Musculoskeletal (Ch. 35-37) med-surg II

4. A client was brought to the emergency department after a fall. The client is taken to the operating room to receive a right hip prosthesis. In the immediate postoperative period, what health education should the nurse emphasize? A. "Make sure you don't bring your knees close together." B. "Try to lie as still as possible for the first few days." C. "Try to avoid bending your knees until next week." D. "Keep your legs higher than your chest whenever you can."

ANS: A Rationale: After receiving a hip prosthesis, the affected leg should be kept abducted. Mobility should be encouraged within safe limits. There is no need to avoid knee flexion and the client's legs do not need to be higher than the level of the chest.

33. A nurse is caring for a client who has just had an arthroscopy as an outpatient and is getting ready to go home. The nurse should teach the client to monitor closely for what postprocedure complication? A. Fever B. Crepitus C. Fasciculations D. Synovial fluid leakage

ANS: A Rationale: Following arthroscopy, the client and family are informed of complications to watch for, including fever. Synovial fluid leakage is unlikely and crepitus would not develop as a postprocedure complication. Fasciculations are muscle twitches and do not involve joint integrity or function.

3. A nurse is providing care for a client whose pattern of laboratory testing reveals long-standing hypocalcemia. Which other laboratory result is most consistent with this finding? A. An elevated parathyroid hormone level B. An increased calcitonin level C. An elevated potassium level D. A decreased vitamin D level

ANS: A Rationale: In the response to low calcium levels in the blood, increased levels of parathyroid hormone prompt the mobilization of calcium and the demineralization of bone. Increased calcitonin levels would exacerbate hypocalcemia. Vitamin D levels do not increase in response to low calcium levels. Potassium levels would likely be unaffected.

21. A 10-year-old client is growing at a rate appropriate for the client's age. Which cells are responsible for the secretion of bone matrix, which eventually results in bone growth? A. Osteoblasts B. Osteocytes C. Osteoclasts D. Lamellae

ANS: A Rationale: Osteoblasts function in bone formation by secreting bone matrix. Osteocytes are mature bone cells, and osteoclasts are multinuclear cells involved in dissolving and resorbing bone. Lamellae are circles of mineralized bone matrix

20. A client presents to a clinic reporting a leg ulcer that isn't healing; subsequent diagnostic testing suggests osteomyelitis. The nurse is aware that the most common pathogen to cause osteomyelitis is: A. Staphylococcus aureus. B. Proteus. C. Pseudomonas. D. Escherichia coli.

ANS: A Rationale: S. aureus causes more than half of all bone infections. Proteus, Pseudomonas, and E. coli are also causes, but to a lesser extent

23. A nurse is taking a health history on a client with musculoskeletal dysfunction. What should the nurse prioritize during this phase of the assessment? A. Evaluating the effects of the musculoskeletal disorder on the client's function B. Evaluating the client's adherence to the existing treatment regimen C. Evaluating the presence of genetic risk factors for further musculoskeletal disorders D. Evaluating the client's active and passive range of motion

ANS: A Rationale: The nursing assessment of the client with musculoskeletal dysfunction includes an evaluation of the effects of the musculoskeletal disorder on the client. This is a vital focus of the health history and supersedes the assessment of genetic risk factors and adherence to treatment, though these are both valid inclusions to the interview. Assessment of ROM occurs during the physical assessment, not the interview.

5. A nurse is assessing a client who is experiencing peripheral neurovascular dysfunction. Which assessment findings are most consistent with this diagnosis? A. Hot skin and a capillary refill of 1 to 2 seconds B. Absence of feeling, capillary refill of 4 to 5 seconds, and cool skin C. Pain, diaphoresis, and erythema D. Jaundiced skin, weakness, and capillary refill of 3 seconds

ANS: B Rationale: Indicators of peripheral neurovascular dysfunction include pale, cyanotic, or mottled skin with a cool temperature; capillary refill greater than 3 seconds; weakness or paralysis with motion; and paresthesia, unrelenting pain, pain on passive stretch, or absence of feeling. Jaundice, diaphoresis, and warmth are inconsistent with peripheral neurovascular dysfunction

2. A public health nurse is organizing a campaign that will address the leading cause of musculoskeletal-related disability. The nurse should focus on what health problem? A. Osteoporosis B. Arthritis C. Hip fractures D. Lower back pain

ANS: B Rationale: The leading cause of musculoskeletal-related disability is arthritis.

7. A nurse is caring for a client with Paget disease and is reviewing the client's most recent laboratory values. Which of the following values are most characteristic of Paget disease? A. An elevated level of parathyroid hormone and low calcitonin levels B. A low serum alkaline phosphatase level and a low serum calcium level C. An elevated serum alkaline phosphatase level and a normal serum calcium level D. An elevated calcitonin level and low levels of parathyroid hormone

ANS: C Rationale: Clients with Paget disease have normal blood calcium levels. Elevated serum alkaline phosphatase concentration and urinary hydroxyproline excretion reflect the increased osteoblastic activity associated with this condition. Alterations in PTH and calcitonin levels are atypical.

31. A nurse's assessment reveals that a client has shoulders that are not level and one prominent scapula that is accentuated by bending forward. The nurse should expect to read about which health problem in the client's electronic health record? A. Lordosis B. Kyphosis C. Scoliosis D. Muscular dystrophy

ANS: C Rationale: Scoliosis is evidenced by an abnormal lateral curve in the spine, shoulders that are not level, an asymmetric waistline, and a prominent scapula, accentuated by bending forward. Lordosis is the curvature in the lower back; kyphosis is an exaggerated curvature of the upper back. This finding is not suggestive of muscular dystrophy

7. A client injured in a motor vehicle accident has sustained a fracture to the diaphysis of the right femur. Of which tissue is the diaphysis of the femur mainly constructed? A. Epiphyses B. Cartilage C. Cortical bone D. Cancellous bone

ANS: C Rationale: The long bone shaft, which is referred to as the diaphysis, is constructed primarily of cortical bone

10. The results of a nurse's musculoskeletal examination show an increase in the lumbar curvature of the spine. The nurse should recognize the presence of what health problem? A. Osteoporosis B. Kyphosis C. Lordosis D. Scoliosis

ANS: C Rationale: The nurse documents the spinal abnormality as lordosis. Lordosis is an increase in lumbar curvature of the spine. Kyphosis is an increase in the convex curvature of the spine. Scoliosis is a lateral curvature of the spine. Osteoporosis is the significant loss of bone mass and strength with an increased risk for fracture

34. An orthopedic nurse is caring for a client who is postoperative day 1 following foot surgery. What nursing intervention should be included in the client's subsequent care? A. Dressing changes should not be performed unless there are clear signs of infection. B. The surgical site can be soaked in warm bath water for up to 5 minutes. C. The surgical site should be cleansed with hydrogen peroxide once daily. D. The foot should be elevated in order to prevent edema

ANS: D Rationale: Pain experienced by clients who undergo foot surgery is related to inflammation and edema. To control the anticipated edema, the foot should be elevated on several pillows when the client is sitting or lying. Regular dressing changes are performed and the wound should be kept dry. Hydrogen peroxide is not used to cleanse surgical wounds.

31. A client is brought to the emergency department by ambulance after stepping in a hole and falling. While assessing the client the nurse notes that the client's right leg is shorter than the left leg; the right hip is noticeably deformed and the client is in acute pain. Imaging does not reveal a fracture. What is the most plausible explanation for this client's signs and symptoms? A. Subluxated right hip B. Right hip contusion C. Hip strain D. Traumatic hip dislocation

ANS: D Rationale: Signs and symptoms of a traumatic dislocation include acute pain, change in positioning of the joint, shortening of the extremity, deformity, and decreased mobility. A subluxation would cause moderate deformity, or possibly no deformity. A contusion or strain would not cause obvious deformities

12. A nurse is assessing the neurovascular status of a client who has had a leg cast recently applied. The nurse is unable to palpate the client's dorsalis pedis or posterior tibial pulse and the client's foot is pale. What is the nurse's most appropriate action? A. Warm the client's foot and determine whether circulation improves. B. Reposition the client with the affected foot dependent. C. Reassess the client's neurovascular status in 15 minutes. D. Promptly inform the primary care provider.

ANS: D Rationale: Signs of neurovascular dysfunction warrant immediate medical follow-up. It would be unsafe to delay. Warming the foot or repositioning the client may be of some benefit, but the care provider should be informed first

36. A client has had a cast placed for the treatment of a humeral fracture. The nurse's most recent assessment shows signs and symptoms of compartment syndrome. What is the nurse's most appropriate action? A. Arrange for a STAT assessment of the client's serum calcium levels. B. Perform active range of motion exercises. C. Assess the client's joint function symmetrically. D. Contact the primary provider immediately.

