NASM Practice Test
Which of the following is considered a closed-chain exercise? Select one: a. Biceps curls b. Push-ups c. Machine leg extension d. Lat pulldown
Feedback The correct answer is: Push-ups
What is the corresponding heart rate for an intensity scored as 14 on the original Borg 6 to 20 scale of exertion? Select one: a. Unable to estimate because the Borg 6 to 20 scale applies only to vigorous exercise b. 140 beats per minute c. 120 beats per minute d. Unable to estimate because RPE does not correlate with heart rate
The correct answer is: 140 beats per minute
At what age is total peak bone mass reached? Select one: a. 30 b. 35 c. 18 d. 25
The correct answer is: 30
You are training a youth client. What is the best choice for number of SAQ drills per workout for this athlete? Select one: a. 2 or 3 drills per workout b. 4 to 8 drills per workout c. 1 or 2 drills per workout d. 9 or 10 drills per workout
The correct answer is: 4 to 8 drills per workout
What is the recommended recovery time between bouts of plyometric training for novice clients? Select one: a. 1 week b. 24 hours c. 12 hours d. 48 to 72 hours
The correct answer is: 48 to 72 hours
What is a key characteristic of plyometric exercise? Select one: a. Stabilization of the LPHC b. Use of heavy weights c. Slow and controlled movements d. A faster tempo, similar to daily life
The correct answer is: A faster tempo, similar to daily life
What statement best describes a premium health club? Select one: a. A health club that features multiple group-fitness studio options and provides a selection of high-end amenities b. A health club that uses revenue from fitness programs and memberships to cover operational costs, improve facilities, and fund a wide range of community-based initiatives c. A private health club offered only at luxury resorts and golf courses d. A health club that offers a low-price membership, often including very few amenities other than access to exercise equipment
The correct answer is: A health club that features multiple group-fitness studio options and provides a selection of high-end amenities
What is the Valsalva maneuver? Select one: a. The process by which the human body strives to maintain a relatively stable equilibrium b. The process of increasing the intensity or volume of exercise programs using a systematic and gradual approach c. A process that involves expiring against a closed windpipe, creating additional intra-abdominal pressure and spinal stability d. The body's ability to naturally sense its general orientation and relative position of its parts
The correct answer is: A process that involves expiring against a closed windpipe, creating additional intra-abdominal pressure and spinal stability
What is the peripheral heart action system? Select one: a. A system that involves breaking up the body into parts to be trained on separate days b. A variation of circuit training that alternates upper body and lower body exercises throughout the circuit c. A system that involves performing a series of exercises, one after the other, with minimal rest d. A system that incorporates a slight pause between repetitions within a series of sets
The correct answer is: A variation of circuit training that alternates upper body and lower body exercises throughout the circuit
Core and balance exercises are a component of which part of an OPT workout? Select one: a. Resistance training b. Client's choice c. Skill development d. Activation
The correct answer is: Activation
Which option is a common strength-focused resistance training exercise? Select one: a. Barbell bench press b. Medicine ball soccer throw c. Box jumps d. Single-leg cable row
The correct answer is: Barbell bench press
What is a body composition assessment technique that estimates body fat percentage by measuring the resistance to the flow of electrical currents introduced into the body? Select one: a. Skinfold measurements b. Body mass index (BMI) c. Anthropometry d. Bioelectrical impedance analysis (BIA)
The correct answer is: Bioelectrical impedance analysis (BIA)
Which of the following is true about the biologically active forms of vitamins? Select one: a. Biologically active forms are most effective for augmenting body levels. b. Biologically active forms are less efficient. c. Biologically active forms lead to deficiency. d. Biologically active forms lead to toxicity.
The correct answer is: Biologically active forms are most effective for augmenting body levels.
What term best describes the amount of mineral content, such as calcium and phosphorous, in a segment of bone? Select one: a. Bone density b. Sarcopenia c. Osteopenia d. Osteoporosis
The correct answer is: Bone density
What term is used to describe combined muscle contraction (co-contraction) of the global muscles of the core? Select one: a. Drawing in b. Bracing c. Isolating d. Inhibition
The correct answer is: Bracing
During the course of a training session, a client remarks that he is "cutting out all carbs" from his diet and just eating protein and vegetables to lose weight. How might you best respond to this, while staying within your scope of practice as a fitness professional? Select one: a. Carbohydrates contribute excess calories in our diet, and avoiding them is an effective weight-loss strategy during training. b. Carbohydrates provide more calories per gram than protein and fat, so they should be limited for effective weight loss. c. Carbohydrates are not required unless training for long periods of time; so, as long as sessions are kept short, this strategy should be fine. d. Carbohydrates are an important source of fuel for our body, and it is unnecessary to avoid them for weight loss. Cutting carbs may lead to inadequate fuel for optimal training, which can compromise weight-loss efforts.
