** Networking **

A company wanting to monitor network traffic or host system behavior to identify suspect activity will install what type of service? A. Proxy server B. IDS C. UTM D. Email

B. IDS An intrusion detection system (IDS) will monitor and alert you on suspect behavior. The IDS can be a network-based device or host-based, meaning it runs as a process in the background.

Which of the following Internet connection types offers the fastest download speeds? A. Cable B. DSL C. Fiber-optic D. ISDN

C. Fiber-optic Fiber-optic broadband Internet offers fast speeds (often in the 1 Gbps range) but is also the most expensive.

What server would function as a central repository of documents and provide network shared file storage for internal users? A. FTP server B. Proxy server C. File server D. Web server

C. File server The file server is a centralized repository for users, typically company employees.

You are configuring network hosts with static IP addresses. You have chosen to use a class B network address. What is the default subnet mask that you should configure on the hosts? A. 255.0.0.0 B. 255.255.0.0 C. 255.255.255.0 D. 255.255.255.255

B. 255.255.0.0 The default subnet mask for class B networks is 255.255.0.0, or written in shorthand, /16.

Because of a recent security breach, your IT team shut down several ports on the external firewall. Now, users can't get to websites by using their URLs, but they can get there by using IP addresses. What port does the IT team need to open back up to enable Internet access via URLs? A. 21 B. 53 C. 67 D. 80

B. 53 Clients are unable to get to the DNS server, which resolves hostnames (or URLs) to IP addresses. DNS uses port 53.

Which TCP/IP protocol was developed by Microsoft and has been the default file and print sharing protocol on Windows-based computers since Windows 2000? A. CIFS B. SMB C. FTP D. LDAP

A. CIFS Common Internet File System (CIFS) is a Microsoft-developed enhancement of the SMB protocol, which was also developed by Microsoft. The intent behind CIFS is that it can be used to share files and printers between computers, regardless of the operating system that they run. It's been the default file and print sharing protocol on Windows-based computers since Windows 2000.

You are installing a fiber-optic cable between two buildings. To install the cable, you must run it through a conduit between the buildings, and access to the conduit is not easy. Before you run the cable, you want to ensure that it's working properly. Which tool should you use? A. Cable tester B. Multimeter C. Loopback plug D. Tone generator and probe

A. Cable tester Cable testers are indispensable tools for any network technician. Usually you would use a cable tester before you install a cable to make sure it works. Of course, you can test them after they've been run as well.

Last weekend you installed and booted several more computers to be ready for Monday morning. Later Monday morning you hear from employees as they come in that they cannot log in. Their desktops don't seem to want to connect. You investigate and find that each faulty workstation has a 169.254.x.x IP address. What might you look at next? A. DHCP reservation B. LAN connector broken C. Windows patch unable to install D. Corrupted Registry

A. DHCP reservation With many new systems added and already booted, it is likely that the DHCP reservation pool is now too small for the number of systems requesting IP addresses. Expand the DHCP reservation to solve the problem.

You are using your laptop on the company network. In your web browser, you type in www.google.com and press Enter. The computer will not find Google. You open the browser on your phone, and using your cellular connection, you can open Google without a problem. Your laptop finds internal servers and can print without any issues. What is the most likely reason you can't open Google? A. DNS server problem B. DHCP server problem C. Missing subnet mask D. Duplicate IP address

A. DNS server problem The Domain Name System (DNS) server is responsible for resolving hostnames, such as www.google.com, to IP addresses to enable communication. If it's not working properly or you can't connect to it, you won't be able to browse the Internet using friendly website names.

Your client is now looking at improving control over all the user devices. Particularly, the client wants resource access controlled based on policy and the users meeting a few criteria. What device would you suggest? A. End-point management server B. Perimeter authentication server C. RADIUS server D. SFTP server

A. End-point management server The end-point management server can be a policy-based or directory-based technique toward controlling access to network resources.

What type of server can host files for easy access and fetching, similar to how a web server serves web pages? A. FTP server B. Proxy server C. File server D. Web server

A. FTP server The File Transfer Protocol (FTP) server hosts files for easy access, allowing users who are able to browse it to transfer and upload the files.

Which of the following TCP/IP protocols is connection oriented and attempts to guarantee packet delivery? A. IP B. TCP C. UDP D. ICMP

B. TCP Transmission Control Protocol (TCP) guarantees packet delivery through the use of a virtual circuit and data acknowledgments, and User Datagram Protocol (UDP) does not. Because of this, TCP is often referred to as connection oriented, whereas UDP is connectionless.

Which of the following IPv6 addresses is equivalent to an address in the 169.254.0.0/16 range in IPv4? A. 2000::/3 B. FC00::/7 C. FE80::/10 D. FF00::/8

C. FE80::/10 The 169.254.0.0/16 range in IPv4 is the APIPA range, used for automatic configuration if the host can't locate a DHCP server. The same task in IPv6 is accomplished with a link local address in the FE80::/10 range.

Which network device is designed to be a security guard, blocking malicious data from entering your network? A. PoE injector B. Bridge C. Firewall D. Router

C. Firewall A firewall is a hardware or software solution that serves as your network's security guard. Firewalls can protect you in two ways: they protect your network resources from hackers lurking in the dark corners of the Internet, and they can simultaneously prevent computers on your network from accessing undesirable content on the Internet.

You are troubleshooting an intermittently failing CAT7 network connection. You suspect that there is a short in the connection. Which tool can you use to determine this? A. Tone generator and probe B. Loopback plug C. Multimeter D. Crimper

C. Multimeter Multimeters are versatile electronic measuring tools. A multimeter can measure voltage, current, and resistance on a wire.

You are manually configuring TCP/IP hosts on the network. What configuration parameter specifies the address of the router that enables Internet access? A. Subnet mask B. DHCP server C. DNS server D. Default gateway

D. Default gateway The default gateway is the address to the network's router, which will allow the host to communicate with hosts not on the local network.

Which TCP/IP protocol allows you to access data such as employee phone numbers and email addresses that are stored within an information directory? A. SNMP B. SMTP C. CIFS D. LDAP

D. LDAP The Lightweight Directory Access Protocol (LDAP) is a directory services protocol based on the X.500 standard. LDAP is designed to access information stored in an information directory typically known as an LDAP directory or LDAP database. This often includes employee phone numbers and email addresses.

You are installing a new network and working in a wiring closet. You need to attach several network cables to a 110 block. Which tool should you use to perform this task? A. Crimper B. Cable stripper C. Cable tester D. Punchdown tool

D. Punchdown tool If you're working on a larger network installation, you might use a punchdown tool. It's not a testing tool but one that allows you to connect (that is, punch down) the exposed ends of a wire into wiring harnesses, such as a 110 block.

You need to install an Internet connection for a forest ranger outlook tower, located far away from electrical lines. Which option would be best for broadband Internet access? A. Cable B. DSL C. ISDN D. Satellite

D. Satellite Satellite Internet is not much like any other type of broadband connection. Instead of a cabled connection, it uses a satellite dish to receive data from an orbiting satellite and relay station that is connected to the Internet. Because it requires a clear line of sight between the transmitter and receiver, it can be referred to as "line of sight" wireless. For an installation far from civilization, it may be the only option.

You are asked to perform consulting work for a medium-sized company that is having network connectivity issues. When you examine the patch panel, you notice that none of the dozens of UTP cables are labeled. Which tool can you use to identify which cable goes to which workstation? A. Cable tester B. Loopback plug C. Punchdown tool D. Tone generator and probe

D. Tone generator and probe If you need to trace a wire in a wall from one location to another, a tone generator and probe is the right tool to use. It consists of two pieces: a tone generator and a probe. To use it, attach one end to one end of the cable, such as the end at the computer. Then go to the patch panel with the other end of the probe to locate the cable. These are lifesavers when the cables are not properly labeled.