ANS: D Rationale: This major neurovascular problem is caused by pressure within a muscle compartment that increases to such an extent that microcirculation diminishes, leading to nerve and muscle anoxia and necrosis. Function can be permanently lost if the anoxic situation continues for longer than 6 hours. Therefore, immediate medical care is a priority over further nursing assessment. Assessment of calcium levels is unnecessary.

40. A client was fitted with an arm cast after fracturing the humerus. Twelve hours after the application of the cast, the client tells the nurse that the injured arm hurts. Analgesics do not relieve the pain. What would be the most appropriate nursing action? A. Prepare the client for opening or bivalving of the cast. B. Obtain a prescription for a different analgesic. C. Encourage the client to wiggle and move the fingers. D. Petal the edges of the client's cast.

ANS: A Rationale: Acute compartment syndrome involves a sudden and severe decrease in blood flow to the tissues distal to an area of injury that results in ischemic necrosis if prompt, decisive intervention does not occur. Removing or bivalving the cast is necessary to relieve pressure. Prescribing different analgesics does not address the underlying problem. Encouraging the client to move the fingers or perform range-of-motion exercises will not treat or prevent compartment syndrome. Petaling the edges of a cast with tape prevents abrasions and skin breakdown, not compartment syndrome.

28. An older adult woman's current medication regimen includes alendronate. What outcome would indicate successful therapy? A. Increased bone mass B. Resolution of infection C. Relief of bone pain D. Absence of tumor spread

ANS: A Rationale: Bisphosphonates such as alendronate increase bone mass and decrease bone loss by inhibiting osteoclast function. These drugs do not treat infection, pain, or tumors.

17. A nurse is caring for an older adult client who is preparing for discharge following recovery from a total hip replacement. What outcome must be met prior to discharge? A. Client is able to perform ADLs independently. B. Client is able to perform transfers safely. C. Client is able to weight-bear equally on both legs. D. Client is able to demonstrate full ROM of the affected hip

ANS: B Rationale: The client must be able to perform transfers and to use mobility aids safely. Each of the other listed goals is unrealistic for the client who has undergone recent hip replacement.

11. A client has sustained traumatic injuries that involve several bone fractures. A fracture of what type of bone may interfere with the protection of the client's vital organs? A. Long bones B. Short bones C. Flat bones D. Irregular bones

ANS: C Rationale: Flat bones, such as the sternum, provide vital organ protection. Fractures of the flat bones may lead to puncturing of the vital organs or may interfere with the protection of the vital organs. Long, short, and irregular bones do not usually have this physiologic function.

26. A client presents at the clinic with a report of morning numbness, cramping, and stiffness in the fourth and fifth fingers of the right hand. What disease process should the nurse suspect? A. Tendonitis B. A ganglion C. Carpal tunnel syndrome D. Dupuytren disease

ANS: D Rationale: In cases of Dupuytren disease, the client may experience dull, aching discomfort, morning numbness, cramping, and stiffness in the affected fingers. This condition starts in one hand, but eventually both hands are affected. This clinical scenario does not describe tendonitis, a ganglion, or carpal tunnel syndrome

30. A nurse is performing a nursing assessment of a client suspected of having a musculoskeletal disorder. Which assessment should the nurse prioritize for a client who has a musculoskeletal disorder? A. Range of motion B. Activities of daily living C. Gait D. Strength

B Rationale: The nursing assessment is primarily a functional evaluation, focusing on the client's ability to perform activities of daily living. The nurse also assesses strength, gait, and range of motion, but these are assessed to identify their effect on functional status rather than to identify a medical diagnosis.

9. When assessing a client's peripheral nerve function, the nurse uses an instrument to prick the fat pad at the top of the client's small finger. This action will assess what nerve? A. Radial B. Ulnar C. Median D. Tibial

B Rationale: The ulnar nerve is assessed for sensation by pricking the fat pad at the top of the small finger. The radial, median, and tibial nerves are not assessed in this manner

23. A nurse is writing a care plan for a client admitted to the emergency department (ED) with an open fracture. The nurse will assign priority to what nursing diagnosis for a client with an open fracture of the radius? A. Risk for infection B. Risk for ineffective role performance C. Risk for perioperative positioning injury D. Risk for powerlessness

ANS: A Rationale: The client has a significant risk for osteomyelitis and tetanus due to the fact that the fracture is open. Powerlessness and ineffective role performance are psychosocial diagnoses that may or may not apply, and which would be superseded by immediate physiologic threats such as infection. Surgical positioning injury is not plausible, since surgery is not likely indicated.

20. The nurse is teaching the client on bed rest to perform quadriceps setting exercises. Which instruction should the nurse give the client? A. "Push the knees into the mattress." B. "Lie prone in bed." C. "Contract the buttock muscles." D. "Bend the knees."

ANS: A Rationale: To perform quadriceps setting exercises, the client lies in the supine (face up) position with legs extended, and pushes the knees into the bed while contracting the anterior thigh muscles. The client does not lie prone (face down), contract the buttocks, or bend the knees.

19. A 91-year-old client is slated for orthopedic surgery and the nurse is integrating gerontologic considerations into the client's plan of care. What intervention is most justified in the care of this client? A. Administration of prophylactic antibiotics B. Total parenteral nutrition (TPN) C. Use of a pressure-relieving mattress D. Use of a Foley catheter until discharge

ANS: C Rationale: Older adults have a heightened risk of skin breakdown; use of a pressure-reducing mattress addresses this risk. Older adults do not necessarily need TPN and the Foley catheter should be discontinued as soon as possible to prevent urinary tract infections. Prophylactic antibiotics are not a standard infection prevention measure.

10. A client presents at a clinic reporting back pain that goes all the way down the back of the leg to the foot. The nurse should document the presence of what type of pain? A. Bursitis B. Radiculopathy C. Sciatica D. Tendonitis

ANS: C Rationale: Sciatica nerve pain travels down the back of the thigh to the foot of the affected leg. Bursitis is inflammation of a fluid-filled sac in a joint. Radiculopathy is disease of a nerve root. Tendonitis is inflammation of muscle tendons

4. A nurse is caring for a client whose cancer metastasis has resulted in bone pain. What should the nurse expect the client to describe? A. A dull, deep ache that is "boring" in nature B. Soreness or aching that may include cramping C. Sharp, piercing pain that is relieved by immobilization D. Spastic or sharp pain that radiates

A Rationale: Bone pain is characteristically described as a dull, deep ache that is "boring" in nature, whereas muscular pain is described as soreness or aching and is referred to as "muscle cramps." Fracture pain is sharp and piercing and is relieved by immobilization. Sharp pain may also result from bone infection with muscle spasm or pressure on a sensory nerve.

29. Radiographs of a client's upper arm shows three fragments of the humeral bone. This diagnostic result suggests what type of fracture? A. Open B. Comminuted C. Intra-articular D. Greenstick

ANS: B Rationale: A comminuted fracture has more than two bone fragments. An open fracture has a bone end which breaks through the skin surface. An intra-articular fracture extends into the joint surface of a bone. A greenstick fracture refers to a partial break of a bone.

28. A school nurse is assessing a student who was kicked in the shin during a soccer game. The area of the injury has become swollen and discolored. The triage nurse should organize care for a: A. sprain. B. strain. C. contusion. D. dislocation

ANS: C Rationale: A contusion is a soft tissue injury that results in bleeding into soft tissues, creating a hematoma and ecchymosis. A sprain is an injury to ligaments caused by wrenching or twisting. A strain is a "muscle pull" from overuse, overstretching, or excessive stress. A dislocation is a condition in which the articular surfaces of the bones forming a joint are no longer in anatomic contact. Because the injury is not at the site of a joint, the client has not experienced a sprain, strain, or dislocation.

35. A nurse is caring for a client with a diagnosis of cancer that has metastasized to the bone. Which laboratory value would the nurse expect to be elevated in this client? A. Bilirubin B. Potassium C. Alkaline phosphatase D. Creatinine

ANS: C Rationale: Alkaline phosphatase is elevated during early fracture healing and in diseases with increased osteoblastic activity (e.g., metastatic bone tumors). Elevated bilirubin, potassium, and creatinine would not be expected in a client with metastatic bone tumors.

20. A client's fracture is healing and compact bone is replacing spongy bone around the periphery of the fracture. This process characterizes what phase of the bone healing process? A. Hematoma formation B. Fibrocartilaginous callus formation C. Remodeling D. Bony callus formation

ANS: C Rationale: Remodeling occurs as necrotic bone is removed by the osteoclasts. In this phase, compact bone replaces spongy bone around the periphery of the fracture. Each of the other listed phases precedes this stage.

35. A client is admitted to the orthopedic unit with a fractured femur after a motorcycle accident. The client has been placed in traction until the femur can be rodded in surgery. For what early complication(s) should the nurse monitor this client? Select all that apply. A. Systemic infection B. Complex regional pain syndrome C. Deep vein thrombosis D. Compartment syndrome E. Fat embolism

ANS: C, D, E Rationale: Early complications include shock, fat embolism, compartment syndrome, and venous thromboemboli (deep vein thrombosis [DVT], pulmonary embolism [PE]). Infection and complex regional pain syndrome are later complications of fractures.