The correct answer is: Carbohydrates are an important source of fuel for our body, and it is unnecessary to avoid them for weight loss. Cutting carbs may lead to inadequate fuel for optimal training, which can compromise weight-loss efforts.
What is the primary muscle type of the heart? Select one: a. Smooth b. Skeletal c. Myofibril d. Cardiac
The correct answer is: Cardiac
Which statement about a Certified Personal Trainer's scope of practice is accurate? Select one: a. The scope of practice for Certified Personal Trainers is consistent globally. b. Certified Personal Trainers have specific governmental regulations that define their scope of practice. c. Certified Personal Trainers do not diagnose or treat areas of pain or disease. d. Once certified, a personal trainer is bound by law in the United States to a specific scope of practice.
The correct answer is: Certified Personal Trainers do not diagnose or treat areas of pain or disease.
What disease is a condition of altered airflow through the lungs, generally caused by airway obstruction due to mucus production? Select one: a. Type 2 (secondary) osteoporosis b. Chronic obstructive lung disease c. Type 2 diabetes d. Type 1 diabetes
The correct answer is: Chronic obstructive lung disease
For which of the following populations is the floor bridge exercise contraindicated? Select one: a. Clients who are in the third trimester of pregnancy b. Clients with an underactive gluteal complex c. Youth clients between the ages of 4 and 8, in whom growth plates are not fused d. Clients with no comorbidities but who sit for extended periods of time
The correct answer is: Clients who are in the third trimester of pregnancy
What type of muscle action would expend the highest amount of energy at a fixed resistance level over a comparable duration? Select one: a. Eccentric b. Isometric c. Concentric d. Isotonic
The correct answer is: Concentric
Which section of the NASM Code of Professional Conduct requires that client records are disposed of in a secure manner? Select one: a. Business practice b. Confidentiality c. Professionalism d. Legal and ethical
The correct answer is: Confidentiality
Which of the following reasons for group exercise participation is described as having a schedule and being able to anticipate what the exercise experience will be like? Select one: a. Intensity b. Consistency c. Accountability d. Mindlessness
The correct answer is: Consistency
When a person is thinking about implementing change but has not yet taken any steps to get started, what stage of change are they likely in? Select one: a. Action b. Maintenance c. Contemplation d. Precontemplation
The correct answer is: Contemplation
Which of the following is a behavior change technique where clients list potential barriers and make plans to overcome them? Select one: a. Coping responses b. Implementation intentions c. Resisting social pressure d. Self-monitoring
The correct answer is: Coping responses
Which chronic disease is the leading cause of death in the world today? Select one: a. Coronary artery disease b. Dementia c. Cancer d. Diabetes
The correct answer is: Coronary artery disease
What marketing strategy would be most effective at helping a fitness professional tell a story and create an instantly recognizable level of service? Select one: a. Advertising sales and discounts b. Creating a brand identity c. Providing complimentary water bottles d. Offering free T-shirts
The correct answer is: Creating a brand identity
A community could influence physical activity for its inhabitants by doing which of the following? Select one: a. Allowing more permits for fitness facilities to open b. Limiting the number of sports leagues that are using a community center c. Reducing the number of fast-food restaurants d. Creating more green spaces, playgrounds, and walking trails
The correct answer is: Creating more green spaces, playgrounds, and walking trails
Inadequate hydration and mild dehydration can have several negative effects on athletic performance, including which of the following? Select one: a. Lower rate of perceived exertion (RPE) b. Decreased blood flow c. Lower body temperature d. Increased cardiac output
The correct answer is: Decreased blood flow
Researchers have found that myofascial rolling can decrease the effects of what condition after strenuous exercise? Select one: a. Eccentric strength b. Local muscle endurance c. Dynamic posture control d. Delayed-onset muscle soreness
