Network + Chapter 1 - 17

advantages of the OSI (open systems interconnection) model

(1) divides network communication processes into smaller and simpler components (2) allows multiple-vendor development through the standardization of network components (3) encourages industry standardization (4) allows various types of network hardware and software to communicate (5) prevents changes in one layer from affecting other layers

steps in Connection-Oriented Communication

(1) the first "connection agreement" segment is a request for synchronization (2) the next segments acknowledge the request and establish connection parameters (the rules) between hosts (3) the final segment notifies the destination host that the connection agreement has been accepted and that the connection has established and the data transfer can now begin

The OSI Model

(7) Application, (6) Presentation, (5) Session, (4) Transport, (3) Network, (2) Data Link, (1) Physical

Network Layer (3)

- Manages logical device addressing, tracks the location of devices on the network, and determines the best way to move data - Transports traffic between devices that aren't locally attached - Routers are specified at this layer, and provide the routing services within an internetwork

On a network, which mask should you use on your point to point WAN links in order to reduce the waste of IP address?

/30

What is the maximum speed for T1?

1.544 Mbps

which of the following ethernet unshielded twisted-pair cabling types is/are commonly used?

10BaseT, 100BaseTX, 1000BaseTX

What is the private address range for Class B networks?

172.16.0.0 through 172.31.255.255

What is the highest usable address on the 172.16.1.0/24 network?

172.16.1.254

If an ethernet port on a router were assigned an IP address of 172.16.1112.1/25, what would be the subnet mask of this host?

172.16.112.0

You have a network with a subnet of 172.16.17.0/22. Which of the following is a valid host address?

172.16.18.255.255.255.252.0

Your router has the following IP address on Ethernet0: 172.16.2.1/23. Which of the following can be valid host IDs on the LAN interface attached to the router?

172.16.2.255

If a host on a network has the address 172.16.45.14/30, what is the subnetwork this host belongs to?

172.16.45.12

What is the Class C range of values for the first octet in decimal and in binary?

192-223, 110xxxxx

Using the following illustration, what would be the IP adress of E0 if you were using the eitgth subnet? The network ID is 192.168.10.0/28, and you need to use the last available IP address in the range. The 0 subnet should not be considered valid for the question

192.168.10.142

Using the illustration in question 15, what would the IP address of E0 if you were using the first subnet? The network ID is 192.168.10.0/28, and you need to use the last avaiable IP address in the range. Again, the zero subnet should not be considered valid for this question.

192.168.10.30

You have an interface on a router with the IP address of 192.168.192.10/29.What is the broadcast address the hosts will use on this LAN?

192.168.192.15

What is the subnetwork address for a host with the IP address 200.10.5.68/28?

200.10.5.64

Convert the following MAC address into a EUI-64 address: 060c:32f1:a4d2

2001:db8:1:1: 040c:32ff:fef1:a4d2

Convert the following MAC address into a EUI-64 address: 0a0c:abac:caba

2001:db8:1:1:080c:abff:feac:caba

Convert the following MAC address into a EUI-64 address: 0b0c:abcd:1234

2001:db8:1:1:090c:abff:fecd:1234

Convert the following MAC address into a EUI-64 address: 0d01:3a2f:1234

2001:db8:1:1:0f01:3aff:fe2f:1234

Convert the following MAC address into a EUI-64 address: 10bc:abcd:1234

2001:db8:1:1:12bc:abff:fecd:1234

What is the maximum number of IP addresses that can be assigned to hosts on a local subnet that uses the 255.255.255.224 subnet mask?

30

TCP and UDP reside at which layer of the OSI model?

4

You have an interface in a router with the IP address of 192.168.192.10/29. Including the router interface, how many hosts can have IP addresses on the LAN attached to the router interface??

6

The network address of 172.16.0.0/19 provides how many subnets and hosts?

8 subnets, 8,190 host each

Which network access security method is commonly used in wireless networks?

802.1X

Which of the following are the IEEE version of STP? (Choose 2) 802.1x VLANs 802.1d 802.11 802.1w

802.1d 802.1w 802.1d and 802.1w are both IEEE STP versions, with 802.1w being the latest and greatest version

Which IEEE standard specifies the protocol for CSMA/CD?

802.3

Project 802 standards to remember

802.3 calls out anything having to do with Ethernet and 802.11 is anything wireless

4. Which of the following are IEEE versions of STP? (Choose two.)

820.1d 8201.w

IPv4 had a loopback address of 127.0.0.1. What is the IPv6 loopback address?

::1

Botnet

A (blank) is a group of computers connected on the Internet for the purpose of performing a task in a coordinated manner.

What is the name for a 48-bit (6-byte) numerical address physically assigned to a network interface, such as a NIC?

A MAC address, sometimes called a hardware address or even a burned-in address

If you wanted to allow remote access to 500 users, which type of device is recommended?

A VPN concentrator

Which of the following is an example of a LAN?

A computer connected to another computer so they can share resources

A network administrator is connecting two host directly through their Ethernet interfaces, as shown in the illustration. Ping attempts between the hosts are unsuccessful. What can be done to provide connectivity between the hosts?

A crossover cable should be used in place of the straight through cable, The subnet mask should be set to 255.255.255.0

What type of virus uses Microsoft's Visual Basic scripting language?

A macro virus

A. Hub

A network device that is used to connect multiple devices together without segmenting a network is a A. Hub B. Wireless access point C. Switch D. Router

If someone installed a wireless router on your network without your knowledge, the WAP would be called (blank).

A rogue access point

*Which of the following statements is true?

A switch creates separate collision domains but one broadcast domain. A router provides a separate broadcast domain.

positive acknowledgment with retransmission

A technique that requires a receiving machine to communicate with the transmitting source by sending an acknowledgment message back to the sender when it receives data.

Which of the following services use UDP?

A,C,F DHCP,SNMP,TFTP

Which of the following describes the DHCP Discover message?

A,b It uses FF:FF:FF:FF:FF:FF as a layer 2 broadcast, It uses UDP as the Transport layer protocol

Which of the following arp utility switches perform the same function? (Choose all that apply.) A. -g B. -A C. -d D. -a

A. -g D. -a The arp utility's -a and -g switches perform the same function. They both show the current ARP cache.

Which switch for the Windows nbtstat utility will display all NetBIOS name-resolution statistics? A. -r B. /r C. -R D. /R

A. -r The command nbtstat -r displays all the name resolutions performed by the local client as well as their associated IP addresses. The R switch will reload the cache.

Which ipconfig switch will display the most complete listing of IP configuration information for a station? A. /all B. /renew C. /release D. /?

A. /all The ipconfig /all switch will display the most complete listing of TCP/IP configuration information, also displaying the MAC address, DHCP lease times, and the DNS addresses.

What is the frequency range of the IEEE 802.11g standard? A. 2.4Gbps B. 5Gbps C. 2.4GHz D. 5GHz

A. 2.4Gbps

Which of the following is considered a PAN? A. AES B. BSS C. SSID D. Bluetooth

A. AES

Which of the following uses a certificate on both the server and client to provide the best wireless security with 802.1x (but is hardest to implement)? A. AES B. TTLS C. TLS D. TKIP

A. AES

Which is the highest encryption that WPA2 can use? A. AES-CCMP B. PPK via IV C. PSK D. TKIP/MIC

A. AES-CCMP

In which type of test is the testing team provided with limited knowledge of the network systems and devices, using publicly available information, while the security team knows the test is coming? A. Blind test B. Double-blind test C. Target test D. Open test

A. Blind test

Which wireless protocol utilizes a short-range communications technology facilitating data transmission from fixed and/or mobile devices, creating wireless personal area networks (PANs)? A. Bluetooth B. Microwave radio relay C. Comsat D. Point-to-multipoint

A. Bluetooth Bluetooth uses a radio technology called Frequency Hopping Spread Spectrum. It chops up the data being sent and transmits chunks of it through the air on up to 75 different frequencies.

You've discovered that the Waiter program (a network server) is running inappropriately on your computer. You therefore locate its SysV startup script and shut it down by removing that script from your default runlevel. How can you further reduce the risk that the Waiter program will be abused by outsiders? (Select two.) A. By blocking the Waiter program's port using a firewall rule B. By reading the Waiter program's documentation to learn how to run it in stealth mode C. By tunneling the Waiter program's port through SSH D. By uninstalling the Waiter package E. By uninstalling any clients associated with Waiter from the server computer

A. By blocking the Waiter program's port using a firewall rule D. By uninstalling the Waiter package

Which technology can eliminate VPN traffic between remote sites traversing the hub? A. DMVPN B. SIP trunk C. DMDW D. DNSSEC

A. DMVPN Benefits of Dynamic Multipoint VPN include elimination of traffic between remote sites traversing the hub, elimination of additional bandwidth requirements at the hub, elimination of additional network delays, conservation of WAN bandwidth, lower costs for VPN circuits, and increased resiliency and redundancy

What type of files need to be updated in order for your antivirus program to have the latest information about attacks and viruses? A. Definition files B. Email files C. DOC (.doc) files D. EXE (.exe) files

A. Definition files

Which network utilities do not have the ability to encrypt passwords? (Select two.) A. FTP B. SSH C. Telnet D. SCP

A. FTP C. Telnet

Which type of virus impacts files with the filename extensions .com, .exe, and .dll? A. File viruses B. SYN flood C. Smurf D. Tribe Flood Network

A. File viruses

Who is responsible for securing a crime scene and protecting the evidence from corruption? A. First responder B. CIO C. Police D. User

A. First responder

Which WAN protocol utilizes packet-switched technology? A. Frame Relay B. ISDN C. ATM D. RIP

A. Frame Relay Frame Relay is the frame WAN technology in which variable-length packets are transmitted by switching.

What defines the appropriate response to a security event on a network? A. Implementing security procedures B. Installing a new router C. Turning off the network D. Implementing an HR policy for dress code

A. Implementing security procedures

The /etc/sudoers file on a computer includes the following line. What is its effect? %admin ALL=(ALL) ALL A. Members of the admin group may run all programs with root privileges by using sudo. B. Users in the admin user alias, defined earlier in the file, may run all programs with root privileges by using sudo. C. The admin user alias is defined to include all users on the system. D. The admin command alias is defined to include all commands. E. The user admin may run all programs on the computer as root by using sudo.

A. Members of the admin group may run all programs with root privileges by using sudo.

Which type of virus affects both the boot sector and files on a computer? A. Mulipartite B. Macro C. Tribe Flood Network 2000 (TFN2K) D. Smurf

A. Mulipartite

Which of the following are true statements about SQL tables? (Select two.) A. Multiple tables may exist in a single SQL database. B. Tables may be combined for cross-table searches using the DROP command. C. Tables consist of rows, each of which holds attributes, and columns, each of which defines a specific database item. D. Careful table design can reduce the amount of data entry and database storage size. E. Tables are stored on disk using a lossy compression algorithm.

A. Multiple tables may exist in a single SQL database. D. Careful table design can reduce the amount of data entry and database storage size.

Which of the following tools might you use to check for open ports on a local computer? (Select three.) A. Nmap B. netstat C. lsof D. portmap E. services

A. Nmap B. netstat C. lsof

Which of the following is true when describing a unicast address? A. Packets addressed to a unicast address are delivered to a single interface. B. These are your typical publicly routable addresses, just like regular publicly routable addresses in IPv4. C. These are like private addresses in IPv4 in that they are not meant to be routed. D. These addresses are meant for nonrouting purposes, but they are almost globally unique, so it is unlikely they will have an address overlap.

A. Packets addressed to a unicast address are delivered to a single interface. Packets addressed to a unicast address are delivered to a single interface. For load balancing, multiple interfaces can use the same address.

What type of security threat allows an attacker to learn your password through the use of an email or phone call? A. Phishing B. Trust-exploration attack C. Man-in-the-middle attack D. Rogue access point

A. Phishing

Which of the following types of attacks involves sending bogus email to lure unsuspecting individuals into divulging sensitive financial or other information? A. Phishing B. Script kiddies C. Spoofing D. Ensnaring E. Hacking

A. Phishing

Which of the following authentication methods allows for domain authentication on both wired and wireless networks? A. RADIUS B. CHAP C. PKI D. RDP

A. RADIUS

Which user-client-server authentication software system combines user authentication and authorization into one central database and maintains user profiles? A. RADIUS B. TACACS+ C. Kerberos D. PKI

A. RADIUS

Which of the following is also called disk striping? A. RAID-0 B. RAID-1 C. RAID-3 D. RAID-5

A. RAID-0

Which Windows utility can you use to connect to a machine 50 miles away to troubleshoot? A. Remote Desktop B. netstat C. arp D. Wireshark

A. Remote Desktop Microsoft has made what it calls Remote Desktop software available for free with Windows products since Windows NT. When this software is installed (installed by default in later versions) on both source and destination computers, a remote desktop connection can be made.

