Network+ N10-008 All-in-One Exam Guide

What is a router? A. A piece of hardware that forwards packets based on IP address B. A device that separates your computers from the Internet C. A piece of hardware that distributes a single Internet connection to multiple computers D. A synonym for a firewall

A router is a piece of hardware that forwards packets based on IP address.

Which record type holds the IPv6 address for a host? A. A B. AAAA C. A6 D. SOA

AAAA records hold IPv6 addresses for hosts.

Which item should be found in a security policy? A. Acceptable use policy B. Emergency exit plan C. Service-level agreement D. Instruction on how to fill out a change request form

An acceptable use policy (AUP) is a typical item found in a security policy.

Which of the following connector would you typically find with a 40 GbE installation? A. LC B. SFP C. QSFP+ D. XSFP+

QSFP+ connectors

A user's machine is locked to a screen telling her she must call a number to unlock her system. What kind of attack is this? A. DDoS B. Logic bomb C. Ransomware D. Session hijacking

Ransomware attacks can be brutal, demanding money to unlock your content.

How does an SNMP managed system categorize data that can be queried? A. QoS B. MIBs C. PDUs D. UDP

SNMP managed systems use management information bases to categorize data to be queried.

Which PDU does an SNMP manager use to query agents? A. Get B. Response C. Set D. Trap

SNMP managers use Get protocol data units (PDUs) to query agents.

Port 143 (IMAP4) is what kind of port? A. Well-known B. Registered C. Ephemeral D. Reserved

Ports 0-1023 are well-known ports.

Which technology enables use of a WAP without directly connecting the WAP to an AC power outlet? A. AES B. PoE C. Powered Wi-Fi D. TKIP

Power over Ethernet (PoE) enables a wireless access point (WAP) to use electricity from a PoE switch rather than connect to an AC power outlet directly.

Why would a network technician use a tone probe and tone generator? A. To locate a particular cable B. To test the dial tone on a PBX system C. To run a long-duration ping test D. To provide safety when working in crawl spaces

Techs use tone probes and tone generators to locate individual cables.

A DoS attacker using __________ would focus on sending the smallest amount of traffic possible. A. Reflection B. Inflection C. Emanation D. Amplification

The goal of amplification is to keep the targeted server as busy as possible.

Bob is told by his administrator to update his anti-malware program before he runs it. What kind of anti-malware is he most likely using? A. Host-based B. Network-based C. Cloud-based D. FTP-based

The fact that he has to update the software first suggests it is host-based.

Which of the following data center implementations connects access layer to distribution layer to core layer? A. North-south traffic flow B. Spine-and-leaf architecture C. Three-tiered architecture D. Top-of-rack switching

The three-tiered architecture connects three layers—access, distribution, and core—in the classic data center.

What command do you run to see the DNS cache on a Windows system? A. ping /showdns B. ipconfig /showdns C. ipconfig /displaydns D. ping /displaydns

To see the DNS cache on a Windows system, run the command ipconfig / displaydns at a command prompt.

What term is used to describe the interconnectivity of network components? A. Segmentation B. Map C. Topology D. Protocol

Topology

When you are first setting up a new router, you should never plug it into an existing network. A. True B. False

True; never plug a new router into an existing network.

Which term most closely describes collecting all of the network clients or servers that need the same security policies? A. Hardening B. Segmentation C. Spoofing D. Posturing

While this is also an example of hardening, it is more specifically an example of segmentation.

What is Wireshark? A. Protocol analyzer B. Packet sniffer C. Packet analyzer D. All of the above

Wireshark can sniff and analyze all the network traffic that enters the computer's NIC.

A NIC sends data in discrete chunks called __________. A. segments B. sections C. frames D. layers

frames; Data is sent in discrete chunks called frames. Networks use frames to keep any one NIC from hogging the wire.

Star-bus is an example of a _______________ topology. A. transitional B. system C. hybrid D. rampant

hybrid; Star-bus is a hybrid topology because it uses a star physical topology and a bus signal topology.

What Windows utility do you use to find the MAC address for a system? A. ipconfig /all B. ipcfg /all C. ping D. mac

ipconfig /all

Which command shows you detailed IP information, including DNS server addresses and MAC addresses? A. ipconfig B. ipconfig -a C. ipconfig /all D. ipconfig /dns

ipconfig /all displays detailed IP configuration information.

In SDN, the ___________ plane is responsible for setting up network devices to use the correct network controller. A. application B. control C. infrastructure D. management

management plane; In software-defined networking, the infrastructure plane includes the network devices themselves. The management plane is responsible for pointing these devices to the controller.

A(n) _______________ organizes and protects the horizontal cabling in the telecommunications room. A. rack B. patch panel C. outlet D. 110 jack

patch panel

A MAC address is known as a(n) __________ address. A. IP B. logical C. physical D. OEM

physical

What is at the beginning of the Ethernet frame? A. MAC address B. Length C. Preamble D. CRC

preamble

What should you create when a network is running normally? A. Answer file B. Capture file C. MIB D. Baseline

Create a baseline so you can compare network performance later on.

Which statements about netstat switches (in Windows) are true? (Select three.) A. -a shows all used ports. B. -n shows port numbers and IP addresses. C. -o shows the process ID. D. -s shows the application name.

-a shows all used ports; -n shows port numbers and IP addresses; and -o shows the process ID.

802.1X is a great example of _______________. A. encryption B. content switching C. port-based authentication D. VLAN trunking

802.1X is port-based authentication.

What type of server supports EAP-encrypted passwords in accordance with the 802.1X standard? A. WAP server B. WEP server C. RADIUS server D. NAS server

A RADIUS server provides authentication through a username and password encrypted with Extensible Authentication Protocol (EAP).

Which document contains details about all the hardware and software installed in a data center and provides the foundation for future upgrades? A. Baseline configuration B. Logical network diagram C. Performance baseline D. System diagram

A baseline configuration document contains details about all the installed hardware and software in a data center, and provides the foundation for future upgrades.

