NCLEX - PN (practice)
A cesarean mode of delivery, often utilized for various reasons, is the most common mode for females with which pelvic type? A. Android B. Anthropoid C. Gynecoid D. Platypelloid
A
During which week does the fetal heart begin pumping its own blood? A. 3rd week B. 5th week C. 9th week D. 6th week
A
How long can women lactate for? A. Indefinitely B. 12 to 18 months C. 18 to 24 months D. 30 to 36 months
A
Low birth weight is defined as a newborn's weight of: A. 2500 grams or less at birth, regardless of gestational age. B. 1500 grams or less at birth, regardless of gestational age. C. 2500 grams or less at birth, according to gestational age. D. 1500 grams or less at birth, according to gestational age.
A
Multifetal pregnancies with triplets occur at a rate of 1 in 8,100 births, but twins occur much more frequently with a rate of: A. 1 in 85 births. B. 1 in 5400 births. C. 1 in 2700 births. D. 1 in 540 births.
A
Periwound maceration occurs when: A. The skin around the wound softens and is damaged. B. Selecting a dressing individualized to the type of wound. C. Negative-pressure to "air out" the wound is used. D. The skin around the wound dries out and hardens.
A
Sutures and staples are typically removed following surgery within: A. 7 to 10 days if healing is considered adequate. B. 10 to 14 days if healing is considered adequate. C. 7 to 10 days if no further dressings are needed. D. 10 to 14 days if no further dressings are needed.
A
The normal sodium level in the body is: A. 135 to 145 milliequivalents. B. 3 to 5 milliequivalents. C. 135 to 145 microequivalents. D. 3 to 5 microequivalents.
A
The stages of infection in correct sequential order are: A. The prodromal, incubation, illness and convalescence stages B. The incubation, prodromal, illness and convalescence stages C. The prodromal, primary, secondary and tertiary stages D. The inflammation, infection and immunity stages
A
What can help reduce a patient's anxiety and postsurgical pain? A. Preoperative teaching B. Preoperative checklist C. Psychological counseling D. Preoperative medication
A
What intervention is the best to relieve constipation during pregnancy? A. Increasing the consumption of fruits and vegetables B. Taking a mild over-the-counter laxative C. Lying flat on back when sleeping D. Reduction of iron intake by half or more
A
What is a major difference between a problem oriented medical record and a source oriented medical record? A. The problem oriented medical system has a centralized part of the chart for interdisciplinary progress notes and the source oriented medical record has separate areas for each profession's progress notes. B. The problem oriented medical system consists of narrative progress notes and the source oriented medical record uses SOAP. C. The source oriented medical system uses charting by exception and the source oriented medical record system does not. D. The source oriented medical system has a centralized part of the chart for interdisciplinary progress notes and the problem oriented medical record has separate areas for each profession's progress notes.
A
Which atrioventricular heart block is also referred to as Mobitz II? A. Third-degree atrioventricular heart block B. Second-degree atrioventricular heart block C. First-degree atrioventricular heart block D. Complete heart block
A
Which nursing diagnosis is the most commonly used among patients who are affected with fibromyalgia? A. Decreased self care in the activities of daily living related to fatigue B. Impaired mental functioning related to electrolyte imbalances C. Increased vigilance secondary to electrolyte imbalances D. At risk for a swallowing disorder related to fibromyalgia
A
Which nursing theorist believes that most patients are capable of performing self care? A. Dorothea Orem B. Madeleine Leininger C. Martha Rogers D. Sister Callista Roy
A
Which of the following is a hazard of immobility? A. Loss of bone calcium B. Increased vital capacity C. Venous vasoconstriction D. A positive nitrogen balance
A
Which of these breath sounds is considered normal and not adventitious? A. Vesicular breath sounds B. Fine rales C. Rhonchi D. Wheezes
A
Which of these patients is affected with a healthcare acquired infection? A. A 18 year old male patient who developed a intravenous line infection two days after insertion B. A 72 year old male patient who is at risk for infection secondary to AIDS/HIV C. A 67 year old female patient who was admitted with a urinary tract infection D. A 5 year old pediatric patient who develops the measles rash 3 days after admission
A
Which skin disorder most closely resembles and mimics dandruff? A. Lice infestation B. Scabies C. Dematitis D. Acne vulgaris
A
You are caring for a neonate who has a cleft palate. You should inform the mother that surgical correction will be done when the infant is: A. 8 to 12 months of age. B. 20 to 24 months of age. C. 16 to 20 months of age. D. 12 to 16 months of age.