Which tunneling protocol is based on RSA public-key encryption? A. SSL B. L2TP C. IPSec D. SSL VPN

A. SSL

In which attack does the attacker set the session ID ahead of time by sending a link to the victim with the ID preset? A. Session fixation B. Cross-site scripting C. Session sidejacking D. Session seeding

A. Session fixation

What does extended service set (ESS) ID mean? A. That you have more than one access point, and they are in the same SSID connected by a distribution system B. That you have more than one access point, and they are in separate SSIDs connected by a distribution system C. That you have multiple access points, but they are placed physically in different buildings D. That you have multiple access points, but one is a repeater access point

A. That you have more than one access point, and they are in the same SSID connected by a distribution system

Which types of network hardware does Linux support? (Select three.) A. Token Ring B. Ethernet C. DHCP D. NetBEUI E. Fibre Channel

A. Token Ring B. Ethernet E. Fibre Channel

Which of the following security mechanisms has been compromised? A. WEP B. 802.11i C. WPA2 Enterprise D. RADIUS

A. WEP

In which type of attack does the attacker scan for networks using a high-powered antenna connected to a wireless laptop? A. War driving B. Evil twin C. WEP cracking D. WPA cracking

A. War driving

You find that the ssh_host_dsa_key file in /etc/ssh has 0666 (-rw-rw-rw-) permissions. Your SSH server has been in operation for several months. Should you be concerned? A. Yes B. No C. Only if the ssh_host_dsa_key.pub file is also world-readable D. Only if you're launching SSH from a super server E. Only if you're using a laptop computer

A. Yes

To diagnose a problem with an IMAP server (imap.example.com), you type telnet imap .example.com 143 from a remote client. How can this procedure help you? (Select two.) A. You can verify basic connectivity between the client computer and the server program. B. By examining the output, you can locate intermediate routers that are misbehaving. C. By using an encrypted protocol, you ensure that problems aren't caused by a packetsniffing intruder. D. Once connected, you can type IMAP commands to test the server's response to them. E. Once you've logged into the remote system, you can examine its IMAP log files.

A. You can verify basic connectivity between the client computer and the server program. D. Once connected, you can type IMAP commands to test the server's response to them.

You want to create a shortcut for the command cd ~/papers/trade. Which of the following lines, if entered in a bash startup script, will accomplish this goal? A. alias cdpt='cd ~/papers/trade' B. export cdpt='cd ~/papers/trade' C. cd ~/papers/trade D. shortcut cdpt "cd ~/papers/trade" E. env cdpt `cd ~/papers/trade`

A. alias cdpt='cd ~/papers/trade'

Which TCP/IP utility will produce the following result? Interface: 199.102.30.152 Internet Address Physical Address Type 199.102.30.152 A0-ee-00-5b-0e-ac dynamic A. arp B. netstat C. tracert D. nbtstat

A. arp The arp utility is used to display the contents of the ARP cache, which tracks the resolution of IP addresses to physical (MAC) addresses and will produce the displayed output.

Which of the following commands might bring up an interface on eth1? (Select two.) A. dhclient eth1 B. ifup eth1 C. ifconfig eth1 D. network eth1 E. netstat -up eth1

A. dhclient eth1 B. ifup eth1

What commands might you use (along with appropriate options) to learn the value of a specific environment variable? (Select two.) A. env B. DISPLAY C. export D. echo E. cat

A. env D. echo

Which of the following commands, if typed in a bash shell, will create an environment variable called MYVAR with the contents mystuff that will be accessible to subsequently launched programs? A. export MYVAR='mystuff' B. MYVAR='mystuff' C. $MYVAR==mystuff D. echo $MYVAR mystuff E. setenv MYVAR mystuff

A. export MYVAR='mystuff' C. $MYVAR==mystuff

Which of the following are valid looping statements in bash shell scripting? (Select three.) A. for B. while C. goto D. until E. case

A. for B. while D. until

Which of the following programs is conventionally used to perform a DNS lookup? A. host B. dnslookup C. pump D. ifconfig E. netstat

A. host

14. You want to ping the loopback address of your local host. Which two addresses could you type? (Choose two.) A. ping 127.0.0.1 B. ping 0.0.0.0 C. ping ::1 D. trace 0.0.::1

A. ping 127.0.0.1 C. ping ::1 The loopback address with IPv4 is 127.0.0.1. With IPv6, that address is ::1.

Which command captures traffic on all interfaces? A. tcpdump -i any B. tcpdump -i eth0 C. tcpdump host 192.168.5.5 D. tcpdump host all

A. tcpdump -i any To capture traffic on all interfaces, use the any keyword with the -i (interface) switch.

Which of the following allows a server to distinguish among different simultaneous requests from the same host?

A.They have different port numbers

What type of request must a client send if it does not know the destination MAC address?

ARP broadcast

Which WAN technology is considered a cell-switching network?

ATM

The types of ports that can found on a switch are___________________ and ___________________. (Choose two.) VLAN Trunk Protocol Access 802.1Q Trunk

Access Trunk Hosts are connected to a switch and are members of one VLAN. This is called an access port. Trunk links connect between switches and pass information about all VLANs.

*If a switch receives a frame and the source MAC address is not in the MAC address table but the destination address is, what will the switch do with the frame?

Add the source address and port to the MAC address table and forward the frame out the destination port

Three switch functions

Address learning forward/filter decisions loop avoidance

What are the distinct functions of Layer 2 switching that increase available bandwidth on the network? (Choose three.) Address learning Routing Forwarding and filtering Creating network loops Loop avoidance IP addressing

Address learning Forwarding and filtering Loop avoidance Layer 2 features include address learning, forwarding and filtering of the network, and loop avoidance

What are the three switch functions at Layer 2?

Address learning, filtering, and loop avoidance

Which of the folloeing mnemoinic devices can you use to remember the first letter name of each layer of the OSI model in the proper order?

All People Seem To Need Processed Data

What is the difference between a LAN and WAN?

All of the above > WANs can utilize either private or public data transport; WANs cover larger geographical areas; WANs need a special type of router port.

(Blank) attacks are those that increase the effectiveness of a DoS attack.

Amplified or reflective

What defines a unicast address?

An IP address assigned to an interface

What are two possible items checked during a posture assessment?

Anti-malware updates, operating system updates, or Windows Registry settings

Which addressing type is also referred to as one-to-nearest?

Anycast

Which type of address identifies multiple interfaces, but packets are delivered only to the first address it finds?

Anycast

Which layer of the OSI model provides an entry point for programs to access the network infrastruture?

Application

You are connected to a server on the Internet and you click a link o the server and receive a time-out message. WHat layer could be the source of this message?

Application

In computer security, what does AAA stand for?

Authentication, authorization, and accounting

What is the term for the autoconfiguration technology responsible for addresses that start with 169.254?

Automatic Private IP Addressing (APIPA) is the technology that results in hosts automatically configuring themselves with addresses that begin with 169.254.

What value identifies an IPv6 address as a link-local address? A The address uses the MAC address of the system B The address starts with fe80. C The address starts with fee/ D The address starts with 2001.

B The address starts with fe80.

Immediately after creating a shell script called a_script.sh in a text editor, which method will not work to run the script? A Typing bash a_script.sh at the command line. B typing .a/a_script.sh at the command line. C Typing . a_script.sh at the command line D Typing source a_script.sh at the command line. E Any of the above will work.

B typing .a/a_script.sh at the command line.

Which of the following services use TCP?

B,D,E SMTP,FTP,HTTP

You need to transfer files between two host. Which two protocols can you use?

B,E SCP,FTP

Which of the following lines identify valid shell scripts on a normally configured system? (Select two.) A. #!/bin/script B. #!/bin/bash C. !#/bin/tcsh D. #!/bin/sh E. !#/bin/zsh

B. #!/bin/bash C. !#/bin/tcsh

Which nbtstat utility switch will purge and reload the remote NetBIOS name table cache? A. -r B. -R C. /r D. /R

B. -R To purge and reload the remote NetBIOS name cache, you must use nbtstat -R. Remember that the R must be uppercase and that it will not work correctly without the hyphen before it.

What is the maximum data rate for the 802.11b standard? A. 6Mbps B. 11Mbps C. 22Mbps D. 54Mbps

B. 11Mbps

How many non-overlapping channels are available with 802.11a? A. 3 B. 12 C. 23 D. 40

B. 12

An IPv4 address uses 32 bits. How many bits is an IPv6 address? A. 64 B. 128 C. 192 D. 255

B. 128 An IPv6 address is 128 bits in size.

A host automatically configured with an address from which of the following ranges indicates an inability to contact a DHCP server? A. 169.254.0.x with a mask of 255.255.255.0 B. 169.254.x.x with a mask of 255.255.0.0 C. 169.254.x.x with a mask of 255.255.255.0 D. 169.255.x.x with a mask of 255.255.0.0

B. 169.254.x.x with a mask of 255.255.0.0 APIPA uses the link-local private address range of 169.254.0.0 through 169.254.255.255 and a subnet mask of 255.255.0.0.

Which of the following is a valid IPv4 address for a single computer on a TCP/IP network? A. 202.9.257.33 B. 63.63.63.63 C. 107.29.5.3.2 D. 98.7.104.0/24 E. 255.255.255.255

B. 63.63.63.63

What is the main difference between a network-based firewall and a host-based firewall? A. A network-based firewall protects the Internet from attacks. B. A network-based firewall protects a network, not just a single host. C. A network-based firewall protects the network wires. D. A network-based firewall protects a CD from data loss.

B. A network-based firewall protects a network, not just a single host.

What protocol is used to find the hardware address of a local device?

B. ARP

Which of the following describes a broadcast address? A. All network bits are on (1s). B. All host bits are on (1s). C. All network bits are off (0s). D. All host bits are off (0s).

B. All host bits are on (1s). If you turned on all host bits (all of the host bits are 1s), this would be a broadcast address for that network.

You see the following line in a script: mail -s "Error" -c abort < /tmp/msg root What is the effect of this line, if and when it executes? A. An email is sent to the user Error, the script is aborted using root privileges, and error messages are written to /tmp/msg. B. An email with the subject of Error and the contents from /tmp/msg is sent to the local users root and abort. C. An email with the subject of Error and the contents of /tmp/msg is sent to the local user root, and then the script is aborted. D. An email is sent with Error priority to the local user root, and the email system is then shut down with error messages being stored in /tmp/msg. E. An email with the subject of Error and contents of /

B. An email with the subject of Error and the contents from /tmp/msg is sent to the local users root and abort.

Which of the following is NOT a chain type used by iptables? A. Forward B. Backward C. Input D. Output

B. Backward There are three different chain types: Input: Controls behavior for incoming connections. Forward: Used for incoming connections that aren't being delivered locally (like a router would receive) Output: Used for outgoing connections

What type of wireless frame populates the display when someone is scanning for wireless networks? A. Probe response B. Beacon C. SSID D. Discovery

B. Beacon

Your SMTP email server, mail.luna.edu, receives a message addressed to postmaster@ mail.luna.edu. There is no postmaster account on this computer. Assuming the system is properly configured, how should the email server respond? A. Accept the message, but do so very slowly so as to tie up the sender's resources. B. Bounce the message so that the sender knows the account doesn't exist. C. Hold the message in the local mail queue until the postmaster account is created. D. Delete the message without bouncing it so as to reduce email clutter. E. Deliver the email to another account, either locally or on another computer.

B. Bounce the message so that the sender knows the account doesn't exist.

What kind of attack involves the hacker attempting all combinations of characters for a password to gain access? A. Packet sniffers B. Brute force attack C. Worm D. Backdoor

B. Brute force attack

Which type of policy should be implemented to secure important company documents and materials when employees leave their workstations? A. Clean housekeeping B. Clean desk C. Security audit D. Proactive defense

B. Clean desk

Which spread-spectrum technology does the 802.11b standard define for operation? A. IR B. DSSS C. FHSS D. DSSS and FHSS E. IR, FHSS, and DSSS

B. DSSS

If you have a device in a telecommunications closet owned and installed by the telecommunications company (telco) and it's your responsibility to cable from this box to the CPE, which term should you use to refer to the device? A. Customer premises equipment B. Demarcation point C. Toll network D. Central office

B. Demarcation point The demarcation point is the precise spot where the service provider's responsibility ends and the CPE begins.

At which stage of PPPoE are the MAC addresses of the endpoints exchanged? A. Session B. Discovery C. Transport D. Final

B. Discovery

You examine your /etc/aliases file and find it contains the following line: root: jody What can you conclude from this? A. Email addressed to jody on this system will be sent to the local user root. B. Email addressed to root on this system will be sent to the local user jody. C. The local user jody has broken into the system and acquired root privileges. D. The local user jody has permission to read email directly from root's mail queue. E. The administrator may log in using either username: root or jody.

B. Email addressed to root on this system will be sent to the local user jody.

Companies that want to ensure that their data is secure during transit should use which of the following? A. Firewalls B. Encryption C. Data accounting D. Routing table

B. Encryption

You want to use xinetd access controls to limit who may access a server that's launched via xinetd. Specifically, only users on the 192.168.7.0/24 network block should be able to use that server. How may you do this? A. Enter hosts_allow = 192.168.7.0/24 in the /etc/xinetd.d configuration file for the server in question. B. Enter only_from = 192.168.7.0/24 in the /etc/xinetd.d configuration file for the server in question. C. Enter server : 192.168.7., where server is the server's name, in the /etc/hosts .allow file. D. Enter server : 192.168.7., where server is the server's name, in the /etc/hosts .deny file. E. Type ip

B. Enter only_from = 192.168.7.0/24 in the /etc/xinetd.d configuration file for the server in question.

IPv6 unicast routing is running on the Corp router. Which of the following addresses would be used as the EUI-64 address? Corp#sh int f0/0 FastEthernet0/0 is up, line protocol is up Hardware is AmdFE, address is 000d.bd3b.0d80 (bia 000d.bd3b.0d80) [output cut] A. FF02::3c3d:0d:bdff:fe3b:0d80 B. FE80::3c3d:2d:bdff:fe3b:0d80 C. FE80::3c3d:0d:bdff:fe3b:0d80 D. FE80::3c3d:2d:ffbd:3bfe:0d80

B. FE80::3c3d:2d:bdff:fe3b:0d80 This can be a hard question if you don't remember to invert the 7th bit! Always look for the 7th bit when studying for the exam. The EUI-64 autoconfiguration inserts an FF:FE in the middle of the 48-bit MAC address to create a unique IPv6 address.