What does a client need to access IPv6 content on the Internet? A. A link-local address. B. A multicast address. C. A global unicast address. D. The IPv6 Internet is currently unreachable.

A client needs a global unicast address to access the IPv6 Internet.

What is the job of a first responder? A. Investigate data on a computer suspected to contain crime evidence. B. React to the notification of a computer crime. C. Power off computers suspected of being used in criminal activity. D. Shut down computers and remove mass storage drives.

A first responder reacts to the notification of a computer crime.

Which of the following documentation includes dimensions and locations of rooms plus the physical objects—racks, raised floors, AC units, and so on—in the space? A. Floor plan B. Logical network diagram C. Rack diagram D. System diagram

A floor plan includes room dimensions and the details of objects in those rooms.

When is a memorandum of understanding used? A. As part of a legal contract B. As part of a statement of work (SOW) C. When a service-level agreement (SLA) expires D. When a legal contract is not appropriate

A memorandum of understanding (MOU) is used when a legal contract is not appropriate.

What tool enables you to compare current network performance with correctly functioning network performance? A. Baseline monitor B. Packet flow monitor C. Packet sniffer D. Performance monitor

A performance monitor enables you to compare current network performance with a baseline.

Which of the following differentiates a PLC from a DCS controller? A. Sequential control B. Sensors C. Operator D. Actuator

A programmable logic controller (PLC) traditionally uses ordered steps to control a machine.

Which of the following is known as a basic service set in infrastructure mode? A. A WAP B. A WPA C. A RADIUS server D. A TKIP

A single wireless access point (WAP) is a basic service set. Wi-Fi Protected Access (WPA) is a data encryption scheme. A RADIUS server provides authentication via a username and password. Temporal Key Integrity Protocol (TKIP) is used by the WPA encryption scheme to encrypt the data.

Which of the following devices would most likely be a UC gateway? A. VoIP telephone B. Desktop running Windows server C. Managed switch D. Router

A unified communication (UC) gateway is most likely a router.

John has two groups of virtual machines that each need to be on their own subnet. Which of the following should he use to subnet each group of VMs without moving or recabling hardware? A. Virtual NIC B. Virtual switch C. Virtual router D. Virtual firewall

A virtual router performs all the same Layer 3 tasks that its physical cousins do.

What hardware enables wireless PCs to connect to resources on a wired network segment in infrastructure mode? (Select two.) A. An access point B. A router C. A hub D. A wireless bridge

A wireless access point or wireless bridge enables you to connect wireless PCs to a wired network segment.

What do you call a wireless network in infrastructure mode with more than one access point? A. BSS B. EBSS C. WBSS D. ExNet

A wireless network in infrastructure mode with more than one access point is called an EBSS, or extended basic service set.

Which of the following is a valid IPv6 address? A. 2001:bead:beef::1 B. 2001:30f5::3d62::04ffe C. 192.168.1.4:ff45:129g:48fd:1 D. 2001.0470.b33e.23f4.27de.d34a.aed2.1827

A. 2001:bead:beef::1 B is invalid because it has two sets of double colons. C is using IPv4 numbers. D is using periods instead of colons.

When setting up WPA2-PSK on his wireless network, Edsel has the option to choose TKIP or AES. Which should he implement? A. Only AES B. Only TKIP C. Both AES and TKIP D. Neither. He should implement RADIUS.

AES; Although WPA2 supports both the Temporal Key Integrity Protocol (TKIP) and Advanced Encryption Standard (AES), TKIP is deprecated and AES is far more secure.

What is the main benefit of IPv6 aggregation? A. Aggregation enables users to combine multiple IPv6 addresses to increase their bandwidth and overall Internet speed exponentially. B. Aggregation is backward-compatible and can be directly applied to IPv4 networks. C. Aggregation reduces the size and complexity of routing tables, allowing routers to work more efficiently. D. In aggregation, signals are increased with each router the packet travels through, allowing for greater distances over wireless networks.

Aggregation reduces the size and complexity of routing tables.

A computer compromised with malware to support a botnet is called a _______________. A. Zombie B. Reflection C. DDoS D. Locked node

All of the compromised systems on a botnet are called zombies.

Which of the following statements best applies to an IDS? A. An IDS inspects a copy of all traffic in a network and can respond to detected intrusions with actions. B. An IDS inspects all traffic as it enters a network and can respond to detected intrusions with actions. C. An IDS inspects a copy of all traffic in a network and reports intrusions. D. An IDS inspects all traffic as it enters a network and reports intrusions.

An IDS inspects a copy of all traffic in a network and reports intrusions.

An SNMP manager uses which port when used with TLS? A. 161 B. 162 C. 10161 D. 10162

An SNMP manager uses port 10162 with Transport Layer Security (TLS).

Which of the following is a review of an organization's compliance with applicable laws, rules, and regulations? A. Audit B. Baseline configuration C. Performance baseline D. Site survey

An audit, performed at least annually by a qualified third-party organization, will show an organization's compliance with applicable laws, rules, and regulations.

Allison wants to add a layer of protection to her network. She wants to actively monitor all network traffic and act immediately to stop any attacks. What should she install? A. Firewall B. IDS C. IPS D. NIDS

An intrusion protection system (IPS) sits squarely in the flow of traffic monitoring the network, and can act immediately to stop any attacks.

While you are asking the user problem-isolating questions, what else should you be doing? A. Asking yourself if there is anything on your side of the network that could be causing the problem B. Nothing; just keep asking the user questions C. Using an accusatory tone with the user D. Playing solitaire

Ask yourself if anything could have happened on your side of the network.

What is the progressive loss of radio signal passing through different media called? A. Attenuation B. EAP C. RFI D. SNR

Attenuation is the term describing the progressive loss of radio signal passing through different media.

What is the /48 prefix of the address 2001:0480:b6f3:0001::0001? A. 2001:480:b6f3:1 B. 2001:480:b6f3 C. 2001:480:b6f3:1:0000::1 D. 2001:480:b6f3:1:0000:0000:0000:1

B. The /48 prefix consists of only the first three groups of the address.

An attack where someone tries to hack a password using every possible password permutation is called what? A. Man-in-the-middle B. Spoofing C. Rainbow table D. Brute force

Brute force uses every possible permutation and is often used in password cracking.