A
You are caring for a patient with multiple-trauma. Of all of these injuries and conditions, it the most serious? A. A deviated trachea B. Gross deformity of a lower extremity C. Hematuria D. Decreased bowel sounds
A
You have just learned that another nurse was fired for taking photographs of patients without their permission using a cell phone and posting them on Face book. This nurse was fired because the nurse has: A. Violated the law B. Acted in a negligent manner C. Not completed the proper documentation D. Violated an ethical principle
A
Which of the following healthcare providers can legally have access to all, or part, of a patient's medical record because they have a "need to know"? Select all that apply. A. Student nurses caring for a particular patient B. Registered nurses when they are not caring for a particular patient C. The Vice President for Nursing who is investigating a patient fall D. Licensed practical nurses caring for a particular patient E. A quality assurance nurse collecting data for a performance improvement activity
A C D E
Which of the following are necessary elements of malpractice? Select all that apply. A. A breach of duty B. An intentional act C. A nonintentional act D. Forseeability E. Patient harm F. Causation
A D E F
Round off these numbers to the nearest hundredth. Fill in the blanks. A. 5.5778 = _________ B. 1.027 = _________ C. 62.999 = _________ D. 55.123 = _________ E. 96.679 = _________
A: 5.58 B: 1.03 C: 63 D: 55.12 E: 96.68
Round off these numbers to the nearest tenth: A. 5.5778 = _________ B. 1.027 = _________ C. 62.999 = _________ D. 55.123 = _________ E. 96.676 = _________
A: 5.6 B: 1 C: 63 D: 55.1 E: 96.7
Label the following bones of the pelvis:
A: Pelvis B: Sacrum C: Coccyx D: Symphysis Pubis
After your patient has been told that they have Cushing's syndrome, the patient asks you what Cushing's syndrome is. How would you respond to this patient's question? A. "Cushing's syndrome is a type of irritable bowel syndrome." B. "Cushing's syndrome is a disorder of the adrenal gland." C. "Cushing's syndrome often occurs among patients who are getting radiation therapy." D. "Cushing's syndrome often occurs among patients who are chemotherapy."
B
During which phase of the nursing process does data get collected and validated with the patient and/or family members by the nurse? A. The implementation phase B. The assessment phase C. The evaluation phase D. The planning phase
B
How many daily feedings are considered normal for a newborn: A. 8 to 10 B. 10 to 12 C. 6 to 8 D. 12 to 14
B
Select the cranial nerve that is accurately paired with its name. A. The first cranial nerve: The trochlear nerve B. The twelfth cranial nerve: The hypoglossal nerve C. The tenth cranial nerve: The olfactory nerve D. The thirteenth cranial nerve: The auditory nerve
B
Select the method of special precautions that is accurately paired with the personal protective equipment that is minimally required in order to prevent the spread of infection. A. Contact precautions: Gowns, gloves and mask B. Droplet precautions: Face mask C. Airborne transmission precautions: Negative pressure room D. Contact precautions: Gloves
B
Select the stage of a pressure ulcer that is accurately pair with its characteristics. A. Stage I: Only slight blanching when pressure is applied to the skin. B. Stage II: The epidermis and part of the dermis is damaged or lost. C. Stage III: The wound has slough and eschar. D. Stage IV: The loss of skin usually exposes some fat.