1. A nurse is caring for a client who has had a plaster arm cast applied. Immediately after application, the nurse should provide what teaching to the client? A. The cast will feel cool to touch for the first 30 minutes. B. The cast should be wrapped snuggly with a towel until the client gets home. C. The cast should be supported on a board while drying. D. The cast will only have full strength when dry

ANS: D Rationale: A cast requires approximately 24 to 72 hours to dry, and until dry, it does not have full strength. While drying, the cast should not be placed on a hard surface. The cast will exude heat while it dries and should not be wrapped.

16. A nurse is assessing a child who has a diagnosis of muscular dystrophy. Assessment reveals that the child's muscles have greater-than-normal tone. The nurse should document the presence of: A. tonus. B. flaccidity. C. atony. D. spasticity

ANS: D Rationale: A muscle with greater-than-normal tone is described as spastic. Soft and flabby muscle tone is defined as atony. A muscle that is limp and without tone is described as being flaccid. The state of readiness known as muscle tone (tonus) is produced by the maintenance of some of the muscle fibers in a contracted state

38. The nurse's musculoskeletal assessment of a client reveals involuntary twitching of muscle groups. How would the nurse document this observation in the client's chart? A. Tetany B. Atony C. Clonus D. Fasciculations

ANS: D Rationale: Fasciculation is involuntary twitching of muscle fiber groups. Clonus is a series of involuntary, rhythmic, muscular contractions and tetany is involuntary muscle contraction, but neither is characterized as "twitching." Atony is a loss of muscle strength.

38. An older adult client sought care for the treatment of a swollen, painful knee joint. Diagnostic imaging and culturing of synovial fluid resulted in a diagnosis of septic arthritis. The nurse should prioritize what aspect of care? A. Administration of oral and IV corticosteroids as prescribed B. Prevention of falls and pathologic fractures C. Maintenance of adequate serum levels of vitamin D D. Intravenous administration of antibiotics

ANS: D Rationale: IV antibiotics are the major treatment modality for septic arthritis; the nurse must ensure timely administration of these drugs. Corticosteroids are not used to treat septic arthritis and vitamin D levels are not necessarily affected. Falls prevention is important, but septic arthritis does not constitute the same fracture risk as diseases with decreased bone density.

8. A client has come to the clinic for a regular check-up. The nurse's initial inspection reveals an increased thoracic curvature of the client's spine. The nurse should document the presence of which condition? A. Scoliosis B. Epiphyses C. Lordosis D. Kyphosis

ANS: D Rationale: Kyphosis is the increase in thoracic curvature of the spine. Scoliosis is a deviation in the lateral curvature of the spine. Epiphyses are the ends of the long bones. Lordosis is the exaggerated curvature of the lumbar spine

10. A nurse is caring for a client who has had a total hip replacement. The nurse is reviewing health education prior to discharge. Which of the client's statements would indicate to the nurse that the client requires further teaching? A. "I'll need to keep several pillows between my legs at night." B. "I need to remember not to cross my legs. It's such a habit." C. "The occupational therapist is showing me how to use a 'sock puller' to help me get dressed." D. "I will need my husband to assist me in getting off the low toilet seat at home."

D Rationale: To prevent hip dislocation after a total hip replacement, the client must avoid bending the hips beyond 90 degrees. Assistive devices, such as a raised toilet seat, should be used to prevent severe hip flexion. Using an abduction pillow or placing several pillows between the legs reduces the risk of hip dislocation by preventing adduction and internal rotation of the legs. Likewise, teaching the client to avoid crossing the legs also reduces the risk of hip dislocation. A sock puller helps a client get dressed without flexing the hips beyond 90 degrees.

37. An older, female client with osteoporosis has been hospitalized. Prior to discharge, when teaching the client, the nurse should include information about which major complication of osteoporosis? A. Bone fracture B. Loss of estrogen C. Negative calcium balance D. Dowager hump

A Rationale: Bone fracture is a major complication of osteoporosis that results when loss of calcium and phosphate increases the fragility of bones. Estrogen deficiencies result from menopause, not osteoporosis. Calcium and vitamin D supplements may be used to support normal bone metabolism, but a negative calcium balance is not a complication of osteoporosis. Dowager hump results from bone fractures. It develops when repeated vertebral fractures increase spinal curvature.

27. A client's electronic health record notes that the client has hallux valgus. What signs and symptoms should the nurse expect this client to manifest? A. Deviation of a great toe laterally B. Abnormal flexion of the great toe C. An exaggerated arch of the foot D. Fusion of the toe joints

ANS: A Rationale: A deformity in which the great toe deviates laterally and there is a marked prominence of the medial aspect of the first metatarsal-phalangeal joint and exostosis is referred to as hallux valgus (bunion). Hallux valgus does not result in abnormal flexion, abnormalities of the arch, or joint fusion

35. A nurse is providing discharge teaching for a client who underwent foot surgery. The nurse is collaborating with the occupational therapist and discussing the use of assistive devices. On what variables does the choice of assistive devices primarily depend? A. Client's general condition, balance, and weight-bearing prescription B. Client's general condition, strength, and gender C. Client's motivation, age, and weight-bearing prescription D. Client's occupation, motivation, and age

ANS: A Rationale: Assistive devices (e.g., crutches, walker) may be needed. The choice of the devices depends on the client's general condition and balance, and on the weight-bearing prescription. The client's strength, motivation, and weight restrictions are not what the choice of assistive devices is based on

19. A nurse is planning the care of an older adult client with osteomalacia. What action should the nurse recommend in order to promote vitamin D synthesis? A. Ensuring adequate exposure to sunlight B. Eating a low-purine diet C. Performing cardiovascular exercise while avoiding weight-bearing exercises D. Taking thyroid supplements as prescribed

ANS: A Rationale: Because sunlight is necessary for synthesizing vitamin D, clients should be encouraged to spend some time in the sun. A low-purine diet is not a relevant action, and thyroid supplements do not directly affect bone function. Action must be taken to prevent fractures, but weight-bearing exercise within safe parameters is not necessarily contraindicated

6. A client has symptoms of osteoporosis and is being assessed during an annual physical examination. The assessment shows that the client will require further testing related to a possible exacerbation of osteoporosis. The nurse should anticipate which diagnostic test? A. Bone densitometry B. Hip bone radiography C. Computed tomography (CT) D. Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI)

ANS: A Rationale: Bone densitometry is considered the most accurate test for osteoporosis and for predicting a fracture. As such, it is more likely to be used than CT, MRI, or x-rays.

11. A client tells the nurse that they haves pain and numbness in the thumb, first finger, and second finger of the right hand. The nurse discovers that the client is employed as an auto mechanic, and that the pain is increased while working. This may indicate that the client has what health problem? A. Carpel tunnel syndrome B. Tendonitis C. Impingement syndrome D. Dupuytren contracture

ANS: A Rationale: Carpel tunnel syndrome may be manifested by numbness, pain, paresthesia, and weakness along the median nerve. Tendonitis is inflammation of muscle tendons. Impingement syndrome is a general term that describes all lesions that involve the rotator cuff of the shoulder. Dupuytren contracture is a slowly progressive contracture of the palmar fascia.

37. A client has been experiencing an unexplained decline in knee function and has consequently been scheduled for arthrography. The nurse should teach the client about what process? A. Injection of a contrast agent into the knee joint prior to ROM exercises B. Aspiration of synovial fluid for serologic testing C. Injection of corticosteroids into the client's knee joint to facilitate ROM D. Replacement of the client's synovial fluid with a synthetic substitute

ANS: A Rationale: During arthrography, a radiopaque contrast agent or air is injected into the joint cavity to visualize the joint structures such as the ligaments, cartilage, tendons, and joint capsule. The joint is put through its range of motion to distribute the contrast agent while a series of x-rays are obtained. Synovial fluid is not aspirated or replaced and corticosteroids are not given.

32. The surgical nurse is admitting a client from postanesthetic recovery following the client's below-the-knee amputation. The nurse recognizes the client's high risk for postoperative hemorrhage and should keep what equipment at the bedside? A. A tourniquet B. A syringe preloaded with vitamin K C. A unit of packed red blood cells, placed on ice D. A dose of protamine sulfate

ANS: A Rationale: Immediate postoperative bleeding may develop slowly or may take the form of massive hemorrhage resulting from a loosened suture. A large tourniquet should be in plain sight at the client's bedside so that, if severe bleeding occurs, it can be applied to the residual limb to control the hemorrhage. PRBCs cannot be kept at the bedside. Vitamin K and protamine sulfate are antidotes to warfarin and heparin, but are not given to treat active postsurgical bleeding

12. A client has just had an arthroscopy performed to assess a knee injury. What nursing intervention should the nurse perform following this procedure? A. Wrap the joint in a compression dressing. B. Perform passive range of motion exercises. C. Maintain the knee in flexion for up to 30 minutes. D. Apply heat to the knee.