BigTracks is a successful Bigfoot-tracking company using an internal service to manage all of its automated Bigfoot monitoring stations. A Bigfoot migration has caused a massive increase in the amount of audio and video sent back from BigTracks' stations. In order to add short-term capacity, BigTracks can create new servers in the public cloud. What model of cloud computing does this describe? A. Public cloud B. Private cloud C. Community cloud D. Hybrid cloud

BigTracks is creating a hybrid cloud by connecting its internal private cloud to a public cloud to quickly expand capacity.

Which of the following protocols are notorious for cleartext passwords? (Select two.) A. SSH B. Telnet C. HTTPS D. POP3

Both Telnet and POP3 use cleartext passwords.

After the unforeseen failure of her Bigfoot-picture-sharing service, bgFootr— which got hacked when she failed to stay on top of her security updates—Janelle has a great new idea for a new service to report Loch Ness Monster sightings. What service would help her set up a server without having to play system administrator? A. Software as a service B. Infrastructure as a service C. Platform as a service D. Desktop as a service

By switching to a PaaS, Janelle can concentrate on creating her service and leave the lower-level administration up to the PaaS provider.

When should you use a cable tester to troubleshoot a network cable? A. When you have a host experiencing a very slow connection B. When you have an intermittent connection problem C. When you have a dead connection and you suspect a broken cable D. When you are trying to find the correct cable up in the plenum

Cable testers can only show that you have a (dead) broken or poorly wired cable, not if the cable is up to proper specification.

What are the benefits of caching on a Web proxy? (Select two.) A. Response time B. Virus detection C. Tracking D. Authentication

Cached Web pages can be sent to clients quickly. The contents can also be checked for viruses. (Response time and Virus detection)

Bart has a choice of tools to view his managed network, but he primarily wants to see graphs of various types of data, such as the overall traffic and the current capacities of the file servers. Which tool offers him the best option? A. Cacti B. snmpwalk C. NetFlow D. Wireshark

Cacti is a great graphing tool.

Which of the following is a tool to prevent ARP cache poisoning? A. DHCP B. DAI C. Edge firewall D. DNS snooping

Cisco Dynamic ARP Inspection (DAI) is designed to help prevent ARP cache poisoning.

Downstream routers may, in theory, do what if their upstream router suddenly changes the IPv6 prefix it delegates to them? A. Fall back to IPv4 in order to be able to route traffic. B. Send an all-nodes router advertisement so that clients can renumber. C. Use link aggregation to merge the two prefixes. D. Send a router redirect to tell their own downstream routers about the new prefix.

Clients should be able to adopt the new prefix by renumbering with an all-nodes router advertisement from downstream routers if the upstream router suddenly changes.

Which of the following best describes the practice of increasing the capacity of a service or application deployed in a private cloud by adding extra instances in a public cloud? A. Cloud bursting B. Elasticity C. Flexibility D. Orchestration

Cloud bursting; While increasing an application's capacity by adding instances is also called elasticity, allowing a private/community cloud application that needs more resources than are available to grow into public-cloud resources is called cloud bursting.

Connected Bluetooth devices create what kind of network? A. CAN B. LAN C. MAN D. PAN

Connected Bluetooth devices create a personal area network (PAN).

Which of the following is the valid fully reduced version of the address 2001:0489:000f:0000:0000:1f00:0000:000d? A. 2001:489:f::1f:0:d B. 2001:489:f::1f00::d C. 2001:0489:000f::1f00:0000:000d D. 2001:489:f::1f00:0:d

D. Leading zeroes can be dropped and only one group of contiguous zeroes can be represented by a double colon.

Devices using which of the following protocols form a mesh network using the 908- and 916-MHz band? A. 802.11 Wi-Fi B. Bluetooth C. Zigbee D. Z-Wave

Devices using the Z-Wave protocol form a mesh network using the 908- and 916-MHz band.

What is the last step in the troubleshooting process? A. Implementing the solution B. Testing the solution C. Documenting the solution D. Closing the help ticket

Documenting the solution is the last and, in many ways, the most important step in the troubleshooting process.

Which of the following protocols provides load balancing in a spine-and-leaf data center? A. ECPM B. HSRP C. STP D. VRRP

Equal-Cost Multipath (ECPM) is one protocol used in spine-and-leaf architecture that provides load balancing.

H.323 uses which TCP port number? A. 5004 B. 5060 C. 2427 D. 1720

H.323 uses TCP port 1720.

Joan's data center has two ISPs, one fiber and one cable. What aspect of security does this represent? A. Active-active B. Clustering C. Multipathing D. Redundancy

Having multiple Internet service providers (ISPs) for a data center provides redundancy.

A newly installed host uses what NDP control message type to find available routers on the network? A. Network advertisement B. Network solicitation C. Router advertisement D. Router solicitation

Hosts use router solicitation messages to discover available routers.

What is succession planning? A. Identifying personnel who can take over certain positions in response to an incident B. The career path by which employees of an organization can grow through the ranks C. The selection of failover servers in the event of a catastrophic server failure D. The selection of failover routers in the event of a catastrophic router failure

Identifying personnel who can take over certain positions in response to an incident is essential in succession planning.

Which deployment model uses employee-owned mobile devices for corporate use? A. BYOD B. COBO C. COPE D. CYOD

In a bring your own device (BYOD) model, employers allow employees to bring mobile devices into the workplace for corporate use.

One of your users calls you with a complaint that he can't reach the site www.google.com. You try and access the site and discover you can't connect either but you can ping the site with its IP address. What is the most probable culprit? A. The workgroup switch is down. B. Google is down. C. The gateway is down. D. The DNS server is down.

In this case, the DNS system is probably at fault. By pinging the site with its IP address, you have established that the site is up and your LAN and gateway are functioning properly.

