of the left foot d. Outward pointing toes on the left foot

ANS: C Prolonged capillary refill may indicate complications such as arterial damage or compartment syndrome. The other findings are typical with a left femur fracture.

A patient who slipped and fell in the shower at home has a proximal humerus fracture immobilized with a left-sided long-arm cast and a sling. Which nursing intervention will be included in the plan of care? a. Use surgical net dressing to hang the arm from an IV pole. b. Immobilize the fingers of the left hand with gauze dressings. c. Assess the left axilla and change absorbent dressings as needed. d. Assist the patient in passive range of motion (ROM) for the right arm.

ANS: C The axilla can become excoriated when a sling is used to support the arm, and the nurse should check the axilla and apply absorbent dressings to prevent this. A patient with a sling would not have traction applied by hanging. The patient will be encouraged to move the fingers on the injured arm to maintain function and to help decrease swelling. The patient will do active ROM on the uninjured side.

A patient who arrives at the emergency department experiencing severe left knee pain is diagnosed with a patellar dislocation. The initial patient teaching by the nurse will focus on the need for a. a knee immobilizer. b. gentle knee flexion. c. monitored anesthesia care. d. physical activity restrictions.

ANS: C The first goal of collaborative management is realignment of the knee to its original anatomic position, which will require anesthesia or monitored anesthesia care (MAC), formerly called conscious sedation. Immobilization, gentle range-of-motion (ROM) exercises, and discussion about activity restrictions will be implemented after the knee is realigned.

A high school teacher with ulnar drift caused by rheumatoid arthritis (RA) is scheduled for a left hand arthroplasty. Which patient statement to the nurse indicates a realistic expectation for the surgery? a. "This procedure will correct the deformities in my fingers." b. "I will not have to do as many hand exercises after the surgery." c. "I will be able to use my fingers with more flexibility to grasp things." d. "My fingers will appear more normal in size and shape after this surgery."

ANS: C The goal of hand surgery in RA is to restore function, not to correct for cosmetic deformity or treat the underlying process. Hand exercises will be prescribed after the surgery.

Following a motorcycle accident, a 58-year-old patient arrives in the emergency department with massive left lower leg swelling. Which action will the nurse take first? a. Elevate the leg on 2 pillows. b. Apply a compression bandage. c. Check leg pulses and sensation. d. Place ice packs on the lower leg.

ANS: C The initial action by the nurse will be to assess the circulation to the leg and to observe for any evidence of injury such as fractures or dislocations. After the initial assessment, the other actions may be appropriate, based on what is observed during the assessment.

A pedestrian who was hit by a car is admitted to the emergency department with possible right lower leg fractures. The initial action by the nurse should be to a. elevate the right leg. b. splint the lower leg. c. check the pedal pulses. d. verify tetanus immunizations.

ANS: C The initial nursing action should be assessment of the neurovascular status of the injured leg. After assessment, the nurse may need to splint and elevate the leg, based on the assessment data. Information about tetanus immunizations should be done if there is an open wound.

After the health care provider has recommended amputation for a patient who has nonhealing ischemic foot ulcers, the patient tells the nurse that he would rather die than have an amputation. Which response by the nurse is best? a. "You are upset, but you may lose the foot anyway." b. "Many people are able to function with a foot prosthesis." c. "Tell me what you know about your options for treatment." d. "If you do not want an amputation, you do not have to have it."

ANS: C The initial nursing action should be to assess the patient's knowledge level and feelings about the options available. Discussion about the patient's option to not have the procedure, the seriousness of the condition, or rehabilitation after the procedure may be appropriate after the nurse knows more about the patient's current level of knowledge and emotional state.

The second day after admission with a fractured pelvis, a 64-year-old patient suddenly develops confusion. Which action should the nurse take first? a. Take the blood pressure. b. Assess patient orientation. c. Check the oxygen saturation. d. Observe for facial asymmetry.

ANS: C The patient's history and clinical manifestations suggest a fat embolus. The most important assessment is oxygenation. The other actions are also appropriate but will be done after the nurse assesses gas exchange

When caring for a patient with a new diagnosis of rheumatoid arthritis, which action will the nurse include in the plan of care? a. Instruct the patient to purchase a soft mattress. b. Teach patient to use lukewarm water when bathing. c. Suggest that the patient take a nap in the afternoon. d. Suggest exercise with light weights several times daily.

ANS: C Adequate rest helps decrease the fatigue and pain that are associated with rheumatoid arthritis. Patients are taught to avoid stressing joints, to use warm baths to relieve stiffness, and to use a firm mattress.

When the nurse is reviewing laboratory data for a patient who is taking methotrexate (Rheumatrex) to treat rheumatoid arthritis, which information is most important to communicate to the health care provider? a. The blood glucose is 75 mg/dL. b. The rheumatoid factor is positive. c. The white blood cell (WBC) count is 1500/L. d. The erythrocyte sedimentation rate is elevated.

ANS: C Bone marrow suppression is a possible side effect of methotrexate, and the patient's low WBC count places the patient at high risk for infection. The elevated erythrocyte sedimentation rate and positive rheumatoid factor are expected in rheumatoid arthritis. The blood glucose is normal.

Prednisone (Deltasone) is prescribed for a patient with an acute exacerbation of rheumatoid arthritis. Which laboratory result will the nurse monitor to determine whether the medication has been effective? a. Blood glucose test b. Liver function tests c. C-reactive protein level d. Serum electrolyte levels

ANS: C C-reactive protein is a marker for inflammation, and a decrease would indicate that the corticosteroid therapy was effective. Blood glucose and serum electrolyte levels also will be monitored to check for side effects of prednisone. Liver function is not routinely monitored for patients receiving steroids.

When caring for a patient who has osteoarthritis, the nurse will anticipate the need to teach the patient about which of these medications? a. Adalimumab (Humira) b. Prednisone (Deltasone) c. Capsaicin cream (Zostrix) d. Sulfasalazine (Azulfidine)

ANS: C Capsaicin cream blocks the transmission of pain impulses and is helpful for some patients in treating OA. The other medications would be used for patients with RA.

A patient with rheumatoid arthritis refuses to take the prescribed methotrexate (Rheumatrex), telling the nurse "That drug has too many side effects. My arthritis isn't that bad yet." The most appropriate response by the nurse is a. "You have the right to refuse to take the methotrexate." b. "Methotrexate is less expensive than some of the newer drugs." c. "It is important to start methotrexate early to decrease the extent of joint damage." d. "Methotrexate is effective and has fewer side effects than some of the other drugs."

ANS: C Disease-modifying antirheumatic drugs (DMARDs) are prescribed early to prevent the joint degeneration that occurs as soon as the first year with RA. The other statements are accurate, but the most important point for the patient to understand is that it is important to start DMARDs as quickly as possible.

Which of these patients seen by the nurse in the outpatient clinic is most likely to require teaching about ways to reduce risk for osteoarthritis (OA)? a. A 56-year-old man who is a member of a construction crew b. A 24-year-old man who participates in a summer softball team c. A 49-year-old woman who works on an automotive assembly line d. A 36-year-old woman who is newly diagnosed with diabetes mellitus

ANS: C OA is more likely to occur in women as a result of estrogen reduction at menopause and in individuals whose work involves repetitive movements and lifting. Moderate exercise, such as softball, reduces risk for OA. Diabetes is not a risk factor for OA. Working on a construction crew would involve nonrepetitive work and thus would not be as risky

A 26-year-old patient with urethritis and knee pain is diagnosed with reactive arthritis. The nurse will plan to teach the patient about the need for several months of therapy with a. anakinra (Kineret). b. etanercept (Enbrel). c. doxycycline (Vibramycin). d. methotrexate (Rheumatrex).

ANS: C Reactive arthritis associated with urethritis is usually caused by infection with Chlamydia trachomatis and requires 3 months of treatment with doxycycline. The other medications are used for chronic inflammatory problems such as rheumatoid arthritis.

A patient who has rheumatoid arthritis is seen in the outpatient clinic and the nurse notes that rheumatoid nodules are present on the patient's elbows. Which action will the nurse take? a. Draw blood for rheumatoid factor analysis. b. Teach the patient about injection of the nodule. c. Assess the nodules for skin breakdown or infection. d. Discuss the need for surgical removal of the nodule.

ANS: C Rheumatoid nodules can break down or become infected. They are not associated with changes in rheumatoid factor and injection is not needed. Rheumatoid nodules are usually not removed surgically because of a high probability of recurrence

When caring for a patient with gout and a red and painful left great toe, which nursing action will be included in the plan of care? a. Gently palpate the toe to assess swelling. b. Use pillows to keep the left foot elevated. c. Use a footboard to hold bedding away from the toe. d. Teach patient to avoid use of acetaminophen (Tylenol).

ANS: C Since any touch on the area of inflammation may increase pain, bedding should be held away from the toe and touching the toe will be avoided. Elevation of the foot will not reduce the pain, which is caused by the urate crystals. Acetaminophen can be used for pain relief.

To determine whether a patient with joint swelling and pain has systemic lupus erythematosus, which test will be most useful for the nurse to review? a. Rheumatoid factor (RF) b. Antinuclear antibody (ANA) c. Anti-Smith antibody (Anti-Sm) d. Lupus erythematosus (LE) cell prep

ANS: C The anti-Sm is antibody found almost exclusively in SLE. The other blood tests also are used in screening but are not as specific to SLE.

While working at a summer camp, the nurse notices a circular lesion with a red border and clear center on the arm of a patient who is in the camp clinic complaining of chills and muscle aches. Which action should the nurse take next? a. Palpate the abdomen. b. Auscultate the heart sounds. c. Ask the patient about recent outdoor activities. d. Question the patient about immunization history.

ANS: C The patient's clinical manifestations suggest possible Lyme disease. A history of recent outdoor activities such as hikes will help confirm the diagnosis. The patient's symptoms do not suggest cardiac or abdominal problems or lack of immunization.

A home health patient with rheumatoid arthritis (RA) complains to the nurse about having chronically dry eyes. Which action by the nurse is most appropriate? a. Reassure the patient that dry eyes are a common problem with RA. b. Teach the patient more about adverse affects of the RA medications. c. Suggest that the patient start using over-the-counter (OTC) artificial tears. d. Ask the health care provider about lowering the methotrexate (Rheumatrex) dose.

ANS: C The patient's dry eyes are consistent with Sjögren's syndrome, a common extraarticular manifestation of RA. Symptomatic therapy such as OTC eye drops is recommended. Dry eyes are not a side effect of methotrexate. Although dry eyes are common in RA, it is more helpful to offer a suggestion to relieve these symptoms than to offer reassurance. The dry eyes are not caused by RA treatment, but by the disease itself.

The day after a 60-year-old patient has an open reduction and internal fixation (ORIF) for an open, displaced tibial fracture, the priority nursing diagnosis is a. activity intolerance related to deconditioning. b. risk for constipation related to prolonged bed rest. c. risk for impaired skin integrity related to immobility. d. risk for infection related to disruption of skin integrity.

ANS: D A patient having an ORIF is at risk for problems such as wound infection and osteomyelitis. After an ORIF, patients typically are mobilized starting the first postoperative day, so problems caused by immobility are not as likely

Which action will the nurse include in the plan of care for a patient who has had a total right knee arthroplasty? a. Avoid extension of the right knee beyond 120 degrees. b. Use a compression bandage to keep the right knee flexed. c. Teach about the need to avoid weight bearing for 4 weeks. d. Start progressive knee exercises to obtain 90-degree flexion.

ANS: D After knee arthroplasty, active or passive flexion exercises are used to obtain a 90-degree flexion of the knee. The goal for extension of the knee will be 180 degrees. A compression bandage is used to hold the knee in an extended position after surgery. Full weight bearing is expected before discharge.

After change-of-shift report, which patient should the nurse assess first? a. Patient with a Colles' fracture who has right wrist swelling and deformity b. Patient with a intracapsular left hip fracture whose leg is externally rotated c. Patient with a repaired mandibular fracture who is complaining of facial pain d. Patient with right femoral shaft fracture whose thigh is swollen and ecchymotic

ANS: D Swelling and bruising after a femoral shaft fracture suggest hemorrhage and risk for compartment syndrome. The nurse should assess the patient rapidly and then notify the health care provider. The other patients have symptoms that are typical for their injuries, but do not require immediate intervention.

Which finding in a patient with a Colles' fracture of the left wrist is most important to communicate to the health care provider? a. Swelling is noted around the wrist. b. The patient is reporting severe pain. c. The wrist has a deformed appearance. d. Capillary refill to the fingers is prolonged.

ANS: D Swelling, pain, and deformity are common findings with a Colles' fracture. Prolonged capillary refill indicates decreased circulation and risk for ischemia. This is not an expected finding and should be immediately reported

A 48-year-old patient with a comminuted fracture of the left femur has Buck's traction in place while waiting for surgery. To assess for pressure areas on the patient's back and sacral area and to provide skin care, the nurse should a. loosen the traction and help the patient turn onto the unaffected side. b. place a pillow between the patient's legs and turn gently to each side. c. turn the patient partially to each side with the assistance of another nurse. d. have the patient lift the buttocks by bending and pushing with the right leg.

ANS: D The patient can lift the buttocks off the bed by using the left leg without changing the right-leg alignment. Turning the patient will tend to move the leg out of alignment. Disconnecting the traction will interrupt the weight needed to immobilize and align the fracture.

The nurse is caring for a patient who is to be discharged from the hospital 5 days after insertion of a femoral head prosthesis using a posterior approach. Which statement by the patient indicates a need for additional instruction? a. "I should not cross my legs while sitting." b. "I will use a toilet elevator on the toilet seat." c. "I will have someone else put on my shoes and socks." d. "I can sleep in any position that is comfortable for me."

ANS: D The patient needs to sleep in a position that prevents excessive internal rotation or flexion of the hip. The other patient statements indicate that the patient has understood the teaching.

A factory line worker has repetitive strain syndrome in the left elbow. The nurse will plan to teach the patient about a. surgical options. b. elbow injections. c. wearing a left wrist splint. d. modifying arm movements.

ANS: D Treatment for repetitive strain syndrome includes changing the ergonomics of the activity. Elbow injections and surgery are not initial options for this type of injury. A wrist splint might be used for hand or wrist pain.

A patient with an acute attack of gout in the left great toe has a new prescription for probenecid (Benemid). Which information about the patient's home routine indicates a need for teaching regarding gout management? a. The patient sleeps about 8 to 10 hours every night. b. The patient usually eats beef once or twice a week. c. The patient generally drinks about 3 quarts of juice and water daily. d. The patient takes one aspirin a day prophylactically to prevent angina.

ANS: D Aspirin interferes with the effectiveness of probenecid and should not be taken when the patient is taking probenecid. The patient's sleep pattern will not affect gout management. Drinking 3 quarts of water and eating beef only once or twice a week are appropriate for the patient with gout.

A long-term care patient who takes multiple medications develops acute gouty arthritis. The nurse will consult with the health care provider before giving the prescribed dose of a. sertraline (Zoloft). b. famotidine (Pepcid). c. oxycodone (Roxicodone). d. hydrochlorothiazide (HydroDIURIL).

ANS: D Diuretic use increases uric acid levels and can precipitate gout attacks. The other medications are safe to administer.

The home health nurse is doing a follow-up visit to a patient with recently diagnosed rheumatoid arthritis (RA). Which assessment made by the nurse indicates that more patient teaching is needed? a. The patient requires a 2-hour midday nap. b. The patient has been taking 16 aspirins daily. c. The patient sits on a stool when preparing meals. d. The patient sleeps with two pillows under the head.

ANS: D The joints should be maintained in an extended position to avoid contractures, so patients should use a small, flat pillow for sleeping. The other information is appropriate for a patient with RA and indicates that teaching has been effective.

A patient with systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) who has a facial rash and alopecia tells the nurse, "I hate the way I look! I never go anywhere except here to the health clinic." An appropriate nursing diagnosis for the patient is a. activity intolerance related to fatigue and inactivity. b. impaired social interaction related to lack of social skills. c. impaired skin integrity related to itching and skin sloughing. d. social isolation related to embarrassment about the effects of SLE.

ANS: D The patient's statement about not going anywhere because of hating the way he or she looks supports the diagnosis of social isolation because of embarrassment about the effects of the SLE. Activity intolerance is a possible problem for patients with SLE, but the information about this patient does not support this as a diagnosis. The rash with SLE is nonpruritic. There is no evidence of lack of social skills for this patient.

The nurse provides information to a patient who was exposed to anthrax by inhalation. The nurse determines the teaching has been successful if the patient makes which statement? A. "Anthrax can be spread by person-to-person contact." B. "It is not necessary to receive the anthrax vaccine." C. "An antibiotic will be prescribed for 2 months." D. "Antibiotics are only indicated for an active infection."