Which of the following is a Layer 2 broadcast? A. FF.FF.FF.EE.EE.EE B. FF.FF.FF.FF.FF.FF C. 255.255.255.255 D. 255.0.0.0

B. FF.FF.FF.FF.FF.FF A Layer 2 broadcast is also referred to as a MAC address broadcast, which is in hexadecimal and is FF.FF.FF.FF.FF.FF.

What layer in the IP stack is equivalent to the Transport layer of the OSI model?

B. Host-to-Host

Which of the following cannot be identified by Nessus? A. Unsecured access to sensitive data on a system B. IP address conflicts C. Misconfigurations like open mail relay D. Password issues

B. IP address conflicts

Which of the following items cannot be identified by the Nessus program? A. Default password use B. Incorrect IP addresses C. Unsecured data D. Missing security patches

B. Incorrect IP addresses

You connect a new host to your company's wireless network. The host is set to receive a DHCP address and the WPA2 key is entered correctly. However, the host cannot connect to the network. What can the problem be? A. DNS is not configured on the host. B. MAC filtering is enabled on the AP. C. The network has run out of wireless connections. D. The host is enabled to run 802.11b and 802.11g.

B. MAC filtering is enabled on the AP.

You have a remote user who can connect to the Internet but not to the office via their VPN client. After determining the problem, which should be your next step? A. Have the client reboot their host. B. Make sure the user has the correct VPN address and password. C. Have the client reinstall their VPN software. D. Reboot the router at the corporate office.

B. Make sure the user has the correct VPN address and password.

Which of the following entries are found in the /etc/hosts file? A. A list of hosts allowed to remotely access this one B. Mappings of IP addresses to hostnames C. A list of users allowed to remotely access this host D. Passwords for remote Web administration E. A list of port numbers and their associated protocols

B. Mappings of IP addresses to hostnames

Which devices can interfere with the operation of a wireless network because they operate on similar frequencies? (Choose two.) A. Copier B. Microwave oven C. Toaster D. Cordless phone E. IP phone F. AM radio

B. Microwave oven D. Cordless phone

Which of the following is a vulnerability scanner? A. Network Monitor B. Nessus C. Traceroute D. Tripwire

B. Nessus

In which layer of the OSI model does IPSec operate? A. Physical B. Network C. Transport D. Application

B. Network

Which is not a common optical carrier level (OC-x)? A. OC-1 B. OC-4 C. OC-12 D. OC-192

B. OC-4 OC-1, OC-3, OC-12, OC-48, and OC-192 are the normal service offerings. OC-1 has the lowest data rate at 51.84 Mbps, and OC-192 is the highest at 9.953 Gbps.

Which wireless LAN design ensures that a mobile wireless client will not lose connectivity when moving from one access point to another? A. Using adapters and access points manufactured by the same company B. Overlapping the wireless cell coverage by at least 10 percent C. Configuring all access points to use the same channel D. Utilizing MAC address filtering to allow the client MAC address to authenticate with the surrounding APs

B. Overlapping the wireless cell coverage by at least 10 percent

Which of the following is true when describing a multicast address? A. Packets addressed to a unicast address from a multicast address are delivered to a single interface. B. Packets are delivered to all interfaces identified by the address. This is also called a one-to-many address. C. It identifies multiple interfaces and is delivered to only one address. This address can also be called one-to-one-of-many. D. These addresses are meant for nonrouting purposes, but they are almost globally unique so it is unlikely they will have an address overlap.

B. Packets are delivered to all interfaces identified by the address. This is also called a one-to-many address. Packets addressed to a multicast address are delivered to all interfaces identified by the multicast address, the same as in IPv4. A multicast address is also called a one-to-many address. You can tell multicast addresses in IPv6 because they always start with FF.

For best SSH server security, how should you set the Protocol option in /etc/ssh/sshd_ config? A. Protocol 1 B. Protocol 2 C. Protocol 1,2 D. Protocol 2,1 E. Protocol *

B. Protocol 2

Wireshark is an example of a (blank)? A. Throughput tester B. Protocol analyzer C. Remote connection tool D. IDS

B. Protocol analyzer Commercial sniffers like Wireshark and Omnipeek can capture any packets because they set the NIC to operate in promiscuous mode, which means the NIC processes all packets that it sees.

Which of the following devices can read an entry card from a distance? A. Biometric reader B. Proximity reader C. Mantrap D. Key fob

B. Proximity reader

You have installed a point-to-point connection using wireless bridges and Omni directional antennas between two buildings. The throughput is low. What can you do to improve the link? A. Replace the bridges with APs. B. Replace the Omni directional antennas with Yagis. C. Configure 802.11a on the links. D. Install amps to boost the signal.

B. Replace the Omni directional antennas with Yagis.

802.11n uses MIMO. How does this optimize throughput to gain the high-speed advantage that 802.11n provides? A. By specifying an acknowledgment of each and every frame, 802.11n provides better overhead. B. Several frames are sent by several antennae over several paths and are then recombined by another set of antennae. C. One frame at a time is sent, but faster than in 802.11g because multiple antennas are used (multiple-in, multiple-out). D. MIMO packs smaller packets into a single unit, which improves throughput.

B. Several frames are sent by several antennae over several paths and are then recombined by another set of antennae

What is it called when the firewall ignores an attack? A. Logging B. Shunning C. Notification D. False negative

B. Shunning

IDSs can identify attackers by their . A. Port number B. Signature C. Timing D. IV

B. Signature

Which servers might you consider retiring after activating an SSH server? (Select two.) A. SMTP B. Telnet C. FTP D. NTP E. Samba

B. Telnet C. FTP

Which of the following types of information are returned by typing ifconfig eth0? (Select two.) A. The names of programs that are using eth0 B. The IP address assigned to eth0 C. The hardware address of eth0 D. The hostname associated with eth0 E. The kernel driver used by eth0

B. The IP address assigned to eth0 C. The hardware address of eth0

You're configuring a new system, and your network administrator scribbles its IP address (172.25.78.89), netmask (255.255.255.0), gateway address (172.25.79.1), and DNS server address (10.24.89.201) on a piece of paper. You enter this information into your configuration files and type ifup eth0, but you find that you can't access the Internet with this computer. Which of the following is definitely true? A. Because the DNS server is on a completely different network, it won't function properly for your system. You should ask for the local network's DNS server's IP address. B. The netmask identifies the gateway as being on a different network segment than the computer you're configuring, so the two can't communicate directly. You most likely misread one address. C. Because the IP addresses involved are private IP addresses, there's no way for them to access the Internet. You must ask for public IP addresses for this system or use only your local private network. D. The computer's IP address is a Class B address, but the netmask is for a Class C address. This combination can't work together, so you must obtain a new IP address or netmask. E. The ifup utility works only for computers that use DHCP, so the use of a static IP address as specified in the question won't work correctly.

B. The netmask identifies the gateway as being on a different network segment than the computer you're configuring, so the two can't communicate directly. You most likely misread one address.

15. What two statements about IPv6 addresses are true? (Choose two.) A. Leading zeros are required. B. Two colons (::) are used to represent successive hexadecimal fields of zeros. C. Two colons (::) are used to separate fields. D. A single interface will have multiple IPv6 addresses of different types.

B. Two colons (::) are used to represent successive hexadecimal fields of zeros. D. A single interface will have multiple IPv6 addresses of different types. In order to shorten the written length of an IPv6 address, successive fields of zeros may be replaced by double colons. In trying to shorten the address further, leading zeros may also be removed. Just as with IPv4, a single device's interface can have more than one address; with IPv6 there are more types of addresses and the same rule applies. There can be link-local, global unicast, and multicast addresses all assigned to the same interface.

You've just installed MySQL and run it by typing mysql. How would you create a database called fish to store data on different varieties of fish? A. Type NEW DATABASE fish; at the mysql> prompt. B. Type CREATE DATABASE fish; at the mysql> prompt. C. Type NEW DATABASE FISH; at the mysql> prompt. D. Type DATABASE CREATE fish; at the mysql> prompt. E. Type DB CREATE fish; at the mysql> prompt.

B. Type CREATE DATABASE fish; at the mysql> prompt.

What process allows you to update your Windows-based operating system? A. Technet B. Windows Update C. Text message D. Hotfix

B. Windows Update

Which of the following commands will locate all program files on a computer on which the SUID bit is set? A. find / -type SUID B. find / -perm +4000 -type f C. find / -perm +SUID -type f D. find / -type +4000 E. find / -suid

B. find / -perm +4000 -type f

Of the following, which is the best password? A. Odysseus B. iA71Oci^My~~~~~~ C. pickettomato D. Denver2Colorado E. 123456

B. iA71Oci^My~~~~~~

Which command would you type, as root, to discover all the open network connections on a Linux computer? A. lsof -c a B. netstat -ap C. ifconfig eth0 D. nmap -sT localhost E. top -net

B. netstat -ap

Which TCP/IP utility might produce the following output? Reply from 204.153.163.2: bytes=32 time=1ms TTL=128 Reply from 204.153.163.2: bytes=32 time=1ms TTL=128 Reply from 204.153.163.2: bytes=32 time=1ms TTL=128 Reply from 204.153.163.2: bytes=32 time<10ms TTL=128 A. tracert B. ping C. WINS D. ipconfig

B. ping The purpose of the ping utility is to test the communications channel between two IP hosts as well as how long it takes the packets to get from one host to another.

Which ping commands will verify that your local TCP/IP interface is working? (Choose all that apply.) A. ping 204.153.163.2 B. ping 127.0.0.1 C. ping localif D. ping localhost E. ping iphost

B. ping 127.0.0.1 D. ping localhost The address 127.0.0.1 is the special IP address designated for the local TCP/IP interface. The hostname localhost is the hostname given to the local interface. Therefore, pinging either the IP address or the hostname for the local interface will tell you whether the local interface is working.

Which of the following commands should you type to add to host 192.168.0.10 a default gateway to 192.168.0.1? A. route add default gw 192.168.0.10 192.168.0.1 B. route add default gw 192.168.0.1 C. route add 192.168.0.10 default 192.168.0.1 D. route 192.168.0.10 gw 192.168.0.1 E. route host gw 192.168.0.1

B. route add default gw 192.168.0.1

Which utility produces output similar to the following? 1 110 ms 96 ms 107 ms fgo1.corpcomm.net [209.74.93.10] 2 96 ms 126 ms 95 ms someone.corpcomm.net [209.74.93.1] 3 113 ms 119 ms 112 ms Serial5-1-1.GW2.MSP1.alter.net [157.130.100.185] 4 133 ms 123 ms 126 ms 152.ATM3-0.XR2.CHI6.ALTER.NET [146.188.209.126] 5 176 ms 133 ms 129 ms 290.ATM2-0.TR2.CHI4.ALTER.NET [146.188.209.10] 6 196 ms 184 ms 218 ms 106.ATM7-0.TR2.SCL1.ALTER.NET [146.188.136.162] 7 182 ms 187 ms 187 ms 298.ATM7-0.XR2.SJC1.ALTER.NET [146.188.146.61] 8 204 ms 176 ms 186 ms 192.ATM3-0-0.SAN-JOSE9- GW.ALTER.NET [146.188.144.133] 9 202 ms 198 ms 212 ms atm3-0-622M.cr1.sjc.globalcenter.net [206.57.16.17] 10 209 ms 202 ms 195 ms pos3-1-155M.br4.SJC.globalcenter.net [206.132.150.98] 11 190 ms * 191 ms pos0-0-0-155M.hr3.SNV.globalcenter.net [206.251.5.93] 12 195 ms 188 ms 188 ms pos4-1-0- 155M.hr2.SNV.globalcenter.net [206.132.150.206] 13 198 ms 202 ms 197 ms www10.yahoo.com [204.71.200.75] A. arp B. tracert C. nbtstat D. netstat

B. tracert The tracert utility will give you that output. The tracert command (or trace for short) traces the route from the source IP host to the destination host.

You need to log in to a Unix server across a network that is not secure. Which of the following protocols will allow you to remotely administrator this server securely?

B.SSH

What EGP protocol is used on the internet?

BGP

What is a disadvantage of using port spanning? It breaks up broadcast domains on all ports It can create overhead on the switch It makes the switch one large collision domain It makes the switch fast between only two ports instead of all ports

Be careful when using port mirroring/spanning on a switch because it can cause a lot of overhead on the switch and possibly crash your network. So, it's a good idea to use this feature at strategic times and only for short periods if possible

If a switch receives a frame, and the source MAC address is not in the MAC address table but the destination address is, what will the switch do with the frame? Discard it and send an error message back to the originating host Flood the network with the frame Add the source address and port to the MAC address table and forward the frame out the destination port Add the destination to the MAC address table and then forward the frame

Because the source MAC address is not in the MAC address table, the switch will add the source address and the port it is connected to into the MAC address table and then forward the frame to the outgoing port.

VLANs break up ________ domains in a Layer 2 switched network.

Broadcast

What type of attack injects a command that overflows the amount of memory allocated and executes commands that would not normally be allowed?