The correct answer is: Delayed-onset muscle soreness
What is the superior boundary of the core? Select one: a. Diaphragm b. Pelvic floor and hip musculature c. Lumbar spine and gluteal muscles d. Abdominal muscles
The correct answer is: Diaphragm
Which of the following modality/exercise combinations provides the most freedom of movement in the transverse plane? Select one: a. Dumbbell lat row b. Seated abdominal crunch machine c. Suspended chest press d. Elastic band woodchop
The correct answer is: Elastic band woodchop
Which of the following is considered a superficial muscle of the core? Select one: a. Erector spinae b. Pelvic floor muscles c. Transverse abdominis d. Multifidus
The correct answer is: Erector spinae
Social physique anxiety is more prevalent in which population? Select one: a. Males b. People with a low body fat percentage c. People with a low body mass index d. Females
The correct answer is: Females
Jessica is looking to grow in her career as a personal trainer. Which employment option would offer her the best chance to provide mentorship to fitness professionals, use managerial skills, and respond directly to member needs when necessary? Select one: a. Strength and conditioning coach b. General manager c. Fitness manager d. Master instructor
The correct answer is: Fitness manager
When sequencing physiological assessments, which of the following would produce a better result if measured immediately after exercise rather than before exercise? Select one: a. Flexibility b. Body composition c. Resting heart rate d. Blood pressure
The correct answer is: Flexibility
How is upper crossed syndrome characterized? Select one: a. Flat feet, knee valgus, and internally rotated and adducted hips b. Anterior pelvic tilt and excessive lordosis of the lumbar spine c. Forward head and protracted shoulders d. Excessive forward lean and arms fall forward
The correct answer is: Forward head and protracted shoulders
How many skinfold sites are measured when determining body composition using the Durnin-Womersley protocol? Select one: a. Four b. Seven c. Six d. Three
The correct answer is: Four
What does the acronym FITTE-VP, used to design aerobic (cardio) programs, represent? Select one: a. Flexibility, intensity, training, threshold, engagement, velocity, progression b. Flexibility, intervals, threshold, time, engagement, volume, pattern c. Frequency, intensity, type, time, enjoyment, volume, progression d. Frequency, intervals, time, threshold, enjoyment, velocity, pattern
The correct answer is: Frequency, intensity, type, time, enjoyment, volume, progression
What is a safe flexibility modification that you can recommend to a client who has varicose veins? Select one: a. Pilates b. General cardiovascular exercise c. Deep soft-tissue massage d. Gentle static stretching
The correct answer is: Gentle static stretching
A client plans to go for a 10-mile run, but they become fatigued after 7 miles, so they stop. What is the most likely cause of this fatigue? Select one: a. ADP was depleted. b. Glycogen stores were exhausted. c. Fatty acid stores were exhausted. d. Phosphocreatine was depleted.
The correct answer is: Glycogen stores were exhausted.
The deep longitudinal subsystem includes which of the following muscle groups? Select one: a. Hamstrings and erector spinae b. Adductors (inner thigh) and hip external rotators c. Adductors (inner thigh) and contralateral quadratus lumborum d. Thoracolumbar fascia and contralateral gluteus maximus
The correct answer is: Hamstrings and erector spinae
Which of the following would make a person better at oxidizing fat? Select one: a. Having more mitochondria in their muscle b. Having more glycogen stored in their muscle c. Having more fat stored on their body d. Having less oxygen delivery to the muscle
The correct answer is: Having more mitochondria in their muscle
The human body is uniquely designed to respond to stress and, if necessary, make changes to maintain optimal health and physiological functioning. What is this process called? Select one: a. Fight-or-flight response b. Homeostasis c. Neuromuscular efficiency d. Excitation-contraction coupling
The correct answer is: Homeostasis
Which of the following most closely resembles a SMART goal? Select one: a. I want to lose 20 pounds over the next 8 months. b. I want to lose weight. c. I want to lose 20 pounds in the next month. d. I want to lose 20 pounds.
The correct answer is: I want to lose 20 pounds over the next 8 months.