Answer: C. "An antibiotic will be prescribed for 2 months." Rationale: Postexposure prophylaxis includes a 60-day course of antibiotics. Ciprofloxacin (Cipro) is the treatment of choice. Anthrax is not spread by person-to-person contact; anthrax is spread by direct contact with the bacteria and its spores. The patient may receive the anthrax vaccine (three doses); if vaccinated, the course of antibiotic therapy is reduced to 30 days. Antibiotics are indicated after exposure to inhaled anthrax. Ch. 69

Which patient should the nurse prepare to transfer to a regional burn center? A. A 53-year-old patient with a chemical burn to the anterior chest and neck B. A 25-year-old pregnant patient with a carboxyhemoglobin level of 1.5% C. A 42-year-old patient who is scheduled for skin grafting of a burn wound D. A 39-year-old patient with a partial-thickness burn to the right upper arm

Answer: A. A 53-year-old patient with a chemical burn to the anterior chest and neck Rationale: The American Burn Association (ABA) has established referral criteria to determine which burn injuries should be treated in burn centers where specialized facilities and personnel are available to handle this type of trauma (see Table 25-3). Patients with chemical burns should be referred to a burn center. A normal serum carboxyhemoglobin level for nonsmokers is 0% to 1.5% and for smokers is 4% to 9%. Skin grafting for burn wound management is not a criteria for a referral to a burn center. Partial-thickness burns greater than 10% total body surface area (TBSA) should be referred to a burn center; a burn to the right upper arm is 4% TBSA. Ch. 25

The nurse is caring for a 71 kg patient during the first 12 hours after a thermal burn injury. Which outcomes if observed by the nurse would indicate adequate fluid resuscitation (select all that apply)? A. Heart rate is 94 beats/minute. B. Mean arterial pressure is 54 mm Hg. C. Urine output is 46 mL/hour. D. Urine specific gravity is 1.040. E. Systolic blood pressure 88 mm Hg

Answer: A. Heart rate is 94 beats/minute. C. Urine output is 46 mL/hour. Rationale: Assessment of the adequacy of fluid resuscitation is best made using either urine output or cardiac factors. Urine output should be 0.5 to 1 mL/kg/hr (or 75 to 100 mL/hr for an electrical burn patient with evidence of hemoglobinuria/myoglobinuria). Cardiac factors include a mean arterial pressure (MAP) greater than 65 mm Hg, systolic blood pressure (BP) greater than 90 mm Hg, heart rate less than 120 beats/minute. Normal range for urine specific gravity is 1.003 to 1.030. Ch. 25

A nurse manager educates the emergency department staff about their roles during a disaster with mass casualties. Which primary responsibility should the nurse manager discuss with the staff? A. Learn the hospital emergency response plan. B. Report acts of violence to security personnel. C. Contact the American Red Cross for assistance. D. Notify local, state, and national authorities.

Answer: A. Learn the hospital emergency response plan. Rationale: All health care providers need to be prepared for a mass casualty incident; the priority responsibility is to know the agency's emergency response plan. Ch. 69

The nurse is planning to change the dressing covering a deep partial-thickness burn of the right lower leg. Which prescribed medication should the nurse administer 30 minutes before the scheduled dressing change? A. zolpidem (Ambien) B. morphine sulfate C. sertraline (Zoloft) D. enoxaparin (Lovenox)

Answer: B. morphine sulfate Rationale: Deep partial-thickness burns result in severe pain related to nerve injury. The nurse should plan to administer analgesics before the dressing change to promote patient comfort. Morphine sulfate is a common opioid used for pain control. Sedative/hypnotics and antidepressant agents can also be given with analgesics to control the anxiety, insomnia, and/or depression that patients may experience. Zolpidem promotes sleep; sertraline is an antidepressant; and enoxaparin is an anticoagulant. Ch. 25

The nurse is caring for a patient who sustained a deep partial thickness burn to the anterior chest area. Which statement would be appropriate for the nurse to include when documenting the appearance of this type of burn? ]A. Skin is hard with a dry, waxy white appearance with visible venous patterns. B. Skin blanches with pressure and is red with delayed blister formation. C. Skin is red and shiny with the presence of clear fluid-filled blisters. D. Skin is charred and leathery with visible muscles, tendons, and bones

Answer: C. Skin is red and shiny with the presence of clear fluid-filled blisters. Rationale: Deep partial thickness burns have fluid-filled vesicles that are red and shiny; may appear wet (if vesicles have ruptured); and mild to moderate edema may be present. Deep partial thickness burns result in severe pain related to nerve injury. Superficial partial thickness burns are red and blanch with pressure; pain and mild edema are present. Superficial partial thickness burns may have vesicles that appear 24 hours after the burn injury. Full-thickness burns are dry, waxy white, leathery, or hard; thrombosed vessels may be visible. Full-thickness burns result in an insensitivity to pain because of nerve destruction, and there may be involvement of muscles, tendons, and bones. Ch. 25

A patient arrives in the emergency department after ingesting 8 g of acetaminophen (Tylenol). Which question is most important for the nurse to ask? A. Have you tried to commit suicide before? B. Do you feel like you have a fever? C. What time did you take the Tylenol? D. Are you experiencing any abdominal pain?

Answer: C. What time did you take the Tylenol? Rationale: Acetaminophen will bind to activated charcoal and pass through the gastrointestinal tract without being absorbed. Activated charcoal is most effective if administered within 1 hour of ingestion of acetaminophen and other select poisons. Ch. 69

The nurse is providing emergent care for a patient with a possible inhalation injury sustained in a house fire. The patient is anxious and disoriented, and the skin is a cherry red color. Which action should the nurse take first? A. Assist the patient to a high Fowler's position. B. Teach the patient deep breathing exercises. C. Allow the patient to verbalize feelings. D. Administer 100% humidified oxygen.

Answer: D. Administer 100% humidified oxygen. Rationale: Carbon monoxide (CO) poisoning may occur in house fires; CO displaces oxygen on the hemoglobin molecule resulting in hypoxia. High levels of CO in the blood result in a skin color that is described as cherry red. Hypoxia may cause anxious behaviors and altered mental status. Emergency treatment for inhalation injury and CO poisoning includes the immediate administration of 100% humidified oxygen. The other interventions are appropriate for inhalation injury but are not as emergent as oxygen administration. Ch. 25

1. A patient with an open fracture of the left tibia and soft tissue damage underwent a surgical reduction and fixation of the tibia with debridement of nonviable tissue and drain placement. When assessing the patient during the postoperative period, the nurse will be most concerned about a. fever with chills and night sweats. b. light yellow drainage from the wound. c. pain on movement of the affected limb. d. muscle spasms around the affected bone.

Answer: A Rationale: Fever, chills, and night sweats are suggestive of osteomyelitis. The other clinical manifestations are typical after a fracture repair. Cognitive Level: Application Text Reference: p. 1669 Nursing Process: Assessment NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

A patient is admitted to the emergency department with cold exposure and a core body temperature of 86.6o F (30.3o C). Which action is most appropriate for the nurse to take? A. Immerse the extremities in a water bath (102° to 108° F) [38.9° to 42.2° C]) B. Place an air-filled warming blanket on the patient. C. Position patient under a radiant heat lamp. D. Administer warmed intravenous (IV) fluids.

Answer: D. Administer warmed intravenous (IV) fluids. Rationale: A patient with a core body temperature of 86.6o F (30.3o C) has moderate hypothermia. Active core rewarming is used for moderate to severe hypothermia and includes administration of warmed IV fluids (109.4° F [43° C]). Patients with moderate to severe hypothermia should have the core warmed before the extremities to prevent after drop (or further drop in core temperature). This occurs when cold peripheral blood returns to the central circulation. Use passive or active external rewarming for mild hypothermia. Active external rewarming involves fluid-filled warming blankets or radiant heat lamps. Immersion of extremities in a water bath is indicated for frostbite. Ch. 69

A nurse is performing triage in the emergency department. Which patient should the nurse see first? A. 18-year-old patient with type 1 diabetes mellitus who has a 4-cm laceration on right leg. B. 32-year-old patient with drug overdose who is unresponsive with poor respiratory effort. C. 56-year-old patient with substernal chest pain who is diaphoretic with shortness of breath. D. 78-year-old patient with right hip fracture who is confused; blood pressure is 98/62 mm Hg.

Answer: B. 32-year-old patient with drug overdose who is unresponsive with poor respiratory effort. Rationale: Patient with drug overdose is unstable and needs to be seen immediately. Patient with chest pain (possible myocardial infarction) should be seen second. Patient with hip fracture should be seen third. Patient with laceration is the most stable and should be seen last. Ch. 69

Several patients are admitted to the emergency department after exposure to an aerosolized agent that is believed to be a hemorrhagic fever virus used as a bioterrorism agent. The nurse plans care for the patients with the knowledge that:

Answer: 1 1. No known treatment is available for this disease. 2. A vaccine is available to prevent the disease in those who have been exposed. 3. The disease can be spread from person to person only by vectors such as mosquitoes or fleas. 4. Ciprofloxacin (Cipro) is the treatment of choice and is stockpiled by government agencies for use against the virus. Rationale: Only supportive treatment is available. A vaccine is available for Yellow fever only. The disease is carried by rodents and mosquitoes and through direct person-to-person contact with body fluids. Also, the virus can be aerosolized.

While performing triage in the emergency department, the nurse determines that which of the following patients should be seen first?

Answer: 3 1. A patient with a deformed leg indicating a fractured tibia; blood pressure 110/60 mm Hg, pulse 86 beats/min, respirations 18 breaths/min. 2. A patient with burns on the face and chest; blood pressure 120/80 mm Hg, pulse 92 beats/min, respirations 24 breaths/min. 3. A patient with type 1 diabetes in ketoacidosis; blood pressure 100/60 mm Hg, pulse 100 beats/min, respirations 32 breaths/min. 4. A patient with a respiratory infection with a cough productive of greenish sputum; blood pressure 128/86 mm Hg, pulse 88 beats/min, respirations 26 breaths/min. Rationale: A triage system identifies and categorizes patients so that the most critical are treated first. The Emergency Severity Index (ESI) is a five-level triage system that incorporates concepts of illness severity and resource utilization to determine who should be treated first. Initially, the nurse would assess the patient for any threats to life or the presence of a high-risk situation. Next, evaluate patients who do not meet the criteria for ESI-1 or ESI-2 for the number of anticipated resources they may need. Assign patients to ESI level 3, 4, or 5 based on this determination. Normal vital signs are required for patients assigned to ESI level 3. Patients with abnormal vital signs may be reassigned to ESI level 2. Option 3 is ESI-1; option 1 is ESI-4; option 2 is ESI-5; and option 4 is ESI-2.

Assessment of the patient during the primary survey indicates that the patient has delayed capillary refill of the extremities and cannot explain the events prior to admission to the emergency department. The nurse should first:

Answer: 4 1. Insert one or two large-bore IV catheters to start intravenous fluid resuscitation. 2. Continue the primary survey to complete it with a brief neurologic examination. 3. Apply leads for electrocardiogram (ECG) monitoring. 4. Initiate pulse oximetry. Rationale: The primary survey focuses on airway, breathing, circulation, disability, and exposure/environmental control. It serves to identify life-threatening conditions, so that appropriate interventions can be initiated. The nurse may identify life-threatening conditions related to airway, breathing, circulation (ABCs), and disability at any point during the primary survey. When this occurs, the nurse should start interventions immediately and before moving to the next step of the survey. The patient has decreased oxygenation, and further assessment with pulse oximetry is indicated.

An 18-year-old male who fell through the ice on a pond near his farm was admitted to the emergency department with signs and symptoms of severe hypothermia. The nurse should anticipate which of the following interventions?

Answer: A A. Active core rewarming B. Immersion in a hot bath C. Rehydration and massage D. Passive external rewarming Rationale: Active core rewarming involves the application of heat directly to the core and is indicated for severe hypothermia. Passive rewarming is used in mild hypothermia. Immersion in a hot bath, rehydration, and massage are not appropriate interventions in the treatment of severe hypothermia.

Which of the following assessment parameters will the nurse address during the secondary assessment of a patient in triage?

Answer: A A. Blood pressure and heart rate B. Patency of the patient's airway C. Neurologic status and level of consciousness D. Presence or absence of breath sound and quality of breathing Rationale: Vital signs are considered to be a part of the secondary assessment in the triage process. Airway, breathing, and a brief neurologic assessment are components of the primary survey.

A patient has sought care 3 days after experiencing a series of tick bites. Which of the following signs and symptoms would indicate that a patient is experiencing tick paralysis?

Answer: A A. Respiratory distress B. Aggression and frequent falls C. Decreased level of consciousness D. Fever and necrosis at the bite sites Rationale: Classic symptoms of tick paralysis are flaccid ascending paralysis, which develops over 1 to 2 days. Without tick removal, the patient dies as respiratory muscles become paralyzed. Decreased LOC, aggression, fever, and necrosis at the bite sites are not characteristic of the problem.

4. A patient has chronic osteomyelitis of the left femur, which is being managed at home with self-administration of IV antibiotics. On a home visit, the nurse identifies the nursing diagnosis of ineffective therapeutic regimen management when the nurse finds that the patient a. is unable to plantar-flex the foot on the affected side. b. uses crutches to avoid weight bearing on the affected leg. c. takes and records the oral temperature twice a day. d. is irritable and frustrated with the length of treatment required.

Answer: A Rationale: Footdrop is an indication that the foot is not being supported in a neutral position by a splint. Using crutches and monitoring the oral temperature are appropriate self-care activities. Frustration with the length of treatment is not an indicator of ineffective management of the osteomyelitis. Cognitive Level: Application Text Reference: p. 1672 Nursing Process: Diagnosis NCLEX: Health Promotion and Maintenance

18. When planning care for a patient who will be treated with 2 days of bed rest for low back pain, which intervention will the nurse include? a. Telling the patient about the importance of a high fiber and fluid intake b. Instructing the patient to avoid positioning the knee in the flexed position c. Educating the patient that continuous heat application will reduce pain d. Teaching the patient that the prone position will help relieve back pain

Answer: A Rationale: Prevention of constipation caused by immobility is a goal for the patient with low back pain. The knee should be flexed to prevent pressure on the muscles and support structures of the spine. Heat and cold should be alternated. The prone position places more strain on the back and should be avoided. Cognitive Level: Application Text Reference: p. 1676 Nursing Process: Planning NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

14. The nurse determines that teaching regarding diet for a patient with osteoporosis has been successful when the patient selects which of these meals as having the highest amount of calcium? a. Sardine sandwich on whole wheat bread, one cup of fruit yogurt, and one cup of skim milk b. Two-egg omelet with American cheese, one slice of whole-wheat toast, and a half grapefruit c. Ham and Swiss cheese sandwich on whole-wheat bread, steamed broccoli, and an apple d. Chicken stir-fry with bok choy, onions, and snap peas and one cup of steamed brown rice

Answer: A Rationale: Sardines, yogurt, and milk are all high in calcium. The other choices have some foods that are high in calcium but also include foods that are low in calcium, such as eggs, apples, and grapefruit. Cognitive Level: Application Text Reference: p. 1689 Nursing Process: Evaluation NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

8. A patient whose work involves loading and unloading boxes has a history of chronic back pain. Which statement after the nurse has taught the patient about correct body mechanics indicates that the teaching has been effective? a. "I plan to start doing sit-ups and leg lifts to strengthen the muscles of my back." b. "I will try to sleep with my hips and knees extended to prevent back strain." c. "I can tell my boss that I need to change to a job where I can work at a desk." d. "I will keep my back straight when I need to lift anything higher than my waist."

Answer: A Rationale: Sit-ups and leg lifts will help to strengthen the muscles that support the back. Flexion of the hips and knees places less strain on the back. Modifications in the way the patient lifts boxes are needed, but sitting for prolonged periods can aggravate back pain. The patient should not lift above the level of the elbows. Cognitive Level: Application Text Reference: p. 1677 Nursing Process: Evaluation NCLEX: Health Promotion and Maintenance

11. After teaching a patient with a bunion about how to prevent further problems, the nurse will determine that more teaching is needed if the patient says, a. "I will wear soft slippers whenever possible." b. "I will throw away my high heel shoes." c. "I will use the bunion pad to relieve the pain." d. "I will take ibuprofen (Motrin) when I need it."

Answer: A Rationale: The shank of the shoe should be rigid enough to support the foot. The other patient statements indicate that the teaching has been effective. Cognitive Level: Application Text Reference: pp. 1684-1685 Nursing Process: Evaluation NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

Which of the following assessment parameters will the nurse address during the secondary?

Answer: A A. Blood pressure and heart rate B. Patency of the patient's airway C. Neurologic status and level of consciousness D. Presence or absence of breath sound and quality of breathing Rationale: Vital signs are considered to be a part of the secondary assessment in the triage process. Airway, breathing, and a brief neurologic assessment are components of the primary survey.

16. When evaluating the effectiveness of treatment for a patient who is being treated for Paget's disease with calcitonin (Cibacalcin) and ibandronate (Boniva), the nurse will ask the patient about a. weight loss. b. skeletal pain. c. decreased appetite. d. frequent cough.

Answer: B Rationale: Bone pain is one of the common early manifestations of Paget's disease, and the nurse should ask about improvement in pain levels to determine whether the treatment is effective. Weight loss, anorexia, and frequent cough are not symptoms of Paget's disease. Cognitive Level: Application Text Reference: p. 1690 Nursing Process: Evaluation NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

17. A patient is receiving gentamicin (Garamycin) 80 mg IV twice daily for acute osteomyelitis. Which action should the nurse take before administering the gentamicin? a. Obtain the patient's oral temperature. b. Review the patient's BUN and creatinine levels. c. Ask the patient about any nausea. d. Change the wet-to-dry dressing.