You need to configure a wireless router for an office network. The office manager wants new devices to be able to automatically join the network and announce their presence to other networked devices. Which service should you enable to allow this? A. DHCP B. NAT C. QoS D. UPnP

D. UPnP

Which Wi-Fi encryption standard uses a static key, which is commonly 10, 26, or 58 characters long? A. WPA B. WPA2 C. TKIP D. WEP

D. WEP Wired Equivalent Privacy (WEP) was one of the first security standards for wireless devices. It uses a static key; the keys are commonly 10, 26, or 58 hexadecimal characters long.

What is the role of the server responsible for publishing information about the company's values, purpose, and available products or services to the public? A. FTP server B. Proxy server C. File server D. Web server

D. Web server The web server hosts and serves information available to the public (or internally as an intranet web server). Originally, files on the web server would be primarily HTML files, but today's web servers would also serve style sheets, scripts, and various media files.

You have just installed a wireless 802.11ac network for a client. The IT manager is concerned about competitors intercepting the wireless signal from outside the building. Which tool is designed to test how far your wireless signal travels? A. Tone generator and probe B. Protocol analyzer C. Packet sniffer D. Wi-Fi analyzer

D. Wi-Fi analyzer A wireless locator, or a Wi-Fi analyzer can be either a handheld hardware device or specialized software that is installed on a laptop and whose purpose is to detect and analyze Wi-Fi signals. It can detect where signals are strong or weak to determine whether there are potential security issues.

Which TCP/IP protocol is responsible for dynamically assigning IP addresses to client computers? A. DNS B. DHCP C. RDP D. LDAP

B. DHCP Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) dynamically assigns IP addresses and other IP configuration information to network clients.

You have set up your web server to function as an FTP server as well. Users on the Internet complain that they are not able to access the server using FTP clients. What port are they trying to access the server on? A. 21 B. 22 C. 23 D. 25 E. 80

A. 21 The File Transfer Protocol (FTP) is optimized for downloading files from servers. It uses port 21.

Which of the following shorthand notations corresponds to the CIDR subnet mask 255.255.224.0? A. /19 B. /20 C. /21 D. /22

A. /19 A subnet mask of 255.255.224.0 has eight bits in each of the first two octets set to on, and it has three bits in the third octet on. Therefore, it corresponds to /19 in shorthand.

Which of the following IP addresses is not routable on the Internet? A. 10.1.1.1 B. 11.1.1.1 C. 12.1.1.1 D. 13.1.1.1

A. 10.1.1.1 Private IP addresses are not routable on the Internet. The private IP address range for class A networks is 10.0.0.0/8.

For IPv6, which of the following statements are not true? (Choose two.) A. Each IPv6 interface can have only one address. B. Each IPv6 interface is required to have a link local address. C. IPv6 addresses are incompatible with IPv4 networks. D. IPv6 no longer uses broadcasts.

A. Each IPv6 interface can have only one address. C. IPv6 addresses are incompatible with IPv4 networks. Each IPv6 interface can and often does have multiple addresses assigned to it. IPv6 is backward compatible with IPv4.

You are setting up a small network in your neighbor's house. She is concerned about wireless security, so she doesn't want to use wireless networking at all. She needs to connect two computers to each other, but it will be impossible to run a network cable between them. Which technology can help her network these computers? A. Ethernet over power B. Power over Ethernet C. Firewall D. Access point

A. Ethernet over power Ethernet over power can make Ethernet connections by using electrical outlets. For it to work, both devices must be on the same electrical circuit.

You are installing network cabling in a highly secure facility. The cables need to be immune to electronic eavesdropping. What type of cable should you use? A. Fiber-optic B. UTP C. STP D. Coaxial

A. Fiber-optic Fiber-optic cabling uses pulses of light instead of electric voltages to transmit data, so it is immune to electrical interference and to wiretapping.

Which TCP/IP Internet layer protocol is responsible for delivering error messages if communication between two computers fails? A. ICMP B. IP C. TCP D. UDP

A. ICMP The main Internet layer protocol is Internet Protocol (IP), and it's the workhorse of TCP/IP. Another key protocol at this layer is Internet Control Message Protocol (ICMP), which is responsible for delivering error messages. If you're familiar with the ping utility, you'll know that it utilizes ICMP to send and receive packets.

What type of network is typically defined as being contained within a single office or building? A. LAN B. WAN C. PAN D. MAN

A. LAN A local area network (LAN) is often defined as being contained in a single building, office, or home.

What method is effective in defining how a firewall allows outbound access when the group of approved devices rarely changes. A. MAC filtering B. Dynamic DNS C. Whitelist D. Blacklist

A. MAC filtering If the group of devices is small and rarely changes, a great way of defining only them as approved traffic sources is to use MAC filtering.

You are configuring a wireless 802.11n router. The office manager insists that you configure the router such that traffic from her computer receives higher priority on the network than other users' traffic. Which setting do you need to configure to enable this? A. QoS B. UPnP C. DMZ D. Port forwarding

A. QoS Quality of Service (QoS) is a strategy that allows an administrator to control resources to maintain a certain service level. By using QoS, an administrator can set different priorities for one or more types of network traffic based on different applications, data flows, or users.

Which TCP/IP protocol, developed by Microsoft, allows users to connect to remote computers and run programs on them? A. RDP B. SMB C. CIFS D. Telnet

A. RDP Developed by Microsoft, the Remote Desktop Protocol (RDP) allows users to connect to remote computers and run programs on them. When you use RDP, you see the desktop of the computer you've signed into on your screen. It's like you're really there, even though you're not.

What communication technology allows for low power, close-proximity passive reading of a small tag or patch on an object? A. RFID B. NFC C. WiFi D. UHF

A. RFID RFID uses radio frequencies and can be implemented to detect and read a "passive" (no power) tag that is essentially an antenna as it passes within a few feet in range.

Which TCP/IP protocol is designed to send email from clients to mail servers? A. SMTP B. POP3 C. IMAP D. SMB

A. SMTP Simple Mail Transfer Protocol (SMTP), Post Office Protocol 3 (POP3), and Internet Message Access Protocol (IMAP) are all email protocols. SMTP is for sending email. POP3 and IMAP are for downloading email.

Which TCP/IP protocol gathers and manages network performance information using devices called agents? A. SNMP B. SMTP C. LDAP D. SMB

A. SNMP Simple Network Management Protocol (SNMP) gathers and manages network performance information. A management device called an SNMP server can be set up to collect data from these devices (called agents) and ensure that your network is operating properly.

What service can collect and journal all the system-generated messages produced by servers and network devices? A. Syslog server B. DNS server C. Print server D. Authentication server

A. Syslog server The Syslog server operates with the Syslog protocol, which is used by many different operating systems and devices. These system-generated messages vary from the mundane "System started" to critical alerts.

You are troubleshooting a computer with an IPv6 address that is in the FE80::/10 range. Which of the following statements are true? (Choose two.) A. The computer will not be able to get on the Internet. B. The computer will be able to get on the Internet. C. The computer is configured with a link local unicast address. D. The computer is configured with a global unicast address.

A. The computer will not be able to get on the Internet. C. The computer is configured with a link local unicast address. Addresses in the FE80::/10 range are link local unicast addresses. A link local address is assigned to each IPv6 interface but is not routable on the Internet. If this is the only address the host has, it will not be able to get on the Internet.

What connectivity technique can ensure that your network traffic is encrypted from endpoint to endpoint? A. VPN B. VLAN C. BGP D. EIGRP

A. VPN A virtual private network (VPN) can encrypt your network traffic, keeping your data confidential along the wire.

You are configuring a wireless 802.11n router for a small network. When setting it up, which security option should you choose? A. WPA2 B. WPA C. WEP D. SSID

A. WPA2 Of the wireless encryption methods listed, WPA2 is the newest and most secure. Some routers offer WPA2 Enterprise, which is a great choice as well.