Eduardo accesses a managed switch from his desktop computer on the far side of the campus. What type of access management enables this connection? A. In-band management B. LAN-band management C. Out-of-band management D. WAN-band management

In-band management enables access over a LAN to a managed switch.

Jason is concerned about the communication between two workstations and wants to capture and analyze that traffic to see if anything illicit is going on. Which tool would best serve his needs? A. Interface monitor B. Packet flow monitor C. Packet sniffer D. Performance monitor

Jason would use packet flow monitoring software to monitor the flow between two devices.

Blackwell Held, LLC, leases space in the Wapi Lava Corporation's data center. Which term describes this type of scenario? A. Branch office B. Co-location C. Leased-line D. On-premises

Leasing space for your equipment in someone else's space is an example of co-location.

Rashan's company has multiple servers from which remote users download files. What should Rashan implement on his servers to make them appear as a single server so that they receive similar amounts of requests? A. Load balancing B. Port authentication C. Port mirroring D. Trunking

Load balancing spreads client requests evenly across all the servers.

In an SNMP managed network, which software does a managed device run? A. Agent B. NMS C. SNMP manager D. MIB

Managed devices run agent software.

An analysis of a network shows a lot of traffic on one machine on port 161. What kind of machine is it? A. Managed device B. SNMP manager C. PDU D. MIB

Managed devices use port 161.

Which SAN feature provides high availability through more than one connection between the server and the SAN? A. Fibre Channel B. iSCSI C. Multipathing D. Multiplaning

Most storage area network (SAN) solutions use multipathing—more than one connection or path between the server and SAN—for high availability.

Is NAT needed with IPv6? A. No, because NAT has been replaced with a new version called NAT6. B. No, the address space is so large that rationing routable addresses is unnecessary. C. Yes, because it is the only way to protect against hackers. D. Yes, because of the limited nature of IPv6 addressing.

Network address translation (NAT) is no longer needed because of the massive size of the IPv6 address space.

Of the following, which would most likely have an industrial control system implementation? A. An apartment complex B. A coffee shop C. A city park D. A bottling company

Of the choices offered, a bottling company is the one most likely to have an industrial control system (ICS) implemented.

Which Windows utility displays open ports on a host? A. netstat B. ping C. ipconfig D. nbtstat

Only netstat shows all open ports on a Windows system.

________________ involves building up longer sequences of automated steps. A. Composition B. Containerization C. Orchestration D. Virtualization

Orchestration is a higher level of automation that builds up longer sequences of tasks that better map to what the organization or employees need to accomplish.

Where does a packet sniffer put information it collects? A. Answer file B. Capture file C. Pocket file D. Sniffer file

Packet sniffers put information in capture files.

Brenda wants to add a second ISP to her small data center for high availability. What should she consider? A. Fiber B. Multipath C. Multitenancy D. Path diversity

Path diversity in selecting a second ISP—making sure both ISPs don't share the same lines—enhances high availability.

What is a medianet's primary tool to ensure bandwidth for VTC? A. MPLS B. RTU C. QoS D. ISDN

Quality of service (QoS) enables medianets to ensure bandwidth for video teleconferencing.

RTP runs on top of which protocol? A. UC server B. SIP C. MGCP D. H.323

RTP runs on top of the Session Initiation Protocol (SIP).

The best way to know the vulnerabilities of an IT infrastructure is to run what? A. A system-wide antivirus scanner B. Cable certifier C. Critical asset scanner D. Vulnerability scanner

Run a vulnerability scanner to find weaknesses in an IT infrastructure.

The simplest way to interconnect local and cloud resources is to establish a __________. A. Platform as a service B. private direct connection C. site-to-site VPN D. software-defined network

Site-to-site VPN; While a private direct connection is also a way to interconnect resources, it isn't as simple as a site-to-site VPN tunnel.

A static VLAN assigns VLANs to _______________. A. IP addresses B. MAC addresses C. ports D. trunks

Static VLANs assign VLANs to physical ports.

The NSA's TEMPEST security standards are used to combat which risk? A. RF emanation B. Spoofing C. DDoS D. Malware

TEMPEST is designed to reduce RF emanation using enclosures, shielding, and even paint.

Which of the following is the trunking protocol used in today's VLANs? A. 802.1Q B. 802.1X C. 802.1t D. 802.1z

The 802.1Q standard is almost universal for VLAN trunking.

What kind of DNS records do IPv6 addresses use? A. A B. SIX C. AAAA D. NSSIX

The DNS system uses AAAA for IPv6 records.

Which IEEE protocol enables port bonding? A. 802.1Q B. LACP C. PAgP D. ZACP

The IEEE Link Aggregation Control Protocol (LACP) enables port bonding. (Cisco-proprietary Port Aggregation Protocol —PAgP—accomplishes this as well.)

RTP runs on which ports? A. ICMP ports 5004, 5005 B. UDP ports 5004, 5005 C. TCP ports 5004, 5005 D. Undefined UDP ports

The Real-time Transport Protocol (RTP) uses undefined UDP ports, though many companies use the IETF-recommended ports of 6970-6999.

The central component of any ICS is what? A. Sensors B. PLCs C. ICS server D. HMI

The centerpiece of any industrial control system (ICS) is the ICS server.

What does nslookup do? A. Retrieves the name space for the network B. Queries DNS for the IP address of the supplied host name C. Performs a reverse IP lookup D. Lists the current running network services on localhost

The nslookup command queries DNS and returns the IP address of the supplied host name (and a whole lot of other details).

Which of these describes the maximum time the organization can be without a critical system? A. Recovery point objective (RPO) B. Mean time between failure (MTBF) C. Recovery time objective (RTO) D. Mean time to repair (MTTR)

The recovery time objective (RTO) defines the maximum time it should take to restore a critical system after failure.

What will the command route print return on a Windows system? A. The results of the last tracert B. The gateway's router tables C. The routes taken by a concurrent connection D. The current system's route tables

The route print command returns the local system's routing tables (for IPv4 and IPv6).