Answer: B Rationale: Gentamicin is nephrotoxic and can cause renal failure. Monitoring the patient's temperature before gentamicin administration is not necessary. Nausea is not a common side effect of IV gentamicin. There is no need to change the dressing before gentamicin administration. Cognitive Level: Application Text Reference: p. 1670 Nursing Process: Assessment NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

2. A patient is hospitalized for initiation of regional antibiotic perfusion for acute osteomyelitis of the right femur. Which intervention will be included in the plan of care? a. Frequent weight-bearing exercise b. Immobilization of the right leg c. Avoid administration of NSAIDs d. Support right leg in a flexed position

Answer: B Rationale: Immobilization of the affected leg helps to decrease pain and reduce the risk for pathologic fractures. Weight-bearing exercise increases the risk for pathologic fractures. NSAIDs are frequently prescribed to treat pain. Flexion of the affected limb is avoided to prevent contractures. Cognitive Level: Application Text Reference: pp. 1670-1671 Nursing Process: Planning NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

5. Which statement by a patient who is scheduled for an above-the-knee amputation for treatment of an osteogenic sarcoma of the right tibia indicates that patient teaching is needed? a. "I wish that I did not have to have chemotherapy after this surgery." b. "I do not mind the surgery because it will finally cure the cancer." c. "I know that I will need lots of physical therapy after surgery." d. "I will use the patient-controlled analgesia to help control my pain level after surgery."

Answer: B Rationale: Osteogenic sarcoma is an aggressive cancer with early metastasis and is not considered cured by surgery alone. Postoperative chemotherapy will also be required. The other patient statements indicate that patient teaching has been effective. Cognitive Level: Application Text Reference: p. 1674 Nursing Process: Evaluation NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

12. An assessment finding that alerts the nurse to the presence of osteoporosis in a middle-aged patient is a. the presence of bowed legs. b. measurable loss of height. c. an aversion to dairy products. d. statements about frequent falls.

Answer: B Rationale: Osteoporosis occurring in the vertebrae produces a gradual loss of height. Bowed legs are associated with osteomalacia. Low intake of dairy products is a risk factor for osteoporosis, but it does not indicate that osteoporosis is present. Frequent falls increase the risk for fractures but are not an indicator of osteoporosis. Cognitive Level: Comprehension Text Reference: p. 1687 Nursing Process: Assessment NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

Which of the following guidelines for the assessment of intimate partner violence (IPV) should the emergency nurse follow?

Answer: C A. All female patients and patients under 18 should be assessed for IPV. B. Patients should be assessed for IPV provided corroborating evidence exists. C. Patients should be routinely screened for family and IPV. D. Patients whom the nurse deems high risk should be assessed for IPV. Rationale: Patients should be routinely screened for family and IPV.

13. A 58-year-old woman who has been menopausal for 5 years is diagnosed with osteoporosis following densitometry testing. The woman has been concerned about her risk for osteoporosis because her mother has the condition. In teaching the woman about her osteoporosis, the nurse explains that a. with a family history of osteoporosis, there is no way to prevent or slow gradual bone resorption. b. estrogen replacement therapy must be started to prevent rapid progression of her osteoporosis. c. even with a family history of osteoporosis, the calcium loss from bones can be slowed by increased calcium intake and exercise. d. continuous, low-dose corticosteroid treatment is effective in stopping the course of osteoporosis.

Answer: C Rationale: Progression of osteoporosis can be slowed by increasing calcium intake and weight-bearing exercise. Estrogen replacement therapy does help to prevent osteoporosis, but it is not the only treatment and is not appropriate for some patients. Corticosteroid therapy increases the risk for osteoporosis. Cognitive Level: Application Text Reference: p. 1689 Nursing Process: Implementation NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

19. Which of these nursing actions included in the care of a patient after laminectomy can the nurse delegate to an experienced nursing assistant? a. Evaluation of the effectiveness of the PCA b. Monitoring plantar and dorsiflexion of the feet c. Logrolling the patient from side to side every 2 hours d. Determining the patient's readiness to ambulate

Answer: C Rationale: Repositioning a patient is included in the education and scope of practice of nursing assistants, and an experienced nursing assistant would be familiar with logrolling. Evaluation of the effectiveness of pain medications, assessment of neurologic function, and evaluation of a patient's readiness to ambulate after surgery require higher-level nursing education and scope of practice. Cognitive Level: Application Text Reference: pp. 1683-1684 Nursing Process: Planning NCLEX: Safe and Effective Care Environment

7. The nurse identifies a nursing diagnosis of pain related to muscle spasms for a patient with acute low back pain associated with acute lumbosacral strain. An appropriate nursing intervention for this problem is to teach the patient to a. twist gently from side to side to maintain range-of-motion in the spine. b. place a small pillow under the upper back to flex the lumbar spine gently. c. keep the head elevated slightly and flex the knees when resting in bed. d. avoid the use of cold because it will exacerbate the muscle spasms.

Answer: C Rationale: Resting with the head elevated and knees flexed will reduce the strain on the back and decrease muscle spasms. Twisting from side to side will increase tension on the lumbar area. A pillow placed under the upper back will cause strain on the lumbar spine. Alternate application of cold and heat should be used to decrease pain. Cognitive Level: Application Text Reference: pp. 1676-1677 Nursing Process: Planning NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

3. A patient is being discharged after 2 weeks of IV antibiotic therapy for acute osteomyelitis in the left leg. Which information will be included in the discharge teaching? a. The reason for taking oral antibiotics for 7 to 10 days after discharge b. The need for daily aerobic exercise to help maintain muscle strength c. How to monitor and care for the long-term IV catheter site d. How to apply warm packs safely to the leg to reduce pain

Answer: C Rationale: The patient will be on IV antibiotics for several months, and the patient will need to recognize signs of infection at the IV site and how to care for the catheter during daily activities such as bathing. IV antibiotics rather than oral antibiotics are used for acute osteomyelitis. Patients are instructed to avoid exercise and heat application because these will increase swelling and the risk for spreading infection. Cognitive Level: Application Text Reference: p. 1670 Nursing Process: Implementation NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

15. When administering alendronate (Fosamax) to a patient, the nurse will first a. administer the ordered calcium carbonate. b. be sure the patient has recently eaten. c. assist the patient to sit up at the bedside. d. ask about any leg cramps or hot flashes.

Answer: C Rationale: To avoid esophageal erosions, the patient taking bisphosphonates should be upright for at least 30 minutes after taking the medication. Fosamax should be taken on an empty stomach, not after taking other medications or eating. Leg cramps and hot flashes are not side effects of bisphosphonates. Cognitive Level: Application Text Reference: p. 1689 Nursing Process: Implementation NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

An 18-year-old female has been admitted to the emergency department after ingesting an entire bottle of chewable multivitamins in a suicide attempt. The nurse should anticipate which of the following interventions?

Answer: D A. Induced vomiting B. Whole bowel irrigation C. Administration of fresh frozen plasma D. Administration of activated charcoal Rationale: Among the most common treatments for poisoning is the administration of activated charcoal. Induced vomiting is not typically indicated, and there is no need for plasma administration. Whole bowel irrigation may be used as an adjunct therapy later in treatment, but the use of activated charcoal is central to the treatment of poisonings.

9. A patient with a herniated intravertebral disk undergoes a laminectomy and diskectomy. Following the surgery, the nurse should position the patient on the side by a. elevating the head of the bed 30 degrees and having the patient extend the legs while turning to the side. b. turning the patient's head and shoulders and then the hips, keeping the patient centered in the bed. c. having the patient turn by grasping the side rails and pulling the shoulders over. d. placing a pillow between the patient's legs and turning the entire body as a unit.

Answer: D Rationale: Logrolling is used to maintain correct body alignment after laminectomy. The other positions will create misalignment of the spine. Cognitive Level: Application Text Reference: p. 1683 Nursing Process: Implementation NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

6. A 20-year-old patient with a 6-year history of muscular dystrophy is hospitalized with a respiratory tract infection. Which nursing action will be included in the plan of care? a. Logroll the patient every 1 to 2 hours. b. Teach the patient about the muscle biopsy procedure. c. Provide the patient with a pureed diet. d. Assist the patient with active range-of-motion (ROM) exercises.

Answer: D Rationale: The goal for the patient with muscular dystrophy is to keep the patient active for as long as possible. The patient would not be confined to bed rest and would not require logrolling. Muscle biopsies are necessary to confirm the diagnosis but would not be ordered for a patient who already had a diagnosis. There is no indication that the patient requires a pureed diet. Cognitive Level: Application Text Reference: p. 1675 Nursing Process: Planning NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

10. Following a laminectomy with a spinal fusion, a patient reports numbness and tingling of the right lower leg. The first action indicated by the nurse is to a. report the patient's complaint to the surgeon. b. check the vital signs for indications of hemorrhage. c. turn the patient to the side to relieve pressure on the operative area. d. check the chart for preoperative neuromuscular assessment data.

Answer: D Rationale: The postoperative movement and sensation of the extremities should be unchanged (or improved) from the preoperative assessment. If the numbness and tingling are new, this information should be immediately reported to the surgeon. Numbness and tingling are not symptoms associated with hemorrhage at the site. Turning the patient will not relieve the numbness. Cognitive Level: Application Text Reference: p. 1683 Nursing Process: Implementation NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

Emergency Preparedness

Any extraordinary event that requires a rapid and skilled response and can be managed by a community's existing resources

Situation: Mr. Janno Alcasid, overweight, 61 years old, was admitted and diagnosed with osteoarthritis. 1. Mr. Alcasid asks the nurse, "What is osteoarthritis?" Which response from the nurse is correct? a) your bones are inflamed b) your weight bearing joints are inflamed c) you have inflammation in your joints d) there is shortening of your long bones

B - Osteoarthritis, also known as hypertrophic arthritis, osteoarthritis, senescent arthritis and degenerative joint disease is characterized by destruction of the articular cartilage, which becomes opaque, yellow, soft, weak and deteriorated. It is followed by thickening of bone under the cartilage and formation of osteophytes or bone spurs. Unlike RH, osteoarthritis is not a systemic disease and affects only the joint and its surrounding tissue. This disorder commonly occurs in the 50-70 year age group but women are more severely affected. The Signs and Symptoms of Osteoarthritis include: pain - worse with weight bearing, improves with rest may occur with paresthesia joint swelling and enlargement - may be from inflammatory exudates entering joint capsule causing an increase in synovial fluid or from fragments of osteophytes entering synovial cavity decreased ROM - depends on the amount of destroyed cartilage muscular atrophy - from disuse, joint instability and deformity crepitus - must be present on movement of the joint joint stiffness - worse in the morning and after a period of rest and disuse heberden's nodes - bony protuberances occurring on the dorsal surface of the distal interphalangeal joints of the fingers bouchard's nodes - bony protruberances occurring on the proximal interphalangeal joints of fingers coxaarthrosis - pain in the hip on weight bearing with pain progressing to include the groin and medial knee pain and limited range of motion varus (bowlegs) or valgus (knock kneed)

The nurse is assigned to care for a client who is in traction. The nurse ensures a safe environment for the client by: a) making sure that the knots are at the pulleys b) checking the weights to be sure that they are off the floor c) making sure that the head of the bed is kept at a 90-degree angle d) monitor the weights to be sure that they are resting on a firm surface

B - To achieve proper traction, weights need to be free-hanging, with knots kept away from the pulleys. Weights are not to be kept resting on a firm surface. The head of the bed is usually kept low to provide countertraction.

The nurse is providing care in the emergency department to the client with chest pain. Which action is most important for the nurse to do first? a) perform venipuncture and start an IV line b) administer oxygen via nasal cannula c) administer morphine sulfate intravenously d) start lidocaine (xylocaine) infusion

B - administration of oxygen is a priority nursing action in a client with chest pain. The primary reason for chest pain is inadequate myocardial oxygenation.

A client is brought to the emergency room with compound femur fracture. What is the first action the emergency room nurse should do? a) cover the open wound b) check the clients blood pressure c) assess the client's neurologic status d) prepare the client for X-ray

B - compound fracture of the femur may cause severe internal bleeding. Internal bleeding is characterized by hypotension.

How do you position a client with left hip fracture in Buck's traction? a) head of bed raised at 45 degree angle b) left calf on pillow from knee to ankle c) position the left on affected side with pillows between legs d) position the left in the center of the bed with the leg extended

B - elevate the leg with pillow to relieve pressure from the heel of the foot and to improve the effectiveness of the countertraction.

A patient had hip surgery. On the second post-op day, the patient is agitated, is tremulous and confused. What should the nurse primarily assess? a) the surgical wound b) alcohol use before surgery c) peripheral circulation d) breathing pattern

B - the client's sign and symptoms indicate alcohol withdrawal.

When planning the response to the potential use of smallpox as an agent of terrorism, the emergency department (ED) nurse-manager will plan to obtain sufficient quantities of a. blood. b. vaccine. c. atropine. d. antibiotics.

B Smallpox infection can be prevented or ameliorated by the administration of vaccine given rapidly after exposure. The other interventions would be helpful for other agents of terrorism but not for smallpox.

When a patient is admitted to the emergency department after a submersion injury, which assessment will the nurse obtain first? a. Apical pulse b. Lung sounds c. Body temperature d. Level of consciousness

B The priority assessment data are how well the patient is oxygenating, so lung sounds should be assessed first. The other data also will be collected rapidly but are not as essential as the lung sounds.

During a health screening event which assessment finding would alert the nurse to the possible presence of osteoporosis in a white 61-year-old female? A. The presence of bowed legs B. A measurable loss of height C. Poor appetite and aversion to dairy products D. Development of unstable, wide-gait ambulation

B. A measurable loss of height A gradual but measurable loss of height and the development of kyphosis or "dowager's hump" are indicative of the presence of osteoporosis in which the rate of bone resorption is greater than bone deposition. Bowed legs may be caused by abnormal bone development or rickets but is not indicative of osteoporosis. Lack of calcium and Vitamin D intake may cause osteoporosis but are not indicative it is present. A wide gait is used to support balance and does not indicate osteoporosis.

A 23-year-old patient with a history of muscular dystrophy is hospitalized with pneumonia. Which nursing action will be included in the plan of care? a. Logroll the patient every 2 hours. b. Assist the patient with ambulation. c. Discuss the need for genetic testing with the patient. d. Teach the patient about the muscle biopsy procedure.

B. Because the goal for the patient with muscular dystrophy is to keep the patient active for as long as possible, assisting the patient to ambulate will be part of the care plan. The patient will not require logrolling. Muscle biopsies are necessary to confirm the diagnosis but are not necessary for a patient who already has a diagnosis. There is no need for genetic testing because the patient already knows the diagnosis.

The 24-year-old male patient who was successfully treated for Paget's disease has come to the clinic with a gradual onset of pain and swelling around the left knee. The patient is diagnosed with osteosarcoma without metastasis. The patient wants to know why he will be given chemotherapy before the surgery. What is the best rationale the nurse should tell the patient? A. The chemotherapy is being used to save your left leg. B. Chemotherapy is being used to decrease the tumor size. C. The chemotherapy will increase your 5-year survival rate. D. Chemotherapy will help decrease the pain before and after surgery.

B. Chemotherapy is being used to decrease the tumor size. Preoperative chemotherapy is used to decrease tumor size before surgery. The chemotherapy will not save his leg if the lesion is too big or there is neurovascular or muscle involvement. Adjunct chemotherapy after amputation or limb salvage has increased 5-year survival rate in people without metastasis. Chemotherapy is not used to decrease pain before or after surgery.

During treatment of the patient with an acute attack of gout, the nurse would expect to administer a. aspirin b. colchicine c. allopurinol (Zyloprim) d. probenecid (Benemid)

B. Colchicine

The nurse identifies a nursing diagnosis of pain related to muscle spasms for a 45-year-old patient who has low back pain from a herniated lumbar disc. What would be an appropriate nursing intervention to treat this problem? A. Provide gentle ROM to the lower extremities. B. Elevate the head of the bed 20 degrees and flex the knees. C. Place the bed in reverse Trendelenburg with the feet firmly against the footboard. D. Place a small pillow under the patient's upper back to gently flex the lumbar spine.

B. Elevate the head of the bed 20 degrees and flex the knees. The nurse should elevate the head of the bed 20 degrees and flex the knees to avoid extension of the spine and increasing the pain. The slight flexion provided by this position often is comfortable for a patient with a herniated lumbar disc. ROM to the lower extremities will be limited to prevent extremes of spinal movement. Reverse Trendelenburg and a pillow under the patient's upper back will more likely increase pain.

A 39-year-old patient whose work involves frequent lifting has a history of chronic back pain. After the nurse has taught the patient about correct body mechanics, which patient statement indicates that the teaching has been effective? a. "I will keep my back straight to lift anything higher than my waist." b. "I will begin doing exercises to strengthen the muscles of my back." c. "I can try to sleep with my hips and knees extended to prevent back strain." d. "I can tell my boss that I need to change to a job where I can work at a desk."

B. Exercises can help strengthen the muscles that support the back. Flexion of the hips and knees places less strain on the back. Modifications in the way the patient lifts boxes are needed, but sitting for prolonged periods can aggravate back pain. The patient should not lift above the level of the elbows.

Which action should the nurse take before administering gentamicin (Garamycin) to a patient who has acute osteomyelitis? a. Ask the patient about any nausea. b. Review the patient's creatinine level. c. Obtain the patient's oral temperature. d. Change the prescribed wet-to-dry dressing.

B. Gentamicin is nephrotoxic and can cause renal failure. Monitoring the patient's temperature before gentamicin administration is not necessary. Nausea is not a common side effect of IV gentamicin. There is no need to change the dressing before gentamicin administration.

After teaching a patient with RA about the prescribed therapeutic regimen, the nurse determines that further instruction is needed when the patient says, a. it is important for me to perform my prescribed exercises every day b. I should perform most of my daily chores in the morning when my energy level is highest c. an ice pack to a joint for 10 minutes may help relieve pain and inflammation when I have an acute flare d. I can use assistive devices such as padded utensils, electric can openers, and elevated toilet seats to protect my joints

B. I should perform most of my daily chores in the morning when my energy level is highest

The nurse is caring for a patient admitted to the nursing unit with osteomyelitis of the tibia. Which symptom will the nurse most likely find on physical examination of the patient? A. Nausea and vomiting B. Localized pain and warmth C. Paresthesia in the affected extremity D. Generalized bone pain throughout the leg

B. Localized pain and warmth Osteomyelitis is an infection of bone and bone marrow that can occur with trauma, surgery, or spread from another part of the body. Because it is an infection, the patient will exhibit typical signs of inflammation and infection, including localized pain and warmth. Nausea and vomiting and paresthesia of the extremity are not expected to occur. Pain occurs, but it is localized, not generalized throughout the leg.