B
The doctor has ordered 500 mg of a medication po once a day. The tablets on hand are labeled as 1 tablet = 250 mg. How many tablets will you administer to your patient? A. 1 Tablet B. 2 Tablets C. 3 Tablets D. 4 Tablets
B
The patient should be sitting when deep breathing and coughing because this position: A. Is physically more comfortable for the patient B. Helps the patient to support their incision with a pillow C. Loosens respiratory secretions D. Allows the patient to observe their area and relax
B
When caring for an infant during cardiac arrest, which pulse must be palpated to determine cardiac function? A. Carotid B. Brachial C. Pedal D. Radial
B
Which disease decreases the metabolic rate? A. Cancer B. Hypothyroidism C. Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease D. Cardiac failure
B
Which electrolyte is essential for enzyme and neurochemical activities? A. Chloride B. Magnesium C. Potassium D. Phosphate
B
Which of the following is a life threatening acute complication of diabetes mellitus? A. Neuropathy B. Hypoglycemia C. Retinopathy D. Impaired microcirculation
B
Which oral disorder appears as yellow or white spots on the oral mucosa that are not possible to scrape off without bleeding? A. Herpes simplex B. Candidiasis C. Alphthous ulcers D. Leukoplakia
B
Which patient is at greatest risk for cholelithiasis and choledocholithiasis? A. A 70 year old male patient who has liver disease B. A 70 year old female patient who has liver disease C. A 50 year old male patient who is Asian D. A 50 year old female patient who is Asian
B
Which preventive measure can be employed to decrease the risk of compartment syndrome? A. The administration of a potassium sparing diuretic for heart failure B. A bivalve cast for a skeletal fracture C. A cerebral diuretic to decease intracranial pressure after a head injury D. A chest tube to restore normal intrathoracic pressure after a pneumothorax
B
Which quality assurance or performance improvement technique is used to identify underlying process flaws? A. Small group process B. Root cause analysis C. People at fault process D. Cause and effect
B
Which type of burn leads to the greatest degree of pain? A. A first degree burn B. A second degree burn C. A third degree burn D. A fourth degree burn
B
Which type of practice is most similar to research based practice? A. Best practices B. Evidence based practice C. Benchmark practices D. Standard based practice
B
You have been asked to speak at a new nursing assistants' orientation class about infection control and handwashing techniques. What would you include in this teaching? A. Demonstrate the correct one minute handwashing procedure using soap and running water. B. Demonstrate the correct 2 minute handwashing procedure using soap and running water. C. Using hot water so that the natural fats on the skins are emulsified with the soap. D. Using cold water so that the natural fats on the skins are emulsified with the soap.
B
You have been assigned to care for a neonate who has been diagnosed with the Tetralogy of Fallot. The mother asks you what the Tetralogy of Fallot is. How should you respond to this mother? A. "The Tetralogy of Fallot is a congenital gastrointestinal disorder" B. "The Tetralogy of Fallot is a congenital cardiac disorder" C. "The Tetralogy of Fallot will affect the baby's reflexes" D. "The Tetralogy of Fallot will affect the baby's ability to breastfeed"
B
Your patient has been diagnosed with orchititis. What information about this disorder should you inform the patient about? A. This disorder often occurs as the result of a streptococcus. B. This disorder can be symptomatically treated with ice. C. This disorder can be symptomatically treated with heat. D. This disorder is typically treated with surgery.
B
Your patient has just returned from the diagnostic imaging department and the doctor has told the patient that they have a Mallory-Weiss tear. The patient asks you what a Mallory-Weiss tear is. How should you respond to this patient? A. "A Mallory-Weiss tear is a kind of diverticulitis." B. "A Mallory-Weiss tear is an esophageal tear" C. "A Mallory-Weiss tear is a lacrimal gland disorder." D. "A Mallory-Weiss tear is a tear that results from a peptic ulcer."