What change would lead to an increase in cardiac output during exercise? Select one: a. Decreased stroke volume b. Increased heart rate c. Decreased heart rate d. Increased end-systolic volume
The correct answer is: Increased heart rate
Which of the following phases does not reflect the traditional components of cardiorespiratory training? Select one: a. Conditioning phase b. Warm-up phase c. Interval phase d. Cool-down phase
The correct answer is: Interval phase
What is the concept that describes the human body as a chain of interdependent links that work together to perform movement? Select one: a. Proprioception b. Kinetic chain c. Golgi tendon organ d. Nervous system
The correct answer is: Kinetic chain
For which movement impairment would you see the knees bow outward? Select one: a. Excessive anterior pelvic tilt b. Knee valgus c. Knee varus d. Knee dominance
The correct answer is: Knee varus
Which is involved in frontside mechanics? Select one: a. Ankle plantar flexion b. Knee extension c. Rear leg d. Lead leg
The correct answer is: Lead leg
What is the primary limiting factor for exercise in the client with PAD? Select one: a. Low-back pain b. Neck pain c. Shoulder pain d. Leg pain
The correct answer is: Leg pain
At which stage of change are self-efficacy levels generally the highest? Select one: a. Precontemplation b. Contemplation c. Maintenance d. Preparation
The correct answer is: Maintenance
What phase of the OPT model aims to maximize prime-mover strength through the lifting of heavy loads? Select one: a. Stabilization Endurance Training b. Muscular Development Training c. Strength Endurance Training d. Maximal Strength Training
The correct answer is: Maximal Strength Training
Which option is a common power-focused resistance training exercise? Select one: a. Barbell squat b. Single-leg cable row c. Medicine ball soccer throw d. Bench press
The correct answer is: Medicine ball soccer throw
Which muscle would be considered underactive, leading to arms falling forward in the overhead squat assessment? Select one: a. Teres major b. Pectoralis major c. Latissimus dorsi d. Middle and lower trapezius
The correct answer is: Middle and lower trapezius
Squat, push, pull, press, hip hinge, and multiplanar movement are all known as what? Select one: a. Phases b. Exercises c. Sports skills d. Movement patterns
The correct answer is: Movement patterns
Individuals with low-back pain have decreased activation of which local muscle of the core? Select one: a. Pectoralis major b. Latissimus dorsi c. Iliopsoas d. Multifidus
The correct answer is: Multifidus
Which of the following variations of a hop exercise would be the most difficult from a deceleration and balance standpoint? Select one: a. Multiplanar hop with stabilization b. Multiplanar single-leg box hop-up with stabilization c. Multiplanar single-leg box hop-down with stabilization d. Single-leg hop forward
The correct answer is: Multiplanar single-leg box hop-down with stabilization
Humans can learn new things at any stage of life, due to which process that causes the brain to reform neural pathways? Select one: a. Neuroplasticity b. Remodeling c. Neurocircuitry d. Neuromotor skills
The correct answer is: Neuroplasticity
How heavy should the medicine ball be when performing the soccer throw exercise? Select one: a. At least 21% of body weight b. No more than 10% of body weight c. 16 to 20% of body weight d. 11 to 15% of body weight
The correct answer is: No more than 10% of body weight
A client is asked, "Why do you want to lose weight?" This is an example of what kind of question? Select one: a. Open-ended b. Contemplation c. Closed-ended d. Directive
The correct answer is: Open-ended
Which term best describes observable movement of the limbs? Select one: a. Osteokinematics b. Biomechanics c. Arthrokinematics d. Kinesiology
The correct answer is: Osteokinematics
Which term describes the movement of bones, such as flexion and extension? Select one: a. Osteokinematics b. Arthrokinematics c. Osteoporosis d. Arthropathy
The correct answer is: Osteokinematics
Which type of training would most likely lead to increased levels of testosterone, insulin-like growth factors, and growth hormone? Select one: a. Overload training that is of low intensity with prolonged rest periods b. Overload training that is of a high intensity with prolonged rest periods c. Overload training that is of a high intensity with limited rest periods d. Overload training that is of a low intensity with limited rest periods
The correct answer is: Overload training that is of a high intensity with limited rest periods
Which source of social support for exercise is the most influential for children and adolescents? Select one: a. Exercise groups b. The community c. Peers d. Parents
The correct answer is: Parents
Which of the following would not be an example of core musculature to stabilize the trunk and pelvis? Select one: a. Quadratus lumborum b. Obliques c. Pectoral group d. Gluteal complex
The correct answer is: Pectoral group
The goal of the Certified Personal Trainer in utilizing machines in Phase 1 of the OPT model should be to do what? Select one: a. Progress their clients to more proprioceptively enriched exercises b. Increase muscle size before moving their clients to Phase 2 c. Regress their clients to less-challenging movements and utilize more dumbbells d. Prepare their clients to perform 1RM before moving on to dumbbells or other advanced modalities
The correct answer is: Progress their clients to more proprioceptively enriched exercises
Selectorized machines provide all the following benefits except for which one? Select one: a. Are often accompanied by instructional diagrams or pictures b. Are often less intimidating than free weights for novice exercisers c. Offer users the ability to change resistance easily d. Provide an increased range of motion
The correct answer is: Provide an increased range of motion