Buffer overflow

You want to improve network performance by increasing the bandwidth available to hosts and limiting the size of the broadcast domains. Which of the following options will achieve this goal? Managed hubs Bridges Switches Switches configured with VLANs

By creating and implementing VLANs in your switched network, you can break up broadcast domains at Layer 2. For hosts on different VLANs to communicate, you must have a router or Layer 3 switch.

Which statements are true regarding ICMP packets?

C,D They can provide hosts with information about network problems, They are encapsulated within IP datagrams

Which if the following TCP/IP protocols are used at the Application layer of the Ost model?

C,D,E Telnet,FTP,TFTP

Your login server is using PAM, and you want to limit users' access to system resources. Which configuration file will you need to edit? A. /etc/limits.conf B. /etc/pam/limits.conf C. /etc/security/limits.conf D. /etc/security/pam/limits.conf E. /usr/local/limits.conf

C. /etc/security/limits.conf

Which of the following is a valid Class B address? A. 10.1.1.1 B. 126.1.1.1 C. 129.1.1.1 D. 192.168.1.1

C. 129.1.1.1 The Class B range is 128 through 191 in the first octet/byte. Only option C is a valid Class B address

Which of the following are private IP addresses (Choose two.) A. 12.0.0.1 B. 168.172.19.39 C. 172.20.14.36 D. 172.33.194.30 E. 192.168.24.43

C. 172.20.14.36 E. 192.168.24.43 The Class A private address range is 10.0.0.0 through 10.255.255.255. The Class B private address range is 172.16.0.0 through 172.31.255.255, and the Class C private address range is 192.168.0.0 through 192.168.255.255.

Which of the following is an invalid IP address for a host? A. 10.0.0.1 B. 128.0.0.1 C. 224.0.0.1 D. 172.0.0.1

C. 224.0.0.1 Option C is a multicast address and cannot be used to address hosts.

In a Class C IP address, how long is the network address? A. 8 bits B. 16 bits C. 24 bits D. 32 bits

C. 24 bits A default Class C subnet mask is 255.255.255.0, which means that the first three octets, or first 24 bits, are the network number.

How wide are the channels used in 802.11n in order to gain the large bandwidth that the specification provides? A. 22MHz B. 20MHz C. 40MHz D. 100MHz

C. 40MHz

What is the bandwidth for OC-12? A. 1.544 Mbps B. 45 Mbps C. 622 Mbps D. 1000 Mbps

C. 622 Mbps Optical carrier 12 has speeds up to 622 Mbps.

What is the minimum number of characters you should use when creating a secure password? A. 6 B. 7 C. 8 D. 15

C. 8

Which statement regarding private IP addresses is most accurate? A. Private addresses cannot be used in intranets that require routing. B. Private addresses must be assigned by a registrar or ISP. C. A remote host across the Internet cannot ping your host if it has a private address. D. Private addresses can only be used by a single administrative domain.

C. A remote host across the Internet cannot ping your host if it has a private address. Private IP addresses are not routable over the Internet, as either source or destination addresses. Because of that fact, any entity that wishes to use such addresses internally can do so without causing conflicts with other entities and without asking permission of any registrar or service provider. Despite not being allowed on the Internet, private IP addresses are fully routable on private intranets.

Which WAN protocol utilizes cell-switching technology? A. Frame Relay B. ISDN C. ATM D. RIP

C. ATM ATM uses a high-speed cell-switching technology that can handle data as well as realtime voice and video. The ATM protocol breaks up transmitted data into 53-byte cells.

In general, firewalls work by (blank). A. Rejecting all packets regardless of security restrictions B. Forwarding all packets regardless of security restrictions C. Allowing only packets that pass security restrictions to be forwarded D. None of the above

C. Allowing only packets that pass security restrictions to be forwarded

What two statements about IPv4 and IPv6 addresses are true? (Choose two.) A. An IPv6 address is 32 bits long, represented in hexadecimal. B. An IPv6 address is 128 bits long, represented in decimal. C. An IPv4 address is 32 bits long, represented in decimal. D. An IPv6 address is 128 bits long, represented in hexadecimal.

C. An IPv4 address is 32 bits long, represented in decimal. D. An IPv6 address is 128 bits long, represented in hexadecimal. IPv4 addresses are 32 bits long and are represented in decimal format. IPv6 addresses are 128 bits long and represented in hexadecimal format.

You need to install wireless Internet access in an open warehouse environment. After installing the equipment, the technician notices varying signal strengths throughout the warehouse. How do you make sure there is full coverage? A. Turn on broadcast key rotation. B. Change the encryption method used on all the APs C. Change the antenna placement. D. Use channel bonding. E. Use channel shaping.

C. Change the antenna placement.

You need to install wireless on multiple floors of a large building and maintenance area. What is your first concern before installing the APs? A. Authentication B. Encryption C. Channel overlap D. AP configuration

C. Channel overlap

Which of the following is not a function of Nmap? A. Perform port scanning B. Identify operating systems C. Collect passwords D. Identify versions of network services in operation on the network

C. Collect passwords

Which of the following minimizes the effect of a disaster and includes the steps necessary to resume normal operation? A. SLA B. BIA C. DRP D. ARP

C. DRP

What does the x in xDSL represent? A. Wire type B. Transmission speed C. DSL type D. Download speed

C. DSL type The x in xDSL represents the different letters that refer to the DSL flavors. xDSLs use high-frequency signals, whereas regular phone calls use low-frequency signals over the same lines.

Where does the local exchange carrier responsibility end and your responsibility begin on a WAN link? A. POP B. Central office C. Demarc D. Smart jack

C. Demarc The demarc is the precise spot where the service provider's (local exchange carrier's) responsibility ends and the CPE begins. It's generally a device in a telecommunications closet owned and installed by the telecommunications company (telco).

You are having DSL Internet connection issues and time-outs. You check the interface on your router and notice a lot of input errors. What could the problem be? A. CSU/DSU B. Demarc C. Duplex configuration D. Clocking is down

C. Duplex configuration We're thinking in terms of a DSL, so a CSU/DSU is not used, nor is a demarc. If clocking was down, your Internet would be completely down. Input errors could be indicative of a duplex issue.

To encode or read an encrypted message, what tool is necessary? A. Routing table B. Internet access C. Encryption key D. Email address

C. Encryption key

Which of the following is not an enhancement provided by TLS version 2.0? A. Improvements in the operation of the MD5/SHA-1 hashing function B. Enhanced support for the Advanced Encryption Standard (AES) C. Expansion of the use of TLS to VPNs D. More flexibility in the choice of hashing and encryption algorithm

C. Expansion of the use of TLS to VPNs

Which of the following is not a popular SMTP server for Linux? A. Postfix B. Sendmail C. Fetchmail D. Exim E. qmail

C. Fetchmail

When utilizing multifactor authentication, which of the following is an example of verifying something you are? A. Smart card B. Password C. Fingerprint D. Certificate

C. Fingerprint

A(n) (blank) learns what is "normal" on the network and can react to abnormalities even if they're not part of the signature database. A. IDS B. Firewall C. IPS D. VPN concentrator

C. IPS

What is the main difference between a private network and a public network? A. In a private network, everyone has access; in a public network, only authorized users have access. B. There is no difference; in both a private and public network, only authorized users have access. C. In a private network, only authorized users have access; in a public network, everyone that is connected has access. D. In a private network, everyone has access; in a public network, only the first 100 people have access.

C. In a private network, only authorized users have access; in a public network, everyone that is connected has access.

Describe the effect of the following short script, cp1, if it's called as cp1 big.c big.cc: #!/bin/bash cp $2 $1 A. It has the same effect as the cp command—copying the contents of big.c to big.cc. B. It compiles the C program big.c and calls the result big.cc. C. It copies the contents of big.cc to big.c, eliminating the old big.c. D. It converts the C program big.c into a C++ program called big.cc. E. It interprets the big.c and big.cc files as bash scripts.

C. It copies the contents of big.cc to big.c, eliminating the old big.c.

What is the effect of the following SQL command, assuming the various names and data exist? mysql> UPDATE stars SET magnitude=2.25 WHERE starname='Mintaka'; A. It returns database entries from the stars table for all stars with magnitude of 2.25 and starname of Mintaka. B. It sets the value of the stars field in the magnitude set to Mintaka, using a precision of 2.25. C. It sets the value of the magnitude field to 2.25 for any item in the stars table with the starname of Mintaka. D. It combines the stars and magnitude=2.25 tables, returning all items for which starname is Mintaka. E. It updates the stars database, creating a new entry with a starname of Mintaka and a magnitude of 2.25.

C. It sets the value of the magnitude field to 2.25 for any item in the stars table with the starname of Mintaka.

Which cellular WAN technology has the best data rate? A. HSPA B. HSPA+ C. LTE D. WiMAX

C. LTE LTE is true 4G and has the best data rates.

As part of a security audit, you plan to use Nmap to check all the computers on your network for unnecessary servers. Which of the following tasks should you do prior to running your Nmap check? A. Back up /etc/passwd on the target systems to eliminate the possibility of its being damaged. B. Obtain the root passwords to the target systems so that you can properly configure them to accept the Nmap probes. C. Obtain written permission from your boss to perform the Nmap sweep. D. Configure /etc/sudoers on the computer you intend to use for the sweep, to give yourself the ability to run Nmap. E. Disable any firewall between the computer that's running Nmap and the servers you intend to scan.

C. Obtain written permission from your boss to perform the Nmap sweep.

In what environment variable is the current working directory stored? A. PATH B. CWD C. PWD D. PRESENT E. WORKING

C. PWD

What OSI model layers do WAN protocols operate in? A. Layer 6, Layer 4, Layer 2 B. Transport, Data Link, Network C. Physical, Data Link, Network D. Application, Data Link, Network

C. Physical, Data Link, Network These different protocols and technologies all occupy the lower three layers of the OSI model: the Physical layer, the Data Link layer, and sometimes the Network layer. Most WAN protocols work only at the Physical layer and Data Link layer.

What is the benefit of using a firewall? A. Protects external users B. Protects external hardware C. Protects LAN resources D. Protects hardware from failure

C. Protects LAN resources

Which part of a SIP trunk is the responsibility of the provider? A. Private domain B. Community domain C. Public domain D. External domain

C. Public domain The public domain (responsibility of the provider) is the part of the network that allows access into the PSTN (Public Switched Telephone Network) or PLMN (Public Land Mobile Network).

What is the CIR in Frame Relay? A. Virtual circuit that is established when data needs to be transmitted B. Maximum speed at which the Frame Relay interface can transmit C. Rate at which the Frame Relay switch guarantees to transfer data D. Rate at which the Frame Relay switch agrees to receive data

C. Rate at which the Frame Relay switch guarantees to transfer data The committed information rate (CIR) is the rate, in bits per second, at which the Frame Relay switch guarantees to transfer data.

Which is not a type of access control list (ACL)? A. Standard B. Extended C. Referred D. Outbound

C. Referred

Which of the following protocols is used by email servers to exchange messages with one another?

C. SMTP

Which is not a type of xDSL? A. ADSL B. HDSL C. SONET D. SDSL

C. SONET ADSL, HDSL, SDSL, VDSL or VHDSL, and VDSL2 are all common xDSL types. Synchronous Optical Network (SONET) is the standard for synchronous data transmission on optical fiber.

Which additional configuration step is necessary in order to connect to an access point that has SSID broadcasting disabled? A. Set the SSID value in the client software to public. B. Configure open authentication on the AP and the client. C. Set the SSID value on the client to the SSID configured on the AP. D. Configure MAC address filtering to permit the client to connect to the AP

C. Set the SSID value on the client to the SSID configured on the AP.

A firewall keeps track of the established connections passing through it. A. Hardware B. Software C. Stateful D. Network

C. Stateful

Which type of communication has a line speed of 1.544 Mbps (millions of bits per second)? A. T3 B. T1C C. T1 D. T4

C. T1 A T1 has a line speed of 1.544 Mbps. This 1.544 Mbps connection uses Digital Signal 1 (DS1) and aggregates 24 discrete 64 Kbps channels that use Digital Signal 0 (DS0). Other T-series connections have greater maximum connection speeds.

A host is rebooted and you view the IP address that it was assigned. The address is 169.123.13.34. Which of the following happened? A. The host received an APIPA address. B. The host received a multicast address. C. The host received a public address. D. The host received a private address.

C. The host received a public address. I wonder how many of you picked APIPA address as your answer? An APIPA address is 169.254.x.x. The host address in this question is a public address. Somewhat of a tricky question if you did not read carefully.

Ordinary users report being unable to log onto a computer, but root has no problems doing so. What might you check for to explain this situation? A. A misbehaving syslogd daemon B. A login process that's running as root C. The presence of an /etc/nologin file D. The presence of an SUID bit on /bin/login E. Inappropriate use of shadow passwords

C. The presence of an /etc/nologin file

13. Which of the following is true when describing an anycast address? A. Packets addressed to a unicast address from an anycast address are delivered to a single interface. B. Packets are delivered to all interfaces identified by the address. This is also called a one-to-many address. C. This address identifies multiple interfaces, and the anycast packet is delivered to only one address: the closest one. This address can also be called one-to-nearest. D. These addresses are meant for nonrouting purposes, but they are almost globally unique so it is unlikely they will have an address overlap.

C. This address identifies multiple interfaces, and the anycast packet is delivered to only one address: the closest one. This address can also be called one-to-nearest. Anycast addresses identify multiple interfaces, which is the same as multicast; however, the big difference is that the anycast packet is delivered to only one address: the first one it finds defined in terms of routing distance. This address can also be called one-to-one-ofmany or one-to-nearest.

