NASM CPT 7

Current sports nutrition guidelines from the International Society of Sports Nutrition recommend what range of protein for most exercising individuals? a. 1.4 to 2.0 g/kg of body weight b. 1.0 to 2.0 g/kg of body weight c. 1.6 to 2.2 g/kg of body weight d. 1.5 to 2.5 g/kg of body weight

1.4 to 2.0 g/kg of body weight

How many repetitions of each SAQ drill is appropriate for youth athletes? a. 3 to 5 reps b. 1 or 2 reps c. 8 to 10 reps d. 6 to 8 reps

3 to 5 reps

You have a client seeking weight loss. What number of repetitions is most appropriate for SAQ drills? a. 3 to 5 reps b. 8 to 10 reps c. 6 to 8 reps d. 1 or 2 reps

3 to 5 reps

What rate of oxygen utilization defines one metabolic equivalent (MET), a value representing the amount of oxygen utilized at true rest? a. 2.5 mL/kg/min b. 5.0 mL/kg/min c. 3.5 mL/kg/min d. 7.0 mL/kg/min

3.5 mL/kg/min

What is the recommendation of minutes per week for cardiorespiratory training, if participating in vigorous-intensity exercise (e.g., jogging or running)? a. 120 minutes per week b. 60 minutes per week c. 90 minutes per week d. 75 minutes per week

75 minutes per week

How many B vitamins are there? a. 3 b. 21 c. 8 d. 12

8

How many Essential Amino Acids (EAAs) are there? a. 9 b. 7 c. 11 d. 3

9

Which of the following statements describes the abdominal skinfold location? a. A vertical skinfold taken on the mid-axillary line at the level of the xiphoid process (which is typically just below the nipple line) b. A diagonal fold taken immediately superior to and in line with the natural angle of the iliac crest (top portion of the hip bone), aligned with the anterior axillary line c. A vertical skinfold taken 1 inch lateral to the umbilicus (belly button) d. A horizontal skinfold taken 1 inch lateral to the umbilicus (belly button)

A vertical skinfold taken 1 inch lateral to the umbilicus (belly button)

Which of the following reflects the characteristics of moderate-intensity exercise? a. Inability to talk comfortably during exercise with some breathlessness in the average untrained individual b. Ability to talk comfortably during exercise without breathlessness in the average untrained individual c. Ability to talk easily during exercise without any indication of breathlessness in the average untrained individual d. The inability to talk at all during exercise with breathlessness in the average untrained individual

Ability to talk comfortably during exercise without breathlessness in the average untrained individual

Which of the following is a ketone body? a. Glycogen b. Acetoacetic acid c. Lactic acid d. Pyruvate

Acetoacetic acid

What mechanism is responsible for increasing the rate of heart conduction? a. Activation of sarcomeres b. Activation of the parasympathetic nervous system c. Activation of the intercalated discs d. Activation of the sympathetic nervous system

Activation of the sympathetic nervous system

The anterior oblique subsystem includes which of the following muscle groups? a. Adductor (inner) thigh muscles, obliques, and hip external rotators b. Hamstrings and erector spinae c. Thoracolumbar fascia and contralateral gluteus maximus d. Adductors (inner thigh) and contralateral quadratus lumborum

Adductor (inner) thigh muscles, obliques, and hip external rotators

What are the components of ATP? a. Adenine, ribose, and two phosphate groups b. Adenine, ribose, and three phosphate groups c. Adenine, amino acids, and three phosphate groups d. Adenine, glucose, and one phosphate group

Adenine, ribose, and three phosphate groups

Which of the following would occur during intermittent exercise? a. Fat would be the main energy source. b. Carbohydrates would not be a major energy source. c. A steady-state intensity would be used. d. All three energy systems would be used at some point during the activity.

All three energy systems would be used at some point during the activity.

