NEURO - Pathology

which of the following pts. is least likely to develop carpal tunnel syndrome? - 30-yo pregnant female - 75-yo male recovering from coronary artery bypass graft - 26-yo female who fractured her wrist - 50-yo male recently dx with diabetic neuropathy

75-yo male

A hyperextension injury is most likely to cause which spinal cord injury syndrome? a. central cord syndrome b. posterior cord syndrome c. anterior spinal artery syndrome d. Anterior cord syndrome

A A hyperextension injury is most likely to cause central cord syndrome. With this syndrome, impairment is typically greater in the upper extremities than the lower extremities. Prognosis for functional recovery is good, however, the pattern of recovery is such that intrinsic hand function is the last to return.

Which statement regarding sexuality in males is most accurate following a spinal cord injury? a. the ability to ejaculate is more common with incomplete lower motor neuron lesions b. the ability to ejaculate is more common with incomplete upper motor neuron lesions c. the ability to ejaculate is more common with complete lesions d. there is no ability to ejaculate after a spinal cord injury

A Ejaculation is a complicated neurological process. Following a spinal cord injury in males, there is a higher likelihood of ejaculation with incomplete lower motor neuron lesions compared to upper motor neuron lesions as well as complete lesions. Lower motor neuron lesions may have psychogenic erections which increase the capacity for ejaculation.

A traumatic distraction injury to the C5-C6 cervical roots of the brachial plexus is known as: a. Erb's palsy b. Klumpke's palsy c. radicular paralysis d. Lhermitte's sign

A Erb's palsy is most commonly the result of forceful separation of the head and shoulder which can happen during the birthing process.

What basal ganglia disorder results in involuntary, irregular isolated movements? a. HD b. PD c. ALS d. Wilson's disease

A Huntington's disease is a neurological disorder characterized by degeneration and atrophy of the basal ganglia and cerebral cortex within the brain. Unintentional facial expressions such as a grimace, protrusion of the tongue, and elevation of the eyebrows are common. As the disease progresses gait will become ataxic and a patient experiences choreoathetoid movement of the extremities and the trunk.

Atlantoaxial subluxation due to ligamentous laxity should be screened for in which of the following pathologies? a. trisomy 21 b. osteogenesis imperfecta c. myelomeningocele d. arthrogryposis

A Individuals with Down syndrome (trisomy 21) have increased ligamentous laxity, likely from a collagen defect. This can result in pes planus, patellar instability, scoliosis, and atlantoaxial instability.

Micrographia is an impairment typically observed in what condition? a. PD b. MS c. ALS d. Guillain-barre syndrome

A Micrographia is defined as abnormally small handwriting. This condition is commonly associated with neurodegenerative disorders affecting the basal ganglia such as Parkinson's disease. Handwriting often continues to decrease in size as the length of the writing session increases.

Which form of multiple sclerosis is characterized by exacerbations that can last days to months and are typically followed by periods of improved function? a. relapsing remitting b. secondary progressive c. primary progressive d. progressive relapsing

A Relapsing remitting multiple sclerosis (MS) represents about 85% of individuals with MS and is characterized by exacerbations that can last days to months and are typically followed by periods of improved function. During remission, function can return to pre-relapse level, but most frequently does not recover fully

Which type of tremor is most commonly seen in patients with Parkinson's disease? a. resting b. action c. cerebellar d. psychogenic

A Resting tremor, also known as Parkinsonian tremor, is present at rest and disappears with voluntary movement. Resting tremor most commonly presents in the hand, but may occur elsewhere. Resting tremors disappear when the patient is asleep.

Which term describes complete paralysis of all four limbs and the trunk? a. tetraplegia b. paraplegia c. diplegia d. monoplegia

A Tetraplegia is defined as complete paralysis of all four extremities, the trunk, and respiratory muscles. Tetraplegia results from high cervical spinal cord lesions.

What is the best method to facilitate elbow extension in a patient with hemiplegia? a. by turning the head to the affected side b. by turning the head to the uninvolved side c. by extending the LEs d. by flexing the LEs

A The asymmetrical tonic neck reflex produces extension of the affected upper extremity when the patient's head is turned toward the affected side. This reflex may be present following a CVA and can assist to extend the affected elbow.

When treating an individual with multiple sclerosis it would be most appropriate to conduct sessions that include resistance training at what time? a. 9am b. 12pm c. 3pm d. 6pm

A When treating an individual with multiple sclerosis, treatment sessions are best in the morning when body core temperatures tend to be lowest and before fatigue sets in. Exercising at a moderate intensity is recommended to reduce excess fatigue and avoid increasing in core body temperature

abbreviation for a chronic degenerative disease that produces both UMN and LMN impairments

ALS

disease which result in difficulty with new learning and changes in memory

Alzheimer's

Match the primary symptom with its pathology: multiple significant contractures

Arthrogryposis multiplex congenita

In a coup-contrecoup brain injury resulting from an anterior impact, which side of the brain will be injured in addition to the site of impact? a. lateral b. posterior c. superior d. inferior

B A coup injury occurs under the site of impact with an object and a contrecoup injury occurs on the side opposite the area that was impacted.