What is the function of a DMZ? A. To separate a security zone for an IPS and IDS server B. To create a security zone for VPN terminations C. To create a security zone that allows public traffic but is isolated from the private inside network D. To create a security zone that allows private traffic but is isolated from the public network

C. To create a security zone that allows public traffic but is isolated from the private inside network

Why is it important to keep your system patched and up-to-date? A. To completely stop your need for security B. To increase the functionality of your applications C. To fix system vulnerabilities D. To make Windows completely safe and worry free

C. To fix system vulnerabilities

How can you learn what programs are currently accessing the network on a Linux system? A. Type ifconfig -p eth0. B. Examine /proc/network/programs. C. Type netstat -p. D. Examine /etc/xinetd.conf. E. Type dmesg | less.

C. Type netstat -p.

When is the bind option of xinetd most useful? A. When you want to run two servers on one port B. When you want to specify computers by name rather than IP address C. When xinetd is running on a system with two network interfaces D. When resolving conflicts between different servers E. When xinetd manages a DNS server program

C. When xinetd is running on a system with two network interfaces

What is the main difference between a worm and a virus? A. Worms require user action for replication; viruses do not. B. Worms can be spread by email and viruses cannot. C. Worms can replicate without user intervention; viruses cannot. D. None of the above.

C. Worms can replicate without user intervention; viruses cannot.

You want to set up a computer on a local network via a static TCP/IP configuration, but you lack a gateway address. Which of the following is true? A. Because the gateway address is necessary, no TCP/IP networking functions will work. B. TCP/IP networking will function, but you'll be unable to convert hostnames to IP addresses or vice versa. C. You'll be able to communicate with machines on your local network segment but not with other systems. D. Since a gateway is needed only for IPv6, you'll be able to use IPv4 but not IPv6 protocols. E. Without a gateway

C. You'll be able to communicate with machines on your local network segment but not with other systems.

You need to find a NIC's specific MAC address and IP address. Which command-line tool can you use to find this information without physically going to the computer? A. ping B. nbtstat C. arp D. netstat E. ftp

C. arp The arp utility will show you the resolved MAC to IP address of all hosts on your network segment. Remember, this will work for -only local hosts, not remote hosts.

Which arp command can you use to display the currently cached ARP entries? A. arp B. arp -all C. arp -a D. ipconfig -arp E. arp -ipconfig

C. arp -a The arp -a command will display the current contents of the ARP cache on the local workstation.

Which of the following are not Linux DHCP clients? (Select two.) A. pump B. dhcpcd C. dhcpd D. dhclient E. ifconfig

C. dhcpd E. ifconfig

Which command-line tool would best be used to verify DNS functionality? A. netstat B. nbtstat C. dig D. icmp E. arp

C. dig dig is an old UNIX command that will show you DNS server information.

Which utility can you use to find the MAC and TCP/IP addresses of your Windows workstation? A. ping B. ipconfig C. ipconfig /all D. tracert E. telnet

C. ipconfig /all The ipconfig /all utility will display the current configuration of TCP/IP on a given workstation including the current IP address, DNS configuration, WINS configuration, and default gateway

Which TCP/IP utility is most often used to test whether an IP host is up and functional? A. ftp B. telnet C. ping D. netstat

C. ping The program Packet Internet Groper (ping) is used to find out if a host has the IP stack initialized.

Network accesses to parts of the Internet work fine, but several common sites have stopped responding (even when addressed via raw IP addresses). Which of the following tools will be most helpful in diagnosing the source of this problem? A. netstat B. ping C. traceroute D. ifconfig E. dig

C. traceroute

Which utility will display a list of all the routers that a packet passes through on the way to an IP destination? A. netstat B. nbtstat C. tracert D. ping E. arp

C. tracert The tracert utility returns the names and addresses of all routers through which a packet passes on its way to a destination host.

You are the network administrator. A user calls you, complaining that the performance of the intranet web server is sluggish. When you try to ping the server, it takes several seconds for the server to respond. You suspect that the problem is related to a router that is seriously overloaded. Which workstation utility could you use to find out which router is causing this problem? A. netstat B. nbtstat C. tracert D. ping E. arp

C. tracert The tracert utility will tell you which router is having the performance problem and how long it takes to move between each host. Tracert can be used to locate problem areas in a network.

You need to make sure that the time is consistent across all your network devices. What protocol do you need to run on your networks.

C.NTP

You need to have a connection to run applications that are installed on only your desktop computer at your office. Which protocol will provide a GUI interfeace to your work computer?

C.RDP

What command would be used to view the ARP cache on your host?

C:\ >arp -a

Which technology uses the term HFC?

Cable. In a modern network, hybrid fiber coaxial (HFC) is a telecommunications industry term for a network that incorporates both optical fiber and coaxial cable to create a broadband network.

You need to connect two devices on a network and they need to send voice traffic. Which of the following cables will you use?

Cat5

Switches, by default, only break up ________ domains.

Collisioin

You need to perform maintenance on a router in your office. It is important that the network does not go down. What can you do to accomplish this goal?

Configure on the router a static router that temporarily reroutes traffic through another office

When configuring the IP settings on a computer on one subnet to ensure that it can communicate with a computer on another subnet, which of the following is desirable?

Configure the with a default gateway that matches the IP address of the interface of the router that is attached to the same subnet as the computer.

If you wanted to ensure that your firewall could block inflammatory email, which type of service would you look for?

Content filtering

What is it called when protocols update their forwarding tables after changes have occurred?

Convergence

When designing a network and deciding which type of network topology to use, which items(s) should be considered?

Cost, ease of installation, ease of maintenance, fault tolerance requirements

You need to implement a separate network for contractors and guests working at your office. Which technology should you implement?

Create a VLAN for Contractor and another VLAN for guests

Which environment variable stores the format for the command prompt? A Prompt B PSI C PAGER D PS1 E None of these variable store the format for the command prompt.

D PS1

Which of the following is a valid Class A address? A. 191.10.0.1 B. 127.10.0.1 C. 128.10.0.1 D. 126.10.0.1

D. 126.10.0.1 The Class A range is 1 through 126 in the first octet/byte, so only option D is a valid Class A address.

Which IP address should you deny into your internetwork? A. 126.10.10.0/8 B. 168.0.0.0/8 C. 128.0.0.0/8 D. 127.0.0.0/8

D. 127.0.0.0/8

What network port would an IMAP server normally use for IMAP exchanges? A. 21 B. 25 C. 110 D. 143 E. 443

D. 143

Which of the following addresses is not allowed on the Internet? A. 191.192.168.1 B. 191.168.169.254 C. 172.32.255.0 D. 172.31.12.251

D. 172.31.12.251 The addresses in the range 172.16.0.0 through 172.31.255.255 are all considered private, based on RFC 1918. Use of these addresses on the Internet is prohibited so that they can be used simultaneously in different administrative domains without concern for conflict. Some experts in the industry believe these addresses are not routable, which is not true.

Which of the following is a Class C network address? A. 10.10.10.0 B. 127.0.0.1 C. 128.0.0.0 D. 192.255.254.0

D. 192.255.254.0 Only option D is in the Class C range of 192 through 224. It might look wrong because there is a 255 in the address, but this is not wrong you can have a 255 in a network address, just not in the first octet.

You have an E1. How many DS0s are used in this point-to-point connection? A. 24 B. 25 C. 30 D. 32

D. 32 The European version of the T1 is the E1, which operates at 2.048 Mbps and uses 30 64 Kbps channels (30 DS0s), and two channels are used for D channels, which makes 32 total DS0s.

What is the maximum data rate for the 802.11a standard? A. 6Mbps B. 11Mbps C. 22Mbps D. 54Mbps

D. 54Mbps

Which wireless standard allows you to channel-bond to increase bandwidth and uses both the 2.4GHz and 5GHz frequencies? A. 802.11b B. 802.11g C. 802.11a D. 802.11n E. 802.11ac

D. 802.11n

What type of scan can be done by an antivirus program? A. Emergency B. On-demand C. On-access D. All of the above

D. All of the above

Which of the following is a tunneling protocol? A. Layer 2 Tunneling Protocol (L2TP) B. Internet Protocol Security (IPSec) C. Secure Sockets Layer (SSL) D. All of the above

D. All of the above

Which of the following is a type of denial of service attack? A. Ping of Death B. Stacheldraht C. SYN flood D. All of the above

D. All of the above

The OSI model has seven layers and the DoD has four. At which layer does SMTP work in both models?

D. Application

Monkey B, Michelangelo, Stoned, and Stealth Boot are examples of which type of virus? A. IP spoofing B. Multipartite C. Macro D. Boot sector

D. Boot sector

You have a small office, home office environment. What WAN technology would most likely be used? A. T1 B. T3 C. Frame Relay D. Cable modem

D. Cable modem Cable is a great cost-effective connection for a small office or home office (SOHO).

Which of the following is not a type of public-key encryption? A. Diffie-Hellman algorithm B. RSA Data Security C. Pretty Good Privacy (PGP) D. DES

D. DES

What does the acronym DOCSIS stand for? A. Data over cable service interface spectrum B. Data over cable systems Internet specification C. Data over cable service Internet specification D. Data over cable service interface specifications

D. Data over cable service interface specifications DOCSIS stands for data over cable service Interface Specifications. All cable modems and like devices have to measure up to this standard.

How can you reconfigure Linux to use DNS queries prior to consulting /etc/hosts? A. Edit the /etc/resolv.conf file, and be sure the nameserver dns line comes before the nameserver files line. B. As root, type nslookup dns. C. Edit the /etc/named.conf file, and change the preferred-resolution option from files to dns. D. Edit /etc/nsswitch.conf, and change the order of the files and dns options on the hosts: line. E. As root, type dig local dns.

D. Edit /etc/nsswitch.conf, and change the order of the files and dns options on the hosts: line.

Your Internet connection has gone down for several hours. What is true of email sent by your users to off-site recipients via a properly configured local SMTP server? A. The SMTP server will refuse to accept email from local clients during the outage. B. Email will be neither delayed nor lost. C. All email sent during the outage will be lost. D. Email will be delayed by a few hours but not lost. E. Recipients will have to retrieve the mail via POP or IMAP

D. Email will be delayed by a few hours but not lost.

Nonpersistent or dissolvable NAC agents may help to make what possible? A. BYOD initiative B. Edge control C. Unified voice services D. Host-based IDS

D. Host-based IDS

Which of the following is not a Network Access Control method? A. CHAP B. 802.1X C. EAP D. ICA

D. ICA

Which protocol works in both the transport mode and tunneling mode? A. SSL B. L2TP C. PPTP D. IPSec

D. IPSec

Changing network configurations, terminating sessions, and deceiving the attacker are actions that can be taken from what type of security device? A. Access control list (ACL) B. Content filter C. Security zones D. Intrusion prevention system (IPS)

D. Intrusion prevention system (IPS)

Which of the following VPN protocols runs over TCP port 1723, allows encryption to be done at the data level, and allows secure access? A. RAS B. RADIUS C. PPPoE D. PPTP

D. PPTP

(Blank) act on behalf of the whole network to completely separate packets from internal hosts and external hosts. A. Honeypots B. IDSs C. IPSs D. Proxies

D. Proxies

Which of the following is not a WAN protocol or technology? A. ATM B. ISDN C. MPLS D. RIP

D. RIP Routing Information Protocol (RIP) is not a WAN protocol but a routing protocol used in internetworks.

Using a packet sniffer, you notice a lot of traffic directed at TCP port 22 on a local computer. What protocol does this traffic use, assuming it's using the standard port? A. HTTP B. SMTP C. Telnet D. SSH E. NNTP

D. SSH

If you implement a set of policies and procedures that define corporate information as confidential and then train employees on these procedures, what type of attack can you prevent? A. DoS B. Man-in-the-middle attacks C. Smurf D. Social engineering

D. Social engineering

What is one reason that WPA encryption is preferred over WEP? A. A WPA key is longer and requires more special characters than the WEP key. B. The access point and the client are manually configured with different WPA key values. C. WPA key values remain the same until the client configuration is changed. D. The values of WPA keys can change dynamically while the system is used.

D. The values of WPA keys can change dynamically while the system is used.

You've downloaded a GPG public key from a Web site, into the file fredkey.pub. What must you do with this key to use it? A. Type inspect-gpg fredkey.pub. B. Type gpg --readkey fredkey.pub. C. Type import-gpg fredkey.pub. D. Type gpg --import fredkey.pub. E. Type gpg-import fredkey.pub.

D. Type gpg --import fredkey.pub.

A server/computer combination appears in both hosts.allow and hosts.deny. What's the result of this configuration when TCP Wrappers runs? A. TCP Wrappers refuses to run and logs an error in /var/log/messages. B. The system's administrator is paged to decide whether to allow access. C. hosts.deny takes precedence; the client is denied access to the server. D. hosts.allow takes precedence; the client is granted access to the server. E. The client is granted access to the server if no other client is currently accessing it.

D. hosts.allow takes precedence; the client is granted access to the server.

You need to have secure communications using HTTPS. What port number used by default?

D.443

If you can ping by IP address but not by hostname, or FQDN, which of the following port numbers is related to the server process that is involved?

D.69

Which of the following uses both TCP and UDP?

D.Dns

Two (2) Types of Packets used at the Network Layer

Data Packets and Route Update Packets

at which layers of the OSI model do bridges, hubs, and routers primarily operate, respectively?

Data link, Physical, Network

A receiving host failed to receive all the segments that it should acknowledge. what can the host do to improrove the reliability of this communication session?