A technician installed a UTP splitter on one of your network segments that has CAT6e cable. What is the maximum speed supported by this connection? A. 10 Mbps B. 100 Mbps C. 1 Gbps D. 10 Gbps

B. 100 Mbps An Ethernet splitter will take the incoming signal on two pairs and then split it, so on the output end it produces two sets of signals using two pairs each. Because of this, Ethernet splitters are limited to 100 Mbps connections. It is not recommended that you use Ethernet splitters on a network. If you need to connect multiple computers using UTP, use a hub or a switch.

What is the maximum distance allowed between a power over Ethernet injector and the Ethernet device? A. 50 meters B. 100 meters C. 250 meters D. 450 meters

B. 100 meters The distance for Power over Ethernet (PoE) is limited by the maximum distance set by the Ethernet cabling: 100 meters. The power injector, the device that sources the electrical power to certain wires in the cable, can be as much as 100 meters from the powered device.

What port does the SSH protocol use? A. 21 B. 22 C. 23 D. 25

B. 22 Secure Shell (SSH) can be used to set up a secure Telnet session for remote logins or for remotely executing programs and transferring files. SSH uses port 22.

You have been asked to install a run of RG-59 cable from one end of a building to the other. What is the maximum distance for this type of cable run? A. 100 meters (328 feet) B. 228 meters (750 feet) C. 304 meters (1,000 feet) D. 500 meters (1,645 feet)

B. 228 meters (750 feet) RG-59 network cable can run for about 228 meters (750 feet). The slightly thicker RG-6 has more insulation and can run for about 304 meters (1,000 feet). Transmission quality for RG-59 differs depending on the frequencies. RG-59 is good for baseband video, but at high frequencies the RG-59 does not do well over long distances.

Which TCP/IP port will an email client use to push email to its email server? A. 23 B. 25 C. 110 D. 143

B. 25 Email is pushed from clients to servers using the Simple Mail Transfer Protocol (SMTP). SMTP uses port 25.

A technician is trying to establish a dial-up network connection using a legacy modem. What is the fastest data throughput for a modem? A. 28.8 Kbps B. 56 Kbps C. 1 Mbps D. 4 Mbps

B. 56 Kbps The fastest modems produced had a data rate of 56 Kbps. At the time, they were considered fast. Today, not so much.

Which of the following IPv6 addresses is equivalent to 127.0.0.1 in IPv4? A. ::0 B. ::1 C. ::127 D. 2000::/3

B. ::1 127.0.0.1 is the loopback address, used to ping the local network interface. The IPv6 equivalent is ::1.

Which TCP/IP protocol was developed by Apple and used to transfer files between computers? A. FTP B. AFP C. ATP D. SMB

B. AFP The Apple Filing Protocol (AFP) was developed by Apple as a file transfer protocol similar to FTP and Server Message Block (SMB). It was the default file transfer protocol on MacOS until Apple changed to SMB2 in 2013.

Which of the following network devices receives network traffic and makes a decision on whether to send it on based on the destination hardware address? A. Hub B. Bridge C. Access point D. Repeater

B. Bridge Because bridges work at the Data Link layer, they are aware of only hardware (MAC) addresses. They are not aware of and do not deal with IP addresses. Bridges are more intelligent than repeaters, but they are unable to move data across multiple networks simultaneously.

What server is used to resolve domain names to IP addresses to facilitate web browsing or locating a directory resource on the network? A. Syslog server B. DNS server C. Print server D. Authentication server

B. DNS server If a user types www.sybex.com in a web browser, the domain name system (DNS) server will resolve the domain name to an IP address. Similarly, DNS servers will resolve a fully qualified domain named (FQDN) network directory resource on the network to make locating that resource possible.

Which of the following network architecture devices operate at Layer 1 of the OSI model? (Choose two.) A. Switch B. Hub C. Extender D. Router

B. Hub C. Extender A hub is a device used to link several computers together. Hubs are simple devices that possess no real intelligence, and they work at Layer 1 of the OSI model. Extenders simply allow a signal to propagate for a longer distance, and they also work at Layer 1. Switches are Layer 2 devices, and routers work at Layer 3.

You are configuring hosts on a network running IPv4. Which elements are required for the computer to connect to the network? A. IP address B. IP address and subnet mask C. IP address, subnet mask, and default gateway D. IP address, subnet mask, default gateway, and DNS server address

B. IP address and subnet mask To communicate on an IPv4 network, a host must be configured with a valid IP address and a subnet mask. A default gateway is needed only if the host will connect to a remote network. DNS servers are optional but useful, because they resolve hostnames to IP addresses.

In IPv4, what is the function of the subnet mask? A. It tells hosts where to route packets. B. It differentiates between the network ID and host ID. C. It determines which subnet the host is on. D. It masks external networks from the host.

B. It differentiates between the network ID and host ID. Computers are able to differentiate where the network ID ends and the host address begins through the use of a subnet mask.

What communication technology establishes connectivity between enabled devices only when the devices are placed within 4 cm of each other? A. RFID B. NFC C. Wi-Fi D. UHF

B. NFC Near-field communication (NFC) sets up connections between two devices that are within 2 inches, or 4 cm, of each other.

A technician is configuring a wireless 802.11ac router for a home network. For security purposes, he enables the firewall. He wants to configure it so that if a computer makes an outbound request on a specific port, subsequent inbound traffic on that port would be allowed through the firewall. Which option does he need to configure to manage these settings? A. Port forwarding B. Port triggering C. NAT D. QoS

B. Port triggering Port triggering allows traffic to enter the network on a specific port after a computer makes an outbound request on that specific port. For example, if a computer on your internal network makes an outbound Telnet request (port 23), subsequent inbound traffic destined for the originating computer on port 23 would be allowed through.

You need to install a wireless hub in a drop ceiling where there is no access to a power source. Which technology will allow you to get power to that device? A. Ethernet over power B. Power over Ethernet C. Wireless access point D. Repeater/extender

B. Power over Ethernet Power over Ethernet (PoE) allows you to power an Ethernet device (such as a switch) through one of the Ethernet ports. For it to work, the access point and the device it plugs into both need to support PoE. Further, both the access point and device need to be compatible with each other.

What server sits between the protected, controlled network and the public Internet, functioning as a gatekeeper of traffic? A. FTP server B. Proxy server C. File server D. Web server

B. Proxy server Proxy servers act as a gateway or "middle-man," through which Internet access requests are handled, monitored, and, if need be, filtered.

Of the following fiber connectors, which is used for duplex (two strands instead of one)? A. ST B. SC C. FC D. RJ-11

B. SC The SC connector can be used for both single-mode and multimode, both in simplex and duplex. The RJ-11 is, of course, not a fiber connector.

Which one of the following TCP/IP protocols was designed as a replacement for Telnet? A. SMB B. SSH C. SFTP D. FTPS

B. SSH Secure Shell (SSH) can be used to set up a secure Telnet session for remote logins or for remotely executing programs and transferring files. Because it's secure, it was originally designed to be a replacement for the unsecure telnet command.

Which networking device works at Layer 2 of the OSI model, has multiple ports in which each is its own collision domain, and examines the header of the incoming packet to determine which port it gets sent to? A. Hub B. Switch C. Bridge D. Router

B. Switch Switches work at Layer 2, as do bridges, and they provide centralized connectivity just like hubs. Switches examine the Layer 2 header of the incoming packet and forward it properly to the right port and only that port. Switches are multiport bridges.

Which of the following network connectivity devices operate at Layer 2 of the OSI model? (Choose two.) A. Hub B. Switch C. Bridge D. Router

B. Switch C. Bridge Switches and bridges work at Layer 2. Switches are multiport bridges.

You have been asked to install a Wi-Fi network in a building that is approximately 100 meters long and 25 meters wide. Because of cost considerations, you will need to use 802.11g. At a minimum, how many wireless access points will you need? A. Two B. Three C. Four D. Six

B. Three The 802.11g standard has an indoor range of approximately 40 meters. At a minimum, you will need three access points. Depending on coverage and indoor interference, such as thick walls, you might need more though.

