Network+ Trouble Questions

Differentiate between the characteristics of 2.4 gigahertz (GHz) and 5 GHz frequencies in wireless technologies. (Select two) A. 2.4 GHz bands support more individual channels with less congestion. B. 2.4 GHz experiences less interference due to the amount of technologies using 5 GHz. C. 2.4 GHz is better at propagating through solid surfaces than 5 GHz. D. 2.4 GHz provides a longer range than 5 GHz.

A. 2.4 GHz bands support more individual channels with less congestion. B. 2.4 GHz experiences less interference due to the amount of technologies using 5 GHz.

Which of the following UDP ports is assigned to the Domain Name System (DNS)? A. 53 B. 67 C. 110 D. 389

A. 53

Differentiate between the characteristics of a 66 block and a 110 block. (Select two) A. A 66 block has a capacity of 50 pairs while a 110 block has a capacity of 25-300 pairs. B. A 66 block has a capacity of 25 pairs while a 110 block has a capacity of 50-300 pairs. C. A 66 block supports Category 5 (Cat 5) and lower cabling while a 110 block supports Cat 6 and higher. D. A 66 block supports pre-Category 5 (pre-Cat 5) and lower cabling while a 110 block supports Cat 5 and higher.

A. A 66 block has a capacity of 50 pairs while a 110 block has a capacity of 25-300 pairs. D. A 66 block supports pre-Category 5 (pre-Cat 5) and lower cabling while a 110 block supports Cat 5 and higher.

Identify the benefits of Variable Length Subnet Masks (VLSMs). (Select two) A. Allow administrators to predict the need for future subnets and hosts B. Reduce the number of wasted Internet Protocol (IP) addresses C. Allow for consistent length netmasks to be used within the same network D. Allow allocation of subnetted ranges that are the same size throughout the network

A. Allow administrators to predict the need for future subnets and hosts B. Reduce the number of wasted Internet Protocol (IP) addresses

A technician needs to test a cable installation to verify that it is Electronic Industries Alliance (EIA)/Telecommunication Industries Association (TIA) Category 5e compliant. What tool can the technician use to verify the installation? A. Certifier B. Loopback adapter C. Cable tester D. Multimeter

A. Certifier

Examples of distance-vector routing protocols include: (Select 2 answers) A. EGP B. OSPF C. RIP D. EIGRP E. BGP

A. EGP B. OSPF E. BGP

TCP port 1720 is used by: A. H.323 B. SMB C. LDAPS D. SNMP

A. H.323

A network administrator enters the command show mac address-table into the command prompt. What information will the network administrator get in return? (Select three). A. Media Access Control (MAC Address) B. Type C. Virtual Local Area Network (VLAN) D. Internet Protocol (IP) Address

A. Media Access Control (MAC Address) B. Type C. Virtual Local Area Network (VLAN)

What was developed by Cisco as a means of providing traffic engineering, Class of Service (CoS), and Quality of Service (QoS), within a packet switched network? A. Multiprotocol Label Switching (MPLS) B. Asynchronous Transfer Mode (ATM) C. Frame relay D. High-Level Data Link Control (HDLC)

A. Multiprotocol Label Switching (MPLS)

A network manager installs a tool that throttles the bandwidth of attacking hosts and modifies suspect packets to render them harmless. Evaluate security technology tools and determine what tool the network manager is utilizing. A. Network-Based Intrusion Prevention System (NIPS) B. Network-Based Intrusion Detection System (NIDS) C. Unified Threat Management (UTM) D. Signature management

A. Network-Based Intrusion Prevention System (NIPS)

For "something you have" authentication, which of the following are possible options to use? (Select two) A. One-time password B. Digital certificate C. Fingerprint D. IP address

A. One-time password B. Digital certificate

A technician installs a cross-connect that utilizes modular jacks and connectors. The device has pre-wired Registered Jack (RJ)-45 connectors on one side. The other side has Insulation Displacement Connectors (IDCs). What is the technician installing? A. Patch panel B. Fiber distribution panel C. 66 block D. 110 block

A. Patch panel

Which of the following allows an administrator to inspect the traffic passing through a network switch? A. Port mirroring B. VLAN tagging C. Fault-tolerant mode D. Port scanning

A. Port mirroring

A Microsoft-proprietary protocol providing a user with graphical interface for connecting to another networked host is known as: A. RDP B. SSH C. Telnet D. rsh

A. RDP

A manually-configured routing table entry is known as: A. Static route B. Dynamic route C. Hybrid route D. Default route

A. Static route

Windows machines on a network are failing to obtain an Internet Protocol (IP) configuration. Analyze this type of network issue and determine possible reasons for this failure. (Select two) A. The Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) reservation lease has expired. B. The client has been configured without a Domain Name System (DNS) address. C. The device time is not set correctly and the Internet Protocol (IP) address shows as expired. D. There are no more addresses available in the current scope.