Decrease window size

Media Access Control (MAC)

Defines how packets are placed on the media.

How does an ACL treat any traffic type by default?

Deny

What two pieces of information does a router require to make a routing decision?

Destination network(address),Neighbor router

What does the acronym DSL stand for?

Digital Subscriber Line

Which is true regarding dynamic routing?

Dynamic routes are automatically added to the routing table

Where are the commands iterated by the loop located within the loop? A Within the then statement section B Between the double semicolons(;;) C Within the case and esac constructs D Within the test statement E Between do and done constructs

E Between do and done constructs

Which of the following are types of services that firewalls can provide? A. Content filtering B. Segregation of network segments C. Signature identification D. Scanning services E. All of the above

E. All of the above

What is the purpose of the -n option to route? A. It causes no operation to be performed; route reports what it would do if -n were omitted. B. It precedes specification of a netmask when setting the route. C. It limits route's output to descriptions of non-Internet routes. D. It forces interpretation of a provided address as a network address rather than a host address. E. It causes machines to be identified by IP address rather than hostname in output.

E. It causes machines to be identified by IP address rather than hostname in output.

What is the purpose of /etc/hostname, if it's present on the system? A. It holds the hostname of a package repository server. B. It holds a list of servers that resolve hostnames. C. It holds a list of IP addresses and associated hostnames. D. It holds the hostname of the local gateway computer. E. It holds the computer's default hostname.

E. It holds the computer's default hostname.

What is the purpose of /etc/resolv.conf? A. It holds the names of network protocols and the port numbers with which they're associated. B. It controls whether the computer's network options are configured statically or via a DHCP server. C. It specifies the IP address of a DHCP server from which the computer attempts to obtain an IP address. D. It holds the routing table for the computer, determining the route that network packets take to other computers. E. It sets the computer's default search domain and identifies (by IP address) the name servers that the computer may use.

E. It sets the computer's default search domain and identifies (by IP address) the name servers that the computer may use.

Typing lsof -i | grep LISTEN as root produces three lines of output, corresponding to the sendmail, sshd, and proftpd servers. What can you conclude about the security of this system? A. Everything's OK; the presence of sshd ensures that data are being encrypted via SSH. B. The sendmail and sshd servers are OK, but the FTP protocol used by proftpd is insecure and should never be used. C. The sendmail server should be replaced by Postfix or qmail for improved security, but sshd and proftpd are fine. D. Because sendmail and proftpd both use unencrypted text-mode data transfers, neither is appropriate on a network-connected computer. E. No conclusion can be drawn without further information; the listed servers may or may not be appropriate or authentic.

E. No conclusion can be drawn without further information; the listed servers may or may not be appropriate or authentic.

What is the purpose of the EDITOR environment variable? A. Set to Y (the default), the shell environment permits editing of commands; set to N, such editing is disallowed. B. It specifies the filename of the text editor that bash uses by default while you're entering commands at its prompt. C. If you type edit filename at a command prompt, the program specified by EDITOR will be launched. D. Set to GUI, programs call a GUI editor; set to TEXT, programs call a text-based editor. E. Some programs refer to EDITOR to determine what external editor to launch when they need to launch one.

E. Some programs refer to EDITOR to determine what external editor to launch when they need to launch one.

Why is it unwise to allow root to log on directly using SSH? A. Disallowing direct root access means that the SSH server may be run by a non-root user, improving security. B. The root password should never be sent over a network connection; allowing root logins in this way is inviting disaster. C. SSH stores all login information, including passwords, in a publicly readable file. D. When logged on using SSH, root's commands can be easily intercepted and duplicated by undesirable elements. E. Somebody with the root password but no other password can then break into the computer.

E. Somebody with the root password but no other password can then break into the computer.

What layer 4 protocol is used for a telnet connection, and what is the default port number?

E. TCP,23

You want to send an encrypted message to an email correspondent. You both have GPG. What do you need to exchange before you can send your encrypted message? A. Your correspondent must obtain your GPG public key. B. Your correspondent must obtain your GPG private key. C. You must exchange private keys with your correspondent. D. You must obtain your correspondent's GPG private key. E. You must obtain your correspondent's GPG public key.

E. You must obtain your correspondent's GPG public key.

Which Windows TCP/IP utility could you use to find out whether a server is responding on TCP port 21? A. tcp B. port C. ping D. nbtstat E. telnet

E. telnet The telnet utility can be used to test if a particular IP host is responding on a particular TCP port.

What file might a user modify to alter his or her own bash environment? A. ~/.startup B. /etc/bashrc C. /home/.bashrc D. /home/profilerc E. ~/.bashrc

E. ~/.bashrc

Which of the following is a hybrid routing protocol?

EIGRP

What advantage does the client-server architecture have over peer-to-peer?

Easier maintenance, greater organization, tighter security (all of the above)

B. Tunneling

Encapsulating a frame within a different type of frame is called what? A. Error check B. Tunneling C. Transmitting D. Addressing

B. MAC address or hardware address

Ethernet at the data link layer is responsible for Ethernet addressing commonly referred to as what? A. IP address B. MAC address or hardware address C. Home address D. Mail address

Which of the following is an example of a hybrid network?

Ethernet switch

What does a unique local unicast range start with?

FC00:: /7

What does a link-local address always start with?

FE80::/10

You want to log in to a server and transfer files. What application will you use?

FTP

What is another name for PON?

Fiber to the premises

what type of cable transmits lights from end-to-end?

Fiber-optic

If a frame is received on a switch port and the source MAC address is not in the forward/filter table, what will the switch do?

Flood the frame out all ports except the port it was received on

data integrity is ensured at the Transport layer by maintaining flow control and by allowing users to request reliable data transport between systems.

Flow control prevents sending host on one side of the connection from overflowing the buffers in the receiving host - an event that can result in lost data

How many wires are used in a 100BaseTX UTP transmission?

Four

Which WAN technologies are considered packet switching networks?

Frame Relay and X.25

You have one serial port on your router but need to connect many remote sites. What WAN protocol could you consider as an option?

Frame Relay. Although Frame Relay is not available in many markets today, it is a possible solution for the problem presented.

Which type of address is used just like a regular public routable address in IPv4?

Global unicast

What are the different flavors of xDSL?

HDSL, SDSL, VDSL, ADSL

Which type of scanning allows an antivirus program to search for a virus even if there is no definition for it? A. Update scan B. Signature-file scan C. Database scan D. Heuristic scan

Heuristic scan

What is a group of servers used to lure attackers called?

Honeynet

D. 232

How is the decimal value for the binary number 11101000? A. 128 B. 194 C. 224 D. 232

C. 48

How many bits is a MAC address? A. 16 B. 32 C. 48 D. 64

D. All

How many devices in a collision domain have to listen when a single host talks? A. 2 B. 3 C.1 D. All

B. 1

How many wire pairs are used in half duplex? A. 2 B. 1 C. 4 D. None of the above

A. 2

How many wire pairs are used with 100BaseT full duplex? A. 2 B. 1 C. 4 D. A or C

Which layer 1 device can be used to enlarge the area coverd by a single LAN segment?

Hub and repeater

Why are switches better than hubs in your network by default? Because they break up broadcast commands by default Because each port on a switch is a broadcast domain Because each port on a switch is a collision domain Because all ports on a hub are broken into broadcast domains by default

Hubs create one collision domain and one broadcast domain. Switches break up collision domains but the network is one large broadcast domain by default.

Name some of the benefits of IPv6 over IPv4.

IPv6 has the following characteristics, among others, that make it preferable to IPv4: more available addresses, simpler header, options for authentication, and other security.

B. That you are running Ethernet over fiber

If you are using a cable medium called 10BaseTF, what does this mean? A. That you are running Ethernet over cable B. That you are running Ethernet over fiber C. That you are running Ethernet over Thicknet D. That you are bundling multiple connections

You connect your host to a switch that is running network analyses software. However, you are not seeing any packets from the server. What do you need to implement on the switch to see all the packet information? VLANs STP Port Mirroring Authentication

In order to see all frames that pass through the switch and read the packets with a network analyzer, you need to enable port mirroring on the port your diagnostic host is plugged into.

You receive a call from a user who is complaining that they cannot get on the Internet. You have them verify their IP address,mask, and defualt gateway. The IP address is 10.0.37.144, with a subnet mask of 255.255.254.0. The default gateway is 10.0.38.1. What is the problem?

Incorrect gateway IP

What does the acronym IGRP stand for?

Inside Gateway Redundancy Protocol

You have a network with multiple LANs and want to keep them separate but still connect them together so they can all get to the internet. Which of the following is the best solution?

Install a router

What is the result of segmenting a network with a bridge (switch)? (Choose two.) It increases the number of collision domains. It decreases the number of collision domains. It increases the number of broadcast domains. It decreases the number of broadcast domains. It makes smaller collision domains. It makes larger collision domains.

It increases the number of collision domains. It makes smaller collision domains. Bridges break up collision domains, which would increase the number of collision domains in a network and also make smaller collision domains.

8. What is the result of segmenting a network with a bridge (switch)? (Choose two.)

It increases the number of collision domains. It makes smaller collision domains.

What is the greatest advantage of PSTN (POTS)?

It is readily available.

If a frame is received on a switch port and the source MAC address is not in the forward/filter table, what will the switch do?

It will add the source MAC address to the forward/filter table

Which authentication method relies on tickets to grant access to resources?

Kerberos

What is a logical grouping of network users and resources called?

LAN

Which cellular technologies are considered 4G?

LTE and WiMAX

Acknowledgments, sequencing, and flow control are characteristics of which OSI layer?

Layer 4

In which two states is the MAC address table populated with addresses? Blocked Listening Learning Forwarding

Learning Forwarding In the blocked and listening states, the MAC address table is not learning. Only in the learning and forwarding states is the MAC address table learning MAC addresses and populating the MAC address table

In which two states is the MAC address table populated with addresses? (Choose two.)

Learning Forwarding

Which type of address is not meant to be routed?

Link-local

What is the 127.0.0.1 address used for?

Loopback or diagnostics

Which of the following is true for MAC addresses?

MAC addresses are always local on the LAN and never go through or past the router

Which type of WAN technology uses labels, which enables priority of voice through the network?

MPLS

Which of the following provides the most physical layout flexibility in a very large, geographically dispersed enterprise network?

MPLS cloud network

Which user-authentication method is available only in an all-Windows environment?

MS-CHAP

What is it called when someone intercepts traffic on your network that's intended for a different destination computer?

Man-in-the-middle attack

A series of two doors with a small room between them is called a (blank).

Mantrap

IEEE Ethernet Data Link Layer has two sub layers

Media access control (MAC) and Logical Link Control (LLC)

Which of the following physical topologies has the most connections and is the least popular for LANs?

Mesh

Which type of address is meant to be delivered to multiple interfaces?

Multicast

Routers perform routing at which OSI layer?

Network

at which layer of the OSI model would you find IP?

Network

What happpens when a router recieves a pack for a network that isn't listed in the routing table?

None of the above

Which of the following is not a distance vector protocol?

OSPF

Which two of the following are link state protocols?

OSPF,IS-IS

B. MAC address

On an Ethernet switched network, what address does one host computer use to communicate with another? A. IP address B. MAC address C. Street address D. HUB address

The two different types of virus scans are (blank).

On-demand and on-access virus scans

How often should you update your virus definitions in your antivirus software?

Once per week

What defines a multicast address?

One-to-many address

In a physic star Topology, what happens when a workstation loses its physical connection to another device?

Only that workstation loses its ability to communicate

In an authentication system that uses private and public keys, who should have access to the private key?

Only the owner of the key

You have one IP address provided from your ISP with a /30 mask. However, you have 300 users that need to access the internet. What technology will you use to implement a solution?

PAT

Which user-authentication method uses a public key and private key pair?

PKI

What kind of tool could a hacker use to intercept traffic on your network?

Packet sniffer

Logging, notification, and shunning are what types of reactions from what type of security device?

Passive reactions from an IDS

Which type of agent is one that is installed on a NAC client and starts when the operating system loads?

Persistent

Which layer of the OSI model is responsible for specifying the encapsulation method used for specific types of media?

Physical

Which network topology is a combination of two or more types of physical or toe or more types of logical topologies?

Point-to-multipoint

What type of topology gives you a direct connection between two routers so that there is one communication path?

Point-to-point

Which type of Topology had the greatest number of physical connections?

Point-to-point

You connect your host to a switch that is running network analyses software. However, you are not seeing any packets from the server. What do you need to implement on the switch to see all the packet information?

Port mirroring

You need to power a device, such as an access point or IP phone. What protocol can provide power to these devices over an Ethernet cable?

Power over Ethernet (PoE)

Of the following, which is the highest layer in the OSI model?

Presentation

Which layer of the OSI model is responsible for code and character-set conversion as well as recognizing data formats?

Presentation

Network Addresses

Protocol specific network addresses. A router much maintain a routing table for individual routing protocols because each routing protocol keeps track of a network that includes different addressing schemes

Data Link Layer (2)

Provides the physical transmission of the data and handles error notification, network typology, and flow control. Ensures that messages are deliver to the proper device on a LAN using hardware (MAC) addresses and translate messages from the Network layer into bits for the Physical layer to transmit

If you are configuring voice VLANs, which of the following should you configure on the switch ports to provide a higher precedence to voice traffic over data traffic to improve sound quality?

QoS

Which is not a routing protocol?

RIPv3

What type of connector does UTP cable typically use?