What network segmentation technique reduces broadcast domains? A. VPN B. VLAN C. BGP D. EIGRP

B. VLAN Virtual LANs, or VLANs, will segment your network into smaller broadcast domains. Traffic is isolated to only the paths determined by how you have identified VLANs on your managed switches.

What type of network covers large geographical areas and often supports thousands of users? A. LAN B. WAN C. PAN D. MAN

B. WAN A wide area network (WAN) covers large geographical areas and often supports thousands of users.

Which Wi-Fi encryption standard was the first to include the use of a 128-bit dynamic per-packet encryption key? A. WEP B. WPA C. WPA2 D. AES

B. WPA Wi-Fi Protected Access (WPA) was the first Wi-Fi encryption standard to implement the use of the Temporal Key Integrity Protocol (TKIP). Whereas WEP used a static 40- or 128-bit key, TKIP uses a 128-bit dynamic per-packet key. It generates a new key for each packet sent.

You want to ensure that client computers can download email from external email servers regardless of the protocol their email client uses. Which ports do you open on the firewall to enable this? (Choose two.) A. 23 B. 25 C. 110 D. 143

C. 110 D. 143 Simple Mail Transfer Protocol (SMTP, port 25), Post Office Protocol 3 (POP3, port 110), and Internet Message Access Protocol (IMAP, port 143) are all email protocols. SMTP is for sending email. POP3 and IMAP are for downloading email.

Which of the following IP addresses is not a private address and therefore is routable on the Internet? A. 10.1.2.3 B. 172.18.31.54 C. 172.168.38.155 D. 192.168.38.155

C. 172.168.38.155 The private IP address ranges are 10.0.0.0/8, 172.16.0.0/12, and 192.168.0.0/16. The address 172.168.38.155 is outside the private IP address range and is a public address.

What port does the Telnet protocol use? A. 21 B. 22 C. 23 D. 25

C. 23 Telnet lets users log into another machine and "see" the remote computer in a window on their screen. Although this vision is text only, users can manage files on that remote machine just as if they were logged in locally. Telnet uses port 23.

You are given a network configuration of 155.100.63.0/26 from your ISP. When you configure your network hosts, what subnet mask should you assign them? A. 255.255.0.0 B. 255.255.255.0 C. 255.255.255.192 D. 255.255.255.240

C. 255.255.255.192 A CIDR shorthand notation of /26 corresponds to the subnet mask 255.255.255.192.

A technician needs to run a network cable to a remote building, which is approximately 15 kilometers from his base station. He's not sure if any cable will span that distance. What is the maximum distance of SMF cable? A. 300 meters B. 550 meters C. 40 kilometers D. 100 kilometers

C. 40 kilometers Single-mode fiber (SMF) can provide data throughput rates of 10 Gbps at a distance of 40 kilometers. Compare that to multimode fiber, which can reliably transmit 10 Gbps for only about 550 meters.

You have reason to believe that several network users are actively browsing prohibited content on unsecured sites on the Internet. Which port can you disable on the firewall to immediately stop access to these websites? A. 53 B. 67 C. 80 D. 443

C. 80 Normal (unsecured) websites are accessed on port 80, which is the port that Hypertext Transfer Protocol (HTTP) uses. Shut it down, and no one will be able to access websites, except secure sites that use HTTPS, which is on port 443.

Which Wi-Fi standard specifies a maximum of 54 Mbps transmissions in the 2.4 GHz frequency range? A. 802.11a B. 802.11b C. 802.11g D. 802.11n

C. 802.11g 802.11g specifies a maximum of 54 Mbps transmissions in the 2.4 GHz frequency range.

A technician is going to set up a Wi-Fi network using standard omnidirectional antennae. Because of the building configuration, transmitting signals for the greatest distance is his primary criterion. Which standard should he choose? A. 802.11a B. 802.11g C. 802.11n D. 802.11ac

C. 802.11n Of the Wi-Fi standards, 802.11n has the longest range by default, at roughly 70 meters indoors and 250 meters outdoors. 802.11ac is newer and faster than 802.11n, but it transmits exclusively in the 5 GHz range, which restricts its functional distance.

You are installing a wireless network for a small company. It wants to have 100 Mbps or better wireless transmission rates. Which of the following standards will allow you to provide this? (Choose two.) A. 802.11g B. 802.11i C. 802.11n D. 802.11ac

C. 802.11n D. 802.11ac The only two options as Wi-Fi standards that provide greater than 100 Mbps throughput are 802.11n and 802.11ac. The 802.11g standard has a maximum throughput of 54 Mbps, and 802.11i is an encryption standard. Other standards not presented but that do provide throughputs over 100 Mbps are 802.11ah and 802.11ad.

You are installing an 802.11n Wi-Fi network with five wireless access points. The access points are set up so their ranges overlap each other. To avoid communications issues, what principle should you follow when configuring them? A. Configure all access points to use the same channel. B. Configure all access points to use adjacent channels. C. Configure all access points to use nonoverlapping channels. D. Channel configuration will not cause communications issues.

C. Configure all access points to use nonoverlapping channels. When setting up wireless access points, it's good practice to have their ranges overlap to ensure that there is no loss of communication when roaming in the network's area. However, to avoid problems, it's best to set up the access points with nonoverlapping channels.

Which Internet connection type, popular for home use, offers asymmetrical download and upload speeds and is implemented over common phone lines? A. POTS B. Cable C. DSL D. ISDN

C. DSL One of the two most popular broadband choices for home use is Digital Subscriber Line (DSL). It utilizes existing phone lines and provides fairly reliable high-speed access. Most DSL subscriptions are asymmetrical, meaning they offer faster download speeds than upload speeds.

Which of the following features does not require a managed network switch? A. Priority of traffic B. VLAN configuration C. Directing Layer 2 traffic D. Port mirroring

C. Directing Layer 2 traffic An unmanaged switch will simply perform the one task a switch should do: direct Layer 2 traffic out the correct destination port.

Your client is interested in a security device that will take action when suspicious activity is identified, as well as filter traffic and perhaps also provide some antivirus functionality. What type of device is the client looking for? A. Proxy server B. Firewall C. UTM D. IPS

C. UTM Unified threat management (UTM) systems can be hardware network devices, virtual devices, or an off-premises service. The UTM's primary value is the integration of multiple security services into a singular device.

Which TCP/IP protocol, designed to download email, allows for multiple clients to be simultaneously connected to the same mailbox? A. SMTP B. POP3 C. IMAP D. SMB

C. IMAP Internet Message Access Protocol (IMAP) is a secure protocol designed to download email. It has several advantages over the older Post Office Protocol 3 (POP3). First, IMAP4 works in connected and disconnected modes. Second, it lets you store the email on the server, as opposed to POP3, which requires you to download it. Third, IMAP4 allows multiple clients to be simultaneously connected to the same inbox.

Some of your network users are concerned about submitting confidential information to an online website. What should you tell them? A. It's fine, because all Internet traffic is encrypted. B. If the website address starts with TLS://, it should be OK to submit confidential information to a trusted site. C. If the website address starts with HTTPS://, it should be OK to submit confidential information to a trusted site. D. Don't ever submit confidential information to any online website.

C. If the website address starts with HTTPS://, it should be OK to submit confidential information to a trusted site. Internet traffic is not encrypted by default. Websites that are secure and encrypt their transmissions will start with HTTPS:// rather than HTTP://. These sites can be trusted to encrypt the data, and their identity is verified.

You have a desktop computer that is behaving erratically on the network. The wired connection will often disconnect without warning. Which tool should you use to troubleshoot the network adapter? A. Multimeter B. Tone generator and probe C. Loopback plug D. Cable tester

C. Loopback plug A loopback plug is for testing the ability of a network adapter to send and receive. The plug gets plugged into the NIC, and then a loopback test is performed using troubleshooting software. You can then tell whether the card is working properly.