A. The Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) reservation lease has expired. B. The client has been configured without a Domain Name System (DNS) address.

Summarize the purpose of the Internet Engineering Task Force (IETF). A. The IETF focuses on solutions to Internet problems and the adoption of new standards. B. The IETF allocates addresses to regional registries who then allocate them to local registries. C. The IETF encourages the development and availability of the Internet, and provides organizational resources to the IAB. D. The IETF manages allocation of IP addresses and maintenance of the top-level domain space.

A. The IETF focuses on solutions to Internet problems and the adoption of new standards.

A technician discovers a Virtual Local Area Network (VLAN) mismatch error. Analyze VLAN characteristics and determine what is the cause of the error. A. The native Virtual Identification (VID) is set differently at either end of the trunk line. B. An untagged port is operating as a trunk. C. The native VLAN is set with the same Virtual Identification (VID) as the default VLAN. D. A frame with a tag is addressed to a port in the same VLAN.

A. The native Virtual Identification (VID) is set differently at either end of the trunk line.

A technician is troubleshooting a report of an outage. The technician checks the switch port and notices a solid amber light. What information does the technician gain from the light color? A. The port is disabled. B. The link is connected, but there is no traffic. C. The link is not working or is disconnected at the other end. D. A fault has been detected.

A. The port is disabled.

A hybrid routing protocol combines the features of distance-vector and link-state routing protocols A. True B. False

A. True

In computer networking, the term "Collision" refers to a situation in which two or more demands are made simultaneously on an equipment that can handle only one request at any given moment. A. True B. False

A. True

The purpose of the Carrier Sense Multiple Access (CSMA) protocol is to verify the absence of other traffic on a shared medium before transmitting to prevent collisions and loss of data. A. True B. False

A. True

What is connection-oriented and establishes a specific path for all packets to follow? A. Virtual circuit B. Point-to-point C. Hub and spoke D. Partial mesh

A. Virtual circuit

A network manager purchases a new server. The manager wants to ensure the server will fit in the current rack system. The rack system currently has space for 5U. The server is 8" tall. Calculate the space needed for the server to determine if the server will fit in the rack system. A. Yes, the server will fit. The server needs a minimum space of 5U. B. Yes, the server will fit. The server needs a minimum space of 4U. C. No, the server is too large for the rack space. The server needs a minimum space of 8U. D. No, the server is too large for the rack space. The server needs a minimum space of 14U.

A. Yes, the server will fit. The server needs a minimum space of 5U.

A type of protocol used in network management systems for monitoring network-attached devices is called: A. SMB B. NTP C. SNMP D. RDP

C. SNMP

What remote administration tool does not support file transfer directly but allows an administrator to use the same commands as a local user? A. Secure Shell (SSH) B. Remote Desktop Protocol (RDP) C. Telnet D. Virtual Network Computing (VNC)

C. Telnet

What does the term "Miredo" refer to? A. IPv4 to IPv6 migration mechanism B. Load balancing solution C. Teredo tunneling software D. Content filtering solution

C. Teredo tunneling software

A network manager becomes aware of network degradation. The manager uses the Computing Technology Industry Association (CompTIA) Network+ troubleshooting methodology. Analyze this methodology and determine the third troubleshooting step the manager will employ. A. Establish a theory of probable cause. B. Establish a plan of action. C. Test the theory to determine cause. D. Implement the solution or escalate, as necessary.

C. Test the theory to determine cause.

Summarize the functions of the Link layer in the Transmission Control Protocol/Internet Protocol (TCP/IP) protocol stack. A. The Link layer establishes connections between the different applications that the source and destination hosts use to communicate. B. The Link layer is where many of the high level protocols can be run, such as File Transfer Protocol (FTP). C. The Link layer defines the host's connection to the network media and includes the hardware and software involved in the interchange of frames between hosts. D. The Link layer provides addressing and routing functions along with the ability to fragment large frames from the Network Interface layer into smaller packets.