The nurse instructs a patient who has osteosarcoma of the tibia about a scheduled above-the-knee amputation. Which statement by a patient indicates that additional patient teaching is needed? a. "I will need to participate in physical therapy after surgery." b. "I did not have this bone cancer until my leg broke a week ago." c. "I wish that I did not have to have chemotherapy after this surgery." d. "I can use the patient-controlled analgesia (PCA) to control postoperative pain."

B. Osteogenic sarcoma may be diagnosed following a fracture, but it is not caused by the injury. The other patient statements indicate that patient teaching has been effective.

Which action will the nurse take first when a patient is seen in the outpatient clinic with neck pain? a. Provide information about therapeutic neck exercises. b. Ask about numbness or tingling of the hands and arms. c. Suggest that the patient alternate the use of heat and cold to the neck to treat the pain. d. Teach about the use of nonsteroidal antiinflammatory drugs such as ibuprofen (Advil).

B. The nurse's initial action should be further assessment of the pain because cervical nerve root compression will require different treatment than musculoskeletal neck pain. The other actions may also be appropriate, depending on the assessment findings.

A 50-year-old patient is being discharged after a week of IV antibiotic therapy for acute osteomyelitis in the right leg. Which information will be included in the discharge teaching? a. How to apply warm packs to the leg to reduce pain b. How to monitor and care for the long-term IV catheter c. The need for daily aerobic exercise to help maintain muscle strength d. The reason for taking oral antibiotics for 7 to 10 days after discharge

B. The patient will be on IV antibiotics for several months, and the patient will need to recognize signs of infection at the IV site and how to care for the catheter during daily activities such as bathing. IV antibiotics rather than oral antibiotics are used for acute osteomyelitis. Patients are instructed to avoid exercise and heat application because these will increase swelling and the risk for spreading infection.

Following laminectomy with a spinal fusion to treat a herniated disc, a patient reports numbness and tingling of the right lower leg. The first action that the nurse should take is to a. report the patient's complaint to the surgeon. b. check the chart for preoperative assessment data. c. check the vital signs for indications of hemorrhage. d. turn the patient to the side to relieve pressure on the right leg.

B. The postoperative movement and sensation of the extremities should be unchanged (or improved) from the preoperative assessment. If the numbness and tingling are new, this information should be immediately reported to the surgeon. Numbness and tingling are not symptoms associated with hemorrhage at the site. Turning the patient will not relieve the numbness.

When administering alendronate (Fosamax) to a patient with osteoporosis, the nurse will a. ask about any leg cramps or hot flashes. b. assist the patient to sit up at the bedside. c. be sure that the patient has recently eaten. d. administer the ordered calcium carbonate.

B. To avoid esophageal erosions, the patient taking bisphosphonates should be upright for at least 30 minutes after taking the medication. Fosamax should be taken on an empty stomach, not after taking other medications or eating. Leg cramps and hot flashes are not side effects of bisphosphonates.

The nurse is planning health promotion teaching for a 45-year-old patient with asthma, low back pain from herniated lumbar disc, and schizophrenia. What does the nurse determine would be the best exercise to include in an individualized exercise plan for the patient? A. Yoga B. Walking C. Calisthenics D. Weight lifting

B. Walking The patient would benefit from an aerobic exercise that takes into account the patient's health status and fits the patient's lifestyle. The best exercise is walking, which builds strength in the back and leg muscles without putting undue pressure or strain on the spine. Yoga, calisthenics, and weight lifting would all put pressure on or strain the spine.

A patient recovering from an acute exacerbation of RA tells the nurse she is too tired to bathe. The nurse should a. give the patient a bed bath to conserve her energy b. allow the patient a rest period before showering with the nurses' help c. tell the patient that she can skip bathing if she will walk in the hall later d. inform the patient that it is important for her to maintain self-care activities

B. allow the patient a rest period before showering with the nurses' help

A patient with gout is treated with drug therapy to prevent future attacks. The nurse teaches the patient that is is the most important to a. avoid all foods high in purine, such as organ meats b. have periodic determination of serum uric acid levels c. perform active ROM of all joints that have been affected by gout d. increase the dosage of medication with the onset of an acute attack

B. have periodic determination of serum uric acid levels

A patient with newly diagnosed SLE asks the nurse how the disease will affect her life. The best response by the nurse is a. You can plan to have a near-normal life since SLE rarely causes death b. it is difficult to tell because to disease is so variable in its severity and progression c. life span is shortened somewhat in people with SLE, but the disease can be controlled with long-term use of corticosteroids d. most people with SLE have alternating periods of remissions and exacerbations with rapid progression to permanent organ damage

B. it is difficult to tell because the disease is so variable in its severity and progression

To preserve function and the ability to perform activities of daily living, the nurse teaches the patient with OA to a. avoid exercise that involves the affected joints b. plan and organize less stressful ways to perform tasks c. maintain normal activities during an acute episode to prevent loss of function d. use mild analgesics to control symptoms when performing tasks that cause pain

B. plan and organize less stressful ways to perform tasks

Secondary Survey: Vital Signs

Blood pressure (bilateral) Heart rate Respiratory rate Oxygen saturation Temperature Initiate ECG monitoring. Initiate pulse oximetry. Insert indwelling catheter. Insert orogastric/nasogastric tube. Collect blood for laboratory studies.

Active external rewarming

Body-to-body contact, fluid- or air-filled warming blankets, radiant heat lamps. -Use of heated, humidified oxygen -Warmed IV fluids -Peritoneal, gastric, or colonic lavage with warmed fluids

A patient who experienced a near drowning accident in a local lake, but now is awake and breathing spontaneously, is admitted for observation. Which action will be most important for the nurse to take during the observation period? a. Listen to heart sounds. b. Palpate peripheral pulses. c. Auscultate breath sounds. d. Check pupil reaction to light.

C Since pulmonary edema is a common complication after near drowning, the nurse should assess the breath sounds frequently. The other information also will be collected by the nurse, but it is not as pertinent to the patient's admission diagnosis.

A patient who is unconscious after a fall from a ladder is transported to the emergency department by family members. During the primary survey of the patient, the nurse should a. assess the patient's vital signs. b. attach a cardiac electrocardiogram (ECG) monitor. c. obtain a Glasgow Coma Scale score. d. ask about chronic medical conditions.

C The Glasgow Coma Scale is included when assessing for disability during the primary survey. The other information is part of the secondary survey.

8. A patient under steroid therapy should be advised by the nurse to: a) limit carbohydrates in the diet b) take the medication on an empty stomach c) avoid individuals who have infections d) stop the medication when symptoms have subsided

C - Long Term Side Effects of Prednisone Therapy causes GI irritation so it must be taken with food. Patient may need antacid (must not contain sodium) to prevent ulcer. Give once-daily dose in the morning to lessen toxicity. Maybe diluted in juice or semi-solid food such as apple sauce causes sodium and water retention that results in cushinghoid appearance: moon face, buffalo hump, thinning of hair, hypertension and edema. Advise patient on low sodium diet that's high in potassium and protein avoid discontinuing abruptly as it can cause adrenal insufficiency and rebound inflammation. Reduce dosage gradually can cause glaucoma and cataract so monitor patient for visual disturbances and advise to have annual eye exam if on long term therapy increases cholesterol and glucose levels so diabetics must increase insulin dosage skin tests will be false-negative because it suppresses immune response avoid active immunization while under therapy because patient is immunosuppressed causes hypocalcemia and hypokalemia and increased urine calcium levels, causes osteoporosis so patient needs Vitamin D and calcium supplement will decrease iodine uptake and protein-bound iodine levels in thyroid function test tell patient to report: slow healing, exposure to infection, depression, insomnia, psychotic symptoms, weakness and fatigue, dizziness, joint pain, fever, anorexia and fainting always give by deep IM in gluteal muscle to prevent sterile abscess if given by subcutaneous and rotate injection sites route to prevent tissue atrophy always give the lowest dose to minimize toxicity

A nurse is conducting a health screening among females at the mall to assess those who are at risk for developing osteoporosis. Which of the following questions is most appropriate to be asked by the nurse in relation to development of osteoporosis? a) at what age did you have your menstruation? b) did you have any fracture? c) are you taking corticosteroids? d) are you on the diet high in vitamin D?

C - corticosteroids promote calcium loss. This increases the risk for osteoporosis.

A 3-year old in Bryant's traction is with foot foam. You found the child pulling out the foot foam. What is your most appropriate nursing action? a) remove the foot foam and assess the area b) reapply the foot foam at once c) call another nurse to maintain traction as you reapply the foot foam d) tell the child to stop removing the foot foam

C - maintain the traction as the foot foam is reapplied

7. A patient with rheumatoid arthritis asks the nurse why she is taking Prednisone (Deltasone) the nurse best response would be that it: a) enhance the immune system b) increase bone density c) decrease inflammation d) reduce peripheral edema

C - the main effect of corticosteroids is to supress inflammation. However, this same effect is also one of the main setback of corticosteroid therapy suppression of the inflammatory response also decreases the immune response making the patient susceptible to infection.

A patient's family members are in the patient room when the patient has a cardiac arrest and emergency personnel start resuscitation measures. Which action is best for the nurse to take initially? a. Have the family wait outside the patient room with a designated staff member to provide emotional support. b. Keep the family in the room and assign a member of the team to explain the care given and answer questions. c. Ask the family members about whether they would prefer to remain in the patient room or wait outside the room. d. Advise the family members that patients are comforted by having family members present during resuscitation efforts.

C Although many family members and patients report benefits from family presence during resuscitation efforts, the nurse's initial action should be to determine the preference of these family members. The other actions may be appropriate, but this will depend on what is learned when assessing family preferences.

A patient with hypotension and temperature elevation after doing yard work on a hot day is treated in the ED. After the nurse has completed discharge teaching, which statement by the patient indicates that the teaching has been effective? a. "I will take salt tablets when I work outdoors in the summer." b. "I should take acetaminophen (Tylenol) if I start to feel too warm." c. "I should have sports drinks when exercising outside in hot weather." d. "I will get into a cool environment if I notice that I am feeling confused."

C Electrolyte solutions such as sports drinks help replace fluid and electrolytes lost when exercising in hot weather. Salt tablets are not recommended because of the risks of gastric irritation and hypernatremia. Antipyretic medications are not effective in lowering body temperature elevations caused by excessive exposure to heat. A patient who is confused is likely to have more severe hyperthermia and will be unable to remember to take appropriate action.

The emergency department (ED) triage nurse is assessing four victims of an automobile accident. Which patient has the highest priority for treatment? a. A patient with absent pedal pulses b. A patient with an open femur fracture c. A patient with a sucking chest wound d. A patient with bleeding of facial lacerations

C Most immediate deaths from trauma occur because of problems with ventilation, so the patient with a sucking chest wound should be treated first. Face and head fractures can obstruct the airway, but the patient with facial injuries has lacerations only. The other two patients also need rapid intervention but do not have airway or breathing problems.

An unresponsive 78-year-old is admitted to the emergency department (ED) during a summer heat wave. The patient's core temperature is 106.2° F (41.2° C), blood pressure (BP) 86/52, and pulse 102. The nurse initially will plan to a. administer an aspirin rectal suppository. b. start O2 at 6 L/min with a nasal cannula. c. apply wet sheets and a fan to the patient. d. infuse lactated Ringer's solution at 1000 mL/hr.

C The priority intervention is to cool the patient. Antipyretics are not effective in decreasing temperature in heat stroke, and 100% oxygen should be given, which requires a high flow rate through a non-rebreather mask. An older patient would be at risk for developing complications such as pulmonary edema if given fluids at 1000 mL/hr.

In which order will the nurse take these actions when caring for a patient in the ER with a right leg fracture after a MVA?

C D B E A F assess lung sounds, take blood pressure, check pedal pulses, apply splint to the legs, x ray

These four patients arrive in the emergency department after a motor vehicle crash. In which order should they be assessed? Put a comma and space between each answer choice (a, b, c, d, etc.) ____________________ a. A 72-year-old with palpitations and chest pain b. A 45-year-old complaining of 6/10 abdominal pain c. A 22-year-old with multiple fractures of the face and jaw d. A 30-year-old with a misaligned right leg with intact pulses

C, A, B, D The highest priority is to assess the 22-year-old patient for airway obstruction, which is the most life-threatening injury. The 72-year-old patient may have chest pain from cardiac ischemia and should be assessed and have diagnostic testing for this pain. The 45- year-old patient may have abdominal trauma or bleeding and should be seen next to assess circulatory status. The 30-year-old appears to have a possible fracture of the right leg and should be seen soon, but this patient has the least life-threatening injury.

Which information will the nurse include when teaching a patient with acute low back pain (select all that apply)? a. Sleep in a prone position with the legs extended. b. Keep the knees straight when leaning forward to pick something up. c. Avoid activities that require twisting of the back or prolonged sitting. d. Symptoms of acute low back pain frequently improve in a few weeks. e. Ibuprofen (Motrin, Advil) or acetaminophen (Tylenol) can be used to relieve pain.

C, D, E. Acute back pain usually starts to improve within 2 weeks. In the meantime, the patient should use medications such as nonsteroidal antiinflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) or acetaminophen to manage pain and avoid activities that stress the back. Sleeping in a prone position and keeping the knees straight when leaning forward will place stress on the back, and should be avoided.

The nurse is admitting a patient who complains of a new onset of lower back pain. To differentiate between the pain of a lumbar herniated disc and lower back pain from other causes, what would be the best question for the nurse to ask the patient? A. "Is the pain worse in the morning or in the evening?" B. "Is the pain sharp or stabbing or burning or aching?" C. "Does the pain radiate down the buttock or into the leg?" D. "Is the pain totally relieved by analgesics, such as acetaminophen (Tylenol)?"

C. "Does the pain radiate down the buttock or into the leg?" Lower back pain associated with a herniated lumbar disc is accompanied by radiation along the sciatic nerve and can be commonly described as traveling through the buttock, to the posterior thigh, or down the leg. This is because the herniated disc causes compression on spinal nerves as they exit the spinal column. Time of occurrence, type of pain, and pain relief questions do not elicit differentiating data.

The nurse has reviewed proper body mechanics with a patient with a history of low back pain caused by a herniated lumbar disc. Which statement made by the patient indicates a need for further teaching? A. "I should sleep on my side or back with my hips and knees bent." B. "I should exercise at least 15 minutes every morning and evening." C. "I should pick up items by leaning forward without bending my knees." D. "I should try to keep one foot on a stool whenever I have to stand for a period of time."

C. "I should pick up items by leaning forward without bending my knees." The patient should avoid leaning forward without bending the knees. Bending the knees helps to prevent lower back strain and is part of proper body mechanics when lifting. Sleeping on the side or back with hips and knees bent and standing with a foot on a stool will decrease lower back strain. Back strengthening exercises are done twice a day once symptoms subside.

The nurse receives report from the licensed practical nurse about care provided to patients on the orthopedic surgical unit. It is most important for the nurse to follow up on which statement? A. "The patient who had a spinal fusion 12 hours ago has hypoactive bowel sounds and is not passing flatus." B. "The patient who had cervical spine surgery 2 days ago wants to wear her soft cervical collar when out of bed." C. "The patient who had spinal surgery 3 hours ago is complaining of a headache and has clear drainage on the dressing." D. "The patient who had a laminectomy 24 hours ago is using patient-controlled analgesia with morphine for pain management."

C. "The patient who had spinal surgery 3 hours ago is complaining of a headache and has clear drainage on the dressing." After spinal surgery there is potential for cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) leakage. Severe headache or leakage of CSF (clear or slightly yellow) on the dressing should be reported immediately. The drainage is CSF if a dipstick test is positive for glucose. Patients after spinal surgery may experience paralytic ileus and interference with bowel function for several days. Postoperatively most patients require opioids such as morphine IV for 24 to 48 hours. Patient-controlled analgesia is the preferred method for pain management during this time. After cervical spine surgery patients often wear a soft or hard cervical collar to immobilize the neck.

The nurse is caring for patients in a primary care clinic. Which individual is most at risk to develop osteomyelitis caused by Staphylococcus aureus? A. 22-year-old female with gonorrhea who is an IV drug user B. 48-year-old male with muscular dystrophy and acute bronchitis C. 32-year-old male with type 1 diabetes mellitus and a stage IV pressure ulcer D. 68-year-old female with hypertension who had a knee arthroplasty 3 years ago

C. 32-year-old male with type 1 diabetes mellitus and a stage IV pressure ulcer Osteomyelitis caused by Staphylococcus aureus is usually associated with a pressure ulcer or vascular insufficiency related to diabetes mellitus. Osteomyelitis caused by Staphylococcus epidermidis is usually associated with indwelling prosthetic devices such as joint replacements. Osteomyelitis caused by Neisseria gonorrhoeae is usually associated with gonorrhea. Osteomyelitis caused by Pseudomonas is usually associated with IV drug use. Muscular dystrophy is not associated with osteomyelitis.