RJ-45

Logical Link Control (LLC)

Responsible for identifying Network layer protocols and then encapsulating them. Tells the Data Link layer what to do with a packet once a frame is received.

Session Layer (5)

Responsible for setting up, managing, and dismantling sessions between Presentation Layer entities and keeping user data separate. Dialogue control between devices. Coordinates and organizes communication between hosts' various applications, as from a client to a server, via three different modes: Simplex, Half-Duplex, and Full-Duplex. basically keeps applications data separate from other applications data

On which of the following devices are you most likely to be able to implement NAT?

Router

You have a Class A host of 10.0.0.110/25. It needs to communicate to a host with an IP address of 10.0.0.210/25.Which of the following devices do you need to use in order for these host to communicate?

Router

Routers can use access lists, created by an administrator, to control security on the types of packets that are allowed to enter or exit an interface

Routers can provide Layer 2 bridging functions if needed and can simultaneously route through the same interface

Layer 3 devices (routers, in this case) provide connections between virtual LANs (VLANs)

Routers can provide quality of service (QoS) for specific types of network traffic

Routers, by default, won't forward any broadcast or multicast Packets

Routers use the logical address in a network layer header to determine the next-hop router to forward the packet to

Which of these best describes dynamic routing?

Routing tables are updated automatically when changes occur in the network

Which encryption protocol or standard allows you to create a private network on an intranet?

SSL VPN

which of the following are fiber-optic connectors?

ST, SC, LC

7. Which of the following is a Layer 2 protocol used to maintain a loop-free network?

STP

Host 1 sent a SYN packet to Host 2. What will Host 2 send in response?

SYN/ACK

If data from one of your subnets should be restricted from entering another subnet, the subnets should be configured as different (blank).

Security zones

The main security issue with UTM devices is that they constitute a (blank).

Single point of failure

What is used at Layer 2 to prevent switching loops?

Spanning Tree Protocol (STP)

Which type of firewall keeps track of existing connections passing through it?

Stateful

You have multiple departments all connected to switches, with cross‐over cables connecting the switches together. However, response time on the network is still very slow because you have upgraded from hubs to switches. What technology should you implement to improve response time on the networks? STP VLANs Convergence OSPF

Switches break up collision domains by default, but the network is still one large broadcast domain. In order to break up broadcast domains in a Layer 2 switched network, you need to create Virtual LANs.

Which of the following statements is true? A switch creates a single collision domain and a single broadcast domain. A router creates a single collision domain. A switch creates separate collision domains but one broadcast domain. A router provides a separate broadcast domain. A switch creates a single collision domain and separate broadcast domains. A router provides a separate broadcast domain as well. A switch creates separate collision domains and separate broadcast domains. A router provides separate collision domains.

Switches break up collision domains, and routers break up broadcast domains.

What does a switch do when a frame is received on an interface and the destination hardware address is unknown or not in the filter table? Forwards the switch to the first available link Drops the frame Floods the network with the frame looking for the device Sends back a message to the originating station asking for a name resolution

Switches flood all frames that have an unknown destination address. If a device answers the frame, the switch will update the MAC address table to reflect the location of the device.

Which user-authentication method utilizes the TCP protocol?

TACACS+

You need to log in as a dumb terminal to a server or Unix host and run programs. What application will you use?

Telnet

Which of the following is a Layer 2 protocol used to maintain a loop‐free network? VTP STP RIP CDP

The Spanning Tree Protocol is used to stop switching loops in a switched network with redundant paths.

You plug a host into a switch port, but the user can't get to the services it needs. What is probably the problem?

The VLAN port membership is set wrong

What is the valid range used for a Class C private IP address?

The class C private range is 192.168.0.0 through 192.168.255.255.

Data frame

The data link layer formats the message into pieces, each called a data frame, and adds a customized header containing the destination and source hardware addresses

If you are forced to replace a router that has failed to the point that you are unanle to access its current configuration to aid setting up interface addresses on the new router, which of the following can you reference for assistance?

The defualt gateway settings on computers from each subnet that the old router interconnected.

What gives IPv6 the ability to reference more addresses than IPv4?

The fact that it has 128-bit (16-octet) addresses, compared to IPv4's 32-bit (4-octet) addresses

The main purpose of the Spanning Tree Protocol in a switched LAN

The main purpose of STP is to prevent switching loops in a network with redundant switched paths.

Hop Count

The number of routers a packet passes through en route to a remote network.

The states of STP

The purpose of the blocking state is to prevent the use of looped paths. A port in the listening state prepares to forward data frames without populating the MAC address table. A port in the learning state populates the MAC address table but doesn't forward data frames. A port in the forwarding state sends and receives all data frames on the bridged port. Last, a port in the disabled state is virtually nonoperational.

Windowing

The quantity of data segments (measured in bytes) that the transmitting machine is allowed to send without receiving an acknowledgment for them

Which of the following is a concern when using peer-to-peer networks?

The security associated with such a network

You connect a host to a switch port, but the new host cannot log into the server that is plugged into the same switch. What could the problem be? (Choose two.) The router is not configured for the new host. The STP configuration on the switch is not updated for the new host. The host has an invalid MAC address. The switch port the host is connected to is not configured to the correct VLAN membership. The STP shut down the port

The switch port the host is connected to is not configured to the correct VLAN membership. The STP shut down the port Tthe best answers are that the VLAN membership for the port is configured incorrectly and that STP shut down the port.

You connect a host to a switch port, but the new host cannot log into the server that is plugged into the same switch. What could the problem be? (Choose two.)

The switch port the host is connected to is not configured to the correct VLAN membership. STP shut down the port.

Which of the following are benefits of VLANs? (Choose three.) They increase the size of collision domains. They allow logical grouping of users by function. They can enhance network security. They increase the size of broadcast domains while decreasing the number of collision domains. They simplify switch administration. They increase the number of broadcast domains while decreasing the size of the broadcast domains.

They allow logical grouping of users by function. They can enhance network security. They increase the number of broadcast domains while decreasing the size of the broadcast domains. VLANs break up broadcast domains in a switched Layer 2 network, which means smaller broadcast domains. They allow configuration by logical function instead of physical location and can create some security if configured correctly.

*Which of the following are benefits of VLANs? (Choose three.)

They allow logical grouping of users by function. They can enhance network security. They increase the number of broadcast domains while decreasing the size of the broadcast domains.

Interface

This is the exit interface a packet will take when destined for a specific network

Metric

This value equals the distance to the remote network

What tool would you use to verify a complaint about a slow network?

Throughput tester

What is the purpose of flow control?

To provide a means for the receiver to govern the amount of data sent by the sender

Segmentation of a data stream happens at which layer of the OSI model?

Transport

Which of the following features of a switch will allow two switches to pass VLAN network information?

Trunking

Which of the following features of a switch will allow two switches to pass network information? PoE VLANs Trunking STP

Trunking allows switches to pass information about many or all VLANs configures on the switches.

What does trunking provide?

Trunking allows you to make a single port part of multiple VLANs at the same time

Which type of packet is addressed and delivered to only a single interface?

Unicast

Which type of address is not meant to be routed to the Internet but is still globally unique?

Unique local (used to be called site-local)

Data Packets

Used to transport user data through the internetwork. Protocols used to support this data traffic are called routed protocols

Route Update Packets

Used to update neighboring routers about the networks connected to all routers within the internetwork

B. The DHCP server

Users arrive at the office after a weekend and the hosts that were shut down over the weekend are restarted but cannot access the LAN or Internet. Hosts that are not shut down are working fine. What can be the problem be? A. The DNS server B. The DHCP server C. The proxy server D. The firewall

D. Proxy server

Users on your network are saturating your bandwidth because they are using too many non-work-related sites. What device would limit the availability of the types of sites that users on a LAN have access to while providing granular control over the traffic between the local LAN and the Internet? A. Switch B. DHCP server C. DNS server D. Proxy server

Which switching technology reduces the size of a broadcast domain? ISL 802.1Q VLANs STP

Virtual LANs break up broadcast domains in Layer 2 switched internetworks

Which of the following help isolate network traffic? hubs VLANs Repeaters Hosts

Virtual LANs help isolate network traffic by breaking up broadcast domains in a layer‐2 switched network

Which type of firewall interface does not use IP addresses?

Virtual wire firewall interfaces

A. A records

What DNS records gives you the IP address of a domain or host? A. A records B. CNAME records C. MX records D. PTR records E. NS records

B. CNAME records

What DNS records is also known as the alias record and allows hosts to have more than one name? A. A records B. CNAME records C. MX records D. PTR records E. NS records

D. PTR records

What DNS records lets you resolve IP addresses to host names? A. A records B. CNAME records C. MX records D. PTR records E. NS records

C. MX records

What DNS records points to the mail exchanger for one particular host? A. A records B. CNAME records C. MX records D. PTR records E. NS records

B. 10Base5

What IEEE 802.3 standard is known as Thicknet and uses a physical and logical bus with AUI connectors? A. 10Base2 B. 10Base5 C. 10BaseT D. 10BaseTX

A. 10Base2

What IEEE 802.3 standard is known as Thinnet and can support up to 30 workstations on a single segment? A. 10Base2 B. 10Base5 C. 10BaseT D. 10BaseTX

D. 10BaseTX

What IEEE 802.3 standard mostly known as Fast Ethernet and uses EIA/TIA Category 5 or 5e or 6, UTP two pair wiring? A. 10Base2 B. 10Base5 C. 10BaseT D. 10BaseTX

C. 10BaseT

What IEEE 802.3 standard uses Category 3 UTP wiring? A. 10Base2 B. 10Base5 C. 10BaseT D. 10BaseTX

C. It recognizes frame boundaries and destination MAC addresses of incoming frames

What advantages does a switch have over a hub? A. It discards frames B. Transmissions received on one part will be sent out all the other ports C. It recognizes frame boundaries and destination MAC addresses of incoming frames D. Any two or more devices the switch connects have are capable of causing a collision with each other

B. Switch

What connects multiple segments of a network together and can recognize frames and pays attention to the source and destination MAC address of the incoming frame as well as the port on which it was received? A. Hub B. Switch C. Router D. Hub

B. Hub

What device can you not use full duplex communication with? A. Host B. Hub C. Switch D. Router

B. Routing functions

What is a benefit of a multilayer switch (MLS) over a Layer 2 switch? A. Less bandwidth B. Routing functions C. Fewer features D. Fewer ports

A. Multilayer switch

What is a computer networking device that switches on the OSI layer 2 like an ordinary switch but provides routing? A. Multilayer switch B. Router C. Load Balancer D. Hub

C. Channel bonding (Ethernet bonding)

What is a computer-networking arrangement where two or more network interfaces on a host are combined for redundancy and/or increased throughput? A. Tunneling B. Clustering C. Channel bonding (Ethernet bonding) D. Fault tolerance

A. Ethernet

What is a contention media-access method that allows all hosts on a network to share the same bandwidth of a link? A. Ethernet B. Collision domain C. Broadcast domain D. CSMA/CD (Carrier Sense Multiple Access with Collision Detection

C. VPN concentrators

What is a device that accepts multiple VPN connections from remote locations? A. Encryption devices B. Switches C. VPN concentrators D. Bridges

B. Router

What is a device that in used to connect many, sometimes disparate, network segments together, combining them into what we call an internetwork? A. Switch B. Router C. Hub D. Bridge

A. Bridge

What is a network device that connects two similar network segments together and keeps traffic separated on either side, breaking up collision domain? A. Bridge B. Router C. Hub D. NIC

D. CSMA/CD (Carrier Sense Multiple Access with Collision Detection

What is a protocol that helps devices share bandwidth evenly without having two devices transmit at the same time on the network medium? A. Ethernet B. Collision domain C. Broadcast domain D. CSMA/CD (Carrier Sense Multiple Access with Collision Detection)

C. Proxy server

What is a type of server that handles its client-machine requests by forwarding them on to other servers while allowing granular control over the traffic between the local LAN and the Internet? A. DNS server B. DHCP server C. Proxy server D. Exchange server

B. Collision domain

What is an Ethernet term that refers to a particular network scenario wherein one device sends a packet out on a network segment and thereby forces every other device on that same physical network segment to pay attention to it? A. Ethernet B. Collision domain C. Broadcast domain D. CSMA/CD (Carrier Sense Multiple Access with Collision Detection

D. Assigns IP address to hosts

What is an advantage of using DHCP in a network environment? A. More different administration on the network B. Static IP addressing C. Can send an operating system for the PC to boot from D. Assigns IP address to hosts

C. Hub

What is device that connects segments of a network together but is nothing more than a glorified repeaters that are incapable of recognizing frames and data structures? A. Switch B. Router C. Hub D. Bridge

D. NIC

What is installed in your computer to connect, or interface, your computer to the network and provides the physical, electrical, and electronic connections to the network media? A. RAM B. ROM C. LED D. NIC

D. Preventing broadcast storms

What is not an advantage of network segmentation? A. Reduced congestion B. Improved security C. Containing network problems D. Preventing broadcast storms

C. Baseband

What is the Base mean in 10BaseTX? A. Broadband B. 100Mbps C. Baseband D. Twisted pair at 100Mbps

B. 192.168.48.240

What is the decimal equivalent of this binary number: 11000000.10101000.00110000.11110000 A. 192.168.48.192 B. 192.168.48.240 C. 192.168.64.224 D. 192.168.32.248

B. A

What is the decimal number 10 in hexadecimal? A. 9 B. A C. C D. B

B. Twice as much

What is the effective total throughput increase with full duplex connection? A. None B. Twice as much C. Four times as much D. Ten times as much

A. 100 meters

What is the maximum distance of 1000BaseT? A. 100 meters B. 128 meters C. 1000 meters D. 1024 meters

C. 6 miles

What is the maximun distance of 10GBaseLR? A. 1 miles B. 3 miles C. 6 miles D. 25 miles

B. 302 meters

What is the maxium distance of 10GBaseSR? A. 100 meters B. 302 meters C. 305 meters D. 1593 km

A. Web cache

What is the most common use for a web proxy? A. Web cache B. Increase throughput C. DHCP services D. Supports user authentication

A. Breaks up collision domain

What is the primary function of a bridge? A. Breaks up collision domain B. Allows a NIC or other networking device to connect to different type of media than it was designed for C. Allows mobile users to connects to a wired network wirelessly D. None of the above

B. Name resolution

What is the process of finding IP address for any given host name? A. Query B. Name resolution C. Request D. Encapsulation

B. Error detection

What is the purpose of the Frame Check Sequence (FCS) in an Ethernet frame? A. Error correction B. Error detection C. Error recovery D. Creating errors

B. Data link

What layer is responsible for combining bits into bytes and bytes into frames? A. Network B. Data link C. Physical D. Transport

Auto-detect mechanism

What mechanism is referred to when a full duplex Ethernet port is powered on, it first connects to the remote end and then negotiates with the other end of the Fast Ethernet link?