When setting up a small office, home office (SOHO) network, how do the end-user devices known how to connect? A. Network switch broadcasts configuration settings. B. Devices utilize service location protocol. C. NIC set with static address or be DHCP-served. D. End users configure as needed.

C. NIC set with static address or be DHCP-served. The end-user devices are configured to at least request a DHCP-assigned IP address or be preconfigured with a static IP, gateway and DNS information.

What legacy network protocol allows NetBIOS-dependent computer applications to communicate over TCP/IP? A. IPX B. SPX C. NetBT D. BGP

C. NetBT NetBIOS over TCP/IP (NetBT) is for older applications still reliant on NetBIOS, the legacy network protocol intended for very small networks. NetBT lets such applications communicate over TCP/IP.

What type of network is most commonly associated with Bluetooth devices and covers a small area? A. LAN B. WAN C. PAN D. MAN

C. PAN A personal area network (PAN) is a small-scale network designed around one person within a limited boundary area. The term generally refers to networks that use Bluetooth technology.

What server is added to a company infrastructure to avoid the need to attach printers to each individual desktop? A. Syslog server B. DNS server C. Print server D. Authentication server

C. Print server The print server provides centralized availability of print services to anyone on the network. The print server accepts print jobs from authorized users, and the documents are printed according to order of receipt or some configured priority.

What twisted pair connectors are commonly found for telephone wire? A. RJ-45 B. Coaxial C. RJ-11 D. FC

C. RJ-11 RJ-11 accommodates two pair of wires and is the standard household or office wired telephone connections. RJ-45 is the four pair connector used for twisted-pair Ethernet. Coaxial is a type of network cable and would have a BNC connector (with a locking mechanism) or an F-connector.

Which TCP/IP protocol is used to provide shared access to files and printers on the network? A. FTP B. SSH C. SMB D. SNMP

C. SMB Server Message Block (SMB) is a protocol used to provide shared access to files, printers, and other network resources. In a way, it functions a bit like FTP, only with a few more options, such as the ability to connect to printers and more management commands.

Which TCP/IP protocol uses TCP ports 137-139 and 445 by default? A. FTP B. SSH C. SMB D. SNMP

C. SMB Server Message Block (SMB) is a protocol used to provide shared access to files, printers, and other network resources. It uses TCP ports 137-139 and 445.

Which TCP/IP host-to-host protocol makes its best effort to deliver data but does not guarantee it? A. IP B. TCP C. UDP D. ICMP

C. UDP The two host-to-host protocols are Transmission Control Protocol (TCP) and User Datagram Protocol (UDP). TCP guarantees packet delivery through the use of a virtual circuit and data acknowledgments, and UDP does not. Because of this, TCP is often referred to as connection oriented, whereas UDP is connectionless.

Which type of IPv6 address identifies a single node on the network? A. Multicast B. Anycast C. Unicast D. Localcast

C. Unicast There are three types of addresses in IPv6: unicast, anycast, and multicast. A unicast address identifies a single node on the network. An anycast address refers to one that has been assigned to multiple nodes. A multicast address is one used by multiple hosts.

Which of the follow components is not typically found in a wireless mesh network (WMN)? A. WMN router B. WMN gateway C. WMN server D. WMN client

C. WMN server Wireless mesh networks commonly have three types of nodes: a client, a router and a gateway.

What firewall rule technique allows only a known list of applications or traffic as legitimate? A. MAC filtering B. Dynamic DNS C. Whitelist D. Blacklist

C. Whitelist The whitelist is a defined list of approved applications to pass through the firewall.

All your network hosts are configured to use DHCP. Which IP address would indicate that a host has been unable to locate a DHCP server? A. 192.168.1.1 B. 10.1.1.1 C. 172.16.1.1 D. 169.254.1.1

D. 169.254.1.1 Automatic Private IP Addressing (APIPA) is a TCP/IP standard used to automatically configure IP-based hosts that are unable to reach a DHCP server. APIPA addresses are in the 169.254.0.0/16 range. If you see a computer that has an IP address beginning with 169.254, you know that it has configured itself.

A senior administrator calls you and tells you that she is working from home and trying to use RDP, but it won't connect. What port do you need to ensure is open on the firewall to grant her access? A. 143 B. 443 C. 548 D. 3389

D. 3389 The Remote Desktop Protocol (RDP) allows users to connect to remote computers and run programs on them. It uses port 3389.

If you are connecting to a website that encrypts its connection using TLS, what port does that traffic travel on? A. 21 B. 80 C. 143 D. 443

D. 443 To encrypt traffic between a web server and client securely, Hypertext Transfer Protocol Secure (HTTPS) can be used. HTTPS connections are secured using either Secure Sockets Layer (SSL) or Transport Layer Security (TLS). HTTPS uses port 443.

Which port is AFP capable of using? A. 427 B. 443 C. 445 D. 548

D. 548 The Apple Filing Protocol (AFP) is a file transfer protocol developed by Apple. It uses port 548.

Your network is currently running a mix of 802.11b and 802.11g devices. At the end of the year, you have extra budget to upgrade some, but not all, of the wireless infrastructure. You want to upgrade to the newest technology but still maintain backward compatibility. Which standard should you choose? A. 802.11g B. 802.11ac C. 802.11r D. 802.11n

D. 802.11n 802.11b/g transmit in the 2.4 GHz frequency, as does 802.11n, so they are compatible. The newer 802.11ac is a 5 GHz standard and therefore is not backward compatible with 802.11b/g. 802.11r is not a standard related to Wi-Fi speed and is not in the A+ exam objectives.

Which of the following statements regarding IPv4 configuration is true? A. All hosts on a network must have a unique subnet mask. B. All hosts on a network must have their network ID set to all 1s. C. All hosts on a network must have a default gateway. D. All hosts on a network must have a unique host address.

D. All hosts on a network must have a unique host address. All hosts on a network must have a unique IP address. The subnet mask should be the same for all computers on a local network. The network ID can't be set to all 1s; otherwise, it replicates the subnet mask. Default gateways, or router addresses, are needed only if hosts will communicate with hosts outside their local network.

What server is accessed each time it's necessary to challenge and validate a user's credentials in order for the user to access a network resource? A. Syslog server B. DNS server C. Print server D. Authentication server

D. Authentication server The authentication server facilitates the challenge/response service for validating someone's credentials.

What is the typical method for IoT devices to connect to the wireless network? A. DNS B. AD C. SLP D. DHCP

D. DHCP Unless an Internet of Things device (IoT) possesses an end-user accessible management interface, that device will likely connect by starting network connectivity using DHCP.

Which TCP/IP protocol is designed to help resolve hostnames to IP addresses? A. ARP B. RARP C. DHCP D. DNS

D. DNS The Domain Name System (DNS) is responsible for resolving hostnames to IP addresses. This is used millions of times daily on the Internet; when someone types in a website name, such as www.sybex.com, DNS will resolve that to an IP address to enable communication.

The senior network administrator struggles to configure company network devices spanning several cities. The challenge is because he is required to be on premises for the network infrastructure of each building. What would be a cost-effective solution? A. Employ network administrators at each building. B. Go to a flat network. C. Train a local sales associate. D. Employ a cloud-based network controller.

D. Employ a cloud-based network controller. Migrating network configuration to the cloud would allow the network administrator to perform his duties without requiring travel.

What is the primary difference between an IDS and IPS? A. IDS works both on a host and a network. B. IDS will not actively alert on suspect activity. C. IPS works in pairs. D. IPS will actively react to suspect activity.

D. IPS will actively react to suspect activity The IDS will alert on suspect activity, but will not react or actively attempt to block the activity. The IPS, however, should attempt to block the activity.

You are consulting with a small field office that needs a dedicated, digital point-to-point network connection to its parent office. Which Internet connection type will meet this requirement? A. Dial-up B. Cable C. DSL D. ISDN

D. ISDN Integrated Services Digital Network (ISDN) is a digital, point-to-point network capable of maximum transmission speeds of about 2 Mbps, although speeds of 128 Kbps are more common.