An individual with speech impairments has likely sustained a stroke in which artery? a. ACA b. MCA c. PCA s. Vertebrobasilar artery

B A stroke involving the middle cerebral artery may affect Broca's and Wernicke's areas located in the left hemisphere (which are responsible for speech production). The middle cerebral artery supplies the lateral cerebral cortex including areas of the frontal, parietal, and temporal lobes.

Atrophy of the thenar eminence and the first and second lumbricals could result from: a. ulnar neuritis b. carpal tunnel syndrome c. compression of the radial nerve d. disruption of the anterior interosseous nerve

B Advanced carpal tunnel syndrome can result in severe compression of the median nerve resulting in atrophy of the muscles innervated by the median nerve distal to the wrist.

Which is the most common type of stroke? a. hemorrhagic b. ischemic c. TIA d. thrombotic

B An ischemic stroke occurs when a clot blocks or impairs the flow of blood to the brain, depriving the brain of essential nutrients and oxygen. Ischemic strokes account for a very high percentage of all strokes.

Broca's area is affected by a CVA that occurs in which of the following vessels? a. ACA b. MCA c. PCA d. basilar artery

B Bilateral occlusion of the middle cerebral artery at the stem will produce contralateral hemiplegia and sensory impairment. Dominant hemisphere impairment includes global, Wernicke's or Broca's aphasia. Since the middle cerebral artery supplies the larger portion of the cortex, other impairments are lobe dependent.

What neurologic condition results from hemisection of the spinal cord? a. Guillain-Barre syndrome b. Brown-Sequard's syndrome c. central cord syndrome d. cauda equina syndrome

B Brown-Sequard's syndrome results in ipsilateral loss of motor, conscious proprioception, and discriminative touch as well as contralateral loss of pain and temperature sensation.

Which finding is not consistent with the typical clinical presentation of Down syndrome? a. transverse palmar crease b. elf-like facial features c. epicanthic folds d. hypotonia

B Elf-like facial features are not a common physical characteristic of Down syndrome and instead are characteristic of Williams syndrome. The other options are common with Down syndrome in addition to a flat nasal bridge, small mouth, upward slanting palpebral fissures, and excessive skin at the nape of the neck.

Which diagnosis would be most likely to experience heterotopic ossification? a. Guillain-Barre syndrome b. TBI c. MS d. hemiplegia

B Heterotopic ossification refers to abnormal bone growth in tissue and is relatively common in patients following head injury. Signs and symptoms include decreased range of motion, local swelling, and warmth.

Huntington's disease is a degenerative disease of which of the following structures? a. cerebrum b. BG c. pons d. neuromuscular junction

B Huntington's disease is a neurological disorder of the central nervous system characterized by degeneration and atrophy of the basal ganglia and cerebral cortex within the brain. Because Huntington's disease is an autosomal dominant trait, any individual who inherits the affected gene will develop the condition.

Individuals with spina bifida are more likely than the general population to have an allergy to: a. peanuts b. latex c. detergents d. pollen

B Latex allergies are present in approximately 70 percent of individuals with spina bifida. Symptoms of an allergic reaction to latex include itching, redness, wheezing, coughing, sneezing, runny nose, and itchy, watery eyes. Gloves and exercise bands/tubing are commonly made from latex.

Most individuals diagnosed with Guillain-Barre syndrome return to their prior level of function within: a. 6 months b. 1 year c. 2 years d. 4 years

B Most individuals diagnosed with Guillain-Barre syndrome (GBS) return to their prior level of function within 1 year. More than two-thirds of individuals report symptoms of an infectious disease two weeks before the onset of GBS symptoms. GBS typically presents with a symmetrical flaccid paralysis progressing from distal to proximal.

Which of the following is associated with central vestibular pathology? a. hearing loss b. nystagmus enhanced with visual fixation c. mild ataxia d. normal smooth pursuits and saccades

B Nystagmus is enhanced with visual fixation in the presence of central vestibular pathology. Hearing loss, mild ataxia, and normal smooth pursuits and saccades are all characteristic of peripheral vestibular pathology. Ataxia associated with central vestibular pathology is typically severe.

Which of the following is not a cardinal sign of Parkinson's disease? a. resting tremor b. hyporeflexia c. bradykinesia d. rigidity

B Options 1, 3, and 4 are all cardinal signs of Parkinson's disease (along with postural instability). Hyporeflexia is typically associated with lower motor neuron injuries.

Compromise of the posterior spinal artery is most likely to result in which spinal cord injury syndrome? a. central cord syndrome b. posterior cord syndrome c. anterior spinal artery syndrome d. Brown-Sequard's syndrome

B Posterior cord syndrome is rare and in most cases the result of a tumor or compromise of the posterior spinal artery. Individuals present with impairments in proprioception, stereognosis, two-point discrimination, and impaired vibration sense below the level of the lesion.