Which component of SAQ involves the ability to react to a stimulus (i.e., reaction time) and appropriately change the motion of the body in response to that stimulus (such as hitting a baseball)? Select one: a. Agility b. Stride rate c. Quickness d. Speed
The correct answer is: Quickness
What is the scientific term that describes the nervous system's role in the contract/relax relationship between agonists and antagonists? Select one: a. Length-tension relationship b. Reciprocal inhibition c. Muscle imbalance d. Stretch-shortening cycle
The correct answer is: Reciprocal inhibition
Which component of blood is primarily responsible for transporting oxygenated blood throughout the body? Select one: a. Platelets b. White blood cells c. Red blood cells d. Plasma
The correct answer is: Red blood cells
Which of the following nutrition professionals is nationally recognized by the Commission on Dietetic Registration to provide clinical, community, food service, and nutrition education? Select one: a. Registered dietitian nutritionist b. Certified dietitian nutritionist c. Licensed dietitian d. Certified nutrition specialist
The correct answer is: Registered dietitian nutritionist
What term refers to the ability of a test to produce consistent and repeatable results? Select one: a. Appropriateness b. Relevance c. Reliability d. Validity
The correct answer is: Reliability
Which of the following examples of training exercises is not a form of cardiorespiratory fitness? Select one: a. Jogging/running b. Rowing c. Resistance training d. Sports competition
The correct answer is: Resistance training
Which of the following contributes the most to the total calories burned in a day? Select one: a. Nonexercise activity thermogenesis b. Exercise c. Resting metabolic rate d. Thermic effect of food
The correct answer is: Resting metabolic rate
What is a joint disease in which the body's immune system mistakenly attacks its own tissue, causing an inflammatory response? Select one: a. Rheumatoid arthritis b. Osteopenia c. Osteoarthritis d. Osteoporosis
The correct answer is: Rheumatoid arthritis
Which of the following is considered a deep muscle of the core? Select one: a. Latissimus dorsi b. Rectus abdominis c. Iliopsoas d. Rotatores
The correct answer is: Rotatores
What type of flexibility training is most likely to use instruments or equipment to help the body improve range of motion? Select one: a. Dynamic stretching b. Active stretching c. Self-myofascial techniques d. Static stretching
The correct answer is: Self-myofascial techniques
What advice would enable a client to breathe properly? Select one: a. Sit upright and slowly breathe in through your nose while allowing your stomach to expand. b. Sit with an increased kyphosis and slowly breathe in through your nose while allowing your stomach to expand. c. Sit upright and slowly breathe in through your mouth while allowing your chest to expand. d. Sit with an increased kyphosis and slowly breathe in through your nose while minimizing abdominal movement.
The correct answer is: Sit upright and slowly breathe in through your nose while allowing your stomach to expand.
To enable weight-loss clients to perform SAQ exercises at a high intensity in a variety of movements, what can fitness professionals create? Select one: a. Small circuits b. Heart rate cardio c. Steady-state treadmill workouts d. Long continuous runs
The correct answer is: Small circuits
What is the best type of plyometric exercise for a beginner client? Select one: a. Explosive jumps b. Small jumps c. Dynamic motion d. Fast, powerful movements
The correct answer is: Small jumps
Which of the following exercises is typically used to measure maximum strength of the lower extremities? Select one: a. Lunge b. Overhead squat c. Single-leg squat d. Squat
The correct answer is: Squat
If a muscle is stretched too quickly, the muscle responds with an immediate contraction to stop the stretch. What is this specific action called? Select one: a. Lengthening reaction b. Stretch reflex c. Eccentric contraction d. Isometric contraction
The correct answer is: Stretch reflex
Which of the following blood pressure values would be classified as normal according to the American Heart Association? Select one: a. Systolic 130 to 139 or diastolic 80 to 89 b. Systolic <120 and diastolic <80 c. Systolic >180 and/or diastolic >120 d. Systolic 120 to 129 and diastolic <80
The correct answer is: Systolic <120 and diastolic <80
Balance is best described as which of the following? Select one: a. The ability to control the motion of the spine over a given longer duration b. The ability to change direction quickly and accelerate c. Increased ability to overcome the force of gravity during jumping d. The ability to maintain control of the body while in a static position
The correct answer is: The ability to maintain control of the body while in a static position
What is stroke volume? Select one: a. The amount of blood pumped by the heart per minute b. The amount of blood in the ventricle before contraction c. The amount of blood remaining in the ventricle after contraction d. The amount of blood pumped out of the heart with each contraction
The correct answer is: The amount of blood pumped out of the heart with each contraction
What is end-systolic volume? Select one: a. The volume of blood pumped by the heart per minute b. The amount of blood in the ventricle before contraction c. The amount of blood remaining in the ventricle after contraction d. The amount of blood pumped out of the heart with each contraction
The correct answer is: The amount of blood remaining in the ventricle after contraction
What is an example of an external factor that may influence the risk of falling in older adults? Select one: a. Joint stability b. Muscle strength c. The environment d. Ligament integrity
The correct answer is: The environment
Which of the following does not meet the criteria for exercise or activity to be considered aerobic? Select one: a. The exercise targets large muscle groups. b. The exercise is rhythmic. c. The exercise is continuous in nature. d. The exercise is intense.