The nurse determines that dietary teaching for a 75-year-old patient with osteoporosis has been successful when the patient selects which highest-calcium meal? A. Chicken stir-fry with 1 cup each onions and green peas, and 1 cup of steamed rice B. Ham and Swiss cheese sandwich on whole wheat bread, steamed broccoli, and an apple C. A sardine (3 oz) sandwich on whole wheat bread, 1 cup of fruit yogurt, and 1 cup of skim milk D. A two-egg omelet with 2 oz of American cheese, one slice of whole wheat toast, and a half grapefruit

C. A sardine (3 oz) sandwich on whole wheat bread, 1 cup of fruit yogurt, and 1 cup of skim milk The highest calcium content is present in the lunch containing milk and milk products (yogurt) and small fish with bones (sardines). Chicken, onions, green peas, rice, ham, whole wheat bread, broccoli, apple, eggs, and grapefruit each have less than 75 mg of calcium per 100 g of food. Swiss cheese and American cheese have more calcium, but not as much as the sardines, yogurt, and milk.

A nurse who works on the orthopedic unit has just received the change-of-shift report. Which patient should the nurse assess first? a. Patient who reports foot pain after hammertoe surgery b. Patient with low back pain and a positive straight-leg-raise test c. Patient who has not voided 10 hours after having a laminectomy d. Patient with osteomyelitis who has a temperature of 100.5° F (38.1° C)

C. Difficulty in voiding may indicate damage to the spinal nerves and should be assessed and reported to the surgeon immediately. The information about the other patients is consistent with their diagnoses. The nurse will need to assess them as quickly as possible, but the information about them does not indicate a need for immediate intervention.

A 67-year-old patient is receiving IV antibiotics at home to treat chronic osteomyelitis of the left femur. The nurse chooses a nursing diagnosis of ineffective health maintenance when the nurse finds that the patient a. is frustrated with the length of treatment required. b. takes and records the oral temperature twice a day. c. is unable to plantar flex the foot on the affected side. d. uses crutches to avoid weight bearing on the affected leg.

C. Foot drop is an indication that the foot is not being supported in a neutral position by a splint. Using crutches and monitoring the oral temperature are appropriate self-care activities. Frustration with the length of treatment is not an indicator of ineffective health maintenance of the osteomyelitis.

Which nursing action included in the care of a patient after laminectomy can the nurse delegate to experienced unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP)? a. Check ability to plantar and dorsiflex the foot. b. Determine the patient's readiness to ambulate. c. Log roll the patient from side to side every 2 hours. d. Ask about pain control with the patient-controlled analgesia (PCA).

C. Repositioning a patient is included in the education and scope of practice of UAP, and experienced UAP will be familiar with how to maintain alignment in the postoperative patient. Evaluation of the effectiveness of pain medications, assessment of neurologic function, and evaluation of a patient's readiness to ambulate after surgery require higher level nursing education and scope of practice.

An appropriate nursing intervention for a patient who has acute low back pain and muscle spasms is to teach the patient to a. keep both feet flat on the floor when prolonged standing is required. b. twist gently from side to side to maintain range of motion in the spine. c. keep the head elevated slightly and flex the knees when resting in bed. d. avoid the use of cold packs because they will exacerbate the muscle spasms.

C. Resting with the head elevated and knees flexed will reduce the strain on the back and decrease muscle spasms. Twisting from side to side will increase tension on the lumbar area. A pillow placed under the upper back will cause strain on the lumbar spine. Alternate application of cold and heat should be used to decrease pain.

The nurse prepares to administer IV ibandronate (Boniva) to a 67-year-old woman with osteoporosis. What is a priority laboratory assessment to make before the administration of ibandronate? A. Serum calcium B. Serum creatinine C. Serum phosphate D. Serum alkaline phosphatase

C. Serum phosphate Ibandronate is a bisphosphonate that is administered IV every 3 months and is administered slowly over 15 to 30 seconds to prevent renal damage. Ibandronate should not be used by patients taking other nephrotoxic drugs or by those with severe renal impairment (defined as serum creatinine above 2.3 mg/dL or creatinine clearance less than 30 mL/min).

The nurse should reposition the patient who has just had a laminectomy and diskectomy by a. instructing the patient to move the legs before turning the rest of the body. b. having the patient turn by grasping the side rails and pulling the shoulders over. c. placing a pillow between the patient's legs and turning the entire body as a unit. d. turning the patient's head and shoulders first, followed by the hips, legs, and feet.

C. The spine should be kept in correct alignment after laminectomy. The other positions will create misalignment of the spine.

The nurse teaches the patient with RA that one of the most effective methods of aerobic exercise is a. ballet dancing b. casual walking c. aquatic exercises d. low-impact aerobic exercises

C. aquatic exercises

During an acute exacerbation, a patient with SLE is treated with corticosteroids. The nurse would expect the steroids to begin to be tapered when serum laboratory results indicate a. increased RBCs b. decreased ESR c. decreased anti-DNA d. increased complement

C. decreased anti-DNA

A 70-year old patient is being evaluated for symptoms of RA. The nurse recognizes that a major problem in the management of RA in the older adult is that a. RA is usually more severe in older adults b. older patients are not as likely to comply with treatment regimens c. drug interactions and toxicity are more likely to occur with multidrug therapy d. laboratory and other diagnostic tests are not effective in identifying RA in older adults

C. drug interactions and toxicity are more likely to occur with multidrug therapy

A patient with OA uses NSAIDs to decrease pain and inflammation. The nurse teaches the patient that common side effects of these drugs include a. allergic reactions, fever, and oral lesions b. fluid retention, hypertension, and bruising c. skin rashes, gastric irritation, and headache d. prolonged bleeding time, blood dyscrasias, and hepatic damage

C. skin rashes, gastric irritation, and headacche

During the physical assessment of the patient with moderate RA, the nurse would expect to find a. hepatomegaly b. Heberden's nodes c. spindle-shaped fingers d. crepitus on joint movement

C. spindle-shaped fingers

Chemical Agents of Terrorism

Categorized by target organ or effect: -Sarin: toxic nerve gas that can cause death within minutes of exposure -Enters body through eyes and skin -Acts by paralyzing respiratory muscles -Antidotes for nerve agents: atropine, pralidoxime chloride -Phosgene: colorless gas normally used in chemical manufacturing -If inhaled at high concentrations for long enough period, causes severe respiratory distress, pulmonary edema, and death -Mustard gas: yellow to brown in color with garlic-like odor -Irritates eyes and causes skin burns/blisters

Additional Complications of Bites

Cellulitis, osteomyelitis, and septic arthritis

Primary Survey: Circulation

Check central pulse (peripheral pulses may be absent because of injury or vasoconstriction). If a pulse is felt, assess the QUALITY & RATE. Assess the skin for color, temperature, and moisture. Altered mental status and delayed capillary refill (longer than 3 seconds) are the most significant signs of shock. Take care when evaluating capillary refill in cold environments because cold delays refill. When someone is losing fluid and potentially becoming hypovolemic shock, you must insert two large-bore IV catheters. Initiate aggressive fluid resuscitation using normal saline or lactated Ringer's solution. Insert intravenous (IV) lines into veins in the upper extremities unless contraindicated, such as in a massive fracture or an injury that affects limb circulation. Apply direct pressure to any obvious bleeding sites with a sterile dressing. Obtain blood samples for typing to determine ABO and Rh group.

A patient with third-degree burns is prescribed gastrointestinal medication. The primary action of this drug is which of the following? 1. to prevent the onset of a Curling's ulcer 2. to treat a preexisting duodenal ulcer 3. to ensure adequate peristalsis 4. for the antiemetic properties

Correct Answer: 1 Rationale: Dysfunction of the gastrointestinal system is directly related to the size of the burn wound. This can lead to a cessation of intestinal motility, which causes gastric distention, nausea, vomiting, and hematemesis. Stress ulcers or Curling's ulcers are acute ulcerations of the stomach or duodenum that form following the burn injury. There is no evidence to support the presence of a preexisting duodenal ulcer. Although peristalsis is desired, it is not the primary area of gastrointestinal concern. There is no data presented to indicate the presence of nausea or vomiting.

A 25-year-old patient is admitted with partial-thickness injuries over 20% of the total body surface area involving both lower legs. The nurse would classify this injury as being which of the following? 1. a moderate burn 2. a minor burn 3. a major burn 4. a severe burn 5. an intermediate burn

Correct Answer: 1 Rationale 1: A moderate burn is a partial-thickness injury that is between 15%-25% of total body surface area in adults.

A patient has sustained a partial-thickness injury of 28% of total body surface area (TBSA) and full-thickness injury of 30% or greater of TBSA. How should the nurse classify this burn injury? 1. major 2. moderate 3. minor 4. superficial 5. intermediate

Correct Answer: 1 Rationale 1: Partial-thickness injuries of greater than 25% of total body surface area in adults and full-thickness injuries 10% or greater of TBSA are considered major burns.

A patient who is being treated with topical mafenide acetate for third-degree burns is demonstrating facial and neck edema. The nurse realizes that this patient most likely 1. is developing a hypersensitivity to the medication. 2. is reacting positively to the medication. 3. needs an increase in dosage of the medication. 4. is not responding to the medication.

Correct Answer: 1 Rationale: Approximately 3%-5% of patients develop a hypersensitivity to mafenide, which can manifest as facial edema. The manifestation of facial and neck edema is considered an adverse reaction. There is inadequate information presented to assess response to the medication.

A patient is being evaluated after experiencing severe burns to his torso and upper extremities. The nurse notes edema at the burned areas. Which of the following best describes the underlying cause for this assessment finding? 1. inability of the damaged capillaries to maintain fluids in the cell walls 2. reduced vascular permeability at the site of the burned area 3. decreased osmotic pressure in the burned tissue 4. increased fluids in the extracellular compartment 5. the IV fluid being administered too quickly

Correct Answer: 1 Rationale: Burn shock occurs during the first 24-36 hours after the injury. During this period, there is an increase in microvascular permeability at the burn site. The osmotic pressure is increased, causing fluid accumulation. There is a reduction of fluids in the extracellular body compartments. Manifestations of fluid volume overload would be systemic, not localized to the burn areas.

A nurse sees a patient get struck by lightning during a thunder storm on a golf course. What should be the FIRST action by the nurse? 1. Check breathing and circulation. 2. Look for entrance and exit wounds. 3. Cover the patient to prevent heat loss. 4. Move the patient indoors to a dry place. 5. Get the patient up off the ground.

Correct Answer: 1 Rationale: Cardiopulmonary arrest is the most common cause of death from lightening. Respiratory and cardiac status should be assessed immediately to determine if CPR is necessary. All other actions are secondary.

A patient has experienced a burn injury. Which of the following interventions by the nurse is of the highest priority at this time? 1. determination of the type of burn injury 2. determination of the types of home remedies attempted prior to the patient's coming to the hospital 3. assessment of past medical history 4. determination of body weight 5. determination of nutritional status

Correct Answer: 1 Rationale: Determination of the type of burn is the first step. The type of injury will dictate the interventions performed. Determining the use of home remedies, past medical history, body weight, and nutritional status must be completed, but are not of the highest priority.

A patient is brought to the emergency department with the following burn injuries: a blistered and reddened anterior trunk, reddened lower back, and pale, waxy anterior right arm. Calculate the extent of the burn injury (TBSA) using the rule of nines.

Correct Answer: 22.5 Rationale : The anterior trunk has superficial partial-thickness burns and is calculated in TBSA as 18%. The arm has a deep partial-thickness burn and is calculated as 4.5%. The burn on the lower back is superficial and is not calculated in TBSA.

The nurse is providing care to a patient with a third-degree burn on his left thigh and left forearm. During wound care, the nurse applies Elase to the burned areas. Which of the following types ofwound debridement is this nurse using? 1. enzymatic 2. mechanical 3. surgical 4. topical

Correct Answer: 1 Rationale: Enzymatic debridement involves the use of a topical agent to dissolve and remove necrotic tissue. An enzyme such as Elase is applied in a thin layer directly to the wound and covered with one layer of fine mesh gauze. A topical antimicrobial agent is then applied and covered with a bulky wet dressing. Mechanical debridement may be performed by applying and removing gauze dressings, hydrotherapy, irrigation, or using scissors and tweezers. Surgical debridement is the process of excising the wound to the fascia or removing thin slices of the burn to the level of viable tissue. Topical treatments are key in the care of a burn but do not involve debridement.

The nurse is evaluating the adequacy of a burn-injured patient's nutritional intake. Which of the following laboratory values is the best indicator of a need to adjust the nutritional program? 1. glycosuria 2. creatine phosphokinase (CPK) 3. BUN levels 4. hemoglobin 5. serum sodium levels

Correct Answer: 1 Rationale: Glucose in the urine is seen after a major burn injury. It signals the need to reevaluate the patient's nutritional plan. Creatine phosphokinase is used to identify the presence of muscle injuries. BUN levels are used to evaluate kidney function. Hemoglobin levels will fluctuate with the stages of the burn injury dependent upon the fluid status. Serum sodium levels are not indicative of nutritional status.

When evaluating the laboratory values of the burn-injured patient, which of the following can be anticipated? 1. decreased hemoglobin and elevated hematocrit levels 2. elevated hemoglobin and elevated hematocrit levels 3. elevated hemoglobin and decreased hematocrit levels 4. decreased hemoglobin and decreased hematocrit levels 5. hemoglobin and hematocrit levels within normal ranges

Correct Answer: 1 Rationale: Hemoglobin levels are reduced in response to the hemolysis of red blood cells. Hematocrit levels are elevated secondary to hemoconcentration, and fluid shifts from the intravascular compartment.

A patient with third-degree burns is being treated with high-volume intravenous fluids and has a urine output of 40 cc per hour. The nurse realizes that this urine output 1. is normal for this patient. 2. provides evidence that the patient is dehydrated. 3. provides evidence that the patient is over-hydrated. 4. is indicative of pending renal failure.

Correct Answer: 1 Rationale: Intake and output measurements indicate the adequacy of fluid resuscitation, and should range from 30 to 50 mL per hour in an adult.

A patient recovering from a major burn injury is complaining of pain. Which of the following medications will be most therapeutic to the patient? 1. morphine 4 mg IV every 5 minutes 2. morphine 10 mg IM ever 3-4 hours 3. meperidine 75 mg IM every 3-4 hours 4. meperidine 50 mg PO every 3-4 hours 5. fentanyl citrate (Duragesic) 75 mcg patch every 3 days

Correct Answer: 1 Rationale: Morphine is preferred over meperidine for the burn-injured patient. Typical dose of morphine is 3-5 mg every 5-10 minutes for an adult. The intravenous route is preferred over oral and intramuscular routes. A transdermal patch would not be used because of decreased absorption of the medication through the skin of the burn-injured patient.

A 70-year-old patient has experienced a sunburn over much of the body. What self-care technique is MOST important to emphasize to an older adult in dealing with the effects of the sunburn? 1. increasing fluid intake 2. applying mild lotions 3. taking mild analgesics 4. maintaining warmth 5. using sunscreen

Correct Answer: 1 Rationale: Older adults are especially prone to dehydration; therefore, increasing fluid intake is especially important. Other manifestations could include nausea and vomiting. All the measures help alleviate the manifestations of this minor burn which include pain, skin redness, chills, and headache. Use of sunscreen is a preventative, not a treatment measure.

The nurse notes that a patient with third-degree burns is demonstrating a reduction in his serum potassium level. The nurse realizes that this finding is consistent with which of the following? 1. the resolution of burn shock 2. the onset of burn shock 3. the onset of renal failure 4. the onset of liver failure

Correct Answer: 1 Rationale: Potassium levels are initially elevated during burn shock but will decrease after burn shock resolves as fluid shifts back to intracellular and intravascular compartments. Reduced potassium levels are not indicators of the onset of renal or liver failure.

Following surgical debridement, a patient with third-degree burns does not bleed. The nurse realizes that this patient 1. will need to have the procedure repeated. 2. will no longer need this procedure. 3. will need to be premedicated prior to the next procedure. 4. should have an escharotomy instead.

Correct Answer: 1 Rationale: Surgical debridement is the process of excising the burn wound by removing thin slices of the wound to the level of viable tissue. If bleeding does not occur after the procedure, it will be repeated. It is an assumption that patients having debridement will all require premedication. An escharotomy involves removal of the hardened crust covering the burned area.

When monitoring the vital signs of the patient who has experienced a major burn injury, the nurse assesses a heart rate of 112 and a temperature of 99.9° F. Which of the following best describes the findings? 1. These values are normal for the patient's post-burn injury condition. 2. The patient is demonstrating manifestations consistent with the onset of an infection. 3. The patient is demonstrating manifestations consistent with an electrolyte imbalance. 4. The patient is demonstrating manifestations consistent with renal failure. 5. The patient is demonstrating manifestations of fluid volume overload.

Correct Answer: 1 Rationale: The burn-injured patient is not considered tachycardic until the heart rate reaches 120 beats per minute. In the absence of other symptoms, the temperature does not signal the presence of an infection. It could be a response to a hypermetabolic response.

A patient with third-degree burns to his right arm is scheduled for passive range of motion to the extremity every two hours. Which of the following should the nurse do prior to this exercise session? 1. Medicate for pain. 2. Empty the patient's in-dwelling catheter collection bag. 3. Change the patient's bed linens. 4. Change the dressing on the burn.

Correct Answer: 1 Rationale: The nurse should anticipate this patient's needs for analgesia and administer pain medication to promote the patient's comfort during the exercise session. Arm exercise is not related to the amount of urine in the catheter bag. Linen changes do not impact range of motion activities. The burn's dressing is changed according to the physician's orders or as needed.