ANS: A Rationale: Interventions to perform following an arthroscopy include wrapping the joint in a compression dressing, extending and elevating the joint, and applying ice or cold packs. Passive ROM exercises, static flexion, and heat are not indicated.

34. A client is involved in a motorcycle accident and injures an arm. The health care provider diagnoses the man with an intra-articular fracture and splints the injury. The nurse implements the teaching plan developed for this client. What sequela of intra-articular fractures should the nurse describe regarding this client? A. Posttraumatic arthritis B. Fat embolism syndrome (FES) C. Osteomyelitis D. Compartment syndrome

ANS: A Rationale: Intra-articular fractures often lead to posttraumatic arthritis. Research does not indicate a correlation between intra-articular fractures and FES, osteomyelitis, or compartment syndrome.

7. The nurse educator on an orthopedic trauma unit is reviewing the safe and effective use of traction with some recent nursing graduates. What principle should the educator promote? A. Knots in the rope should not be resting against pulleys. B. Weights should rest against the bed rails. C. The end of the limb in traction should be braced by the footboard of the bed. D. Skeletal traction may be removed for brief periods to facilitate the client's independence.

ANS: A Rationale: Knots in the rope should not rest against pulleys because this interferes with traction. Weights are used to apply the vector of force necessary to achieve effective traction and should hang freely at all times. To avoid interrupting traction, the limb in traction should not rest against anything. Skeletal traction is never interrupted.

1. A nurse on the orthopedic unit is assessing a client's peroneal nerve. The nurse should perform this assessment by doing what action? A. Pricking the skin between the great and second toe B. Stroking the skin on the sole of the client's foot C. Pinching the skin between the thumb and index finger D. Stroking the distal fat pad of the small finger

ANS: A Rationale: The nurse will evaluate the sensation of the peroneal nerve by pricking the skin centered between the great and second toe. None of the other listed actions elicits the function of one of the peripheral nerves.

12. A nurse is assessing a client who reports a throbbing, burning sensation in the right foot. The client states that the pain is worst during the day but notes that the pain is relieved with rest. The nurse should recognize the signs and symptoms of what health problem? A. Morton neuroma B. Pes cavus C. Hallux valgus D. Onychocryptosis

ANS: A Rationale: Morton neuroma is a swelling of the third (lateral) branch of the median plantar nerve, which causes a throbbing, burning pain, usually relieved with rest. Pes cavus refers to a foot with an abnormally high arch and a fixed equinus deformity of the forefoot. Hallux valgus (bunion) is a deformity in which the great toe deviates laterally and there is a marked prominence of the medial aspect of the first metatarsal-phalangeal joint and exostosis. Onychocryptosis (ingrown toenail) occurs when the free edge of a nail plate penetrates the surrounding skin, laterally or anteriorly

26. Diagnostic tests show that a client's bone density has decreased over the past several years. The client asks the nurse which factors contribute to bone density decreasing. Which response by the nurse would be best? A. "For many people, a lack of proper nutrition can cause a loss of bone density." B. "Progressive loss of bone density is mostly related to your genes." C. "Stress is known to have many unhealthy effects, including reduced bone density." D. "Bone density decreases with age, but scientists are not exactly sure why this is the case."

ANS: A Rationale: Nutrition has a profound effect on bone density, especially later life. Genetics are also an important factor, but nutrition has a more pronounced effect. The pathophysiology of bone density is well understood and psychosocial stress has a minimal effect.

40. A nurse is caring for a 78-year-old client with a history of osteoarthritis (OA). When planning the client's care, what goal should the nurse prioritize? A. The client will express satisfaction with the ability to perform ADLs. B. The client will recover from OA within 6 months. C. The client will adhere to the prescribed plan of care. D. The client will deny signs or symptoms of OA.

ANS: A Rationale: Pain management and optimal functional ability are major goals of nursing interventions for OA. Cure is not a possibility, and it is unrealistic to expect a complete absence of signs and symptoms. Adherence to the plan of care is highly beneficial, but this is not the priority goal of care; adherence is of little benefit if the regimen has no effect on the client's functional status.

8. The nursing care plan for a client in traction specifies regular assessments for venous thromboembolism (VTE). When assessing a client's lower limbs, what sign or symptom is suggestive of deep vein thrombosis (DVT)? A. Increased warmth of the calf B. Decreased circumference of the calf C. Loss of sensation to the calf D. Pale-appearing calf

ANS: A Rationale: Signs of DVT include increased warmth, redness, swelling, and calf tenderness. These findings are promptly reported to the health care provider for definitive evaluation and therapy. Signs and symptoms of a DVT do not include a decreased circumference of the calf, a loss of sensation in the calf, or a pale-appearing calf.

6. A nurse is teaching a client with osteomalacia about the role of diet. What would be the best choice for breakfast for a client with osteomalacia? A. Cereal with milk, a scrambled egg, and grapefruit B. Poached eggs with sausage and toast C. Waffles with fresh strawberries and powdered sugar D. A bagel topped with butter and jam with a side dish of grapes

ANS: A Rationale: The best meal option is the one that contains the highest dietary sources of calcium and vitamin D. The best selection among those listed is cereal with milk, and eggs, as these foods contain calcium and vitamin D in a higher quantity over the other menu options.

25. A 32-year-old client comes to the clinic reporting shoulder tenderness, pain, and limited movement. Upon assessment the nurse finds edema. An MRI shows hemorrhage of the rotator cuff tendons and the client is diagnosed with impingement syndrome. What action should the nurse recommend in order to promote healing? A. Support the affected arm on pillows at night. B. Take prescribed corticosteroids as prescribed. C. Put the shoulder through its full range of motion three times daily. D. Keep the affected arm in a sling for 2 to 4 weeks

ANS: A Rationale: The client should support the affected arm on pillows while sleeping to keep from turning onto the shoulder. Corticosteroids are not commonly prescribed and a sling is not normally necessary. ROM exercises are indicated, but putting the arm through its full ROM may cause damage during the healing process.

24. A nurse is collaborating with the physical therapist to plan the care of a client with osteomyelitis. What principle should guide the management of activity and mobility in this client? A. Stress on the weakened bone must be avoided. B. Increased heart rate enhances perfusion and bone healing. C. Bed rest results in improved outcomes in clients with osteomyelitis. D. Maintenance of baseline ADLs is the primary goal during osteomyelitis treatment.

ANS: A Rationale: The client with osteomyelitis has bone that is weakened by the infective process and must be protected by avoidance of stress on the bone. This risk guides the choice of activity in a client with osteomyelitis. Bed rest is not normally indicated. Maintenance of prediagnosis ADLs may be an unrealistic short-term goal for many clients.

3. A nurse is caring for a client who is postoperative day 1 following a total arthroplasty of the right hip. How should the nurse position the client? A. Place a pillow between the legs. B. Turn the client on the surgical side. C. Avoid flexion of the right hip. D. Keep the right hip adducted at all times

ANS: A Rationale: The hips should be kept in abduction by a pillow placed between the legs. When positioning the client in bed, the nurse should avoid placing the client on the operated hip. The right hip should not be flexed more than 90 degrees to avoid dislocation. The right hip should be maintained in an abducted position

26. A nurse is caring for a client who had a right below-the-knee amputation (BKA). The nurse recognizes the importance of implementing measures that focus on preventing flexion contracture of the hip and maintaining proper positioning. What nursing action will best achieve these goals? A. Encouraging the client to turn from side to side and to assume a prone position B. Initiating ROM exercises of the hip and knee 10 to 12 weeks after the amputation C. Minimizing movement of the flexor muscles of the hip D. Encouraging the client to sit in a chair for at least 8 hours a day

ANS: A Rationale: The nurse encourages the client to turn from side to side and to assume a prone position, if possible, to stretch the flexor muscles and to prevent flexion contracture of the hip. Postoperative ROM exercises are started early because contracture deformities develop rapidly. ROM exercises include hip and knee exercises for clients with BKAs. The nurse also discourages sitting for prolonged periods of time.

1. A nurse is caring for an adult client diagnosed with a back strain. What health education should the nurse provide to this client? A. Avoid lifting more than one-third of body weight without assistance. B. Focus on using back muscles efficiently when lifting heavy objects. C. Lift objects while holding the object a safe distance from the body. D. Tighten the abdominal muscles and lock the knees when lifting an object.

ANS: A Rationale: The nurse will instruct the client on the safe and correct way to lift objects— using the strong quadriceps muscles of the thighs, with minimal use of the weaker back muscles. To prevent recurrence of acute low back pain, the nurse may instruct the client to avoid lifting more than one-third of the client's body weight without help. The client should be informed to place the feet hip-width apart to provide a wide base of support. The person should then bend the knees, tighten the abdominal muscles, and lift the object close to the body with a smooth motion, avoiding twisting and jerking.