C. The Link layer defines the host's connection to the network media and includes the hardware and software involved in the interchange of frames between hosts.

A network administrator applies the Bridge Protocol Data Unit (BPDU) Guard to filter Spanning Tree Protocol (STP) traffic. What is the goal of the network administrator? A. To have ports drop all Bridge Protocol Data Units (BPDUs) they receive B. To prevent other switches connected to the guarded port to become the root C. To disable ports that receive a Bridge Protocol Data Unit (BPDU) D. To prevent topology changes in the Spanning Tree Protocol (STP)

C. To disable ports that receive a Bridge Protocol Data Unit (BPDU)

A client uses the command STARTTLS. Explain what will occur as a result. A. Establish a secure connection before any Simple Mail Transfer Protocol (SMTP) commands. B. Verify a user name or email address. C. Upgrade an existing unsecure connection. D. Invert roles between client and server.

C. Upgrade an existing unsecure connection.

Which of the following policies will enforce separation of duties? (Select two) A. Administrators have separate accounts for management and general use B. Employees must use 5 consecutive vacation days, annually. C. Users can only use privileges to perform authorized job functions D. Employees must be aware of, and in compliance with, legal and regulatory issues.

C. Users can only use privileges to perform authorized job functions D. Employees must be aware of, and in compliance with, legal and regulatory issues.

A network administrator discovers a service while using Nmap. The administrator would like to probe the host to discover the software operating each port. Recommend a switch the administrator can use to perform this action. A. -sT B. -sS C. -sU D. -sV

D. -sV

An IPv6 address consists of: A. 32 bits B. 48 bits C. 64 bits D. 128 bits

D. 128 bits

Which of the TCP ports listed below is used by Telnet? A. 20 B. 21 C. 22 D. 23

D. 23

Which of the acronyms listed below refers to a set of rules that specify which users or system processes are granted access to objects as well as what operations are allowed on a given object? A. CRL B. NAT C. BCP D. ACL

D. ACL

A technician needs to install a twisted pair cable solution that will provide a frequency of 400 MegaHertZ (MHz) for up to 300 feet. The technician wants to keep cost in mind and not install a higher Category (Cat) than required. Consider the Electronic Industries Alliance (EIA) 568 Commercial Building Telecommunication Cabling Standards to determine which Cat cabling solution will meet the needs of the technician. A. Cat 5 B. Cat 5e C. Cat 6 D. Cat 6A

D. Cat 6A

A network protocol providing an alternative solution to the manual allocation of IP addresses is known as: A. DNS B. SNMP C. NAT D. DHCP

D. DHCP

IPv4 addresses are expressed with the use of: A. Octagonal numbers B. Binary numbers C. Hexadecimal numbers D. Decimal numbers

D. Decimal numbers

A network administrator implements traffic policies for routing boundaries. Which layer of the network hierarchy will perform this function? A. Access B. Core C. Data Center D. Distribution

D. Distribution

A network administrator suspects a host is compromised. The administrator is generating a new key for Hypertext Protocol Secure (HTTPS). How will the administrator accomplish this action? A. Change the user keys by using the utility ssh-keygen. B. Delete the public key from the appliance and regenerate the key pair on the user's client device. C. Send a CSR with the compromised key material and submit it to the CA that issues digital certificates. D. Send a CSR with new key material and submit it to the CA that issues digital certificates.

D. Send a CSR with new key material and submit it to the CA that issues digital certificates.

Which OSI layer assumes the responsibility for managing network connections between applications? A. Network layer B. Data link layer C. Application layer D. Session layer

D. Session layer

A network administrator uses Microsoft's Hyper-V virtualization platform to create a virtual external switch. What result will this produce? A. The switch will create a bridge that is usable only by Virtual Machines (VMs) on the host (and the host itself) while restricting access to the wider physical network. B. The switch will only be usable by the Virtual Machines (VMs) and the VMs cannot use the switch to communicate with the host. C. The switch will bind the host's Media Access Control (MAC) to the Virtual Machines (VMs), enabling communication on the virtual network. D. The switch will bind to the host's Network Interface Card (NIC) to allow the Virtual Machine (VM) to communicate on the physical network, via a bridge.