To achieve maximum Wi-Fi coverage in a room, where should you place the WAP? A. Place the WAP on the north side of the room. B. Place the WAP in the center of the room. C. Place the WAP near a convenient electrical outlet. D. It doesn't matter where you place the WAP.

To achieve maximum coverage, place the WAP in the center of the room.

When the network is very busy, VoIP calls start to sound badly clipped. What solution might improve the quality of the VoIP calls? A. 802.1z B. Traffic shaping C. DNS D. Content switching

Traffic shaping will provide extra bandwidth to the VoIP applications, improving sound quality.

What feature enabled 802.11n networks to minimize dead spots? A. Channel bonding B. FIFO C. MIMO D. Transit beamforming

Transit beamforming enabled an 802.11n WAP to minimize dead spots by using multiple antennas.

What service do tunnel brokers provide? A. A way for users on IPv4 infrastructures to jump the gap between their computers and the IPv6 Internet routers B. No useful service C. Access to IPv6 DNS records D. A second connection for multihoming

Tunnel brokers provide a way to jump the gap between users' computers on an IPv4 infrastructure and the IPv6 Internet.

Users need training from the IT department to understand which of the following? A. How to troubleshoot lost network connections B. How to secure workstations with screen-locking and password-security techniques C. How to send e-mail to the change management team D. How to check their network connection

Typical user training includes how to secure workstations with screen-locking and password-security techniques.

Through what mechanism is a change to the IT structure initiated? A. Users make a change to their environment, then report the result to the change management team. B. A user submits a request for funding a change to upper management, receives approval, and then submits a requisition to the change management team to source and purchase new equipment. C. Users submit a change request to the change management team. D. The change management team issues a proposed change to users in the organization, then evaluates the responses.

Users submit a change request to the change management team to effect a change to an IT structure.

Janelle wants to start a new photo-sharing service for real pictures of Bigfoot, but she doesn't own any servers. How can she quickly create a new server to run her service? A. Public cloud B. Private cloud C. Community cloud D. Hybrid cloud

Using the public cloud will enable Janelle to quickly create the servers she needs.

Which open standard protocol enables redundant routers to appear as a single router for high availability? A. HSRP B. RRPX C. VRRP D. XRRP

Virtual Router Redundancy Protocol (VRRP) groups multiple routers into a single router for high availability. The Cisco-proprietary Hot Standby Router Protocol (HSRP) accomplishes the same thing, but it's not an open standard.

What enables two VMs hosted on the same physical machine to communicate without leaving the machine itself? A. Virtual firewall B. Virtual LAN C. Virtual PBX D. Virtual switch

Virtual switch; Hypervisors come with virtual switching capability to enable the VMs to communicate.

Which of the following is the most secure method of wireless encryption? A. WEP B. WPA C. WPA2 D. WPA3

WPA3 offers the highest security here. WPA2 is more secure than WPA or WEP because it uses CCMP-AES, a 128-bit cipher that is harder to crack than the 128-bit TKIP wrapper used by WPA. It would rank second here.

During and after a change to the IT infrastructure, what must be done? A. Downtime must be scheduled. B. New equipment must be installed. C. Operating systems must be patched. D. The changes must be documented.

When changing an IT infrastructure, always document the changes.

When trying to establish symptoms over the phone, what kind of questions should you ask of a novice or confused user? A. You should ask open-ended questions and let the user explain the problem in his or her own words. B. You should ask detailed, close-ended questions to try and narrow down the possible causes. C. Leading questions are your best choice for pointing the user in the right direction. D. None; ask the user to bring the machine in because it is useless to troubleshoot over the phone.

With a novice or confused user, ask open-ended questions so the user can explain the problem in his or her own words.

Which of the following is not a potential advantage of a virtual machine over a physical machine? A. Minimize downtime B. Consolidate multiple physical machines C. Automatic backups D. Allocate resources more efficiently

automatic backups; A virtual machine managed like a physical machine has the same backup needs.

Which of the following is an example of a MAC address? A. 0-255 B. 00-50-56-A3-04-0C C. SBY3M7 D. 192.168.4.13

00-50-56-A3-04-0C; A MAC address is a 48-bit value, and no two NICs ever share the same MAC address—ever.

What was the maximum distance that could separate a 10BASE-T node from its hub? A. 50 meters B. 100 meters C. 185 meters D. 200 meters

100 meters

With 100BASE-T, what is the maximum distance between the switch and the node? A. 1000 meters B. 400 meters C. 100 meters D. 150 meters

100 meters

What is the big physical difference between 1000BASE-SX and 100BASE-FX? A. 1000BASE-SX commonly uses the LC connector, whereas 100BASE-FX frequently uses the SC connector. B. 1000BASE-SX is single-mode, whereas 100BASE-FX is multimode. C. 1000BASE-SX uses the ST connector exclusively. D. There is no difference.

1000BASE-SX commonly uses the LC connector, whereas 100BASE-FX frequently uses the SC connector.

What standard does IEEE 802.3ab describe? A. 1000BASE-LX B. 1000BASE-T C. 100BASE-T D. 1000BASE-SX

1000BASE-T; IEEE 802.3ab is the 1000BASE-T standard

Which of the following network technologies use UTP cabling in a star topology? A. Crosstalk B. Fiber optics C. 1000BASE-SX D. 1000BASE-T

1000BASE-T; uses UTP cabling in a star topology.

What was the maximum number of nodes that could be connected to a 10BASE-T hub? A. 1024 B. 500 C. 100 D. 185

1024; 10BASE-T hub could connect no more than 1024 nodes (computers).

What is the result of converting 192.168.0.1 to binary? A. 11000000.10101000.00000000.00000001 B. 11000000.10101000.00000000.10000000 C. 11000000.10101000.00000000.1 D. 11.10101.0.1

11000000.10101000.00000000.00000001 is the binary conversion of 192.168.0.1.

What is the result of converting 11110000.10111001.00001000.01100111 to dotted decimal notation? A. 4.5.1.5 B. 240.185.8.103 C. 15.157.16.230 D. 103.8.185.240

240.185.8.103 is the result of the conversion to dotted decimal notation.