A patient is scheduled for surgery to graft a burn injury on the arm. Which of the following statements should the nurse include when instructing the patient prior to the procedure? 1. "You will begin to perform exercises to promote flexibility and reduce contractures after five days." 2. "You will need to report any itching, as it might signal infection." 3. "Performing the procedure near the end of the hospitalization will reduce the incidence of infection and improve success of the procedure." 4. "The procedure will be performed in your room." 5. "You will need to be in protective isolation for several weeks after the graft is performed."

Correct Answer: 1 Rationale: The patient will begin to perform range-of-motion exercises after five days. Itching is not a symptom of infection but an anticipated occurrence that signals cellular growth. The ideal time to perform the procedure is early in the treatment of the burn injury. The procedure is performed in a surgical suite. Patients with skin grafts do not require protective isolation.

A patient receiving treatment for severe burns over more than half of his body has an indwelling urinary catheter. When evaluating the patient's intake and output, which of the following should be taken into consideration? 1. The amount of urine will be reduced in the first 24-48 hours, and will then increase. 2. The amount of urine output will be greatest in the first 24 hours after the burn injury. 3. The amount of urine will be reduced during the first eight hours of the burn injury and will then increase as the diuresis begins. 4. The amount of urine will be elevated due to the amount of intravenous fluids administered during the initial phases of treatment. 5. The amount of urine is expected to be decreased for three to five days.

Correct Answer: 1 Rationale: The patient will have an initial reduction in urinary output. Fluid is reduced in the initial phases as the body manages the insult caused by the injury and fluids are drawn into the interstitial spaces. After the shock period passes, the patient will enter a period of diuresis. The diuresis begins between 24 and 36 hours after the burn injury.

The family of a patient with third-degree burns wants to know why the "scabs are being cut off" of the patient's leg. What is the most appropriate response by the nurse to this family? 1. "The scabs are really old burned tissue and need to be removed to promote healing." 2. "I'll ask the doctor to come and talk with you about the treatment plan." 3. "The patient asked for the scabs to be removed." 4. "The scabs are removed to check for blood flow to the burned area."

Correct Answer: 1 Rationale: The patient's family is describing eschar, which is the hard crust of burned necrotic tissue. Eschar needs to be removed to promote wound healing. Option 2 does not answer the family's question. Option 3 incorrectly restates the family's concern. Scabs are not removed to check for blood flow.

A patient, experiencing a burn that is pale and waxy with large flat blisters, asks the nurse about the severity of the burn and how long it will take to heal. With which of the following should the nurse respond to this patient? 1. The wound is a deep partial-thickness burn, and will take more than three weeks to heal. 2. The wound is a partial-thickness burn, and could take up to two weeks to heal. 3. The wound is a superficial burn, and will take up to three weeks to heal. 4. The wound is a full-thickness burn and will take one to two weeks to heal. 5. Wound healing is individualized.

Correct Answer: 1 Rationale: The wound described is a deep partial-thickness burn. Deep partial-thickness wounds will take more than three weeks to heal. A superficial burn is bright red and moist, and might appear glistening with blister formation. The healing time for this type of wound is within 21 days. A full thickness burn involves all layers of the skin and may extend into the underlying tissue. These burns take many weeks to heal. Stating that wound healing is individualized does not answer the patient's question about the severity of the burn.

A patient with third-degree burns to her face just learned that she will have extensive scarring once the burn heals. Which of the following nursing diagnoses would be applicable to this patient at this time? 1. Powerlessness 2. Potential for Infection 3. Fluid Volume Deficit 4. Risk for Ineffective Airway Clearance

Correct Answer: 1 Rationale: This patient can begin to experience powerlessness in that she has no control over the outcome of healing on scar formation to her face. The nurse should allow the patient to express feelings in efforts to help the patient cope with the news of potential scarring. The patient with a third-degree burn is at risk for infection, however, this question is focused on the impact of her facial scarring. There is inadequate information to determine the patient's risk for fluid volume deficit or ineffective airway clearance. Further, this is not the focus of the question.

A patient is coming into the emergency department with third-degree burns over 25% of his body. The nurse should prepare which of the following solutions for intravenous infusion for this patient? 1. warmed lactated Ringer's 2. 5% dextrose in water 3. 5% dextrose in 0.45 normal saline 4. 5% dextrose in normal saline

Correct Answer: 1 Rationale: Warmed Ringer's lactate solution is the intravenous fluid most widely used during the first 24 hours after a burn injury because it most closely approximates the body's extracellular fluid composition.

A patient is admitted to the emergency department with deep partial-thickness burns over 35 % of the body. What IV solution will be started initially? 1. warmed lactated Ringer's solution 2. dextrose 5% with saline solution 3. dextrose 5% with water 4. normal saline solution 5. 0.45% saline solution

Correct Answer: 1 Rationale: Warmed lactated Ringer's solution is the IV solution of choice because it most closely approximates the body's extracellular fluid composition. It is warmed to prevent hypothermia.

A patient has a scald burn on the arm that is bright red, moist, and has several blisters. The nurse would classify this burn as which of the following? Select all that apply. 1. a superficial partial-thickness burn 2. a thermal burn 3. a superficial burn 4. a deep partial-thickness burn 5. a full-thickness burn

Correct Answer: 1,2 Rationale: Superficial partial-thickness burn if often bright red, has a moist, glistening appearance and blister formation. Thermal burns result from exposure to dry or moist heat. A superficial burn is reddened with possible slight edema over the area. A deep partial-thickness burn often appears waxy and pale and may be moist or dry. A full-thickness burn may appear pale, waxy, yellow, brown, mottled, charred, or non-blanching red with a dry, leathery, firm wound surface.

The nurse is reviewing the results of laboratory tests to assess the renal status of a patient who experienced a major burn event on 45% of the body 24 hours ago. Which of the following results would the nurse expect to see? (Select all that apply) 1. glomerular filtration rate (GFR) reduced 2. specific gravity elevated 3. creatinine clearance reduced 4. BUN reduced 5. uric acid decreased

Correct Answer: 1,2 Rationale: During the initial phases of a burn injury, blood flow to the renal system is reduced, resulting in reduction in GFR and an increase in specific gravity. During this period, BUN levels, creatinine, and uric acid are increased

A patient with a burn injury is prescribed silver nitrate. Which of the following nursing interventions should be included for the patient? Standard Text: Select all that apply. 1. Monitor daily weight. 2. Monitor the serum sodium levels. 3. Prepare to change the dressings every two hours. 4. Report black skin discolorations. 5. Push fluid intake.

Correct Answer: 1,2 Rationale: Silver nitrate can cause hypotonicity. Manifestations of hypotonicity include weight gain and edema, which can be monitored by the determination of daily weights. Hyponatremia and hypochloremic alkalosis are common findings in patients treated with silver nitrate so serum sodium and chloride should be monitored. Changing the dressing every two hours is too frequent for the patient. Black discolorations of the skin are anticipated for patients using silver nitrate, and do not highlight a complication of therapy. Silver sulfadiazine, not silver nitrate, administration can result in the development of sulfa crystals in the urine so pushing fluid intake is not an appropriate action for this patient.

A patient comes into the emergency department with a chemical burn from contact with lye.Assessment and treatment of this patient will be based on what knowledge regarding this type of burn? (Select all that apply) 1. This is an alkali burn. 2. This type of burn tends to be deeper. 3. This is an acid burn. 4. This type of burn will be easier to neutralize. 5. This type of burn tends to be more superficial.

Correct Answer: 1,2 Rationale: This is an alkali burn which is more difficult to neutralize than an acid burn and tends to have a deeper penetration and be more severe than a burn caused by an acid.

A patient is being discharged after treatment for a scald burn that caused a superficial burn over one hand and a superficial partial-thickness burn on several fingers. What should be included in this patient's discharge instructions? (Select all that apply) 1. Report any fever to your healthcare provider. 2. Report development of purulent drainage to your healthcare provider. 3. Use only sterile dressings on the fingers. 4. Cleanse the areas every hour with alcohol to prevent infection. 5. Apply the topical antimicrobial agent as instructed.

Correct Answer: 1,2,3 Rationale: Fever or purulent drainage are indicative of development of infection and should be reported to the healthcare provider. Sterile dressings only should be used on the areas of the superficial partial-thickness burns where the skin is not intact. Cleansing is necessary no more often than daily to the intact skin areas and only soap and water should be used, not alcohol. Topical agents may be ordered by the health care provider and the patient should follow directions for applying to help prevent infection of the areas.

A patient arrives at the emergency department with an electrical burn. What assessment questions should the nurse ask in determining the possible severity of the burn injury? Select all that apply. 1. What type of current was involved? 2. How long was the patient in contact with the current? 3. How much voltage was involved? 4. Where was the patient when the burn occurred? 5. What was the point of contact with the current?

Correct Answer: 1,2,3 Rationale: The severity of electrical burns depends on the type and duration of the current and amount of voltage. Location is not important in determining possible severity. Location is not important in determining possible severity.

A nurse is teaching a class of older adults at a senior center about household cleaning agents that may cause burns. Which agents should be included in these instructions? (Select all that apply) 1. drain cleaners 2. household ammonia 3. oven cleaner 4. toiler bowl cleaner 5. lemon oil furniture polish

Correct Answer: 1,2,3,4 Rationale: All of the products except for the furniture polish can cause burns since they are either alkalis or acids.

In order for the nurse to correctly classify a burn injury, which of the following does the nurse need to assess? Select all that apply. 1. the depth of the burn 2. extent of burns on the body 3. the causative agent and the duration of exposure. 4. location of burns on the body 5. the time that the burn occurred

Correct Answer: 1,2,3,4 Rationale: Depth of the burn (the layers of underlying tissue affected) and extent of the burn (the percentage of body surface area involved) are used in determining the amount of tissue damage and classification of the burn.The causative agent is especially important with chemical burns such as from strong acids or alkaline agents. The location of the burns on the body is one of the important determinates of classification. For example, burns of the face and hands are always considered major burns. Time of occurrence of the burn is not necessary for classification.

During the acute phase of burn treatment, important goals of patient care include which of the following? Select all that apply. 1. providing for patient comfort 2. preventing infection 3. providing adequate nutrition for healing to occur 4. splinting, positioning, and exercising affected joints 5. assessing home maintenance management

Correct Answer: 1,2,3,4 Rationale: The goals of treatment for the acute period include wound cleansing and healing; pain relief; preventing infection; promoting nutrition; and splinting, positioning, and exercising affected joints. Assessment of home maintenance management is an important goal in the rehabilitative stage, not the acute stage.

A patient comes into the clinic to be seen for a burn that appears moist with blisters. The nurse realizes that this patient most likely has experienced which of the following? 1. first-degree burn 2. superficial second-degree burn 3. deep second-degree burn 4. third-degree burn

Correct Answer: 2 Rationale: Partial-thickness, or second-degree, burns can either be superficial or deep. This patient's burn, which appears moist with blisters, is consistent with a superficial second-degree burn. A first-degree burn would involve only the surface layer of skin. Redness would be expected. Deep second-degree and third-degree burns would be deeper and involve more damage to the dermis, epidermis, and underlying tissue.

Using the modified Brooke formula, calculate the amount of intravenous solution that will be administered in the first 8 hours for a patient with 40% TBSA and weighs 52 kg.

Correct Answer: 2080 mL Rationale : The modified Brooke formula is 2 mL × total kg of body weight × % TBSA. In this situation, 2 mL × 52 kg × 40 = 4160 mL. One-half is given over the first eight hours, or 2080 mL.

A patient comes into the physician's office after sustaining chemical burns to the left side of his face and right wrist. The nurse realizes that this patient needs to be treated 1. in the outpatient ambulatory clinic. 2. in the emergency department. 3. in a burn center. 4. in the doctor's office and then at home.

Correct Answer: 3 Rationale: Adult patients who should be treated at burn centers include those with burns that involve the hands, feet, face, eyes, ears, or perineum. Patients having small or noninvasive burns may be managed at an outpatient clinic are mild in nature. The emergency department is a location for evaluation of a burn. The physician's office like the ambulatory clinic can manage mild burns.

A female patient comes into the clinic complaining of nausea and vomiting after spending the weekend at a seaside resort. Which of the following should be the most important assessment for the nurse? 1. normal rest and sleep pattern 2. typical meal pattern 3. if the patient had to change time zones when traveling to the resort 4. if the patient has been sunburned

Correct Answer: 4 Rationale: Sunburns result from exposure to ultraviolet light. Because the skin remains intact, the manifestations in most cases are mild and are limited to pain, nausea, vomiting, skin redness, chills, and headache. The patient has not reported concerns which will support issues with sleep pattern, diet, and travel.

During the primary assessment of a patient with multiple trauma, the nurse observes that the patient's right pedal pulses are absent and the leg is swollen. The nurse's first action should be to a. initiate isotonic fluid infusion through two large-bore IV lines. b. send blood to the lab for a complete blood count (CBC). c. finish the airway, breathing, circulation, disability survey. d. assess further for a cause of the decreased circulation.

Correct Answer: A Rationale: The assessment data indicate that the patient may have arterial trauma and hemorrhage. When a possibly life-threatening injury is found during the primary survey, the nurse should immediately start interventions before proceeding with the survey. Although a CBC is indicated, administration of IV fluids should be started first. Completion of the primary survey and further assessment should be completed after the IV fluids are initiated.

A patient is brought to the hospital in cardiac arrest by emergency personnel who are performing resuscitation. The spouse arrives as the patient is taken into a treatment room and asks to stay with the patient. The nurse should a. have the spouse wait outside the treatment room with a designated staff member to provide emotional support. b. bring the spouse into the room and ensure him or her that a member of the team will explain the care given and answer questions. c. explain that the presence of family members is distracting to staff and might impair the resuscitation efforts. d. advise the spouse that if the resuscitation effort is unsuccessful, the memories may have an adverse impact on grieving.

Correct Answer: B Rationale: Family members and patients report benefits from family presence during resuscitation efforts, so the nurse should try to accommodate the spouse. Having the spouse wait outside the room is not as supportive to the spouse or patient. It would be inappropriate to imply that the spouse's presence would have adverse consequences for the patient. Family members do not report problems with grieving caused by being present during resuscitation efforts.

A patient has experienced blunt abdominal trauma from a motor vehicle accident. The nurse should explain to the patient the purpose of a. magnetic resonance imaging (MRI). b. ultrasonography. c. peritoneal lavage. d. nasogastric (NG) tube placement.

Correct Answer: B Rationale: If intra-abdominal bleeding is suspected, focused abdominal ultrasonography is obtained to look for intraperitoneal bleeding. MRI would not be used. Peritoneal lavage is an alternative, but it is more invasive. An NG tube would not be helpful in diagnosis of intra-abdominal bleeding.

A 67-year-old patient who has fallen from a ladder is transported to the emergency department by ambulance. The patient is unconscious on arrival and accompanied by family members. During the primary survey of the patient, the nurse should a. assess a full set of vital signs. b. obtain a Glasgow Coma Scale score. c. attach a cardiac ECG monitor. d. ask about chronic medical conditions.

Correct Answer: B Rationale: The Glasgow Coma Scale is included when assessing for disability during the primary survey. The other information is part of the secondary survey.

A patient has been brought to the emergency department with a gunshot wound to the abdomen. In obtaining a history of the incident to determine possible injuries, the nurse asks a. "Where did the incident occur?" b. "What direction did the bullet enter the body?" c. "How long ago did the incident happen?" d. "What emergency care was started at the scene?"

Correct Answer: B Rationale: The entry point and direction of the bullet will help to predict the type of injuries the patient has. The other information is not as useful in determining which diagnostic studies and care are needed immediately.

A triage nurse in a busy emergency department assesses a patient who complains of 6/10 abdominal pain and states, "I had a temperature of 104.6º F (40.3º C) at home." The nurse's first action should be to a. tell the patient that it may be several hours before being seen by the doctor. b. assess the patient's current vital signs. c. obtain a clean-catch urine for urinalysis. d. ask the health care provider to order a nonopioid analgesic medication for the patient.

Correct Answer: B Rationale: The patient's pain and statement about an elevated temperature indicate that the nurse should obtain vital signs before deciding how rapidly the patient should be seen by the health care provider. A urinalysis may be needed, but vital signs will provide the nurse with more useful data for triage. The health care provider will not order a medication before assessing the patient.

When caring for a patient with head and neck trauma after a motorcycle accident, the emergency department nurse's first action should be to a. suction the mouth and oropharynx. b. immobilize the cervical spine. c. administer supplemental oxygen. d. obtain venous access.

Correct Answer: B Rationale: When there is a risk of spinal cord injury, the nurse's initial action is immobilization of the cervical spine during positioning of the head and neck for airway management. Suctioning, supplemental oxygen administration, and venous access are also necessary after the cervical spine is protected by immobilization.

During the primary assessment of a trauma victim, the nurse determines that the patient has a patent airway. The next assessment by the nurse should be to a. check the patient's level of consciousness. b. examine the patient for any external bleeding. c. observe the patient's respiratory effort. d. palpate for the presence of peripheral pulses.

Correct Answer: C Rationale: Even with a patent airway, patients can have other problems that compromise ventilation, so the next action is to assess the patient's breathing. The other actions are also part of the initial survey but are not accomplished as rapidly as the assessment of breathing.

A 24-year-old is brought to the emergency department with multiple lacerations and tissue avulsion of the right hand after catching the hand in a produce conveyor belt. When asked about tetanus immunization, the patient says, "I've never had any vaccinations." The nurse will anticipate administration of tetanus a. immunoglobulin. b. and diphtheria toxoid. c. immunoglobulin, tetanus-diphtheria toxoid, and pertussis vaccine. d. immunoglobulin and tetanus-diphtheria toxoid.