B. CSMA/CD

What protocol helps devices share the bandwidth evenly without having two devices transmit at the same time on the network medium? A. TCP/IP B. CSMA/CD C. HTTPS D. TFTP

C. Broadcast domain

What refers to the set of all devices on a network segment that hear all the broadcasts sent on that segment? A. Ethernet B. Collision domain C. Broadcast domain D. CSMA/CD (Carrier Sense Multiple Access with Collision Detection

A. Translate human name to IP address

What role does the "A" record in a Domain Name Service (DNS) server have in your network? A. Translate human name to IP address B. Translate IP address to human name C. Enables printing, copying, and faxing from one device D. Controls network packets to optimize performance

C. Load Balancer

What technology can send incoming packets to multiple machines hidden behind one IP address and you can set rules based on the least load, fault tolerance, the fastest response times, or just dividing up outbound requests for smooth network operations? A. Multilayer switch B. Router C. Load Balancer D. Hub

C. Web server

What type of server is usually used to create a web cache? A. DNS server B. Caching proxy server C. Web server D. DHCP server

B. Caching proxy server

What type of server speeds up the network's service requests by recovering information from a client's or client's earlier request? A. DNS server B. Caching proxy server C. Web server D. DHCP server

Which of the following is an example of when point-to-multipoint network is called for?

When a centralized office needs to communicate with many branch offices

When is STP said to be converged? (Choose two.) When all ports are in the forwarding state When all ports are in the blocking state When all ports are in the Listening state When all ports are in the Learning state

When all ports are in the forwarding state When all ports are in the blocking state The sequence of steps for STP convergence is, by default, blocking, listening, learning, and forwarding. When all ports are in either the blocking or forwarding state, STP is converged.

When is STP said to be converged on the root bridge? (Choose two.)

When all ports are in the forwarding state When all ports are in the blocking state

When are you most likely to see a Request Timed Out message?

When an unknown error has occurred

Which of the following is a disadvantage of the star topology?

When the central concentrating device experiences a complete failure, all attached devices lose connectivity to the rest of the network.

*When would you configure VTP on a switch?

When you have multiple switches with multiple VLANs and you want to share the VLAN database from one switch to all the others

B. Half Duplex

Which Ethernet are you running when you're using only one wire pair with a digital signal either transmitting or receiving? A. Full Duplex B. Half Duplex

A. Full Duplex

Which Ethernet are you running when you're using two pairs of wires and also use a point to point connection between the transmitter of the sending device and the receiver of the receiving device? A. Full Duplex B. Half Duplex

C. Switch

Which device creates separate collision domain and a single broadcast domain? A. Hub B. Router C. Switch D. Modem

C. Hub

Which device does not aid in network segmentation? A. Router B. Switch C. Hub D. Bridge

B. Switch

Which device is used to segment a network? A. Hub B. Switch C. Repeater D. All the above

B. Load balancer

Which device should you use if you need to send incoming packets to one or more machines that are hidden behind a single IP address? A. Switch B. Load balancer C. Hub D. Repeater

B. Data

Which field in the 802.3 Ethernet frame is a packet sent down from the Network layer? A. Preamble B. Data C. Destination Address (DA) D. Source Address (SA)

A. Preamble

Which field in the 802.3 Ethernet frame is an alternating 1,0 pattern provides a 5MHz clock at the start of the packet, which allows the receiving devices to lock the incoming bit stream? A. Preamble B. Start frame delimiter (SFD)/synch C. Destination Address (DA) D. Source Address (SA)

A. Frame Check Sequence (FCS)

Which field in the 802.3 Ethernet frame is at the end of the frame and is used to store the CRC? A. Frame Check Sequence (FCS) B. Data C. Destination Address (DA) D. Source Address (SA)

C. Destination Address (DA)

Which field in the 802.3 Ethernet frame is used by the receiving stations to determine whether an incoming packet is address to a particular host? A. Preamble B. Start frame delimiter (SFD)/synch C. Destination Address (DA) D. Source Address (SA)

C. Length or Type

Which field in the 802.3 Ethernet frame is used to identify the Network layer protocol? A. Preamble B. Data C. Length or Type D. Source Address (SA)

D. Source Address (SA)

Which field in the 802.3 Ethernet frame is used to identify the transmitting device, and it uses the LSB first? A. Preamble B. Start frame delimiter (SFD)/synch C. Destination Address (DA) D. Source Address (SA)

B. 100BaseTX

Which of the following can run full duplex and achieve 200Mbps with CAT5e cable? A. 100BaseF B. 100BaseTX C. 1000BaseF D. 1000BaseT

B. Switch

Which of the following devices can work at both layer 2 and 3 of the OSI model? A. Hub B. Switch C. Multi-layer switch D. Bridge

A. Less expensive

Which of the following in NOT an advantage of using appliances to offload services like encryption and content filtering? A. Less expensive B. Takes load off other devices C. Additional functionality D. Better performance

B. Provides extra bandwidth

Which of the following is among the benefits of a switch? A. Protects LAN resources from attackers on the Internet B. Provides extra bandwidth C. Reduces throughput D. Allows access to other computers on a LAN

C. NIC

Which of the following is not a term used when making SOHO Internet connections? A. Hub B. Repeater C. NIC D. Switch

A. Bonding

Which technology increases the bandwidth for network transmission by joining together multiple connections in one logical connection? A. Bonding B. VLANs C. STP D. Traffic shaping

C. DNS server

Which type of server in your network uses pointer and A records? A. NAT Translation server B. IPS/IDS server C. DNS server D. Proxy server

What software application can automatically ensure that your Windows-based computers have the most current security patches?

Windows Update

*What does a switch do when a frame is received on an interface and the destination hardware address is unknown or not in the filter table?

With the exception of the source port, floods the network with the frame looking for the device

D. Proxy server

You need a device that can prevent your users from accessing certain web sites. Which device should you install? A. Firewall B. IDS C. IPS D. Proxy server

A service is considered connection-oriented if it has the following characteristics:

a virtual circuit is set up (such as a three-way handshake), it uses sequencing, it uses acknowledgements, and it uses flow control

*What are the three switch functions at Layer 2?

avoid address filtering address learning

Which of the following protocols can use TCP and UDP, permits authentication and secure polling of network devices, and allows for automated alerts and reports on network devices?

b.SNMP

Why is fiber-optic cable immune to electromagnetic interference (EMI) and radio frequency interference (RFI)?

because it transmits digital signal using light impulses

Transport Layer - Connection-Oriented Communication

before the transmitting host starts sending segments, the sender's TCP process contacts the destination's TCP process to establish a connection. The resulting is known as a virtual circuit. After everything is agreed upon, and a connection is fully established the data transfer begins. This virtual circuit setup is called overhead.

You want to implement a mechanism that automates the IP configuration, including IP address, subnet mask, default gateway, and DNS information. Which protocol will use to accomplish this?

c. DHCP

in which of the following categories is UTP cable not rated?

category 9

You need a network that provides centralized authentication for your users. Which of the following logical topologies should you use?

client/server

When all routers in a network agree about the path from one point to another. the network is said to be what?

converged

When data is encapsulated, which is the correct order?

data, segment, packet, frame, bits

Where does a frame have to carry a packet if it is destined for a remote network?

default gateway

Where along the IP routing process does a packet get changed?

destination device

On which type of cable does EMI have the least effect?

fiber-optic

What type of cable should be used if you need to make a cable run longer than 100 meters?

fiber-optic

You plug a host into a switch port and the host receives an IP address but the user can't get to the services it needs. What is probably the problem?

have to configure the vlan member ship ( check answer)

why would a network administrator use plenum-rated cable during installation? (choose two)

high combustion temperature and reduces toxic gas released during fire

A crossover cable is used to connect all of the following execpt

host to switch

You want the IP configuration on a Unix host. What command will you type at the command prompt?

ifconfig

You need your IP address, subnet mask, default gateway, and DNS information. What command will you type from a Windows command prompt?

ipconfig /all

a reference model is a conceptual blueprint of how communications should take place.

it addresses all the processes required for effective communication and divides these processes into logical groupings called layers. When a communication system is designed in this manner it is known as layered architecture.

Presentation Layer (6)

it presents data to the Application layer and is responsible for data translation and code formatting. this layer ensures that data transferred from one system's application layer can be read and understood by another systems application layer

If a frame is received on a switch port and the source MAC address is not in the forward/filter table, what will the switch do?

it will add to the fordward/filter table

when a host transmits data across a network to another device, the data goes through encapsulation

it's wrapped with protocol information at each layer of the OSI model. Each layer communicates only with its peer layer on the receiving device

What are two categories of IGP protocols?

link state.distance vector

You want to use netstat, but you want to see only the IP address, not the names of the hosts. Which modifier will you use?

netstat-n

You need to check your name-resolution information on your host. What command will you type from the command prompt?

nslookup

What is the main difference between single-mode fiber (SMF) and multimode fiber (MMF)?

number of light rays

How many host on a half-duplex segment can talk at one time?

one

modulation of waveform trasnforms a baseline, ethernet or wireless, message signal into a passban signal

passband is the range of frequencies or wavelengths that can pass through a filter without being attenuated

In what type of network are all computers considered equal and do not share any central authority?

peer-to-peer

how is a T1 crossover cable wired?

pins 1, 2, 4, and 5 are connected to 4, 5, 1, and 2

You need to power a device such as an access point or IP phone. What protocol can provide power to these devices over an Ethernet cable?

power over internet

reliable networking

relates to the transport layer and means that acknowledgements, sequencing, and flow control will be used

You need to add a route to your Windows server's routing table. What command will you use?

route

Which Windows command will show you the routing table of your host or server?

route print

Transport Layer (4)

segments and reassembles data into a data stream. provide end-to-end data transport services and can establish a logical connection between the sending host and destination host on an internetwork

Physical Layer (1)

sends and receives bits. communicates directly with the various types of actual communication media. specifies physical topoloy

Which of the following provides the longest cable run distance?

single mode fiber

You need a topology that is scalable to use in your network. Which of the following will you install?

star

What is used at Layer 2 to prevent switching loops?

stp(spanding tree protocol)

you need to crimp on a connector using an RJ-45 connector. Which pin-out configuration would you use to connect a host into a switch?

straight-through

*You want to improve network performance by increasing the bandwidth available to hosts and limiting the size of the broadcast domains. Which of the following options will achieve this goal?

switch configured with Vlan ( check again)

the top three layers of the OSI model define the rules of how the applications working within the host machines communicate with each other as well as the end user

the bottom four layers define how the actual data is transmitted from end to end.

binding

the communication processes that are related to each other are bound or grouped together at a particular layer

modulation

the process of varying one or more properties of a waveform, called the carrier signal, with a signal that typically contains information to be transmitted

Which of the following is true regarding sequencing and acknoeldements?

the segments delivered are acknowledged back to the sender upon their reception. any segments not acknowledged are retransmitted. segments are sequenced back into their proper order upon arrival at their destination.

the purpose of the demarcation point is to separate the customer from whom?

the service provider

Application Layer (7)

the spot where users actually communicate or interact with the computer. it determines the availability of communicating partners along with the resources necessary to make their required connections. acts as an interface between application programs

Protocol Data Unit (PDU)

these hold the control information attached to the data at each layer of the model. they are usually attached to the header in front of the data field but can also be in the trailer, or end, of it.

when a machine receives a flood of datagrams too quickly it stores them in a memory section called a buffer

this can only solve the problem if the datagrams are part of a small burst, if not, the memory could be exhausted and it will react by discarding any additional datagrams that arrive. in order to aviod this the transport can issue a "not ready" indicator

what are two purposes for segmentation with a bridge?

to create more collision domains and to add more bandwidth

What command can you type from a command prompt to see the hops a packet takes to get to a destination host?

traceroute or tracert

How many devices can be connected to a full-duplex?

two

You need to make a T568B cable for a Fast Ethernet link. How many pairs will you use?

two

3. Which switching technology reduces the size of a broadcast domain?

vlan

You need to implement a separate network for contractors and guests working at your office. Which technology should you implement?

vlan

a modulator is a device that performs modulation of a signal and a demondulator preforms the inverse

we typically call theses devices modems, which can preform both operations