D. The switch will bind to the host's Network Interface Card (NIC) to allow the Virtual Machine (VM) to communicate on the physical network, via a bridge.

A company contacts their Internet provider and asks for options to upgrade the bandwidth. The company requests a minimum of 80 Megabits per second (Mbps). The Internet provider notes the range required for the upgrade is 250 feet. What is the best solution for the company? A. Symmetrical Digital Subscriber Line (SDSL) B. Asymmetrical Digital Subscriber Line (ADSL) C. Very High Bitrate Digital Subscriber Line (VDSL) D. Very High Bitrate Digital Subscriber Line 2(VDSL2)

D. Very High Bitrate Digital Subscriber Line 2(VDSL2)

A technician receives a report that a wireless device has a weak signal. The technician verifies that the device is within the supported range. Further troubleshooting identifies that a great deal of refraction is the cause of the issue. What device or object can cause this problem? A. Mirrors B. Walls C. Cordless phone D. Water

D. Water

A company installs a circuit alarm to protect critical information. Evaluate alarms and tamper detection to determine what will activate the alarm. A. Movement occurs in a room B. A fence is cut C. An employee presses a panic button D. A duress code is entered into a lock

B. A fence is cut

A network is designed so that each node competes with the other connected nodes for use of the transmission media. Analyze the characteristics of transmission media and the associated protocols. Which type of system did the network use? A. Deterministic B. Contention-based C. Carrier Sense Multiple Access D. Media Access Control

B. Contention-based

Which of the following answers refers to a system containing mappings of domain names to various types of data, such as numerical IP addresses? A. TCP/IP B. DNS C. SQL D. DHCP

B. DNS

Consider the features of Protocol Data Units (PDUs) and determine what role encapsulation performs during communications. A. Enables communication between nodes at the same layer B. Describes how data should be packaged C. Describes where data should go D. Enables systems to communicate by exchanging data

B. Describes how data should be packaged

Static Network Address Translation (SNAT) provides a mapping between a private IP address and any of the IP addresses belonging to the available public IP address pool. A. True B. False

B. False

Transmission Control Protocol (TCP) is an example of a connectionless protocol. Because TCP doesn't support three-way handshake while establishing a network connection, it is referred to as unreliable or best-effort protocol A. True B. False

B. False

A software scans files and re-computes a hashsum for the local version. The software then verifies that the hashsum matches the correct value. Evaluate security tools and determine what software is performing this action. A. Signature management B. File Integrity Monitoring (FIM) C. Host-Based Intrusion Protection System (HIPS) D. Host-based Intrusion Detection System (HIDS)

B. File Integrity Monitoring (FIM)

Which of the following protocols reside at the application layer of the OSI model? (Select 3 answers) A. ATM B. HTTP C. FTP D. IP E. SMTP F. TCP/UDP

B. HTTP C. FTP E. SMTP

A network segment utilizing only this type of device is the most prone to network performance degradation due to large number of network collisions. A. Bridge B. Hub C. Switch D. Router

B. Hub

Which of the following typically applies to a request that doesn't match the criteria defined in an ACL? A. Group policy B. Implicit deny rule C. Transitive trust D. Context-aware authentication

B. Implicit deny rule

On a production network, which is the MOST likely location of a honeypot? A. In an unprotected and untrusted area outside of the private network B. In a protected but untrusted area between the Internet and the private network C. In a protected and trusted area between the Internet and the private network D. In an unprotected but trusted area outside of the private network

B. In a protected but untrusted area between the Internet and the private network

What systems interconnect Internet Protocol (IP) networks and perform packet forwarding processes? A. End B. Intermediate C. Routing D. Dynamic

B. Intermediate

What are the characteristics of an incremental backup? (Select two) A. It will include new files and files modified since the last backup. B. It will include all data modified since the last full backup. C. The archive attribute will be cleared. D. The archive attribute will not be cleared.