Correct Answer: C Rationale: For a patient with unknown immunization status, the tetanus immune globulin is administered along with the Tdap (since the patient has not had pertussis vaccine previously). The other immunizations are not sufficient for this patient.

Four victims of an automobile crash are brought by ambulance to the emergency department. The triage nurse determines that the victim who has the highest priority for treatment is the one with a. severe bleeding of facial and head lacerations. b. an open femur fracture with profuse bleeding. c. a sucking chest wound. d. absence of peripheral pulses.

Correct Answer: C Rationale: Most immediate deaths from trauma occur because of problems with ventilation, so the patient with a sucking chest wound should be treated first. Face and head fractures can obstruct the airway, but the patient with facial injuries has lacerations only. The other two patients also need rapid intervention but do not have airway or breathing problems.

When reinforcing health teaching about the management of osteoarthritis (OA), the nurse determines that the patient needs additional instruction after making which of the following statements? A. "I should take the Celebrex as prescribed to help control the pain." B. "I should try to stay standing all day to keep my joints from becoming stiff." C. "I can use a cane if I find it helpful in relieving the pressure on my back and hip." D. "A warm shower in the morning will help relieve the stiffness I have when I get up."

Correct answer: B. "I should try to stay standing all day to keep my joints from becoming stiff." Rationale: It is important to maintain a balance between rest and activity to prevent overstressing the joints with OA.

The nurse is working with a 73-year-old patient with osteoarthritis (OA). In assessing the patient's understanding of this disorder, the nurse concludes teaching has been effective when the patient describes the condition as which of the following? A. Joint destruction caused by an autoimmune process B. Degeneration of articular cartilage in synovial joints C. Overproduction of synovial fluid resulting in joint destruction D. Breakdown of tissue in non-weight-bearing joints by enzymes

Correct answer: B. Degeneration of articular cartilage in synovial joints Rationale: OA is a degeneration or breakdown of the articular cartilage in synovial joints. The condition has also been referred to as degenerative joint disease.

The nurse is caring for a patient who has osteoarthritis (OA) of the knees. The nurse teaches the patient that the most beneficial measure to protect the joints is to do which of the following? A. Use a wheelchair to avoid walking as much as possible. B. Eat a well-balanced diet to maintain a healthy body weight. C. Incorrect Use a walker for ambulation to relieve the pressure on her hips. D. Sit in chairs that do not cause her hips to be lower than her knees.

Correct answer: B. Eat a well-balanced diet to maintain a healthy body weight. Rationale: Because maintaining an appropriate load on the joints is essential to the preservation of articular cartilage integrity, the patient should maintain an optimal overall body weight or lose weight if overweight.

The nurse is admitting a patient who is scheduled for knee arthroscopy related to osteoarthritis (OA). Which of the following findings would the nurse expect to be present on examination of the patient's knees? A. Ulnar drift B. Pain with joint movement C. Reddened, swollen affected joints D. Stiffness that increases with movement

Correct answer: B. Pain with joint movement Rationale: OA is characterized predominantly by joint pain upon movement and is a classic feature of the disease.

A female patient's complex symptomatology over the past year has culminated in a diagnosis of systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE). Which of the patient's following statements demonstrates the need for further teaching about the disease? A. "I'll try my best to stay out of the sun this summer." B. "I know that I probably have a high chance of getting arthritis." C. "I'm hoping that surgery will be an option for me in the future." D. "I understand that I'm going to be vulnerable to getting infections."

Correct answer: C. "I'm hoping that surgery will be an option for me in the future." Rationale: SLE carries an increased risk of infection, sun damage, and arthritis. Surgery is not a key treatment modality for SLE.

The nurse is assessing the recent health history of a 63-year-old patient with osteoarthritis (OA). The nurse determines that the patient is trying to manage the condition appropriately when the patient describes which of the following activity patterns? A. Bed rest with bathroom privileges B. Daily high-impact aerobic exercise C.A regular exercise program of walking D. Frequent rest periods with minimal exercise

Correct answer: C. A regular exercise program of walking Rationale: A regular low-impact exercise, such as walking, is important in helping to maintain joint mobility in the patient with osteoarthritis.

Which of the following patient statements most clearly suggests a need to assess the patient for ankylosing spondylitis (AS)? A. "My right elbow has become red and swollen over the last few days." B. "I wake up stiff every morning and my knees just don't want to bend." C. "My husband tells me that my posture has become so stooped this winter." D. "My lower back pain seems to be getting worse all the time and nothing seems to help."

Correct answer: D. "My lower back pain seems to be getting worse all the time and nothing seems to help." Rationale: AS primarily affects the axial skeleton. Based on this, symptoms of inflammatory spine pain are often the first clues to a diagnosis of AS. Knee or elbow involvement is not consistent with the typical course of AS. Back pain is likely to precede the development of kyphosis.

The nurse is reinforcing general health teaching with a 64-year-old patient with osteoarthritis (OA) of the hip. Which of the following points would the nurse include in this review of the disorder (select all that apply)? A. OA cannot be successfully treated with any current therapy options. B. OA is an inflammatory disease of the joints that may present symptoms at any age. C.Joint degeneration with pain and disability occurs in the majority of people by the age of 60. D. OA is more common with aging, but usually it remains confined to a few joints and does not cause crippling. E.OA can be prevented from progressing when well controlled with a regimen of exercise, diet, and medication.

Correct answer: D. OA is more common with aging, but usually it remains confined to a few joints and does not cause crippling. E.OA can be prevented from progressing when well controlled with a regimen of exercise, diet, and medication. Rationale: OA occurs with greater frequency with increasing age, but it usually remains confined to a few joints and can be managed with a combination of exercise, diet, and medication. OA can lead to significant disability.

Teach the patient with ankylosing spondylitis the importance of a. regular exercise and maintaining proper posture b. continuing with physical activity during flare-ups c. avoiding extremes in environmental temperatures d. applying cool compresses for relief of local symptoms

Correct answer: a Rationale: Patients with ankylosing spondylitis (AS) should exercise after pain and stiffness are managed. Postural control is important to minimize spinal deformity. The exercise regimen should include back, neck, and chest stretches. The nurse should educate the patient with AS about regular exercise and attention to posture, local moist-heat applications, and knowledgeable use of drugs. The nurse should discourage excessive physical exertion during periods of active flare-up of the disease. Proper positioning at rest is essential. The mattress should be firm, and the patient should sleep on the back with a flat pillow, avoiding positions that encourage flexion deformity. Postural training emphasizes avoiding spinal flexion (e.g., leaning over a desk), heavy lifting, and prolonged walking, standing, or sitting.

When administering medications to the patient with gout, the nurse would recognize which of the following as a treatment for chronic disease? a. Colchicine b. Febuxostat c. Sulfasalazine d. Cyclosporine

Correct answer: b Rationale: Febuxostat (Uloric), a selective inhibitor of xanthine oxidase, is given for long-term management of hyperuricemia in persons with chronic gout. Acute gouty arthritis is treated with colchicine and nonsteroidal antiinflammatory drugs (NSAIDs).

In teaching a patient with chronic fatigue syndrome (CFS) about this disorder, the nurse understands that a. palpating tender points is an indicator of CFS severity b. many symptoms are similar to fibromyalgia syndrome c. definitive treatment includes low-dose hydrocortisone d. CFS is characterized by progressive memory impairment

Correct answer: b Rationale: Fibromyalgia syndrome (FS) and chronic fatigue syndrome (CFS) have several commonalities. Both occur in previously healthy, young, and middle-aged women; the cause of both includes an infectious trigger, dysfunction of the hypothalamic-pituitary-adrenal axis or an alteration in central nervous system; and common clinical manifestations are malaise and fatigue, cognitive dysfunction, headaches, sleep disturbances, depression, anxiety, fever, and generalized musculoskeletal pain. Both diseases have symptoms that fluctuate over time, and both disorders have no definitive laboratory tests or joint and muscle examinations. They remain diagnoses of exclusion. Treatment for both disorders is symptomatic and may include antidepressant drugs. Other measures are heat, massage, regular stretching, biofeedback, stress management, and relaxation training.

Assessment data in the patient with osteoarthritis commonly include a. gradual weight loss b. elevated WBC count c. joint pain that worsens with use d. straw-colored synovial fluid

Correct answer: c Rationale: Osteoarthritis pain ranges from mild discomfort to significant disability. Joint pain is the predominant symptom, and the pain generally worsens with joint use.

In teaching a patient with SLE about the disorder, the nurse knows that the pathophysiology of SLE includes a. circulating immune complexes formed from IgG autoantibodies reacting with IgG b. an autoimmune T-cell reaction that results in destruction of the deep dermal skin layer c. immunologic dysfunction leading to chronic inflammation in the cartilage and muscles d. the production of a variety of autoantibodies directed against components of the cell nucleus

Correct answer: d Rationale: Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) is characterized by the production of many autoantibodies against nucleic acids (e.g., single-and double-stranded DNA), erythrocytes, coagulation proteins, lymphocytes, platelets, and many other self-proteins. Autoimmune reactions characteristically are directed against constituents of the cell nucleus (e.g., antinuclear antibodies [ANAs]), particularly DNA. Circulating immune complexes containing antibody against DNA are deposited in the basement membranes of capillaries in the kidneys, heart, skin, brain, and joints. Complement is activated, and inflammation occurs. The overaggressive antibody response is also related to activation of B and T cells. The specific manifestations of SLE depend on which cell types or organs are involved. SLE is a type III hypersensitivity response.

In assessing the joints of a patient with rheumatoid arthritis, the nurse understands that the joints are damaged by (select all that apply) a. bony ankylosis following inflammation of the joints b. the deterioration of cartilage by proteolytic enzymes c. the development of Heberden's nodes in the joint capsule d.. increased cartilage and bony growth at the joint margins e. invasion of pannus into the joint causing a loss of cartilage

Correct answers: a, e Rationale: Bony ankylosis is the union of the bones of a joint by proliferation of bone cells, resulting in complete immobility. Bony ankylosis occurs with advanced rheumatoid arthritis. Joint changes from chronic inflammation begin when the hypertrophied synovial membrane invades the surrounding cartilage, ligaments, tendons, and joint capsule. Pannus (i.e., highly vascular granulation tissue) forms within the joint. It eventually covers and erodes the entire surface of the articular cartilage. The production of inflammatory cytokines at the pannus-cartilage junction further contributes to cartilage destruction. The pannus scars and shortens supporting structures such as tendons and ligaments, ultimately causing joint laxity, subluxation, and contracture.

When caring for a patient with systemic sclerosis, the nurse knows it is important to instruct the patient related to (select all that apply) a. avoiding the consumption of high-purine foods b. strategies for good dental hygiene and mouth care c. protecting the extremities from hot and cold temperatures d. maintaining joint function and preserving muscle strength e. performing mouth excursion (yawning) exercises on a daily basis

Correct answers: b, c, d, e Rationale: Systemic sclerosis (SS), or scleroderma, is a disorder of connective tissue characterized by fibrotic, degenerative, and occasionally inflammatory changes in the skin, blood vessels, synovium, skeletal muscle, and internal organs. The nurse should include the following in the teaching plan for a patient with SS: daily oral hygiene (neglect may increase tooth and gingival problems); protection of hands and feet from cold exposure and possible burns or cuts (wounds heal slowly); avoidance of emotional stress and cold ambient temperatures (they aggravate Raynaud's phenomenon); isometric exercises for arthropathy (no joint movement occurs); use of assistive devices as appropriate and organization of activities to preserve strength and reduce disability; and mouth excursion (i.e., yawning with an open mouth) (helps maintain temporomandibular joint function).

A client with a possible rib fracture has never had a chest x-ray. The nurse plans to tell the client which of the following about the procedure? a) the x-ray stimulates a small amount of pain b) the client will be asked to breathe in and out continuously during the x-ray c) the x-ray technologist will stand next to the client during the x-ray d) it is necessary to remove jewelry and any other metal objects from the chest area

D - An x-ray is a photographic image of a part of the body on a special film, which is used to diagnose a wide variety of conditions. Any radiopaque objects such as jewelry or other metal must be removed from the chest area because they will interfere with the interpretation of the results. The x-ray is painless, and any discomfort would arise from repositioning a painful part for filming. The nurse may premedicate a client, if prescribed, who is at risk for pain. The client is asked to breathe in deeply and then hold the breath while the chest x-ray is taken. To minimize the risk of radiation exposure, the x-ray technologist stands in a separate area protected by a lead wall. The client also wears a lead shield over the reproductive organs.

The nurse is assessing the client who has just been measured and fitted for crutches. The nurse determines that the client's crutches are fitted correctly if: a) the top of the crutch is even with the axilla b) the elbow is straight when the hands is on the handgrip c) the client's axilla is resting on the crutch pad during ambulation d) the elbow is at a 30-degree angle when the hand is on the handgrip

D - For optimal upper extremity leverage, the elbow should be at approximately 30 degrees of flexion when the hand is resting on the handgrip. The top of the crutch needs to be two to three finger widths lower than the axilla. When crutch walking, all weight needs to be on the hands to prevent nerve palsy from pressure on the axilla.

The nurse is conducting a health screening clinic for osteoporosis. The nurse determines that which client seen in the clinic is at the greatest risk of developing this disorder? a) a 25-year old female who jogs b) a 36-year old male who has asthma c) a 70-year old male who consumes excess alcohol d) a sedentary 65-year old female who smokes cigarettes

D - Risk factors for osteoporosis include being female, postmenopausal status, advanced age, low-calcium diet, excessive alcohol intake, sedentary lifestyle, and cigarette smoking. The long-term use of corticosteroids, anticonvulsants, and furosemide (Lasix) also increase the risk.

The nurse has an order to get the client out of bed to a chair on the first postoperative day following total knee replacement. The nurse plans to do which of the following to protect the knee joint? a) apply a compression dressing and put ice on the knee while sitting b) obtain a walker to minimize weigh-bearing by the client on the affected leg c) lift the client to the bedside chair, leaving the continuous passive motion (CPM) machine d) apply a knee immobilizer before getting the client up and elevate the client's surgical leg while sitting

D - The nurse assists the client to get out of bed on the first postoperative day after putting a knee immobilizer on the affected joint to provide stability. The surgeon orders the weight-bearing limits on the affected leg. The leg is elevated while the client is sitting in the chair to minimize edema. Ice is not used unless prescribed. A compression dressing should already be in place on the wound. A CPM machine is used only while the client is in bed.

A nurse is working on a poison control hot-line and gets a call from a mother who reports her child has apparently taken part of a bottle of adult acetaminophen capsules. The priority action for the nurse to take first is: a) tell the mother to position the child lying down on her side b) tell the mother to dial 911 and request an ambulance c) have the mother give the child a glass of milk d) instruct the mother on how to administer syrup of ipecac

D - acetaminophen is non-corrosive. Therefore, inducing vomiting by administering syrup of ipecac is appropriate management in case of acetaminophen overdose or poisoning.

The nurse should include which of the following client teachings for prevention of rapid progression of osteoporosis? a) avoid taking skim milk b) avoid taking protein-rich foods c) avoid calcium supplement d) avoid alcohol

D - avoiding alcohol and cigarette smoking will prevent rapid progression of osteoporosis. Skim milk is indicated among elderly because it is low in fats. Protein foods are necessary for calcium absorption. Calcium supplements help maintain integrity of the bones.

When rewarming a patient who arrived in the emergency department (ED) with a temperature of 87° F, which assessment indicates that the nurse should discontinue the rewarming? a. The patient stops shivering. b. The BP decreases to 85/40 mm Hg. c. The patient develops atrial fibrillation. d. The core temperature is 94° F (34.4° C).

D A core temperature of 89.6° F to 93.2° F (32° C to 34° C) indicates that sufficient rewarming has occurred. Dysrhythmias, hypotension, and shivering may occur during rewarming and should be treated but are not an indication to stop rewarming the patient.

An 18-year-old is brought to the emergency department (ED) with multiple lacerations and tissue avulsion of the right hand. When asked about tetanus immunization, the patient denies having any previous vaccinations. The nurse will anticipate administration of a. tetanus-diphtheria toxoid (Td) only. b. tetanus immunoglobulin (TIG) only. c. TIG and tetanus-diphtheria toxoid (Td). d. TIG and tetanus-diphtheria toxoid and pertussis vaccine (Tdap).

D For an adult with no previous tetanus immunizations, TIG and Tdap are recommended. The other immunizations are not sufficient for this patient.

Gastric lavage and administration of activated charcoal are prescribed for an unconscious patient who has been admitted to the emergency department (ED) after ingesting 30 diazepam (Valium) tablets. Which action will the nurse plan to take first? a. Administer activated charcoal. b. Insert a large-bore orogastric tube. c. Prepare a 60-mL syringe with saline. d. Assist with intubation of the patient.

D In an unresponsive patient, intubation is done before gastric lavage and activated charcoal administration to prevent aspiration. The other actions will be implemented after intubation.

During the primary survey of a patient with multiple traumatic injuries, the nurse observes that the patient's right pedal pulses are absent and the leg is swollen. Which of these actions will the nurse take next? a. Assess further for a cause of the decreased circulation. b. Send blood to the lab for a complete blood count (CBC). c. Finish the airway, breathing, circulation, disability survey. d. Initiate isotonic fluid infusion through two large-bore IV lines.

D The assessment data indicate that the patient may have arterial trauma and hemorrhage. When a possibly life-threatening injury is found during the primary survey, the nurse should immediately start interventions before proceeding with the survey. Although a CBC is indicated, administration of IV fluids should be started first. Completion of the primary survey and further assessment should be completed after the IV fluids are initiated.