Which statement best defines the concept of relative flexibility? a. Inability to stretch multiple muscles for long periods b. Ability to stretch only one muscle c. Altered movement patterns d. Ability to stretch in small increments

Altered movement patterns

Competitive athletes who performed balance training exercises reduced the risk of which injury by 46%? a. Medial collateral ligament injuries b. Ankle sprains c. Anterior cruciate ligament injuries d. Concussions

Ankle sprains

Which division of the skeleton is made up of the arms, legs, and pelvic girdle? a. Lateral b. Axial c. Appendicular d. Peripheral

Appendicular

For what is vitamin D most important? a. Eyesight b. Bone health c. Hair growth d. Skin pigmentation Feedback

Bone health

Which of the following muscles is primarily targeted when performing a biceps curl exercise with the thumb up? a. Brachialis b. Biceps brachii c. Brachioradialis d. Triceps brachii

Brachioradialis

What type of muscle action would expend the highest amount of energy at a fixed resistance level over a comparable duration? a. Isotonic b. Isometric c. Eccentric d. Concentric

Concentric

Which term best describes the ability to contract muscles of the core with force in an effort to flex the trunk during a slow controlled movement? a. Core power b. Core strength c. Core stability d. Core endurance

Core strength

What is the superior boundary of the core? a. Abdominal muscles b. Lumbar spine and gluteal muscles c. Diaphragm d. Pelvic floor and hip musculature

Diaphragm

Clients with chronic lung disease often have shortness of breath, also known as which of the following? a. Hypoxia b. Pulmonary hypoplasia c. Pneumonia d. Dyspnea

Dyspnea

What concept allows a person to jump higher during plyometric exercises? a. Ankle stability b. Concentric contractions c. Increased amortization d. Eccentric loading

Eccentric loading

According to the "iceberg effect," which of the following training adaptations are considered "surface level"? a. Endurance b. Proper movement c. Mobility d. Stability

Endurance

What is the correct order of fascia, starting with the most superficial? a. Perimysium, endomysium, epimysium b. Epimysium, perimysium, endomysium c. Epimysium, endomysium, perimysium d. Endomysium, perimysium, epimysium

Epimysium, perimysium, endomysium

Which muscle functions as part of the global muscular system? a. Erector spinae b. Internal oblique c. Multifidus d. Transversus abdominis

Erector spinae

Which of the following is considered a superficial muscle of the core? a. Multifidus b. Erector spinae c. Pelvic floor muscles d. Transverse abdominis

Erector spinae

What is the primary function of the global muscles of the core? a. Limiting strain on the vertebral discs b. Stabilize individual vertebral segments c. Force production during dynamic whole-body movements d. Limit excessive compression between vertebral segments

Force production during dynamic whole-body movements

What term is used to describe the premise that increased ventricular filling improves contractile force of the heart as a result of greater stretch of cardiac fibers? a. Valsalva maneuver b. Frank Starling Law of the Heart c. Peripheral resistance d. Venous pooling

Frank Starling Law of the Heart

Which of the following is a limiting factor for how long anaerobic glycolysis can proceed? a. Depletion of phosphocreatine b. Lack of pyruvate c. Free hydrogen ions d. Lack of fatty acids

Free hydrogen ions

Scoliosis refers to deviations of the spine in which plane of motion? a. Frontal plane b. Sagittal plane c. Transverse plane d. Horizontal plane

Frontal plane

Which muscle would be considered underactive, leading to the excessive forward trunk lean during the overhead squat assessment? a. Gastrocnemius and soleus b. Rectus abdominis c. Hip flexor complex d. Gluteus maximus

Gluteus maximus

Which muscle would be considered underactive, leading to the low back arching during the overhead squat assessment? a. Hip flexor complex b. Latissimus dorsi c. Gluteus maximus d. Lumbar extensors

Gluteus maximus

The deep longitudinal subsystem includes which of the following muscle groups? a. Thoracolumbar fascia and contralateral gluteus maximus b. Adductors (inner thigh) and hip external rotators c. Adductors (inner thigh) and contralateral quadratus lumborum d. Hamstrings and erector spinae

Hamstrings and erector spinae

Which of the following would make a person better at oxidizing fat? a. Having more glycogen stored in their muscle b. Having more mitochondria in their muscle c. Having less oxygen delivery to the muscle d. Having more fat stored on their body