What type of network spans multiple buildings or offices but is confined to a relatively small geographical area? A. LAN B. WAN C. PAN D. MAN

D. MAN Networks that are larger than a LAN but confined to a relatively small geographical area are metropolitan area networks (MANs). A MAN is generally defined as a network that spans a city or a large campus.

Your company just expanded and is leasing additional space in an adjacent office building. You need to extend the network to the new building. Fortunately, there is a conduit between the two. You estimate that the cable you need to run will be about 300 meters long. What type of cable should you use? A. CAT5 B. CAT5e C. CAT7 D. MMF

D. MMF UTP cables are limited to 100 meters, so CAT5 and CAT7 will not work. You need fiber, and multimode fiber (MMF) can span distances of 300 meters.

You are installing network cabling in a drop ceiling of an office space. The ceiling area is used to circulate breathable air. What type of cable do you need to install? A. Coaxial B. UTP C. Fiber-optic D. Plenum

D. Plenum The cable can be any of the three major types, coaxial, twisted pair, or fiber, but it needs to be plenum rated. Normal cables have a PVC coating, which produces a poisonous gas when burned. Plenum-rated cables have a Teflon coating, which is not toxic when burned.

Which TCP/IP Internet layer protocol is responsible for resolving physical MAC addresses to logical IP addresses? A. IP B. ICMP C. ARP D. RARP

D. RARP At the Internet layer of TCP/IP, Address Resolution Protocol (ARP) resolves logical IP addresses to physical MAC addresses built into network cards. Reverse ARP (RARP) resolves MAC addresses to IP addresses.

Which network connectivity device does not forward broadcast messages, thereby creating multiple broadcast domains? A. Hub B. Switch C. Bridge D. Router

D. Router One of the key features of routers is that they break up broadcast domains. Broadcast traffic on one side of the router will not get passed to the other side, which greatly reduces network traffic.

Which networking device is capable of reading IP addresses and forwarding packets based on the destination IP address? A. Hub B. Switch C. Bridge D. Router

D. Router Routers operate at the Network layer (Layer 3) of the OSI model. Because of this, they make their decisions on what to do with traffic based on logical addresses, such as an IP address.

What networking protocol allows systems to discover local systems and other devices? A. DHCP B. DNS C. HTTP D. SLP

D. SLP Service Location Protocol (SLP) enables a computer to discover local systems and other devices, if it is not already preconfigured with their location.

Using the T568B wiring standard on both ends of a cable would produce what type of network cable? A. T568B on both ends is not a working network cable. B. T568B is a telephone wiring standard. C. T568B on both ends is a crossover network cable. D. T568B on both ends is a straight-through network cable.

D. T568B on both ends is a straight-through network cable. T568B on both ends is a straight-through network cable. If you have a T568A on one end and a T568B on the other, that is a crossover cable.

Which TCP/IP protocol allows a user to log into a remote computer and manage files as if they were logged in locally? A. FTP B. SFTP C. SMB D. Telnet

D. Telnet Telnet lets users log into another machine and "see" the remote computer in a window on their screen. Although this vision is text only, users can manage files on that remote machine just as if they were logged in locally.

Which TCP/IP port number does SNMP use? A. TCP 143 B. UDP 143 C. TCP 161 D. UDP 161

D. UDP 161 Simple Network Management Protocol (SNMP) is a noncritical service, so it uses UDP. It's assigned port 161. IMAP4 uses port 143.

Which of the following shorthand notations corresponds to the CIDR subnet mask 255.255.244.0? a. /19 b. /20 c. /21 d. /22

a. /19 A subnet mask of 255.255.255.254.0 has eight bits in each of the first two octets set to on, and it has three bits in the third octet on. Therefore, it corresponds to /19 in shorthand.

Which of the following IP addresses is not routable on the Internet? a. 10.1.1.1 b. 11.1.1.1 c. 12.1.1.1 d. 13.1.1.1

a. 10.1.1.1 Private IP addresses are not routable on the Internet. The private IP address range for class A networks is 10.0.0.0/8.

You are using your laptop on the company network. In your web browser, you type in www.google.com and press enter. The computer will not find Google. You open the browser on your phone, and using your cellular connection, you can open Google without a problem. Your laptop finds internal servers and can print without any issues. What is the most likely reason you can't open Google? a. DNS server problem b. DHCP server problem c. Missing subnet mask d. Duplicate IP address

a. DNS server problem The Domain Name System (DNS) server is responsible for resolving host names, such as www.google.com to IP addresses to enable communications. If it's not working properly or you can't connect to it, you won't be able to browse the Internet using friendly website names.

For IPv6, which of the following statements are not true? (Choose two.) a. Each IPv6 interface can have only one address b. Each IPv6 interface is required to have a link local address. c. IPv6 addresses are incompatible with IPv4 networks d. IPv6 no longer uses broadcasts

a. Each IPv6 interface can have only one address c. IPv6 addresses are incompatible with IPv4 networks. Each IPv6 interface can and often does have multiple addresses assigned to it. IPv6 is backward compatible with IPv4.

Your client is now looking at improving control over all the user devices. Particularly, the client wants resource access controlled based on policy and the users meeting a few criteria. What device would you suggest? a. End-point management server b. Perimeter authentication server c. RADIUS server d. SFTP server

a. End-point management server The end-point management server can be a policy-based or directory-based technique toward controlling access to network resources.

What type of server can host files for easy access and fetching, similar to how a web server serves web pages? a. FTP server b. Proxy server c. File server d. Web server

a. FTP server The File Transfer Protocol (FTP) server hosts files for easy access, allowing users who are able to browse it to transfer and upload the files.

You are installing network cabling in a highly secure facility. The cables need to be immune to electronic eavesdropping. What type of cable should you use? a. Fiber-optic b. UTP c. STP d. Coaxial

a. Fiber-optic Fiber-optic cabling uses pulsing of light instead of electric voltages to transmit data, so it is immune to electrical interference and to wiretapping..

What method is effective in defining how a firewall allows outbound access when the group of approved devices rarely changes? a. MAC filtering b. Dynamic DNS c. Whitelist d. Blacklist

a. MAC filtering If the group of devices is small and rarely changes, a great way of defining only them as approved traffic sources is to use MAC filtering.

Which TCP/IP protocol gathers and manages network performance information using devices called agents? a. SNMP b. SMTP c. LDAP d. SMB

a. SNMP Simple Network Management Protocol (SNMP) gathers and manages network performance information. A management device called an SNMP server can be set up to collect data from these devices (called agents) and ensure that your network is operating properly.

You are troubleshooting a computer with an IPv6 address that is in the FE80::/10 range. Which of the following statements are true? (Choose two.) a. The computer will not be able to get on the Internet b. The computer will be able to get on the Internet c. The computer is configured with a link local unicast address. d. The computer is configured with a global unicast address.

a. The computer will not be able to get on the Internet c. The computer is configured with a link local unicast address. Addresses in the FE80::/10 range are link local unicast addresses. A link local address is assigned to each IPv6 interface but is not routable on the Internet. If this is the only address the host has, it will not be able to get on the Internet.

You are installing a fiber-optic cable between two buildings. To install the cable, you must run it through a conduit between the buildings, and access to the conduit is not easy. Before you run the cable, you want to ensure that it's working properly. Which tool should you use? a. Cable tester b. Multimeter c. Loopback plug d. Tone generator and probe

a. cable tester

A technician installed a UTP splitter on one of your network segments that has a CAT6e cable. What is the maximum speed supported by this connection? a. 10 Mbps b. 100 Mbps c. 1 Gbps d. 10 Gbps

b. 100 Mbps

What is the maximum distance allowed between a power over Ethernet injector and the Ethernet device? a. 50 meters b. 100 meters c. 250 meters d. 450 meters

b. 100 meters The distance for Power over Ethernet (PoE) is limited by the maximum distance set by the Ethernet cabling: 100 meters. The power infector, the device that sources the electrical power to certain wires in the cable, can be as much as 100 meters from the powered device.