B. It will include all data modified since the last full backup. D. The archive attribute will not be cleared.

A type of routing protocol that calculates the best path between source and destination nodes based on a map of network connectivity between nodes is called: A. Dynamic B. Link-state C. Static D. Distance-vector

B. Link-state

Which of the following metrics is used to describe the largest allowable data unit that can be transmitted across a network? A. PDU B. MTU C. DSU D. BPDU

B. MTU

An IPv6 protocol performing the function of IPv4's Address Resolution Protocol (ARP) is called: A. NCP B. NDP C. NTP D. NDR

B. NDP

A packet is being sent from Network 1 to Network 4. The shortest route is for the packet to use the path 1234. A router fails at Network 3 and the packet uses an alternate path of 1254. This scenario depicts the application of which of the following technology? A. Circuit-switched path B. Packet switching C. Circuit D. Fragmentation

B. Packet switching

What are the characteristics of SMB/CIFS? (Select 2 answers) A. Used mainly by computers running Linux distributions B. Provides shared access to files, directories, and devices C. Used mainly by computers running Microsoft Windows operating systems D. Enables voice and multimedia communications over IP networks

B. Provides shared access to files, directories, and devices C. Used mainly by computers running Microsoft Windows operating systems

Telnet: (Select 3 answers) A. Encrypts network connection B. Provides username & password authentication C. Transmits data in an unencrypted form D. Does not provide authentication E. Enables remote login and command execution

B. Provides username & password authentication C. Transmits data in an unencrypted form E. Enables remote login and command execution

A company's Change Advisory Board (CAB) has approved a modification to the network. The modification will result in significant changes to the configuration. What plan should the company's network manager have in place to mitigate unforeseen issues? A. Reactive B. Rollback C. Proactive D. Request for Change (RFC)

B. Rollback

Differentiate between routers and switches. (Select two). A. Routers make forwarding decisions on layer 3 addresses while switches make forwarding decisions based on layer 2 addresses. B. Routers and switches both use Internet Protocol (IP) addresses to make forwarding decisions. C. Routers are designed to interconnect networks while switches are limited to hosts within the same broadcast domain. D. Routers flood broadcast traffic while switches do not typically forward broadcast traffic.

B. Routers and switches both use Internet Protocol (IP) addresses to make forwarding decisions. D. Routers flood broadcast traffic while switches do not typically forward broadcast traffic.

Identify the function of a Cloud Access Security Broker. (Select two) A. Enforces access controls from the cloud provider to the enterprise network B. Scans for malware and rogue or non-compliant device access C. Monitors and audits user and resource activity D. Eliminates data exfiltration from managed devices

B. Scans for malware and rogue or non-compliant device access C. Monitors and audits user and resource activity

An employee uses Video Teleconferencing (VTC) for a meeting with geographically separated team members. The service provider uses traffic policing mechanisms to ensure that the call quality is not affected by other data. What is the service provider establishing? A. Forward Equivalence Class (FEC) B. Session Initiation Protocol (SIP) trunk C. Multiprotocol Label Switching (MPLS) D. Virtual Channel (VC)

B. Session Initiation Protocol (SIP) trunk

Which of the following ports is used by HTTPS? A. TCP port 80 B. TCP port 443 C. UDP port 53 D. TCP port 143

B. TCP port 443

An IPv4-to-IPv6 transition mechanism with native support for Network Address Translation (NAT) is known as: A. 6to4 B. Teredo C. eDiscovery D. Miredo

B. Teredo

A type of port assigned to carry traffic from all the VLANs connected to a specific network switch is known as: A. Default gateway B. Trunk port C. Registered port D. Mirrored port

B. Trunk port

Analyze the process of subnetting. Determine why an administrator may find subnetting beneficial for a network. (Select two) A. To divide a network into logically distinct zones for security B. A network has a large number of hosts on the same Internet Protocol (IP) network C. A network uses the same physical and data link technologies throughout D. An organization has one Local Area Network (LAN) without a Wide Area Network (WAN)

C. A network uses the same physical and data link technologies throughout D. An organization has one Local Area Network (LAN) without a Wide Area Network (WAN)

A network administrator needs to extend the distance of the network and would also like to segment the network. What should the system administrator deploy to accomplish this? A. Broadcast domain B. Crossover cable C. Bridge D. Hub

C. Bridge

Evaluate the roles of Layer 1 and Layer 2 of the Open Systems Interconnection (OSI) model. Which of the following devices are part of Layer 2? (Select two) A. Hub B. Modem C. Bridge D. Network Interface Card