How many wire pairs does 1000BASE-T use? A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4

4; 1000BASE-T uses all four pairs of wires.

How many pairs of wires are in a Cat 6-rated cable? A. 2 B. 4 C. 8 D. It doesn't specify.

4; The Cat 6 rating requires four pairs of wires.

What is the maximum distance for 1000BASE-LX without repeaters? A. 1 mile B. 2500 meters C. 20,000 feet D. 5000 meters

5000 meters (or 5 kilometers)

What is the maximum cable length of 10GBASE-T on Cat 6? A. 55 meters B. 100 meters C. 20 meters D. 70 meters

55 meters

Which record type acts like an alias, returning an FQDN rather than an IP address? A. A B. CNAME C. MX D. SOA

A CNAME (Canonical Name) record acts like an alias, returning an FQDN (Fully Qualified Domain Name) rather than an IP address.

Where does a DNS server store the IP addresses and FQDNs for the computers within a domain? A. Forward lookup zone B. Canonical zone C. MX record D. SMTP record

A DNS (Domain Name System) server stores the IP addresses and FQDNs (Fully Qualified Domain Names) for the computers within a domain in the forward lookup zone (and reverse lookup zone as well).

In order to have a PKI you must have a(n) _______________. A. Web server B. Web of trust C. root authority D. unsigned certificate

A public-key infrastructure (PKI) must have a root authority.

A(n) _______________ cipher encrypts the plaintext one bit at a time. A. block B. forwarding C. stream D. asymmetric

A stream cipher encrypts one bit at a time.

What's the process through which records propagate among name servers? A. hosts file B. Recursive transfer C. Resolver cache D. Zone transfer

A zone transfer is the process through which records propagate among name servers.

Which authentication standard is highly time sensitive? A. PAP B. RADIUS C. 802.1X D. Kerberos

All Kerberos tickets are timestamped.

Which of the following would never be seen in an equipment rack? A. Patch panel B. UPS C. PC D. All of the above may be seen in an equipment rack.

All these devices may be found in equipment racks.

What is Area 0 called in OSPF? A. Local Area B. Primary Zone C. Trunk D. Backbone

Area 0 is called the backbone area.

Which of the following is an EGP? A. BGP B. IGP C. EIGRP D. IS-IS

Border Gateway Protocol (BGP) is an exterior gateway protocol.

Which of the following is not true of crossover cables? A. They are a type of twisted pair cabling. B. They reverse the sending and receiving wire pairs. C. They are used to connect switches. D. Both ends of a crossover cable are wired according to the TIA/EIA 568B standard.

Both ends of a crossover cable are wired according to the TIA/EIA 568B standard; One end of a crossover cable is wired according to the TIA/EIA 568B standard; the other is wired according to the TIA/EIA 568A standard. This is what crosses the wire pairs and enables two switches in early Ethernet to communicate.

What is the most common category of UTP used in new cabling installations? A. Cat 3 B. Cat 5e C. Cat 6 D. Cat 7

Cat 6; although Cat 6a and Cat 7 are gaining in popularity.

What processes are used to take a single class of IP addresses and chop it up into multiple smaller groups? (Select two.) A. CIDR B. ping C. Subnetting D. Subnitting

Classless Inter-Domain Routing (CIDR) and subnetting enable you to take a single class of IP addresses and chop it up into multiple smaller groups called subnets.

In which order are packets created and sent when a client requests an IP address from a DHCP server? A. DHCP Discover, DHCP Offer, DHCP Request, DHCP ACK B. DHCP Discover, DHCP Request, DHCP Offer, DHCP ACK C. DHCP Request, DHCP Offer, DHCP Discover, DHCP ACK D. DHCP Request, DHCP Offer, DHCP ACK, DHCP Discover

DHCP Discover, DHCP Offer, DHCP Request, DHCP ACK (remember DORA) is the correct order.

Which statements about subnet masks are true? (Select two.) A. Every network client has a unique subnet mask. B. Every client on a network shares the same subnet mask. C. A subnet mask consists of a string of zeroes followed by a string of ones. D. A subnet mask consists of a string of ones followed by a string of zeroes.

Every client on a network shares the same subnet mask. Subnet masks consist of a string of ones followed by a string of zeroes.

Routers must use the same type of connection for all routes, such as Ethernet to Ethernet or DOCSIS to DOCSIS. A. True B. False

False; a router can interconnect different Layer 2 technologies.

What is a big advantage to using fiber-optic cable? A. Fiber is common glass; therefore, it's less expensive. B. Fiber is not affected by EMI. C. Making custom cable lengths is easier with fiber. D. All that orange fiber looks impressive in the network closet.

Fiber is not affected by EMI (Electromagnetic interference); fiber uses glass and light.

A hash function is by definition a _______________. A. complex function B. PKI function C. one-way function D. systematic function

Hash functions must be one-way. They should be complex, but complexity is not a requirement.

Which of the following protocols are used to retrieve e-mail from servers? (Select two.) A. IMAP4 B. ICMP C. IGMP D. POP3

IMAP4 and POP3 are used to retrieve e-mail.

Which of the following describe IPv4? (Select three.) A. Uses decimal, not hexadecimal numbers B. Uses periods, not colons, as separators C. Uses four octets D. Uses eight sets of characters

IPV4 uses decimal numbers, uses periods as separators, and has four octets.

Eric sits down at a client's Windows computer that's having some network connectivity issues. He wants to start troubleshooting by viewing both the system's IP address and MAC address. What command should he use? A. ifconfig B. ip addr C. ipconfig D. ipconfig /all

In Windows, the ipconfig /all command and switch will show both the IP address and the MAC address of a system.

Given the following routing table: Destination Subnet Mask Gateway Interface 10.11.12.0 255.255.255.0 0.0.0.0 LAN 64.165.5.0 255.255.255.0 0.0.0.0 WAN 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 64.165.5.1 WAN where would a packet with the address 64.165.5.34 be sent? A. To the default gateway on interface WAN. B. To the 10.11.12.0/24 network on interface LAN. C. To the 64.165.5.0/24 network on interface WAN. D. Nowhere; the routing table does not have a route for that address.