17. A nurse is caring for a client who is 12 hours' postoperative following foot surgery. The nurse assesses the presence of edema in the foot. What nursing measure should the nurse implement to control the edema? A. Elevate the foot on several pillows. B. Apply warm compresses intermittently to the surgical area. C. Administer a loop diuretic as prescribed. D. Increase circulation through frequent ambulation.

ANS: A Rationale: To control the edema in the foot of a client who experienced foot surgery, the nurse will elevate the foot on several pillows when the client is sitting or lying. Diuretic therapy is not an appropriate intervention for edema related to inflammation. Intermittent ice packs should be applied to the surgical area during the first 24 to 48 hours after surgery to control edema and provide some pain relief. Ambulation will gradually be resumed based on the guidelines provided by the surgeon

29. The nurse is performing an assessment of a client's musculoskeletal system and is appraising the client's bone integrity. Which action should the nurse perform during this phase of assessment? A. Compare parts of the body symmetrically. B. Assess extremities when in motion rather than at rest. C. Percuss as many joints as are accessible. D. Administer analgesia 30 to 60 minutes before assessment.

ANS: A Rationale: When assessing bone integrity, symmetric parts of the body, such as extremities, are compared. Analgesia should not be necessary, and percussion is not clinically useful for assessing bone integrity. Bone integrity is best assessed when the client is not moving.

15. An 80-year-old man in a long-term care facility has a chronic leg ulcer and states that the area has become increasingly painful in recent days. The nurse notes that the site is now swollen and warm to the touch. The client should undergo diagnostic testing for what health problem? A. Osteomyelitis B. Osteoporosis C. Osteomalacia D. Septic arthritis

ANS: A Rationale: When osteomyelitis develops from the spread of an adjacent infection, no signs of septicemia are present, but the area becomes swollen, warm, painful, and tender to touch. Osteoporosis is noninfectious. Osteomalacia is a metabolic bone disease characterized by inadequate mineralization of bone. Septic arthritis occurs when joints become infected through spread of infection from other parts of the body (hematogenous spread) or directly through trauma or surgical instrumentation

25. A nurse is explaining a client's decreasing bone density in terms of the balance between bone resorption and formation. What dietary nutrients and hormones play a role in the resorption and formation of adult bones? Select all that apply. A. Thyroid hormone B. Growth hormone C. Estrogen D. Vitamin B12 E. Luteinizing hormone

ANS: A, B, C Rationale: The balance between bone resorption and formation is influenced by the following factors: physical activity; dietary intake of certain nutrients, especially calcium; and several hormones, including calcitriol (i.e., activated vitamin D), parathyroid hormone (PTH), calcitonin, thyroid hormone, cortisol, growth hormone, and the sex hormones estrogen and testosterone. Luteinizing hormone and vitamin B12 do not play a role in bone formation or resorption.

21. A nurse is providing care for a client who has a recent diagnosis of Paget disease. When planning this client's nursing care, what should interventions address? Select all that apply. A. Impaired physical mobility B. Acute pain C. Disturbed auditory sensory perception D. Risk for injury E. Risk for unstable blood glucose

ANS: A, B, C, D Rationale: Clients with Paget disease are at risk for decreased mobility, pain, hearing loss, and injuries resulting from decreased bone density. Paget disease does not affect blood glucose levels.

22. A nurse is caring for a client who is being assessed following reports of severe and persistent low back pain. The client is scheduled for diagnostic testing in the morning. Which of the following are appropriate diagnostic tests for assessing low back pain? Select all that apply. A. Computed tomography (CT) B. Angiography C. Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) D. Ultrasound E. X-ray

ANS: A, C, D, E Rationale: A variety of diagnostic tests can be used to address lower back pain, including CT, MRI, ultrasound, and x-rays. Angiography is not related to the etiology of back pain.

21. A nurse admits a client who has a fracture of the nose that has resulted in a skin tear and involvement of the mucous membranes of the nasal passages. The orthopedic nurse should plan to care for what type of fracture? A. Compression B. Compound C. Impacted D. Transverse

ANS: B Rationale: A compound fracture involves damage to the skin or mucous membranes and is also called an open fracture. A compression fracture involves compression of bone and is seen in vertebral fractures. An impacted fracture occurs when a bone fragment is PRIMEXAM.COM driven into another bone fragment. A transverse fracture occurs straight across the bone shaft.

22. A nurse's assessment of a client's knee reveals edema, tenderness, muscle spasms, and ecchymosis. The client states that 2 days ago the client ran in a long-distance race and now it "really hurts to stand up." The nurse should plan care based on the belief that the client has experienced what injury? A. A first-degree strain B. A second-degree strain C. A first-degree sprain D. A second-degree sprain

ANS: B Rationale: A second-degree strain involves tearing of muscle fibers and is manifested by notable loss of load-bearing strength with accompanying edema, tenderness, muscle spasm, and ecchymosis. A first-degree strain reflects tearing of a few muscle fibers and is accompanied by minor edema, tenderness, and mild muscle spasm, without noticeable loss of function. However, this client states a loss of function. A sprain normally involves twisting, which is inconsistent with the client's overuse injury.

32. A client is receiving ongoing nursing care for the treatment of Parkinson disease. When assessing this client's gait, which finding is most closely associated with this health problem? A. Spastic hemiparesis gait B. Shuffling gait C. Rapid gait D. Steppage gait

ANS: B Rationale: A variety of neurologic conditions are associated with abnormal gaits, such as a spastic hemiparesis gait (stroke), steppage gait (lower motor neuron disease), and shuffling gait (Parkinson disease). A rapid gait is not associated with Parkinson disease.

24. A client is scheduled for a bone scan to rule out osteosarcoma of the pelvic bones. Which client status would be most important for the nurse to verify before the client's scan? A. Completion of the bowel cleansing regimen B. Empty bladder C. No allergy to penicillins D. Fast for at least 8 hours

ANS: B Rationale: Before the scan, the nurse asks the client to empty the bladder, because a full bladder interferes with accurate scanning of the pelvic bones. Bowel cleansing and fasting are not indicated for a bone scan, and an allergy to penicillins is not a contraindication

27. A bone biopsy has just been completed on a client with suspected bone metastases. The nurse should prioritize assessments for which common complication of bone biopsy? A. Dehiscence at the biopsy site B. Pain C. Hematoma formation D. Infection

ANS: B Rationale: Bone biopsy can be painful, and the nurse should prioritize relevant assessments. Dehiscence is not a possibility, because the incision is not linear. Signs and symptoms of infection would not be evident in the immediate recovery period, and hematoma formation is not a common complication

8. Which of the following clients should the nurse recognize as being at the highest risk for the development of osteomyelitis? A. A middle-aged adult who takes ibuprofen daily for rheumatoid arthritis B. An older adult client with an infected pressure ulcer in the sacral area C. A 17-year-old football player who had orthopedic surgery 6 weeks prior D. An infant diagnosed with jaundice

ANS: B Rationale: Clients who are at high risk of osteomyelitis include those who are poorly nourished, older adults, and clients who are obese. The older adult client with an infected sacral pressure ulcer is at the greatest risk for the development of osteomyelitis, as this client has two risk factors: age and the presence of a soft-tissue infection that has the potential to extend into the bone. The client with rheumatoid arthritis has one risk factor and the infant with jaundice has no identifiable risk factors. The client 6 weeks' postsurgery is beyond the usual window of time for the development of a postoperative surgical wound infection.

24. A nurse is caring for a client who has suffered an unstable thoracolumbar fracture. What goal should the nurse prioritize during nursing care? A. Preventing skin breakdown B. Maintaining spinal alignment C. Maximizing function D. Preventing increased intracranial pressure

ANS: B Rationale: Clients with an unstable fracture must have their spine in alignment at all times in order to prevent neurologic damage. This is a greater threat, and higher priority, than promoting function and preventing skin breakdown, even though these are both valid considerations. Increased ICP is not a high risk

30. A client has been admitted to the hospital with a spontaneous vertebral fracture related to osteoporosis. Which of the following nursing diagnoses must be addressed in the plan of care? A. Risk for aspiration related to vertebral fracture B. Constipation related to vertebral fracture C. Impaired swallowing related to vertebral fracture D. Decreased cardiac output related to vertebral fracture

ANS: B Rationale: Constipation is a problem related to immobility and medications used to treat vertebral fractures. The client's risks of aspiration, dysphagia, and decreased cardiac output are not necessarily heightened

36. An older adult client has fallen in the home and is brought to the emergency department by ambulance with a suspected fractured hip. X-rays confirm a fracture of the left femoral neck. When planning assessments during the client's presurgical care, the nurse should be aware of the client's heightened risk of what complication? A. Osteomyelitis B. Avascular necrosis C. Phantom pain D. Septicemia

ANS: B Rationale: Fractures of the neck of the femur may damage the vascular system that supplies blood to the head and the neck of the femur, and the bone may become ischemic. For this reason, AVN is common in clients with femoral neck fractures. Infections are not immediate complications and phantom pain applies to clients with amputations, not hip fractures

14. A nurse is caring for an older adult who has been diagnosed with geriatric failure to thrive. The nurse should perform interventions to prevent what complication? A. Muscle clonus B. Muscle atrophy C. Rheumatoid arthritis D. Muscle fasciculations

ANS: B Rationale: If a muscle is in disuse for an extended period of time, it is at risk of developing atrophy, which is the decrease in size. Clonus is a pattern of rhythmic muscle contractions and fasciculation is the involuntary twitch of muscle fibers; neither results from immobility. Lack of exercise is a risk factor for rheumatoid arthritis.