The correct answer is: The exercise is intense.
What is glycogen? Select one: a. The enzyme that promotes carbohydrate breakdown in humans b. The enzyme that promotes carbohydrate storage in humans and animals c. The storage form of carbohydrate in animals and humans d. The storage form of carbohydrate in plants
The correct answer is: The storage form of carbohydrate in animals and humans
What are triglycerides? Select one: a. The stored form of fat b. A substrate for high-intensity exercise c. The stored form of carbohydrate d. A substrate for anaerobic exercise
The correct answer is: The stored form of fat
Performing a biceps curl with a dumbbell in the hand is an example of which type of lever? Select one: a. Second class b. First class c. Third class d. Fourth class
The correct answer is: Third class
What are the steps in the cumulative injury cycle? Select one: a. Muscle atrophy, neuromuscular recruitment, increased flexibility, muscle pain, bruising, and tissue edema b. Tissue trauma, inflammation, muscle spasm, adhesions, altered neuromuscular control, and muscle imbalance c. Muscle spasm, neuromuscular pain, increased psychological fear, poor flexibility, muscle pain, and bruising d. Muscle hypertrophy, altered neuromuscular inhibition, poor flexibility, muscle ache, swelling, and tissue bruising
The correct answer is: Tissue trauma, inflammation, muscle spasm, adhesions, altered neuromuscular control, and muscle imbalance
What is something that allows a fitness professional to stand out from others in featuring their services? Select one: a. Unique selling proposition (USP) b. SWOT analysis c. PERT estimate d. Statement of work (SOW)
The correct answer is: Unique selling proposition (USP)
Asking a client to close their eyes during a balance exercise would challenge which system? Select one: a. Somatosensory system b. Auditory system c. Visual system d. Vestibular system
The correct answer is: Visual system
In what training zone would you be exercising at a vigorous to very hard intensity, where talking is limited to infrequent, short phrases? Select one: a. Zone 3 b. Zone 4 c. Zone 2 d. Zone 1
The correct answer is: Zone 3
Which of the following statements describes the abdominal skinfold location? Select one: a. A vertical skinfold taken on the mid-axillary line at the level of the xiphoid process (which is typically just below the nipple line) b. A horizontal skinfold taken 1 inch lateral to the umbilicus (belly button) c. A diagonal fold taken immediately superior to and in line with the natural angle of the iliac crest (top portion of the hip bone), aligned with the anterior axillary line d. A vertical skinfold taken 1 inch lateral to the umbilicus (belly button)
a. A vertical skinfold taken on the mid-axillary line at the level of the xiphoid process (which is typically just below the nipple line)
Which core exercise is most appropriate for an obese client to maximize comfort and to avoid potential hypotensive or hypertensive reactions to the exercise? Select one: a. Supine reverse crunches b. Incline plank c. Stability ball Russian twist d. Supine floor crunches
b. Incline plank
What are common physical characteristics of those with emphysema? Select one: a. Those with emphysema frequently display high oxygen content in the blood. b. Those with emphysema are frequently underweight and may exhibit hypertrophied neck muscles. c. Those with emphysema frequently display knee valgus and pes planus. d. Those with emphysema are frequently overweight and may exhibit atrophied neck muscles.
b. Those with emphysema are frequently underweight and may exhibit hypertrophied neck muscles.
What term is used to describe the concept of how the functioning of one body segment can impact other areas of the body? Select one: a. Biomechanics b. Kinesiology c. Osteokinematics d. Regional interdependence
d. Regional interdependence