Having more mitochondria in their muscle

During a squat, which muscle group isometrically contracts to prevent unnecessary thigh movement in the frontal plane? a. Hip internal rotators b. Hip abductors c. Hip flexors d. Hip extensors

Hip abductors

What is defined as the state of elevated glucose in the bloodstream? a. Hyperglycemia b. Hypotension c. Hypertension d. Hypoglycemia

Hyperglycemia

What is the best next progression for a client who can properly perform the power step-up exercise? a. Squat jump b. Proprioceptive plyometrics c. Ice skaters d. Depth jumps

Ice skaters

The center of gravity moves in which direction when the knees and hips are equally flexed bilaterally? a. Medially b. Superiorly c. Laterally d. Inferiorly

Inferiorly

What muscles does the tubing (shoulder) external rotation exercise primarily target? a. Quadratus lumborum and erector spinae b. Rectus femoris and biceps femoris c. Levator scapulae and sternocleidomastoid d. Infraspinatus and teres minor

Infraspinatus and teres minor

What component of breathing improves blood flow back to the heart? a. Expiration with an increase in intrathoracic pressure b. Inspiration with a decrease in intrathoracic pressure c. Inspiration with an increase in intrathoracic pressure d. Expiration with a decrease in intrathoracic pressure

Inspiration with a decrease in intrathoracic pressure

What condition is characterized by the narrowing of coronary arteries? a. Ischemic heart disease b. Heart valve problem c. Arrhythmia d. Hypertension

Ischemic heart disease

Which of the following describes a benefit of high-intensity interval training (HIIT)? a. It can produce superior results to traditional cardio exercise in the same period of time, but with a smaller volume of work. b. It can produce superior results to traditional cardio exercise in a compressed period of time, but with a larger volume of work. c. It can produce comparable results to traditional cardio exercise in a compressed period of time with a smaller volume of work. d. It can produce comparable results to traditional cardio exercise in the same period of time with a similar volume of work

It can produce comparable results to traditional cardio exercise in a compressed period of time with a smaller volume of work.

When performing a floor bridge exercise, why should you not raise the hips too far off the floor? a. It may place too much stress on the cervical spine through hyperflexion. b. It may place excessive stress on the lumbar spine through hyperextension. c. It may place too much stress on the lumbar spine through hyperflexion. d. It may place excessive stress on the thoracic spine through hyperflexion.

It may place excessive stress on the lumbar spine through hyperextension.

Which of the following exercises provides the most challenge for the antirotational stabilizing muscles? a. Sandbag rotational lunge b. Stability ball abdominal crunches c. Cable machine single-arm row d. Kettlebell RDL

Kettlebell RDL

Which heart chamber gathers oxygenated blood coming to the heart from the lungs? a. Left ventricle b. Left atrium c. Right atrium d. Pulmonary veins

Left atrium

Which heart chamber receives oxygenated blood and pumps it to the body? a. Right ventricle b. Left ventricle c. Right atrium d. Left atrium

Left ventricle

Which of the following tests is used to measure lateral speed and agility? a. Pro shuttle b. 40-yard dash c. Vertical jump d. Lower extremity functional test (LEFT)

Lower extremity functional test (LEFT)

Which of the following exercises may increase inaccurate readings while utilizing a wrist-worn heart rate monitor? a. Medicine ball catch and pass b. Stability ball plank c. Suspended bodyweight crunch d. Barbell squats

Medicine ball catch and pass

Which muscle would be considered underactive, leading to arms falling forward in the overhead squat assessment? a. Pectoralis major b. Latissimus dorsi c. Middle and lower trapezius d. Teres major

Middle and lower trapezius

Compared to nonheme iron, heme iron is absorbed how? a. Equally b. Not at all c. More efficiently d. Less efficiently

More efficiently

Which muscle functions in a feed-forward mechanism in anticipation of limb movements? a. Erector spinae b. Gluteus maximus c. Multifidus d. Rectus abdominis

Multifidus

Which joint has the simplest movement, moving either back and forth or side to side? a. Nonaxial b. Synovial c. Nonsynovial d. Condyloid