It would be sent to the 64.165.5.0/24 network on interface WAN.

Which of the following is a duplex fiber-optic connection? A. LC B. RJ-45 C. ST D. SC

LC; Of the options given, only the LC connector is designed for duplex fiber-optic.

Aside from outright breakage, what's the primary worry with bending a fiber-optic cable too much? A. Attenuation B. Bonding C. Light leakage D. Near-end crosstalk

Light Leakage; Bending a fiber-optic cable too much can cause light leakage and thus loss or degradation of signal.

Which type of access control requires a label to define its sensitivity? A. MAC B. DAC C. RBAC D. VAC

Mandatory access control (MAC) must use a label to define sensitivity.

What uniquely identifies every NIC? A. IP address B. Media access control address C. ISO number D. Packet ID number

Media Access Control (MAC) address

Which network topology is most commonly seen only in wireless networks? A. Star B. Bus C. Ring D. Mesh

Mesh; for the most part is unique to wireless networks

What type of cable and connector does 100BASE-FX use? A. Multimode fiber with ST or SC connectors B. STP Cat 6 with RJ-45 connectors C. Single-mode fiber with MT-RJ connectors D. UTP Cat 5e with RJ-45 connectors

Multimode fiber with ST or SC connectors

Which protocol enables synchronization of communication among connected computing devices? A. FTP B. IMAP4 C. NTP D. TFTP

Network Time Protocol (NTP) enables synchronization of communication.

Which of the following is not a name for a serial cable that you use to configure a router? A. Console cable B. Yost cable C. Rollover cable D. Null modem cable

Null modem cable; the Yost cable, which was invented to standardize the serial console interface to connect to the router console port, is also known as a rollover or console cable.

Which of the following is a hash function? A. SHA-256 B. RC4 C. AES D. BMX

Of the choices listed, only SHA-256 is a hash function.

Coaxial cables all have a(n) _______________ rating. A. resistance B. watt C. speed D. Ohm

Ohm; All coaxial cables have an Ohm rating. RG-59 and RG-6 both are rated at 75 Ohms.

What dynamic routing protocol uses link state advertisements to exchange information about networks? A. BGP B. OSPF C. EIGRP D. IS-IS

Open Shortest Path First (OSPF) uses link state advertisement (LSA) packets to exchange information about networks.

What port does passive FTP use? A. 20 B. 21 C. 23 D. 25

Passive FTP only uses port 21 and a random port. Active FTP uses ports 20 and 21.

What technology allows you to share a single public IP address with many computers? A. Static address translation B. Natural address translation C. Computed public address translation D. Port address translation

Port address translation, commonly known as PAT, enables you to share a single public IP address with many computers.

Which of the following enables you to use multiple NICs in a computer to achieve a much better network bandwidth? A. Linking B. Port aggregation C. SLI D. Xing

Port aggregation; (or bonding or link aggregation) is the process of using multiple NICs as a single connection, thus increasing bandwidth.

If you see some traffic running on UDP ports 1812 and 1813, what AAA standard is running? A. PPP B. RADIUS C. MS-CHAP D. TACACS+

RADIUS uses UDP ports 1812 and 1813.

Which of the following is a type of coaxial cable? A. RJ-45 B. RG-6 C. BNC D. Barrel

RG-6

When used for Ethernet, unshielded twisted pair uses what type of connector? A. RG-58 B. RJ-45 C. RJ-11 D. RS-232

RJ-45; UTP cable uses an RJ-45 connector when used for Ethernet. RG-58 is the type of coaxial cable used with 10BASE-2. RJ-11 is the standard four-wire connector used for regular phone lines. RS-232 is a standard for serial connectors.

The MAC address of which of the following begins a frame? A. Receiving system B. Sending system C. Network D. Router

Receiving system; The frame begins with the MAC address of the receiving NIC, followed by the MAC address of the sending NIC, followed, in turn, by type of encapsulated data, the data, and FCS.

Which network topology connected nodes with a ring of cable? A. Star B. Bus C. Ring D. Mesh

Ring

Running which command enables you to clear the DNS cache? A. ipconfig B. ipconfig /all C. ipconfig /dns D. ipconfig /flushdns

Running the command ipconfig /flushdns clears the DNS cache.

Which of the following connectors were used by 10BASE-FL cable? (Select two.) A. SC B. RJ-45 C. RJ-11 D. ST

SC, ST; 10BASE-FL used two types of fiber-optic connectors called SC and ST connectors.

Which statements about SSH and Telnet are true? (Select two.) A. Windows comes with preinstalled SSH and Telnet clients. B. SSH is more secure than Telnet because it encrypts data. C. Telnet is a command-line tool, whereas SSH is a GUI tool. D. SSH uses port 22, and Telnet uses port 23.

SSH encrypts data and is more secure than Telnet. Also, SSH uses port 22, whereas Telnet uses port 23.

Which layer of the OSI model keeps track of a system's connections to send the right response to the right computer? A. Application layer B. Presentation layer C. Session layer D. Transport layer

Session layer; keeps track of a system's connections to ensure that it sends the right response to the right computer.

What type of bus did 10BASE-T use? A. Bus B. Ring C. Star bus D. Bus ring

Star bus

Of the topologies listed, which one is the most fault-tolerant? A. Point-to-point B. Bus C. Star D. Ring

Star; only star topology has any fault tolerance.

What device directs packets based on MAC addresses? A. Router B. Hub C. Repeater D. Switch

Switch; A switch uses MAC addresses to direct traffic only to the appropriate recipient.

Which networking devices can use the Spanning Tree Protocol (STP)? A. Hubs B. Media converters C. UTP cables D. Switches

Switches; The Spanning Tree Protocol is unique to switches.

Any encryption that uses the same key for encryption and decryption is called? A. Encoded key B. Symmetric key C. Single key D. Synthetic key

Symmetric-key encryption uses the same key.