Which of the following IP addresses is not a private address and therefore is routable on the Internet? a. 10.1.2.3 b. 172.18.31.54 c. 172.168.38.155 d. 192.168.38.155

b. 172.18.31.54 The private IP address ranges are 10.0.0.0/8, 172.16.0.0/12, and 192.168.0.0/16. The address 172.168.38.155 is outside the private IP range and is a public address.

You have been asked to install a run of RG-59 cable from one end of a building to the other. What is the maximum distance for this type of cable run? a. 100 meters (328 feet) b. 228 meters (750 feet) c. 304 meters (1000 feet) d. 500 meters (1645 feet)

b. 228 meters (750 feet) RG-59 network cables can fun for about 228 meters (750 feet). The slightly thicker RG-6 has more insulation and can run for about 304 meters (1000 feet). Transmission quality for for RG-59 differs depending on the frequencies. RG-59 is good for baseband video, but at high frequencies the RG-59 does not do well over long distances.

You are configuring network hosts with static IP addresses. You have chosen to use a class B network address. What is the default subnet mask that you should configure on the hosts? a. 255.0.0.0 b. 255.255.0.0 c. 255.255.255.0 d. 255.255.255.255

b. 255.255.0.0 The default subnet mask for class B networks is 255.255.0.0, or written in shorthand, /16.

Because of a recent security breach, your IT team shut down several ports on the external firewall. Now, users can't get to websites by using their URLs, but they can get there by using IP addresses. What port does the IT team need to open back up to enable Internet access via URLs? a. 21 b. 53 c. 67 d. 80

b. 53 Clients are unable to get to the DNS server, which resolves hostnames or (URLs) to IP addresses. DNS uses port 53.

Which of the following network devices receives network traffic and makes a decision on whether to send it on based on the destination hardware address? a. Hub b. Bridge c. Access point d. Repeater

b. Bridge Because bridges work at the Data Link Layer, they are aware of only hardware (MAC) addresses. They are not aware of and do not deal with IP addresses. Bridges are more intelligent than repeaters, but they are unable to move data across multiple networks simultaneously.

Which of the following network architecture devices operate at Layer 1 of the OSI model? (Choose two.) a. Switch b. Hub c. Extender d. Router

b. Hub c. Extender A hub is a device used to link several computers together. Hubs are simple devices that possess no real intelligence, and they work at Layer 1 of the OSI model. Extenders simply allow a signal to propagate for a longer distance, and they also work at Layer 1. Switches are Layer 2 devices, and routers work at Layer 3.

You are configuring hosts on a network running IPv4. Which elements are required for the computer to connect to the network? a. IP address b. IP address and subnet mask c. IP address, subnet mask, and default gateway d. IP address, subnet mask default gateway, and DNS server address

b. IP address and subnet mask To communicate on an IPv4 network, a host must be configured with a valid IP address and subnet mask. A default gateway is needed only if the host will connect to a remote network. DNS servers are optional but useful, because they resolve hostnames to IP addresses.

In IPv4, what is the function of the subnet mask? a. It tells hosts where to router packets. b. It differentiates between the network ID and host ID c. It determines which subnet the host is on d. It masks external networks from the host

b. It differentiates between the network ID and host ID

You need to install a wireless hub in a drop ceiling where there is no access to a power source. Which technology will allow you to get power to the device? a. Ethernet over power (EoP) b. Power over Ethernet (PoE) c. Wireless access point d. Repeater/Extender

b. Power over Ethernet Power over Ethernet allows you to power an Ethernet device (such as a switch) through one of the Ethernet ports. For it to work, the access point and the device it plugs into both need to support PoE. Further, both the access point and the device it plugs into both need to be compatible with each other.

Of the following fiber connectors, which is used for duplex (two-strands instead of one)? a. ST b. SC c. FC d. RJ-11

b. SC The SC connector can be used for both single-mode and multimode, both in simplex and duplex. The RJ-11 is, of course, not a fiber connector.

Which TCP/IP protocol, developed by Microsoft, allows users to connect to remote computers and run programs on them? a. RDP b. SMB c. CIFS d. Telnet

b. SMB Developed by Microsoft, the Remote Desktop Protocol allows users to connect to remote computers and run programs on them. When you use RDP, you see the desktop of the computer you've signed into on your screen. It's like you are really there, even though you aren't.

Which networking device works at Layer 2 of the OSI model, has multiple ports in which each is its own collision domain, and examines the header of the incoming packet to determine which port it gets sent to? a. Hub b. Switch c. Bridge d. Router

b. Switch Switches work at Layer 2, as do bridges, and they provide centralized connectivity just like hubs. Switches examine the Layer 2 header of incoming packets and forward them properly to the right port and only that port. Switches are multiport bridges.

Which of the following network connectivity devices operate at Layer 2 of the OSI model? (Choose two.) a. Hub b. Switch c. Bridge d. Router

b. Switch c. Bridge

You have been asked to install a Wi-Fi network in a building that is approximately 100 meters long and 25 meters wide. Because of cost considerations, you will need to use 802.11g. At a minimum, how many wireless access points will you need? a. Two b. Three c. Four d. Six

b. Three The 802.11g standard has an indoor range of approximately 40 meter. At a minimum, you will need three access points. Depending on coverage and indoor interference, such as thick walls, you might need more though.

What network segmentation technique reduces broadcast domains? a. VPN b. VLAN c. BGR d. EIGRP

b. VLAN Virtual LANs, or VLANS, will segment your network into smaller broadcast domains. Traffic is isolated to only paths determined by how you have identified VLANs on your managed switches.

Which Wi-Fi encryption standard was the first to include the use of a 128-bit dynamic per-packet encryption key? a. WEP b. WPA c. WPA2 d. AES

b. WPA Wi-Fi Protected Access (WPA) was the first Wi-Fi encryption standard to implement the use of the Temporal Key Integrity Protocol (TKIP). Whereas WEP used a static 40 or 128-bit key, TKIP uses a 128-bit dynamic per-packet key. It generates a new key for each packet sent.

You want to ensure that client computers can download email from external email servers regardless of the protocol their email client uses. Which ports do you open on the firewall to enable this? (Choose 2.) a. 23 b. 25 c. 110 d. 143

c. 110 d. 143 Simple Mail Transfer Protocol (SMTP, port 25), Post Office Protocol 3 (POP3, port 110), and Internet Message Access Protocol (IMAP, port 143) are all email protocols, SMTP is for sending email. POP3 and IMAP are for downloading email.

You are given a network configuration of 155.100.63.0/26 from your ISP. When you configure your network hosts, what subnet mask should you assign them? a. 255.255.0.0 b. 255.255.255.0 c. 255.255.255.192 d. 255.255.255.240

c. 255.255.255.192 A CIDR shorthand notation of /26 corresponds to the subnet mask 255.255.255.192.

A technician needs to run a network cable to a remote building, which is approximately 15 kilometers from his base station. He's not sure if any cable will span that distance. What is the maximum distance of SMF cable? a. 300 meters b. 550 meters c. 40 kilometers d. 100 kilometers

c. 40 kilometers Single-mode fiber (SMF) can provide data throughput rates of 10 Gbps at a distance of 40 kilometers. Compare that to multimode fiber, which can reliably transmit 10 Gbps for only about 550 meters.

Which wireless networking protocol is expected to reach speeds of 1 Gbps? a. 3G b. 4G c. 5G d. Z-wave

c. 5G The speed of wireless networking protocol 5G is expected to surpass 1 Gbps. The speed of 4G is considered reliable at 100 Kbps, only a tenth of 5G. Earliest of the options is 3G, which reaches speeds of 144 Kbps.