B
Select the ethical principles that are paired with their description. Select all that apply. A. Justice: Being honest and fair B. Fidelity: Being faithful C. Veracity: Truthfulness D. Autonomy: Facilitating patient choices E. Beneficence: Do good F. Nonmaleficence: Do not harm
B C D E F
Which procedures necessitate the use of surgical asepsis techniques? Select all that apply. A. Intramuscular medication administration B. Central line intravenous medication administration C. Donning gloves in the operating room D. Neonatal bathing E. Foley catheter insertion F. Emptying a urinary drainage bag
B C E
Select the types of pain that are accurately coupled with an example of it. Select all that are correct. A. Radicular pain: A broken bone B. Central neuropathic pain: A spinal cord injury C. Peripheral neuropathic pain: A fractured leg bone D. Chronic pain: A stab wound to the chest E. Nocicetive pain: A laceration F. Radicular pain: A herniated spinal disc
B E F
Select all the possible opportunistic infections that adversely affect HIV/AIDS infected patients. A. Visual losses B. Kaposi's sarcoma C. Wilms' sarcoma D. Tuberculosis E. Peripheral neuropathy F. Toxoplasma gondii
B F D
A positive over-the-counter pregnancy test is considered a: A. Possible sign of pregnancy. B. Presumptive sign of pregnancy. C. Probable sign of pregnancy. D. Positive sign of pregnancy.
C
Avulsed teeth should be placed in: A. Normal saline. B. Cold water. C. Milk. D. Warm water.
C
Babies should double their birth weight by the: A. 5th to 6th month. B. 3rd to 4th month. C. 4th to 5th month. D. 5th to 7th month.
C
Ill health, malnutrition, and wasting as a result of chronic disease are all associated with: A. Surgical asepsis B. Catabolism C. Cachexia D. Venous stasis
C
Select the member of the healthcare team that is paired with one of the main functions of this team member. A. Occupational therapist: Gait exercises B. Physical therapist: The provision of assistive devices to facilitate the activities of daily living C. Speech and language therapist: The treatment of swallowing disorders D. Case manager: Ordering medications and treatments
C
Select the stage of viral hepatitis that is accurately paired with its characteristic(s). A. The prodromal stage: Jaundice begins B. The icteric stage: Flu like symptoms occur C. The preicteric stage: Elevated urine bilirubin levels D. The posticteric stage: Jaundice and dark urine occurs
C
The hormone produces mother's milk is: A. Progesterone B. Estrogen. C. Prolactin. D. Colostrum.
C
The primary difference between practical nursing licensure and a nursing certification in an area of practice is that nursing licensure is: A. Insures competency and a nursing certification validates years of experience. B. Mandated by the American Nurses Association and a nursing certification are not. C. Is legally mandated by the states and a nursing certification is not. D. Renewed every two years and a nursing certification is renewed every five years.
C
The protrusion of an internal organ through a wound or surgical incision is referred to as: A. Serosanguineous. B. Dehiscence. C. Evisceration. D. Exuded.
C
What element is minimally assessed during a basic prenatal physical examination? A. Palpation and auscultation of the abdomen B. Examination of the anus and rectum C. Urinalysis for glucose, protein and ketones D. Visual assessment of cervix and vagina
C
What is the ultimate purpose and goal of performance improvement activities? A. To increase efficiency B. To contain costs C. To improve processes D. To improve policies
C
What percentage of term newborns has a congenital heart disease due to environmental risk factors such as maternal alcoholism or drug ingestion? A. 2% to 4% B. 10% to 20% C. 5% to 10% D. 7% to 9%
C
When a woman has miscarried in three or more consecutive pregnancies, it is referred to as which type of spontaneous abortion? A. Inevitable B. Missed C. Habitual D. Septic
C
Which cardiac arrhythmia can be either acquired or congenital and can spontaneously disappear on its own or lead to ventricular fibrillation? A. Wenckebach B. Premature arterial contractions C. Torsades de pointes D. Premature ventricular contractions
C
Which legal document will most likely contain the patient's decision to not get cardiopulmonary resuscitation? A. Healthcare surrogacy B. Healthcare proxy C. Advance directives D. Durable power of attorney
C
Which of the following is best for a client who has difficulty swallowing and chokes frequently? A. A liquid diet. B. Tilting the head back when swallowing. C. Tucking the chin in when swallowing. D. Following each bite with a drink of water.