Which type of DNS record is used by mail servers to determine where to send e-mail? A. A record B. CNAME record C. MX record D. SMTP record

The MX (Mail Exchange) record is used by mail servers to determine where to send e-mail.

Which record type defines the primary name server in charge of a zone? A. A B. AAAA C. NS D. SOA

The SOA (Start of Authority) record defines the primary name server in charge of a zone.

7. Which of the following is a valid Class C IP address? A. 50.50.50.50 B. 100.100.100.100 C. 192.168.0.254 D. 250.250.250.250

The address 192.168.0.254 falls within the range of Class C addresses because it starts with an octet from 192 through 223.

Which DNS component performs a recursive lookup to determine an IP address? A. FQDN B. ICANN C. Name server D. Resolver

The resolver performs a recursive lookup to determine an IP address.

What is the session information—IP address, port number, and Layer 4 protocol—held in memory called? (Select two.) A. Endpoint B. Port C. Segment D. Session E. Socket

The session information held in memory is called an endpoint or socket.

Which of the following are not valid IP addresses to assign to a Windows-based system? (Select two.) A. 10.1.1.1/24 B. 127.0.0.1/24 C. 250.250.250.255/24 D. 192.168.0.1/24

The special reserved IP address 127.0.0.1 is called the loopback address and is used for testing, not assigning to computers. The IP address 250.250.250.255 falls in the Class E range, which isn't assigned to hosts.

Running which command enables you to query the zone of a DNS server? A. ipconfig B. nslookup C. ping D. xdns

The tool to use for querying DNS server zones is nslookup.

The traceroute utility is useful for which purpose? A. Configuring routers remotely B. Showing the physical location of the route between you and the destination C. Discovering information about the routers between you and the destination address D. Fixing the computer's local routing table

The traceroute utility is useful for discovering information about the routers between you and the destination address.

What is the standard connector for the 10 GbE fiber standard? A. ST B. SC C. MT-RJ D. There is no standard.

There is no standard connector; the 10 GbE committee has left this up to the manufacturers.

The process of verifying with a high degree of confidence that the sender is who the receiver thinks he or she should be is called _______________. A. PKI B. authentication C. locking D. nonrepudiation

This is the definition of nonrepudiation.

Your first day on the job, you get a call from the owner complaining that her network connection is down. A quick check of the central switch verifies that it's in good working order, as is the boss's PC. As luck would have it, your supervisor calls at just that time and tells you not to worry; she'll be by in a jiffy with her TDR to help root out the problem. What is she talking about? A. Tune-domain resonator, her network tone generator B. Time-detuning resonator, her network tester C. Time-domain reflectometer, her network tester D. Time-detail resource, her network schematic

Time-domain reflectometer, her network tester; TDR is the generic term for a decent network tester that can determine locations of cable breaks, among other things.

Where does (did) a hub send data? A. Only to the receiving system B. Only to the sending system C. To all the systems connected to the hub D. Only to the server

To all the systems connected to the hub; A hub sends data to all the systems connected to it.

What are patch cables used for? (Select two.) A. To connect different telecommunications rooms. B. To connect the patch panel to the switch. C. They are used as crossover cables. D. To connect PCs to outlet boxes.

To connect the patch panel to the switch and to connect PCs to outlet boxes.

What two devices together enable you to pick a single cable out of a stack of cables? (Select two.) A. Tone aggregator B. Tone binder C. Tone generator D. Tone probe

Tone generator and tone probe; they work together to enable you to pick a single cable out of a stack of cables.

Which layer of the OSI model controls the segmentation and reassembly of data? A. Application layer B. Presentation layer C. Session layer D. Transport layer

Transport layer; controls the segmentation and reassembly of data.

Rack-mounted equipment has a height measured in what units? A. Mbps B. MBps C. Inches D. U

U; Rack-mounted equipment uses a height measurement known as a unit (U).

A TLS URL connection starts with which prefix? A. http B. www C. ftp D. https

URLs (Uniform Resource Locators) that use a TLS (Transport Layer Security) connection start with https (Hypertext Transfer Protocol Secure) instead of http.

Why might you use the netstat utility? A. To see the route an IP packet takes across multiple routers B. To see your IP address and configuration details C. To see the endpoints of your sessions D. To issue commands to a remote server

Use netstat to see the endpoints of your sessions.

Phyllis has a service ticket for one of the latest Apple Macs that's having network connectivity problems. What command could she use to quickly see the IP address and MAC address for that computer? A. ifconfig B. ip addr C. ipconfig D. ipconfig /all

Using the ifconfig command on a macOS system shows the system's IP address and MAC address.

A frame ends with a special bit called the frame check sequence (FCS). What does the FCS do? A. Cycles data across the network B. Verifies that the MAC addresses are correct C. Verifies that the data arrived correctly D. Verifies that the IP address is correct

Verifies that the data arrived correctly; The data is followed by a special bit of checking information called the frame check sequence, which the receiving NIC uses to verify that the data arrived correctly.

Which of the following are key benefits of Web-based mail? (Select two.) A. You can use a third-party application, like Microsoft Outlook, to download your e-mail. B. You can access your e-mail from anywhere in the world using a Web browser and an Internet connection. C. It is completely spam-free. D. It is great for creating throw-away accounts.

You can access a Web-based e-mail account from any browser on any machine connected to the Internet. These accounts are great for creating throwaway e-mail addresses.

In a PKI encryption method, which key encrypts the data? A. Public B. Private C. Both D. Depends on who sends the data

You send someone a public key that he or she, in turn, encrypts. The private key decrypts it.

Which of the following topologies required termination? A. Star B. Bus C. Mesh D. Ring

bus; In a bus topology, all computers connected to the network via a main line. The cable had to be terminated at both ends to prevent signal reflection.

Ethernet hubs took an incoming packet and _______________ it out to the other connected ports. A. amplified B. repeated C. filtered D. distorted

repeated; Hubs were nothing more than multiport repeaters.