Which assessment finding for a patient who has had a surgical reduction of an open fracture of the right radius is most important to report to the health care provider? a. Serous wound drainage b. Right arm muscle spasms c. Right arm pain with movement d. Temperature 101.4° F (38.6° C)

D. An elevated temperature is suggestive of possible osteomyelitis. The other clinical manifestations are typical after a repair of an open fracture.

The nurse is reinforcing health teaching about osteoporosis with a 72-year-old patient admitted to the hospital. In reviewing this disorder, what should the nurse explain to the patient? A. With a family history of osteoporosis, there is no way to prevent or slow bone resorption. B. Continuous, low-dose corticosteroid treatment is effective in stopping the course of osteoporosis. C. Estrogen therapy must be maintained to prevent rapid progression of the osteoporosis. D. Even with a family history of osteoporosis, the calcium loss from bones can be slowed by increased calcium intake and exercise.

D. Even with a family history of osteoporosis, the calcium loss from bones can be slowed by increased calcium intake and exercise. The rate of progression of osteoporosis can be slowed if the patient takes calcium supplements and/or foods high in calcium and engages in regular weight-bearing exercise. Corticosteroids interfere with bone metabolism. Estrogen therapy is no longer used to prevent osteoporosis because of the associated increased risk of heart disease and breast and uterine cancer.

The nurse cares for a 58-year-old woman with breast cancer who is admitted for severe back pain related to a compression fracture. The patient's laboratory values include serum potassium of 4.5 mEq/L, serum sodium of 144 mEq/L, and serum calcium of 14.3 mg/dL. Which signs and symptoms will the nurse expect the patient to exhibit? A. Anxiety, irregular pulse, and weakness B. Muscle stiffness, dysphagia, and dyspnea C. Hyperactive reflexes, tremors, and seizures D. Nausea, vomiting, and altered mental status

D. Nausea, vomiting, and altered mental status Breast cancer can metastasize to the bone. Vertebrae are a common site. Pathologic fractures at the site of metastasis are common because of a weakening of the involved bone. High serum calcium levels result as calcium is released from damaged bones. Normal serum calcium is between 8.6 to 10.2 mg/dL. Clinical manifestations of hypercalcemia include nausea, vomiting, and altered mental status (e.g., lethargy, decreased memory, confusion, personality changes, psychosis, stupor, coma). Other manifestations include weakness, depressed reflexes, anorexia, bone pain, fractures, polyuria, dehydration, and nephrolithiasis. Manifestations of hypomagnesemia include hyperactive reflexes, tremors, and seizures. Symptoms of hyperkalemia include anxiety, irregular pulse, and weakness. Symptoms of hypocalcemia include muscle stiffness, dysphagia, and dyspnea.

A 67-year-old patient hospitalized with osteomyelitis has an order for bed rest with bathroom privileges with the affected foot elevated on two pillows. The nurse would place highest priority on which intervention? A. Ambulate the patient to the bathroom every 2 hours. B. Ask the patient about preferred activities to relieve boredom. C. Allow the patient to dangle legs at the bedside every 2 to 4 hours. D. Perform frequent position changes and range-of-motion exercises.

D. Perform frequent position changes and range-of-motion exercises. The patient is at risk for atelectasis of the lungs and for contractures because of prescribed bed rest. For this reason, the nurse should place the priority on changing the patient's position frequently to promote lung expansion and performing range-of-motion (ROM) exercises to prevent contractures. Assisting the patient to the bathroom will keep the patient safe as the patient is in pain, but it may not be needed every 2 hours. Providing activities to relieve boredom will assist the patient to cope with the bed rest, and dangling the legs every 2 to 4 hours may be too painful. The priority is position changes and ROM exercises.

A 54-year-old woman who recently reached menopause and has a family history of osteoporosis is diagnosed with osteopenia following densitometry testing. In teaching the woman about her osteoporosis, the nurse explains that a. estrogen replacement therapy must be started to prevent rapid progression to osteoporosis. b. continuous, low-dose corticosteroid treatment is effective in stopping the course of osteoporosis. c. with a family history of osteoporosis, there is no way to prevent or slow gradual bone resorption. d. calcium loss from bones can be slowed by increasing calcium intake and weight-bearing exercise.

D. Progression of osteoporosis can be slowed by increasing calcium intake and weight-bearing exercise. Estrogen replacement therapy does help prevent osteoporosis, but it is not the only treatment and is not appropriate for some patients. Corticosteroid therapy increases the risk for osteoporosis.

When the patient is diagnosed with muscular dystrophy, what information should the nurse include in the teaching about this disorder? A. Prolonged bed rest will be used to decrease fatigue. B. An orthotic jacket will limit mobility and may contribute to deformity. C. Continuous positive airway pressure will be used to facilitate sleeping. D. Remain active to prevent skin breakdown and respiratory complications.

D. Remain active to prevent skin breakdown and respiratory complications. With muscular dystrophy, it is important for the patient to remain active for as long as possible. Prolonged bed rest should be avoided because immobility leads to further muscle wasting. An orthotic jacket may be used to provide stability and prevent further deformity. Continuous positive airway pressure (CPAP) is used as respiratory function decreases, before mechanical ventilation is needed to sustain respiratory function.

Which menu choice by a patient with osteoporosis indicates that the nurse's teaching about appropriate diet has been effective? a. Pancakes with syrup and bacon b. Whole wheat toast and fresh fruit c. Egg-white omelet and a half grapefruit d. Oatmeal with skim milk and fruit yogurt

D. Skim milk and yogurt are high in calcium. The other choices do not contain any high-calcium foods.

The nurse will determine that more teaching is needed if a patient with discomfort from a bunion says, "I will a. give away my high-heeled shoes." b. take ibuprofen (Motrin) if I need it." c. use the bunion pad to cushion the area." d. only wear sandals, no closed-toe shoes."

D. The patient can wear shoes that have a wide forefoot. The other patient statements indicate that the teaching has been effective.

The basic pathophysiologic process of rheumatoid arthritis (RA) is a. destruction of joint cartilage and bones by an autoimmune process b. initiated by a viral infection that destroys the synovial membranes of joints c. the presence of HLA-DR4 antigen that causes inflammatory responses throughout the body d. an immune response that activates complement and produces inflammation of joints and other organ systems

D. an immune response that activates complement and produces inflammation of joints and other organ systems

A 60-year-old woman has pain on motion in her fingers and asks the nurse whether this is just a result of aging. The best response by the nurse includes the information that a. joint pain with functional limitation is a normal change that affects all people to some extent b. joint pain that develops with age is usually related to previous trauma or infection of the joints c. this is a symptom of a systemic arthritis that eventually affects all joints as the disease progresses d. changes in the cartilage and bones of joints may cause symptoms of pain and loss of function in some people as they age

D. changes in the cartilage and bones of joints may cause symptoms of pain and loss of function in some people as they age.

Characteristics of spondyloarthritides associated with HLA-B27 antigen include a. symmetric polyarticular arthritis b. an absence of extraarticular disease c. presence of rheumatoid factor and autoantibodies d. high level of involvement of sacroiliac joints and the spine

D. high level of involvement is sacroiliac joints and the spine

Laboratory findings that the nurse would expect to be present in the patient with RA include a. polycythemia b. increased IgG c. decreased WBC d. increased C-reactive protein (CRP)

D. increased C-reactive protein (CRP)

An important nursing intervention for the patient with ankylosing spondylitis is to teach the patient to a. wear roomy shoes with good orthotic support b. sleep on the side with the knees and hips flexed c. keep the spine slightly flexed while sitting, standing, or walking d. perform back, neck, and chest stretches and deep breathing exercises

D. perform back, neck and chest stretches and deep breathing exercises

A patient is seen at the outpatient clinic for a sudden onset of inflammation and severe pain in the great toe. A diagnosis of gout is made on the basis of a. a family history of gout b. elevated urine uric acid levels c. elevated serum uric acid levels d. the presence of sodium urate crystals in synovial fluid

D. the presence of sodium urate cystals in synovial fluid

After teaching a patient with RA to use heat and cold therapy to relieve symptoms, the nurse determines that teaching has been effective when the patient says, a. heat treatments should not be used if muscle spasms are present b. cold applications can be applied for 15-20 minutes to relieve joint stiffness c. I should use heat applications for 20 minutes to relieve the symptoms of an acute flare d. when my joints are painful, I can use a bag of frozen corn for 10 to 15 minutes to relieve the pain

D. when my joints are painful, I can use a bag of frozen corn for 10 to 15 minutes to relive the pain

Risk factors of Hypothermia

Elderly, certain drugs, alcohol, diabetes

Family Involvement in Emergency Care

Family members who wish to be present during invasive procedures/resuscitation view themselves as participants in care their presence should be supported.

Clinical Symptoms of Heat Exhaustion

Fatigue, Light-headedness, Nausea/vomiting, Diarrhea , Feelings of impending doom, Tachypnea, Tachycardia, Dilated pupils, Mild confusion, Ashen color, Profuse diaphoresis, Hypotension and mild to severe temperature elevation (99.6º to 104º F [37.5º to 40º C]) due to dehydration. Failure of the hypothalamic thermoregulatory processes Vasodilation, increased sweating, and respiratory rate deplete fluids and electrolytes, specifically sodium. Sweat glands stop functioning, and core temperature increases (>104º F [40º C]).

Cricoid pressure

Firm downward pressure on the cricoid ring pushes the vocal cords downward toward the field of vision while sealing the esophagus against the vertebral column.

Manifestations of Hypothermia

Hypothermia mimics cerebral or metabolic disturbances causing ataxia, confusion, and withdrawal, so the patient may be misdiagnosed.

Infection & Animal Bites

Individuals at greatest risk of infection are infants, older adults, immunosuppressed patients, alcoholics, diabetic individuals, and those taking corticosteroids.

Complications of Animal Bites

Infection and mechanical destruction of skin, muscle, tendons, blood vessels, bone

Airway Maintenance

Least to most invasive method: -Open airway using the jaw-thrust maneuver. -Suction and/or remove foreign body. -Insert nasopharyngeal/oropharyngeal airway. -Provide endotracheal intubation.

Secondary Survey: Inspect posterior surfaces

Logroll patient (while maintaining cervical spine immobilization) to inspect the posterior surfaces. Inspect the back for ecchymosis, abrasions, puncture wounds, cuts, and obvious deformities. Palpate the entire spine for misalignment, deformity, and pain.

Treatment of Hypothermia

Manage and maintain ABCs, rewarm patient, correct dehydration and acidosis, treat cardiac dysrhythmias.

Primary Survey: Disability

Measured by patient's level of consciousness AVPU: A = alert V = responsive to voice P = responsive to pain U = unresponsive Glasgow Coma Scale and pupils

Passive External Rewarming

Move patient to warm, dry place; remove damp clothing; place warm blankets on patient.

Secondary Survey: History & Head to Toe Assessment

Obtain history of event, illness, injury from patient, family, and emergency personnel. Perform head-to-toe assessment to obtain information about all other body systems.

Organ procurement organizations (OPOs)

Organizations available to assist in the process of screening potential donors, counseling donor families, obtaining informed consent, and harvesting organs from patients who are on life support or who die in the ED.

Secondary Survey: Comfort Measures

Pain management strategies— combination of pharmacologic measures and nonpharmacologic measures.

Community Emergency Response Teams (CERTs)

Partners in emergency preparedness, and training helps citizens to understand their personal responsibility in preparing for natural/manmade disaster. -Training includes teaching of lifesaving skills with emphasis on decision making and rescuer safety. -CERTs are an extension of first responder services.

Cricothyroidotomy or Tracheotomy

Performed if unable to intubate because of airway obstruction.

Place an "X" over the section of the diagram that represents the depth of a superficial partial-thickness burn. [insert Use figure 16-17 in LeMone 5E. Remove the caption and the labels on the right side (Clark's levels). Retain the left side labels (Skin layers). The Roman numeral labels in the drawing may remain if necessary.]

Rationale : A superficial partial-thickness burn damages the entire epidermis and through the papillary dermis.

Jaw-Thrust Maneuver

Recommended procedure for opening the airway of an unconscious patient with a possible neck or spinal injury. The patient should be lying supine with the rescuer kneeling at the top of the head. The rescuer places one hand on each side of the patient's head, resting his or her elbows on the surface. The rescuer grasps the angles of the patient's lower jaw and lifts the jaw forward with both hands without tilting the head.

Primary Survey: Exposure/environmental control

Remove clothing to perform physical assessment. Prevent heat loss.

Risks of Treatment for Hypothermia

Risks of rewarming: -Afterdrop, a further drop in core temperature -Hypotension -Dysrhythmias -Rewarming should be discontinued once the core temperature reaches 95º F (35º C).

AMPLE

Secondary Survey: A: Allergies to drugs, food, environment M: Medication history P: Past health history (e.g., preexisting medical and/or psychiatric conditions, previous hospitalizations/surgeries, smoking history, recent use of drugs/alcohol, tetanus immunization, last menstrual period, baseline mental status) L: Last meal E: Events/environment leading to the illness or injury

Secondary Survey: Preparation

Transport for diagnostic tests (e.g., x-ray), admit to general unit, telemetry, or intensive care unit, transfer to another facility. The nurse may accompany critically ill patients on transports. The nurse is responsible for monitoring the patient during transport, notifying the health care team should the patient's condition become unstable, and initiating basic and advanced life-support measures as needed.

Mannitol (Osmitrol) or Lasix (Furosemide)

Used to decrease free water and treat cerebral edema. Deterioration in neurologic status: cerebral edema, worsening hypoxia, profound acidosis.

Emergency Department

Where patients with life-threatening or potentially life-threatening problems enter the hospital.

A patient with osteomyelitis is treated with surgical debridement with implantation of antibiotic beads. When the patient asks why the beads are used, the nurse answers (select all that apply) a."The beads are used to directly deliver antibiotics to the site of the infection." b."There are no effective oral or IV antibiotics to treat most cases of bone infection." c."This is the safest method of delivering long-term antibiotic therapy for a bone infection." d."The beads are an adjunct to debridement and oral and IV antibiotics for deep infections." e."The ischemia and bone death that occur with osteomyelitis are impenetrable to IV antibiotics."

a."The beads are used to directly deliver antibiotics to the site of the infection." d."The beads are an adjunct to debridement and oral and IV antibiotics for deep infections." Treatment of chronic osteomyelitis includes surgical removal of the poorly vascularized tissue and dead bone and the extended use of IV and oral antibiotics. Antibiotic-impregnated polymethylmethacrylate bead chains may be implanted during surgery to aid in combating the infection.

Before discharge from the same-day surgery unit, instruct the patient who has had a surgical correction of bilateral hallux valgus to a.rest frequently with the feet elevated. b.soak the feet in warm water several times a day. c.expect the feet to be numb for the next few days. d.expect continued pain in the feet, since this is not uncommon.

a.rest frequently with the feet elevated. After surgical correction of bilateral hallux valgus, the feet should be elevated with the heel off the bed to help reduce discomfort and prevent edema.

A patient has been diagnosed with osteosarcoma of the humerus. He shows an understanding of his treatment options when he states a."I accept that I have to lose my arm with surgery." b."The chemotherapy before surgery will shrink the tumor." c."This tumor is related to the melanoma I had 3 years ago." d."I'm glad they can take out the cancer with such a small scar."

b."The chemotherapy before surgery will shrink the tumor." A patient with osteosarcoma usually has preoperative chemotherapy to decrease tumor size before surgery. As a result, limb-salvage procedures, including a wide surgical resection of the tumor, are being used more often. Osteosarcoma is a primary bone tumor that is extremely aggressive and rapidly metastasizes to distant sites.

You are teaching a patient with osteopenia. What is important to include in the teaching plan? a.Lose weight. b.Stop smoking. c.Eat a high-protein diet. d.Start swimming for exercise

b.Stop smoking. Patients with osteopenia should be instructed to quit smoking in order to decrease loss of bone mass.

In caring for a patient after a spinal fusion, the nurse would immediately report to the physician which patient symptom? a.The patient experiences a single episode of emesis. b.The patient is unable to move the lower extremities. c. The patient is nauseated and has not voided in 4 hours. d. The patient complains of pain at the bone graft donor site.

b.The patient is unable to move the lower extremities. After spinal fusion surgery, the nurse should frequently monitor peripheral neurologic signs. Movement of the arms and legs and assessment of sensation should be unchanged in comparison with the preoperative status. These assessments are usually repeated every 2 to 4 hours during the first 48 hours after surgery, and findings are compared with those of the preoperative assessment. Paresthesias, such as numbness and tingling sensation, may not be relieved immediately after surgery. The nurse should document any new muscle weakness or paresthesias and report this to the surgeon immediately.

4. The nurse's responsibility for a patient with a suspected disc herniation who is experiencing acute pain and muscle spasms is a.encouraging total bed rest for several days. b.teaching the principles of back strengthening exercises. c.stressing the importance of straight-leg raises to decrease pain. d.promoting the use of cold and hot compresses and pain medication.

d.promoting the use of cold and hot compresses and pain medication. If the acute muscle spasms and accompanying pain are not severe and debilitating, the patient may be treated on an outpatient basis with nonsteroidal antiinflammatory drugs (NSAIDs; e.g., acetaminophen) and muscle relaxants (e.g., cyclobenzaprine [Flexeril]). Massage and back manipulation, acupuncture, and the application of cold and hot compresses may help some patients. Severe pain may necessitate a brief course of opioid analgesics. A brief period (1 to 2 days) of rest at home may be necessary for some people; most patients do better with a continuation of their regular activities. Prolonged bed rest should be avoided. All patients during this time should refrain from activities that aggravate the pain, including lifting, bending, twisting, and prolonged sitting.