C. Bridge D. Network Interface Card

A networked host with unknown address can be reached via: A. Unicast B. Multicast C. Broadcast

C. Broadcast

A system administrator develops a physical diagram of cabling, using blue for WAN connections, white for patch-panel/switch connections, brown for LAN connections, and gray for virtual private network connections Considering the color-coding the administrator plans to use, which color identifies a user's cubicle network connection? A. Blue B. White C. Brown D. Gray

C. Brown

An attacker sends packets to a wireless client that results in the client not being able to communicate with the network. What type of attack is used in this scenario? A. Evil twin B. Deauthentication C. Disassociation D. Denial of Service (DoS)

C. Disassociation

Automatic routing table update is a feature of: A. Static routing B. Route redistribution C. Dynamic routing D. Route aggregation

C. Dynamic routing

A network manager needs to secure a critical client. The manager's primary goal is to prevent modification of the system. Which can the manager use to prevent modification of the system? A. Host-Based Intrusion Detection System (HIDS) B. Signature-Based Detection C. Host-Based Intrusion Prevention System (HIPS) D. Unified Threat Management Device

C. Host-Based Intrusion Prevention System (HIPS)

A company hires a cloud service to provide servers, load balancers, and storage area network (SAN) devices. What cloud service type is the company using? A. Software as a Service (SaaS) B. Platform as a Service (PaaS) C. Infrastructure as a Service (IaaS) D. Something as a Service (Saas)

C. Infrastructure as a Service (IaaS)

A network manager is creating a diagram of the network. What will the network manager include at the Logical layer of the schematic diagram? A. Asset identification and cable links B. Interconnections between switches and routers C. Internet Protocol (IP) addresses of router interfaces D. Configuration information and performance baselines

C. Internet Protocol (IP) addresses of router interfaces

What is the function of an Independent Basic Service Set (IBSS)? A. Is a mesh station capable of discovering one another and peering. B. Allows clients to join a Wireless Local Area Network (WLAN) through the network name. C. Is a wireless technology that allows peer connections without the use of an access point. D. Is a special management frame broadcast by the Access Point (AP) to advertise the Wireless Local Area Network (WLAN).

C. Is a wireless technology that allows peer connections without the use of an access point.

A network technician and manager have an argument. The technician places a scripted trap that runs when the technician's account is deleted. The technician then resigns from the company. What did the technician install? A. Crypto-malware B. Brute force C. Logic bomb D. Ransomware

C. Logic bomb

An IPv6 protocol used by routers to advertise their presence on a network is known as: A. NDR B. NCP C. NDP D. NTP

C. NDP

Identify features of an Asymmetrical Digital Subscriber Line (ADSL). (Select two) A. Primarily for residential customers B. Provides a fast downlink but a slow uplink bandwidth C. Primarily for business customers D. Provides the same downlink and uplink bandwidth

C. Primarily for business customers D. Provides the same downlink and uplink bandwidth

Which of the answers listed below refers to a binary representation of the decimal number 192? A. 10101100 B. 11000000 C. 01100010 D. 10101010

B. 11000000

A technician is pulling cable from the telecommunications closet to a new office. What is the maximum length of the main cable to prevent attenuation? A. 245 feet B. 295 feet C. 325 feet D. 255 feet

B. 295 feet

A host utilizing Internet Protocol version 6 (IPv6) has a Media Access Control (MAC) address of 00583b548aba. Use the interface identifier method to create the host's Interface ID. A. 0258.3bff.fe54.8aba B. 0058.3bff.fe54.8aba C. 0258.3bff.ff54.8aba D. 0258.3bff.ee54.8aba

A. 0258.3bff.fe54.8aba

Evaluate the characteristics of a Media Access Control (MAC) address to determine which of the following are valid MAC addresses. (Select two) A. 00:82:3f:7b:2d:ab B. 00:82:3f:7h:2d:ag C. 0082.3f7b.2dab D. 00823f7h2dag

A. 00:82:3f:7b:2d:ab C. 0082.3f7b.2dab

Which of the statements listed below is not true? A. The ATM PDU is the cell B. OSI physical layer PDU is the bit C. OSI data link layer PDU is the frame D. OSI network layer PDU is the packet E. OSI transport layer PDU is the segment F. PDUs between OSI session and application layers are referred to simply as the data G. All of the above statements are true

G. All of the above statements are true