11. A client has suffered a muscle strain and is reporting pain at 6 on a 10-point scale. The nurse should recommend what action? A. Taking an opioid analgesic as prescribed B. Applying a cold pack to the injured site C. Performing passive ROM exercises D. Applying a heating pad to the affected muscle

ANS: B Rationale: Most pain can be relieved by elevating the involved part, applying cold packs, and administering analgesics as prescribed. Heat may exacerbate the pain by increasing blood circulation, and ROM exercises would likely be painful. Analgesia is likely necessary, but NSAIDs would be more appropriate than opioids

36. A client has come to the clinic for a routine annual physical. The nurse practitioner notes a palpable, painless projection of bone at the client's shoulder. The projection appears to be at the distal end of the humerus. The nurse should suspect the presence of: A. osteomyelitis. B. osteochondroma. C. osteomalacia. D. Paget disease.

ANS: B Rationale: Osteochondroma is the most common benign bone tumor. It usually occurs as a large projection of bone at the end of long bones (at the knee or shoulder). Osteomyelitis, osteomalacia, and Paget disease do not involve the development of excess bone tissue.

33. A client with diabetes has been diagnosed with osteomyelitis. The nurse observes that the client's right foot is pale and mottled, cool to touch, with a capillary refill of greater than 3 seconds. The nurse should suspect what type of osteomyelitis? A. Hematogenous osteomyelitis B. Osteomyelitis with vascular insufficiency C. Contiguous focus osteomyelitis D. Osteomyelitis with muscular deterioration

ANS: B Rationale: Osteomyelitis is classified as hematogenous osteomyelitis (i.e., due to bloodborne spread of infection); contiguous-focus osteomyelitis, from contamination from bone surgery, open fracture, or traumatic injury (e.g., gunshot wound); and osteomyelitis with vascular insufficiency, seen most commonly among clients with diabetes and peripheral vascular disease, most commonly affecting the feet. Osteomyelitis with muscular deterioration does not exist.

30. What nursing intervention should the nurse prioritize to facilitate healing in a client who has suffered a hip fracture? A. Administer analgesics as required. B. Place a pillow between the client's legs when turning. C. Maintain prone positioning at all times. D. Encourage internal and external rotation of the affected leg.

ANS: B Rationale: Placing a pillow between the client's legs when turning prevents adduction and supports the client's legs. Administering analgesics addresses pain but does not directly protect bone remodeling and promote healing. Rotation of the affected leg can cause dislocation and must be avoided. Prone positioning does not need to be maintained at all times

3. A client presents at a clinic reports heel pain that impairs walking ability. The client is subsequently diagnosed with plantar fasciitis. This client's plan of care should include what intervention? A. Wrapping the affected area in lamb's wool or gauze to relieve pressure B. Gently stretching the foot and the Achilles tendon C. Wearing open-toed shoes at all times D. Applying topical analgesic ointment to plantar surface each morning

ANS: B Rationale: Plantar fasciitis leads to pain that is localized to the anterior medial aspect of the heel and diminishes with gentle stretching of the foot and Achilles tendon. Dressings of any kind are not of therapeutic benefit and analgesic ointments do not address the pathology of the problem. Open-toed shoes are of no particular benefit.

16. A nurse is assessing a client who is receiving traction. The nurse's assessment confirms that the client is able to perform plantar flexion. What conclusion can the nurse draw from this finding? A. The leg that was assessed is free from DVT. B. The client's tibial nerve is functional. C. Circulation to the distal extremity is adequate. D. The client does not have peripheral neurovascular dysfunction.

ANS: B Rationale: Plantar flexion demonstrates function of the tibial nerve. It does not demonstrate the absence of DVT and does not allow the nurse to ascertain adequate circulation. The nurse must perform more assessments on more sites in order to determine an absence of peripheral neurovascular dysfunction.

39. A nurse is assessing a client for risk factors known to contribute to osteoarthritis. What assessment finding should the nurse interpret as a risk factor? A. The client has a 30 pack-year smoking history. B. The client's body mass index is 34 (obese). C. The client has primary hypertension. D. The client is 58 years old

ANS: B Rationale: Risk factors for osteoarthritis include obesity and previous joint damage. Risk factors of OA do not include smoking or hypertension. Incidence increases with age, but a client who is 58 years old would not yet face a significantly heightened risk.

34. A client is undergoing diagnostic testing for suspected Paget disease. What assessment finding is most consistent with this diagnosis? A. Altered serum magnesium levels B. Altered serum calcium levels C. Altered serum potassium levels D. Altered serum sodium levels

ANS: B Rationale: Serum calcium levels are altered in clients with osteomalacia, parathyroid dysfunction, Paget's disease, metastatic bone tumors, or prolonged immobilization. Paget's disease is not directly associated with altered magnesium, potassium, or sodium levels.

18. A client with diabetes is attending a class on the prevention of associated diseases. What action should the nurse teach the client to reduce the risk of osteomyelitis? A. Increase calcium and vitamin intake. B. Monitor and control blood glucose levels. C. Exercise 3 to 4 times weekly for at least 30 minutes. D. Take corticosteroids as prescribed

ANS: B Rationale: Since poor glycemic control can exacerbate the spread of infection from other sources, the client with diabetes should maintain blood glucose levels within a desired range. Corticosteroids can exacerbate the risk of osteomyelitis. Increased intake of calcium and vitamins as well as regular exercise are beneficial health promotion exercises, but they do not directly reduce the risk of osteomyelitis

40. While performing an assessment, the nurse notes that a client has soft subcutaneous nodules along the extensor tendons of the fingers. Which disorder does this client most likely have? A. Osteoarthritis B. Rheumatoid arthritis C. Gout D. Paget disease

ANS: B Rationale: Soft nodules that occur within or along tendons that provide extensor function to joints are characteristic of rheumatoid arthritis. The nodules of osteoarthritis are hard and painless and consist of bony overgrowth. The nodules of gout are hard and lie within and immediately adjacent to the joint capsule. Nodules are not characteristic of gout.

9. A client with a right tibial fracture is being discharged home after having a cast applied. What instruction should the nurse provide in relationship to the client's cast care? A. "Cover the cast with a blanket until the cast dries." B. "Keep your right leg elevated above heart level." C. "Use a clean object to scratch itches inside the cast." D. "A foul smell from the cast is normal after the first few days."

ANS: B Rationale: The leg should be elevated to promote venous return and prevent edema. The cast shouldn't be covered while drying because this will cause heat buildup and prevent air circulation. No foreign object should be inserted inside the cast because of the risk of cutting the skin and causing an infection. A foul smell from a cast is never normal and may indicate an infection.

27. The orthopedic nurse should assess for signs and symptoms of Volkmann contracture if a client has fractured which of the following bones? A. Femur B. Humerus C. Radial head D. Clavicle

ANS: B Rationale: The most serious complication of a supracondylar fracture of the humerus is Volkmann ischemic contracture, which results from antecubital swelling or damage to the brachial artery. This complication is specific to humeral fractures

25. A client with a simple arm fracture is receiving discharge education from the nurse. What would the nurse instruct the client to do? A. Elevate the affected extremity to shoulder level when at rest. B. Engage in exercises that strengthen the unaffected muscles. C. Apply topical anesthetics to accessible skin surfaces as needed. D. Avoid using analgesics so that further damage is not masked.

ANS: B Rationale: The nurse will encourage the client to engage in exercises that strengthen the unaffected muscles. Comfort measures may include appropriate use of analgesics and elevation of the affected extremity to the heart level. Topical anesthetics are not typically used.

38. The nurse is providing care for a client who has had a below-the-knee amputation. The nurse enters the client's room and finds the client resting in bed with the residual limb supported on a pillow. What is the nurse's most appropriate action? A. Inform the surgeon of this finding. B. Explain the risks of flexion contracture to the client. C. Transfer the client to a sitting position. D. Encourage the client to perform active ROM exercises with the residual limb.