Nonaxial

Flexibility is defined as the following: a. A muscle's capability to be elongated or stretched b. Optimal flexibility, joint range of motion, and the ability to move freely c. The degree to which specific joints or body segments can move, often measured in degrees d. Normal extensibility of all soft tissues that allows for complete range of motion

Normal extensibility of all soft tissues that allows for complete range of motion

Which disease is caused by a degeneration of cartilage within joints? a. Osteoarthritis b. Osteopenia c. Osteoporosis d. Rheumatoid arthritis

Osteoarthritis

Which type of training would most likely lead to increased levels of testosterone, insulin-like growth factors, and growth hormone? a. Overload training that is of a high intensity with limited rest periods b. Overload training that is of a low intensity with limited rest periods c. Overload training that is of a high intensity with prolonged rest periods d. Overload training that is of low intensity with prolonged rest periods

Overload training that is of a high intensity with limited rest periods

What is best defined as the action of expanding the diameter of a blood vessel near the surface of the skin, which helps remove heat from the body? a. Peripheral vasodilation b. Blood pressure c. Heart rate d. Thermoregulation

Peripheral vasodilation

Which term describes the act of lightly pushing on a client's shoulders when they are balancing on one foot so they can learn to maintain or recover balance? a. Somatosensation b. Sensorimotor function c. Neuromuscular control d. Perturbation

Perturbation

When ADP is converted to ATP, what is this process called? a. Transformation b. Phosphorylation c. Oxidation d. ATP-PC

Phosphorylation

Which component of blood is primarily responsible for clotting mechanisms? a. White blood cells b. Platelets c. Plasma d. Red blood cells

Platelets

Contraction of the hamstring and rectus abdominis muscles create what motion of the pelvis in the sagittal plane? a. Anterior pelvic tilt b. Lateral pelvic tilt c. Medial pelvic tilt d. Posterior pelvic tilt

Posterior pelvic tilt

Which nutrient has the highest thermic effect? Select one: a. Carbohydrate b. Glycogen c. Fat d. Protein

Protein

A Certified Personal Trainer wants to improve a client's outcome expectations for resistance training. What behavior change technique might they use? a. Improving their confidence for their technique b. Helping them make a plan c. Providing information on the health benefits d. Helping make the exercises fun

Providing information on the health benefits

Research has demonstrated that moderate-intensity exercise is best for which of the following? a. Winning a triathlon b. Providing psychological benefits c. Reducing burnout d. Developing intrinsic motivation

Providing psychological benefits

Horizontal adduction is most common during what type of movement? a. Pushing b. Pulling c. Hip hinge d. Squatting

Pushing

When glucose is broken down via glycolysis, what molecule is created that could also be oxidized under aerobic conditions? a. Amino acids b. Pyruvate c. Glycogen d. Fatty acids

Pyruvate

What is defined as the ability to react and change body position with maximal force production, in all planes of motion, and from all body positions? a. Speed b. Agility c. Quickness d. Strength

Quickness

Which of the following is not a skill-related concept that would enhance core training? a. Coordination b. Balance c. Quickness d. Agility

Quickness

Active and dynamic stretching utilize which physiological action? a. Lengthening reaction b. Length-tension relationships c. Reciprocal inhibition d. Synergistic dominance

Reciprocal inhibition

During the standing cable chest press, the resistance should be positioned to do what? a. Pull the elbows into extension b. Resist shoulder extension and scapular retraction c. Pull the shoulders into flexion and scapular protraction d. Resist shoulder horizontal adduction

Resist shoulder horizontal adduction

What is the primary goal of repeating flexibility training during a cool-down? a. Improve sports skills b. Correct muscle imbalances c. Restore optimal length-tension relationships d. Increase maximal strength

Restore optimal length-tension relationships

What are the two primary actions of the Golgi tendon organ? a. Sense the amount of isometric tendon force and speed of shortening b. Sense the amount of eccentric tendon force and joint range of motion c. Sense change in muscle-tendon tension and speed of tension change d. Sense the change in muscle contraction and the speed of the nerve impulse

Sense change in muscle-tendon tension and speed of tension change

The upper trapezius works with what muscle as a force couple to create upward rotation of the scapula? a. Serratus anterior b. Rotator cuff muscles c. Deltoid d. Rhomboids