C
Which of the following is the World Health Organization's (WHO) definition of health? A. The absence of all illness and disease B. The absence of any comorbidities C. A holistic state of wellbeing D. A use of health promotion activities
C
Which of the following is the best worded expected outcome? A. "The nurse will provide for adequate hydration" B. "The nurse will insure that the patient is safe" C. "The patient will cough and deep breathe every two hours" D. "The patient will value health"
C
Which type of cancer has the poorest prognosis? A. Squamous cell carcinoma B. Breast cancer C. Pancreatic cancer D. Gastric cancer
C
Who should document care? A. The LPNs should document the care that they provided and the care that was given by unlicensed assistive staff. B. The registered nurse must document all of the care that is provided by the nursing assistants because they are accountable for all care. C. All staff members should document all of the care that they have provided. D. All staff should document all of the care that they have provided but the registered nurse, as the only independent practitioner, signs it.
C
You are the LPN working on 2 east with adult medical surgical patients. Your unit has been instructed to perform a horizontal evacuation of your patients because there is a fire on 1 east. Where will you evacuate your patients to? A. 3 west B. 3 east C. 2 west D. 1 west
C
Select the following fire emergency interventions in correct sequential order. A. Pull the fire alarm. B. Contain the fire. C. Rescue patients in danger. D. Extinguish the fire.
C A B D
States throughout our nation vary somewhat in terms of things that nursing assistants can and cannot legally do. Which statements about these state to state differences are accurate? Select all that apply. A. Nursing assistants can change catheter tubings but not catheters B. Nursing assistants can change sterile dressings C. Nursing assistants have an expanding role in many states. D. Nursing assistants cannot assess the physical status of the patients. E. Nursing assistants can apply topical medication lotions to intact skin. F. The trend is moving toward nurses only staffing patterns.
C D
Select all of the signs and symptoms of hyperthyroidism. A. Cool skin B. Thickened bodily hair C. Heat intolerance D. Constipation E. Insomnia F. Increased appetite G. Palpitations
C E F G
Alcohol, caffeine, or drugs are high risk factors that all fall under which broad classification of risk factors? A. Social demographic B. Environmental C. Biophysical D. Psychosocial
D
As you are working you suspect that another licensed practical nurse is verbally and physically abusing a patient. What is the first thing that you will do? A. Nothing because you are not certain that it is occurring B. Nothing because you only suspect the abuse C. Call the police or the security department D. Report your suspicions to the charge nurse
D
How many bones make up a newborn's skull? A. 8 B. 4 C. 6 D. 5
D
How many minims are contained in 1 milliliter? A. Between 10-11 B. 12 C. 20 D. Between 15 or 16
D
Rh negative maternal blood indicates: A. An incompatibility in the blood between the mother and fetus. B. That antibodies in the mother's blood are attacking her baby's blood. C. The mother will require a blood transfusion at the time of delivery. D. The mother does not have a specific marker on her red blood cells.
D
The embryonic period during pregnancy takes place from: A. Weeks 1 to 12. B. Weeks 1 to 10. C. Weeks 3 to 5. D. Weeks 6 to 10.
D
The recommended daily caloric intake for sedentary older men, active adult women and children is: A. 2400 calories B. 1600 calories C. 2800 calories D. 2000 calories
D
What is the single most important thing that nurses do in order to prevent the spread of infection? A. Applying standard precautions B. Using personal protective equipment C. Adhering to the principles of asepsis D. Handwashing
D
Which anatomic malformations are associated with the Tetralogy of Fallot? A. A sub-aortic septal defect, an overriding aorta, left ventricular hypertrophy, and right ventricular outflow B. A sub-aortic septal defect, an overriding aorta, right ventricular hypertrophy, and left ventricular outflow C. A sub-aortic septal defect, an overriding aorta, pulmonary atresia, and right ventricular outflow D. A sub-aortic septal defect, an overriding aorta, right ventricular hypertrophy, and right ventricular outflow
D
Which of the following differentiates ulcerative colitis from Crohn's disease? A. Crohn's disease primarily affects the left colon and rectum and ulcerative colitis most often affects the right colon and distal ileum. B. Crohn's disease presents with shallow ulcerations and ulcerative colitis presents with a cobblestone appearance of the mucosal lining. C. The extent of involvement is noncontiguous and segmented with Crohn's disease and it is contiguous and diffuse with ulcerative colitis. D. Crohn's disease has primarily mucosal involvement and it is transmural with ulcerative colitis.