ANS: B Rationale: The residual limb should not be placed on a pillow because a flexion contracture of the hip may result. There is no acute need to contact the client's surgeon. Encouraging exercise or transferring the client does not address the risk of flexion contracture.

13. A client has just begun been receiving skeletal traction and the nurse is aware that muscles in the client's affected limb are spastic. How does this change in muscle tone affect the client's traction prescription? A. Traction must temporarily be aligned in a slightly different direction. B. Extra weight is needed initially to keep the limb in proper alignment. C. A lighter weight should be initially used. D. Weight will temporarily alternate between heavier and lighter weights.

ANS: B Rationale: The traction weights applied initially must overcome the shortening spasms of the affected muscles. As the muscles relax, the traction weight is reduced to prevent fracture dislocation and to promote healing. Weights never alternate between heavy and light.

14. A nurse is caring for a client receiving skeletal traction. Due to the client's severe limits on mobility, the nurse has identified a risk for atelectasis or pneumonia. What intervention should the nurse provide in order to prevent these complications? A. Perform chest physiotherapy once per shift and as needed. B. Teach the client to perform deep breathing and coughing exercises. C. Administer prophylactic antibiotics as prescribed. D. Administer nebulized bronchodilators and corticosteroids as prescribed

ANS: B Rationale: To prevent these complications, the nurse should educate the client about performing deep-breathing and coughing exercises to aid in fully expanding the lungs and clearing pulmonary secretions. Antibiotics, bronchodilators, and steroids are not used on a preventative basis, and chest physiotherapy is unnecessary and implausible for a client in traction

39. A nurse in a busy emergency department provides care for many clients who present with contusions, strains, or sprains. What are treatment modalities that are common to all of these musculoskeletal injuries? Select all that apply. A. Massage B. Applying ice C. Compression dressings D. Resting the affected extremity E. Corticosteroids F. Elevating the injured limb

ANS: B, C, D, F Rationale: Treatment of contusions, strains, and sprains consists of resting and elevating the affected part, applying cold, and using a compression bandage. Massage and corticosteroids are not used to treat these injuries

33. A client has presented to the emergency department with an injury to the wrist. The client is diagnosed with a third-degree strain. Why would the health care provider prescribe an x-ray of the wrist? A. Nerve damage is associated with third-degree strains. B. Compartment syndrome is associated with third-degree strains. C. Avulsion fractures are associated with third-degree strains. D. Greenstick fractures are associated with third-degree strains.

ANS: C Rationale: An x-ray should be obtained to rule out bone injury because an avulsion fracture (in which a bone fragment is pulled away from the bone by a tendon) may be associated with a third-degree strain. Nerve damage, compartment syndrome, and greenstick fractures are not associated with third-degree strains.

39. A client has been experiencing progressive increases in knee pain and diagnostic imaging reveals a worsening effusion in the synovial capsule. The nurse should anticipate what diagnostic procedure? A. Arthrography B. Knee biopsy C. Arthrocentesis D. Electromyography

ANS: C Rationale: Arthrocentesis (joint aspiration) is carried out to obtain synovial fluid for purposes of examination or to relieve pain due to effusion. Arthrography, biopsy, and electromyography would not remove fluid and relieve pressure

5. A client with a total hip replacement has developed decreased breath sounds What is the nurse's best action? A. Place the client on bed rest. B. Request an antitussive medication from the health care provider. C. Encourage use of the incentive spirometer. D. Assess for signs and symptoms of systemic infection

ANS: C Rationale: Atelectasis may occur in the client after surgery and can be prevented with the use of an incentive spirometer. Since bedrest increases the risk for atelectasis and pneumonia after surgery, the client should be encouraged to ambulate and sit up in a chair rather than lie in bed. Since the client should be encouraged to deep breath and cough, requesting an antitussive medication for the client would not be appropriate. Atelectasis is not a clinical manifestation of infection

18. A clinic nurse is caring for a client with a history of osteoporosis. What diagnostic test will best allow the care team to assess the client's risk of fracture? A. Arthrography B. Bone scan C. Bone densitometry D. Arthroscopy

ANS: C Rationale: Bone densitometry is used to detect bone density and can be used to assess the risk of fracture in osteoporosis. Arthrography is used to detect acute or chronic tears of joint capsule or supporting ligaments. Bone scans can be used to detect metastatic and primary bone tumors, osteomyelitis, certain fractures, and aseptic necrosis. Arthroscopy is used to visualize a joint.

13. A nurse is reviewing the pathophysiology that may underlie a client's decreased bone density. What hormone should the nurse identify as inhibiting bone resorption and promoting bone formation? A. Estrogen B. Parathyroid hormone (PTH) C. Calcitonin D. Progesterone

ANS: C Rationale: Calcitonin inhibits bone resorption and promotes bone formation, estrogen inhibits bone breakdown, and parathyroid increases bone resorption. Estrogen, which inhibits bone breakdown, decreases with aging. Parathyroid hormone (PTH) increases with aging, increasing bone turnover and resorption. Progesterone is the major naturally occurring human progestogen and plays a role in the female menstrual cycle.

2. A nurse is discussing conservative management of tendonitis with a client. What is the nurse's best recommendation? A. Weight reduction B. Use of oral opioid analgesics C. Intermittent application of ice and heat D. Passive range of motion exercises

ANS: C Rationale: Conservative management of tendonitis includes rest of the extremity, intermittent ice and heat to the joint, and NSAIDs. Weight reduction may prevent future injuries but will not relieve existing tendonitis. Range-of-motion exercises may exacerbate pain. Opioids would not be considered a conservative treatment measure

9. A nurse is caring for a client with a bone tumor. The nurse is providing education to help the client reduce the risk for pathologic fractures. What should the nurse teach the client? A. Strive to achieve maximum weight-bearing capabilities. B. Gradually strengthen the affected muscles through weight training. C. Support the affected extremity with external supports such as splints. D. Limit reliance on assistive devices in order to build strength.

ANS: C Rationale: During nursing care, the affected extremities must be supported and handled gently. External supports (splints) may be used for additional protection. Prescribed weight-bearing restrictions must be followed. Assistive devices should be used to strengthen the unaffected extremities.

17. The nurse's comprehensive assessment of an older adult involves the assessment of the client's gait. How should the nurse best perform this assessment? A. Instruct the client to walk heel-to-toe for 15 to 20 steps. B. Instruct the client to walk in a straight line while not looking at the floor. C. Instruct the client to walk away from the nurse for a short distance and then toward the nurse. D. Instruct the client to balance on one foot for as long as possible and then walk in a circle around the room.

ANS: C Rationale: Gait is assessed by having the client walk away from the examiner for a short distance. The examiner observes the client's gait for smoothness and rhythm. Looking at the floor is not disallowed and gait is not assessed by observing balance on one leg. Heel-to-toe walking ability is not gauged during an assessment of normal gait.

2. A client is admitted to the orthopedic unit in skeletal traction for a fractured proximal femur. Which explanation should the nurse give the client about skeletal traction? A. "Skeletal traction temporarily stabilizes the fracture before surgery." B. "Weights are attached to the leg using a boot." C. "Traction involves passing a pin through the bone." D. "Light weights must be used with skeletal traction."

ANS: C Rationale: In skeletal traction, a metal pin or wire is passed through the bone and traction is then applied using ropes and weights attached to the pins. Skin traction, not skeletal traction, stabilizes the fracture until surgery is performed and uses a boot or Velcro to attach the ropes and weights to the leg. Skeletal traction is used when greater weight (11 to 18 kg [25 to 40 lb]) is needed to achieve the therapeutic effect.

15. A nurse is caring for a client who has been scheduled for a bone scan. Which statement should the nurse include when educating the client about this diagnostic test? A. "The test is brief and requires that you drink a calcium solution 2 hours before the test." B. "You will not be allowed fluid for 2 hours before and 3 hours after the test." C. "You will be encouraged to drink water after the administration of the radioisotope injection." D. "This is a common test that can be safely performed on anyone."

ANS: C Rationale: It is important to encourage the client to drink plenty of fluids to help distribute and eliminate the isotope after it is injected. There are important contraindications to the procedure, including pregnancy or an allergy to the radioisotope. The test requires the injection of an intravenous radioisotope, and the scan is performed 2 to 3 hours after the isotope is injected. A calcium solution is not used.

28. A nurse is taking a health history on a new client who has been experiencing unexplained paresthesia. What question should guide the nurse's assessment of the client's altered sensations? A. How does the strength in the affected extremity compare to the strength in the unaffected extremity? B. Does the color in the affected extremity match the color in the unaffected extremity? C. How does the feeling in the affected extremity compare with the feeling in the unaffected extremity? D. Does the client have a family history of paresthesia or other forms of altered sensation?

ANS: C Rationale: Questions that the nurse should ask regarding altered sensations include "How does this feeling compare to sensation in the unaffected extremity?" Asking questions about strength and color is not relevant and a family history is unlikely.