Serratus anterior

What is the primary action of the multifidus? a. Stabilize and extend the spine b. Regulate inspiration c. Support the contents of the pelvis d. Increase intra-abdominal pressure

Stabilize and extend the spine

What is the complete transition from eccentric to concentric muscle actions known as? a. Amortization phase b. Loading phase c. Stretch-shortening cycle d. Unloading phase

Stretch-shortening cycle

An obese client who has been diagnosed with peripheral artery disease (PAD) should be advised to do which of the following? a. Strive for 20 to 30 minutes of continuous aerobic exercise daily. b. Substitute self-myofascial release for static stretching. c. Avoid walking and jogging and opt for cycling. d. Avoid aerobic exercise for lower extremities.

Strive for 20 to 30 minutes of continuous aerobic exercise daily.

Which muscles may be overactive with knee valgus during the overhead squat? a. Gluteus maximus and medius b. Tensor fascia latae and adductor complex c. Upper trapezius d. Hip flexors

Tensor fascia latae and adductor complex

What is end-diastolic volume? a. The amount of blood in the ventricle before contraction b. The amount of blood pumped out of the heart with each contraction c. The volume of blood pumped by the heart per minute d. The amount of blood remaining in the ventricle after contraction

The amount of blood in the ventricle before contraction

What is a kilocalorie (kcal)? a. Unlike 1 food calorie, this is the amount of energy needed to raise 1 kilogram of water by 1 degree Celsius. b. The amount of energy needed to raise 1 kilogram of water by 1 degree Celsius. It is equal to 1,000 food calories. c. The amount of energy needed to raise 1 pound of water by 1 degree Celsius. It is also the same thing as 1 food calorie. d. The amount of energy needed to raise 1 kilogram of water by 1 degree Celsius. It is also the same thing as 1 food calorie.

The amount of energy needed to raise 1 kilogram of water by 1 degree Celsius. It is also the same thing as 1 food calorie.

In most individuals, to what pressure is the blood pressure cuff inflated when measuring resting blood pressure? a. The cuff is inflated to a value 5 to 10 mm Hg above the point at which the pulse can no longer be felt at the wrist. b. The cuff is inflated to a value 45 to 55 mm Hg above the point at which the pulse can no longer be felt at the wrist. c. The cuff is inflated to a value of 20 to 30 mm Hg above the point at which the pulse can no longer be felt at the wrist. d. The cuff is inflated to a value 70 to 80 mm Hg above the point at which the pulse can no longer be felt at the wrist.

The cuff is inflated to a value of 20 to 30 mm Hg above the point at which the pulse can no longer be felt at the wrist.

What is reached when a talk test during exercise reveals a client to be working at ventilatory threshold 2? a. The level at which the body can work at its highest sustainable steady-state intensity for more than a few minutes b. The point at which the body uses an equal mix of carbohydrate and fat as fuel sources c. The level at which the body can work at its highest sustainable steady-state intensity for only few seconds d. The ability to talk or hold a conversation during an activity at various intensity levels

The level at which the body can work at its highest sustainable steady-state intensity for more than a few minutes

How is osteopenia best described? a. The loss of bone density related to the aging process. b. A bone weakness disease caused by vitamin D deficiency. c. An age-related loss of muscle mass resulting in weakness and frailty in older adults. d. A disease characterized by low bone density.

The loss of bone density related to the aging process.

What is the ventilatory threshold 1 (VT1)? a. The point at which the body uses mostly protein as fuel for exercise b. The point at which the body switches to using carbohydrates to provide at least half the fuel for exercise c. The point at which a person can no longer talk during exercise d. The point at which the body switches to using mostly fat as fuel for exercise

The point at which the body switches to using carbohydrates to provide at least half the fuel for exercise

What is atherosclerosis? a. The state of deficient glucose in the bloodstream. b. The processes by which plaque is formed in arteries leading to reduced blood flow c. A normal physiologic process of aging that results in arteries that are less elastic and pliable d. The state of elevated glucose in the bloodstream

The processes by which plaque is formed in arteries leading to reduced blood flow

If pyruvate is being created via glycolysis faster than oxygen can be delivered to the muscle, what will happen to the pyruvate? a. The pyruvate will be converted to lactate. b. The pyruvate will be stored in the muscle. c. The pyruvate will be oxidized via oxidative phosphorylation. d. The pyruvate will be converted to acetyl CoA.