Which Wi-Fi standard specifies a maximum of 54 Mbps transmissions in the 2.4 GHz frequency range? a. 802.11a b. 802.11b c. 802.11g d. 802.11n

c. 802.11g

A technician is going to set up a Wi-Fi network using standard omnidirectional antennae. Because of the building configuration, transmitting signals for the greatest distance is his primary criterion. Which standard should he choose? a. 802.11a b. 802.11g c. 802.11n d. 802.11ac

c. 802.11n Of the Wi-Fi standards, 802.11n has the longest range by default, at roughly 70 meters indoors and 250 meters outdoors. 802.11ac is newer and faster then 802.11n, but it transmits exclusively in the 5 GHz range, which restricts its functional distance.

You are installing a wireless network for a small company. It wants to have 100 Mbps or better wireless transmission rates. Which of the following standards will allow you to provide this? (Choose two.) a. 802.11g b. 802.11i c. 802.11n d. 802.11ac

c. 802.11n d. 802.11ac

Which of the following features does not require a managed network switch? a. Priority of traffic b. VLAN configuration c. Directing Layer 2 traffic d. Port mirroring

c. Directing Layer 2 traffic An unmanaged switch will simply perform the one task a switch should do: direct Layer 2 traffic out the correct destination port.

Which of the following IPv6 addresses is equivalent to an address in the 169.254.0.0/16 range in IPv4? a. 2000::/3 b. FC00::/7 c. FE80::/10 d. FFOO::/8

c. FE80::/10 The 169.254.0.0/16 range in IPv4 is the APIPA range, used for automatic configuration if the host can't locate a DHCP server. The same task in IPv6 is accomplished with a link local address in the FE80::/10 range.

Which of the following Internet connection types offers the fastest download speeds? a. Cable b. DSL c. Fiber-optic d. ISDN

c. Fiber-optic Fiber-optic broadband Internet offers fast speeds (often in the 1 Gbps range) but is also the most expensive.

What server would function as a central repository of documents and provide network shared file storage for internal users? a. FTP server b. Proxy server c. File server d. Web server

c. File server The File server is a centralized repository for users, typically company employees.

You are troubleshooting an intermittently failing CAT7 network connection. You suspect that there is a short in the connection. Which tool can you use to determine this? a. Tone generator and probe b. Loopback plug c. Multimeter d. Crimper

c. Multimeter Multimeters are versatile electronic measuring tools. A multimeter can measure voltage, current, and resistance on a wire.

When setting up a small office, home office (SOHO) network, what end-user device configuration must be performed? a. Network switch broadcasts configuration settings b. Devices utilize service location protocol c. NIC set with static address or be DHCP-served d. End users configure as needed

c. NIC set with static address or be DHCP-served The end-user devices are configured to at least request a DHCP-assigned IP address or be preconfigured with a static IP, gateway, and DNS information.

Which TCP/IP protocol uses TCP ports 137-139 and 445 by default? a. FTP b. SSH c. SMB d. SNMP

c. SMB Server Message Block (SMB) is a protocol used to provide shared access to files, printers, and other network resources. It uses TCP ports 137-139 and 445.

Which TCP/IP protocol is used to provide shared access to files and printers on the network? a. FTP b. SSH c. SMB d. SNMP

c. SMB Server Message Block (SMB) is a protocol used to provided shared access to files, printers, and other network resources. In a way, it functions a bit like FTP, only with a few more options, such as the ability to connect to printers and more management commands.

Which of the following components is not typically found in a wireless mesh network (WMN)? a. WMN router b. WMN gateway c. WMN server d. WMN client

c. WMN server Wireless mesh networks commonly have three types of nodes: a client, a router, and a gateway.

What firewall rule technique allows only a known list of applications or traffic as legitimate? a. MAC filtering b. Dynamic DNS c. Whitelist d. Blacklist

c. Whitelist The whitelist is a defined list of approved applications to pass through a firewall.

Which port is AFP capable of using? a. 427 b. 443 c. 445 d. 548

d. 548

Your network is currently running a mix of 802.11b and 802.11g devices. At the end of the year, you have extra budget to upgrade some, but not all, of the wireless infrastructure. You want to upgrade to the newest technology but still maintain backward compatibility. Which standard should you choose? a. 802.11g b. 802.11ac c. 802.11r d. 802.11n

d. 802.11n 802.11b/g transmit in the 2.4 GHz frequency, as does 802.11n, so they are compatible. The newer 802.11ac is a 5 GHz standard and therefore is not backward compatible with 802.11b/g. 802.11r is not a standard related to Wi-Fi speed and is not on the A+ exam.

What is the typical method for IoT device configuration to connect to the wireless network? a. DNS b. AD c. SLP d. DHCP

d. DHCP Unless an Internet of Things (IoT) device possesses an end-user accessible management interface, that device will likely connect by starting network connectivity using DHCP.

Your company just expanded and is leasing additional space in an adjacent office building. You need to extend the network to the new building. Fortunately, there is a conduit between the two. You estimate that the cable you need to run will be about 300 meters long. What type of cable should you use? a. CAT5 b. CAT5e c. CAT7 d. MMF

d. MMF UTP cables are limited to 100 meters, so CAT5 and CAT7 will not work. You need fiber, and multimode fiber (MMF) can span distances of 300 meters.

Which TCP/IP Internet layer protocol is responsible for resolving physical MAC addresses to logical IP addresses? a. IP b. ICMP c. ARP d. RARP

d. RARP At the Internet layer of TCP/IP, Address Resolution Protocol (ARP) resolves logical IP addresses to physical MAC addresses built into network cards. Reverse ARP (RARP) resolves MAC addresses to IP addresses.

Which network connectivity device does not forward broadcast messages, thereby creating multiple broadcast domains? a. Hub b. Switch c. Bridge d. Router

d. Router One of the key features of routers is that they break up broadcast domains. Broadcast traffic on one side of the router will not get passed on to the other side, which greatly reduces network traffic.

Which networking device is capable of reading IP addresses and forwarding packets based on the destination IP address? a. Hub b. Switch c. Bridge d. Router

d. Routers Routers operate at the Network Layer (Layer 3) of the OSI model. Because of this, they make their decisions on what to do with traffic based on logical addresses, such as IP address.

In which type of office environment would you perform a cable/DSL modem configuration? a. Multiple buildings in a single country b. Multiple buildings in many countries c. Single tenant building with 300-500 employees d. Small office or home office with 3-5 employees

d. Small office or home office with 3-5 employees The cable/DSL modem is a popular choice for configuring Internet access for the small or home office environment. It utilizes existing phone lines and providing fairly reliable high-speed access. Most DSL subscriptions are asymmetrical, meaning they offer faster download speeds than upload speeds.

Using the T568B wiring standard on both ends of a cable would produce what type of network cable? a. T568B on both ends is not a working network cable b. T568B is a telephone wiring standard c. T568B on both ends is a crossover network cable d. T568B on both ends is a straight-through network cable

d. T568B on both ends is a straight-through network cable T568B on both ends is a straight-through cable. If you have a T568A on one end and a T568B on the other, that is a crossover cable.

Which TCP/IP port number does SNMP use? a. TCP 143 b. UDP 143 c. TCP 161 d. UDP 161

d. UDP 161 Simple Network Management Protocol (SNMP) is a noncritical service, so it uses UDP. It's assigned port 161. IMAP4 uses port 143.

Which Wi-Fi encryption standard uses a static key, which is commonly 10, 26, or 58 characters long? a. WPA b. WPA2 c. TKIP d. WEP

d. WEP Wired Equivalent Privacy (WEP) was one of the first security standards for wireless devices. It uses a static key; the keys are commonly 10,26,or 58 hexadecimal characters long.

Which wireless networking protocol is most limited by the number of potential connected devices? a. LTE b. 3G c. Zigbee d. Z-wave

d. Z-wave The wireless networking protocol Z-wave is limited to just 232 total connected devices. By comparison, there is no limit to how many devices Zigbee can connect. Long Term Evaluation (LTE) is a protocol stack, not a single wireless protocol.