D
Which of the following is a vector of infection? A. A contaminated ball B. A contaminated thermometer C. An infected person D. An infectious fly
D
Which pain assessment scale is used exclusively for infants and neonates from 32 weeks of gestation to six months of age? A. The PEPPS pain scale B. The FLACC pain scale C. The Faces pain scale D. The CRIES pain scale
D
Which patient is at greatest risk for papilledema? A. An elderly patient with cataracts and macular degeneration B. A male patient with hypothyroidism C. A male patient with hyperthyroidism D. An adolescent with a closed head injury
D
Which statement about Meniere's disease is accurate and true? A. Meniere's disease most commonly occurs among members of the elderly population. B. Meniere's disease is insidious and it always affects both ears. C. Meniere's disease occurs with an impairment of the second cranial nerve. D. Antiemetic drugs are used for the treatment of patients affected with Meniere's disease.
D
Which statement about appendicitis is accurate and true? A. Appendicitis is more common among females than males. B. A high fiber diet is a risk factor associated with appendicitis. C. Left lower quadrant pain is suggestive of appendicitis. D. Mc Burney's point tenderness is suggestive of appendicitis.
D
You are preparing a sterile field for a operating room surgical procedure. When should you stop the preparation of this sterile field? A. When you have placed a sterile item only 1 inch and not 2 inches from the edge of the sterile field B. When you have completely finished the field. You cannot stop the set up until it is all done. C. When you have accidentally poured a sterile liquid into a container that was on the sterile field D. When you turn your upper body only away from the field because the surgeon calls your name
D
You are working in a pediatric unit of the hospital and caring for a six year old boy who is hospitalized with cystic fibrosis and respiratory compromise. Which developmental task is the challenge for this boy at his age? A. To cough, deep breathe and improve respiratory status B. To establish industry and self confidence C. To develop autonomy and self control D. To develop initiative and a sense of purpose
D
Your 32 year old female patient has erythema marginatum, Sydenham chorea, epistaxis, abdominal pain, fever, cardiac problems and skin nodules. What disorder would you most likely suspect based on these signs and symptoms? A. Leukemia B. Histoplasmosis C. Pneumocystis jirovec D. Rheumatoid arthritis
D
Your 54 year old male HIV positive patient has just expired. How should you care for this deceased patient? A. Bathe the patient but it is no longer necessary to use standard precautions because the patient is deceased. B. Place the patient in an negative pressure isolated area of the morgue. C. Double shroud the patient to prevent the spread of infection. D. Bathe the patient using the same standard precautions you used when he was alive.
D
Your long term care patient has chronic pain and at this point in time the patient needs increasing dosages to adequately control this pain. What is this patient most likely to be affected with? A. Drug addiction B. Drug interactions C. Drug side effects D. Drug tolerance
D
Number the choices below to reflect the correct sequence for using a fire extinguisher: A. Aim at the base of the fire B. Squeeze the handle C. Sweep back and forth D. Pull the pin
D A B C
Place these human needs in order from the greatest priority to the least priority using # 1 as the greatest priority and # 5 as the least of all in terms of priority. A. Self esteem and esteem by others B. Self actualization C. Psychological needs D. Love and belonging E. Physiological needs
E C D A B
What is the name of the section marked: A. Left ventricle B. Right ventricle C. Left atrium D. Right atrium E. Coronary artery F. Pulmonary artery
F