The pyruvate will be converted to lactate.

What are triglycerides? a. The stored form of fat b. The stored form of carbohydrate c. A substrate for high-intensity exercise d. A substrate for anaerobic exercise

The stored form of fat

A hypertensive client is taking a beta-blocker medication. What is the most appropriate method to monitor exercise intensity? a. Haskell's 220-minus-age formula b. Metabolic Equivalent (MET) c. The Tanaka formula d. The talk test

The talk test

Which of the following statements regarding true Tabata training is considered accurate? a. The work-to-recovery intervals are 1:2 (20 sec work + 40 sec recovery) for a total of 10 intervals. b. The work-to-recovery intervals are 3:1 (30 sec work + 10 sec recovery) for a total of 12 intervals. c. The total duration of the workout is 4 minutes long and performed at 170% of VO2max. d. The total duration of the workout is 20 minutes long and performed at near maximal effort.

The total duration of the workout is 4 minutes long and performed at 170% of VO2max.

Which of the following best describes the role of micronutrients in the body? a. They provide some calories, and they are required for the regulation of muscle protein synthesis and glucose metabolism. b. They are the primary energy source during short, high-intensity training. c. They are the primary source of energy for all physiologic processes. d. They regulate various metabolic processes, including energy metabolism.

They regulate various metabolic processes, including energy metabolism.

What are common physical characteristics of those with emphysema? a. Those with emphysema are frequently overweight and may exhibit atrophied neck muscles. b. Those with emphysema frequently display knee valgus and pes planus. c. Those with emphysema frequently display high oxygen content in the blood. d. Those with emphysema are frequently underweight and may exhibit hypertrophied neck muscles.

Those with emphysema are frequently underweight and may exhibit hypertrophied neck muscles.

Ergogenic aids are typically consumed for what purpose? a. For general well-being b. To correct nutrient imbalances c. To improve athletic performance and/or body composition d. To mitigate the side effects of medication

To improve athletic performance and/or body composition

What is the intended outcome of stage 2 training? a. To introduce individuals to exercise and improve general health and fitness, or to provide recovery following higher-intensity exercise sessions b. To increase the capacity of the anaerobic energy system for high-level athletes and fitness enthusiasts seeking improvements in anaerobic capacity and power c. To increase the capacity of aerobic and anaerobic energy systems for clients seeking further improvements in exercise capacity d. To increase the workload (e.g., speed, incline) in a way that helps clients exercise at higher intensities and achieve greater levels of aerobic fitness

To increase the workload (e.g., speed, incline) in a way that helps clients exercise at higher intensities and achieve greater levels of aerobic fitness

Which muscle acts to increase intra-abdominal pressure? a. Quadratus lumborum b. Pelvic floor musculature c. Diaphragm d. Transverse abdominis

Transverse abdominis

Which of the following protein structures is important for muscular contractions by providing a binding site? a. Troponin b. Myosin c. Fascicles d. Actin

Troponin

Which type of muscle fiber has a large number of capillaries? a. Type I b. Type III c. Type IIx d. Type IIa

Type I

What are the three branched chain amino acids (BCAAs)? a. Valine, leucine, and isoleucine b. Alanine, glutamine, and tyrosine c. Methionine, tryptophan, and lysine d. Histidine, threonine, and phenylalanine

Valine, leucine, and isoleucine

What is the most valid measurement of aerobic fitness? a. 1.5-mile (2.4-km) run test b. V̇O2max c. YMCA 3-minute step test d. Rockport walk test

V̇O2max

Which of the following tests uses recovery heart rate rather than exercising heart rate to evaluate cardiorespiratory fitness levels? a. Ventilatory threshold 1 (VT1) test b. 1.5-mile (2.4-km) run test c. Rockport 1-mile walk test d. YMCA 3-minute step test

YMCA 3-minute step test