31. A nursing educator is reviewing the risk factors for osteoporosis with a group of recent graduates. What of the following risk factors should the educator describe? A. Recurrent infections and prolonged use of NSAIDs B. High alcohol intake and low body mass index C. Small frame and female sex D. Male sex, diabetes, and high protein intake

ANS: C Rationale: Small-framed women are at greatest risk for osteoporosis. Diabetes, high protein intake, alcohol use, and infections are not among the most salient risk factors for osteoporosis

6. A nurse is caring for a client who has a leg cast. The nurse observes the client using a pencil to scratch the skin under the edge of the cast. How should the nurse respond to this observation? A. Allow the client to gently scratch inside the cast with a pencil. B. Give the client a sterile tongue depressor to use for scratching instead of the pencil. C. Provide a fan to blow cool air into the cast to relieve itching, D. Obtain a prescription for a sedative, such as lorazepam, to prevent the client from scratching.

ANS: C Rationale: The client may receive relief from itching by using a fan or hair dryer to blow cool air into the cast. Scratching should be discouraged using a pencil or a sterile tongue depressor because of the risk for skin breakdown or damage to the cast. Benzodiazepines would not be given for this purpose.

32. A nurse is providing care for a client who has osteomalacia. What major goal should guide the choice of medical and nursing interventions? A. Maintenance of skin integrity B. Prevention of bone metastasis C. Maintenance of adequate levels of activated vitamin D D. Maintenance of adequate parathyroid hormone function

ANS: C Rationale: The primary defect in osteomalacia is a deficiency of activated vitamin D, which promotes calcium absorption from the gastrointestinal tract and facilitates mineralization of bone. Interventions are aimed at resolving the processes underlying this deficiency. Maintenance of skin integrity is important, but is not the primary goal in care. Osteomalacia is not a malignant process. Overproduction (not underproduction) of PTH can cause the disease.

22. A nurse is caring for a client who has an MRI scheduled. What is the priority safety action prior to this diagnostic procedure? A. Assessing the client for signs and symptoms of active infection B. Ensuring that the client can remain immobile for up to 3 hours C. Assessing the client for a history of nut allergies D. Ensuring that there are no metal objects on or in the client

ANS: D Rationale: Absolutely no metal objects can be present during MRI—their presence constitutes a serious safety risk. The procedure takes up to 90 minutes. Nut allergies and infection are not contraindications to MRI.

13. During assessment, a client reports experiencing rhythmic muscle contractions when the nurse performs passive extension of the wrist. The nurse should recognize the presence of which condition? A. Fasciculations B. Contractures C. Effusion D. Clonus

ANS: D Rationale: Clonus may occur when the ankle is dorsiflexed or the wrist is extended. It is characterized as rhythmic contractions of the muscle. Fasciculation is involuntary twitching of muscle fiber groups. Contractures are prolonged tightening of muscle groups, and an effusion is the pathologic escape of body fluid.

5. A nurse is providing a class on osteoporosis at the local center for older adults. Which statement related to osteoporosis is most accurate? A. High levels of vitamin D can cause osteoporosis. B. A nonmodifiable risk factor for osteoporosis is a person's level of activity. C. Secondary osteoporosis occurs in women after menopause. D. The use of corticosteroids increases the risk of osteoporosis.

ANS: D Rationale: Corticosteroid therapy is a secondary cause of osteoporosis when taken for long-term use. Adequate levels of vitamin D are needed for absorption of calcium. A person's level of physical activity is a modifiable factor that influences peak bone mass. Lack of activity increases the risk for the development of osteoporosis. Primary osteoporosis occurs in women after menopause.

19. A nurse is performing a musculoskeletal assessment of a client with arthritis. During passive range-of-motion exercises, the nurse hears an audible grating sound. The nurse should document the presence of what assessment finding? A. Fasciculations B. Clonus C. Effusion D. Crepitus

ANS: D Rationale: Crepitus is a grating, crackling sound or sensation that occurs as the irregular joint surfaces move across one another, as in arthritic conditions. Fasciculations are involuntary twitching of muscle fiber groups. Clonus is the rhythmic contractions of a muscle. Effusion is the collection of excessive fluid within the capsule of a joint

14. A client is undergoing diagnostic testing for osteomalacia. Which of the following laboratory results are most suggestive of this diagnosis? A. High chloride, calcium, and magnesium levels B. High parathyroid and calcitonin levels C. Low serum calcium and magnesium levels D. Low serum calcium and low phosphorus level

ANS: D Rationale: Laboratory studies in clients with osteomalacia will reveal a low serum calcium and low phosphorus level.

23. A nurse is reviewing the care of a client who has a long history of lower back pain that has not responded to conservative treatment measures. The nurse should anticipate the administration of what drug? A. Calcitonin B. Prednisone C. Aspirin D. Cyclobenzaprine

ANS: D Rationale: Short-term prescription muscle relaxants (e.g., cyclobenzaprine [Flexeril]) are effective in relieving acute low back pain. ASA is not normally used for pain control, due to its antiplatelet action and associated risk for bleeding. Calcitonin and corticosteroids are not usually used in the treatment of lower back pain

15. A client who had a total hip replacement two days ago reports new onset calf tenderness to the nurse. Which action should the nurse take? A. Administer pain medication. B. Massage the client's calf. C. Apply antiembolic stockings. D. Notify the health care provider

ANS: D Rationale: Since calf tenderness may be a sign of deep vein thrombosis (DVT), the nurse should notify the health care provider about this finding. The nurse should not administer pain medication since it is prescribed for surgical pain and this tenderness in the calf should not be masked until it is evaluated. The nurse should not massage the client's calf as this may dislodge a thrombus. Antiembolic stockings should be worn prophylactically to prevent DVT but are not applied to treat DVT.

37. A client who has had an amputation is being cared for by a multidisciplinary rehabilitation team. What is the primary goal of this multidisciplinary team? A. Maximize the efficiency of care. B. Ensure that the client's health care is holistic. C. Facilitate the client's adjustment to a new body image. D. Promote the client's highest possible level of function

ANS: D Rationale: The multidisciplinary rehabilitation team helps the client achieve the highest possible level of function and participation in life activities. The team is not primarily motivated by efficiency, the need for holistic care, or the need to foster the client's body image, despite the fact that each of these are valid goals.

4. A nurse is teaching an educational class to a group of older adults at a community center. In an effort to prevent osteoporosis, the nurse should encourage participants to ensure that they consume the recommended intake of what nutrients? Select all that apply. A. Vitamin B12 B. Potassium C. Calcitonin D. Calcium E. Vitamin D

ANS: D, E Rationale: A diet rich in calcium and vitamin D protects against skeletal demineralization. Intake of vitamin B12 and potassium does not directly influence the risk for osteoporosis. Calcitonin is not considered to be a dietary nutrient.

16. A client has returned to the unit after undergoing limb-sparing surgery to remove a metastatic bone tumor. The nurse providing postoperative care in the days following surgery assesses for what complication from surgery? A. Deficient fluid volume B. Delayed wound healing C. Hypocalcemia D. Pathologic fractures

B Rationale: Delayed wound healing is a complication of surgery due to tissue trauma from the surgery. Nutritional deficiency is usually due to the effects of chemotherapy and radiation therapy, which may cause weight loss. Pathologic fractures are not a complication of surgery.

29. A nurse is caring for a client who is being treated in the hospital for a spontaneous vertebral fracture related to osteoporosis. The nurse should address the nursing diagnosis of Acute Pain Related to Fracture by implementing what intervention? A. Maintenance of high Fowler positioning whenever possible B. Intermittent application of heat to the client's back C. Use of a pressure-reducing mattress D. Passive range of motion exercises

B Rationale: Intermittent local heat and back rubs promote muscle relaxation following osteoporotic vertebral fractures. High Fowler positioning is likely to exacerbate pain. The mattress must be adequately supportive, but pressure reduction is not necessarily required. Passive range of motion exercises to the back would cause pain and impair healing

18. A client has recently been admitted to the orthopedic unit following total hip arthroplasty. The nurse assesses that the indwelling urinary catheter was removed one hour ago in the post-anesthesia care unit and that the client has not yet voided. Which action should the nurse take? A. Inform the primary provider promptly. B. Ask if the client needs to void. C. Perform intermittent catheterization. D. Obtain an order to reinsert the indwelling urinary catheter

B Rationale: Since the indwelling urinary catheter was removed one hour earlier, the client would be expected to void within the next five hours (six hours after removal of the catheter). The nurse should ask the client if there is an urge to void. If the client does not feel the urge to void, the nurse should check periodically over the next 5 hours. Since not voiding within one hour of catheter removal is within normal, the nurse does not need to inform the health care provider, perform intermittent catheterization, or obtain an order to insert an indwelling catheter