Which form of multiple sclerosis is characterized by periods of symptoms and reduction in symptoms followed by a slow, steady progression of increasing disability? a. relapsing remitting b. secondary progressive c. primary progressive d. progressive relapsing

B Secondary progressive multiple sclerosis is characterized by a slow, steady progression of increasing disability. Relapses may occur early on, but generally decrease over time. Individuals with relapsing remitting MS typically coverts to the secondary progressive form 10-20 years after diagnosis.

Which term best describes a congenital defect where the posterior arch of the vertebrae has failed to form? a. spinal stenosis b. spina bifida occulta c. meningocele d. myelomeningocele

B Spina bifida is a developmental abnormality due to insufficient closure of the neural tube by the 28th day of gestation. Spina bifida occulta refers to an impairment and non-fusion of the spinous process of a vertebrae, however, the spinal cord and meninges remain intact. There is usually no associated disability.

Which of the following is not a symptom of spinal shock in a patient with an acute spinal cord injury? a. areflexia b. increased DTRs c. loss of cremasteric reflex d. hypotension

B Spinal shock occurs in the first 24 hours post spinal cord injury and is described by areflexia, impairment in autonomic regulation leading to hypotension and loss of control of sweating, loss of cremasteric reflex, and loss of Babinski response.

Which of the following vestibular conditions is caused by displacement of the otoconia of the inner ear? a. perilymph fistula b. BPPV c. vestibular neuritis d. Meniere's disease

B The displaced otoconia in benign paroxysmal positional vertigo (BPPV) cause abnormal flow of endolymph, which results in vertigo and torsional nystagmus. BPPV can be corrected with repositioning techniques.

What is the earliest clinical marker of amyotrophic lateral sclerosis? a. pain b. fasciculations c. difficulty sleeping d. radiculopathy

B The earliest clinical marker of amyotrophic lateral sclerosis is fasciculations (especially unequivocal fasciculations in the tongue), muscle cramps, fatigue, weakness, and atrophy. By the time most individuals report weakness, they have lost approximately 80% of their motor neurons in the areas of weakness.

Myasthenia gravis typically affects which muscle group first? a. muscles of mastication b. muscles of the eye c. proximal shoulder and hip muscles d. intrinsic muscles of the hand

B The muscles of the eye are typically the first muscles affected in myasthenia gravis. The condition ultimately results in extreme muscular weakness. Often, initial symptoms include diplopia, ptosis, and squinting of the eye.

pathology involving an otoconia that loosens that travels into the semicircular canal

BPPV

Match the primary symptom with its pathology: facial paralysis

Bell's Palsy

Which of the following is classified as a progressive disorder of the central nervous system? a. CVA b. TBI c. Alzheimer's disease d. vestibular disorder

C Alzheimer's disease is a progressive neurodegenerative disorder that results in deterioration and irreversible damage within the cerebral cortex and subcortical areas of the brain. The disease initially affects cognitive function and can be divided into four stages: preclinical, mild, moderate, and severe.

Which of the following conditions is described as "sensory-sparing?" a. T10 spinal cord injury b. MS c. ALS d. Guillain-Barre syndrome

C Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis is a chronic degenerative disease that produces both upper and lower motor neuron impairments. Significant loss of anterior horn cells in the spinal cord and the motor cranial nerve nuclei in the lower brainstem produces weakness and muscle atrophy. Sensory function is typically unaffected.

What nerve becomes entrapped in carpal tunnel syndrome? a. radial nerve b. ulnar nerve c. median nerve d. medial palmar nerve

C Carpal tunnel syndrome (CTS) is a peripheral nerve entrapment injury that occurs as a result of compression of the median nerve where it passes through the carpal tunnel. A patient with CTS will initially present with sensory changes and paresthesia along the median nerve distribution in the hand.

Which of the following is the most common comorbidity present in individuals with Down syndrome? a. cerebral palsy b. diabetes c. congenital heart defect d. congenital hip dysplasia

C Congenital heart defects are present in approximately half of all children with Down syndrome. Congenital heart problems, respiratory infection, and leukemia are the most common factors associated with morbidity and mortality in childhood. Increased tendency for premature cellular aging and Alzheimer's disease may account for higher mortality rates in adulthood.

Erb's palsy results from injury to which structure? a. cranial nerves b. left atrium c. upper brachial plexus d. lower brachial plexus

C Erb's palsy is associated with a congenital injury to the upper brachial plexus in the area of the C5 and C6 nerve roots. This injury commonly occurs during delivery due to a traction force. Proximally, the resultant deformity typically includes shoulder adduction and internal rotation with elbow extension.

What is the most serious complication of spina bifida? a. OH b. intellectual disability c. hydrocephalus d. autonomic dysreflexia

C Hydrocephalus is an increase of cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) within the ventricles of the brain typically due to poor resorption, obstruction of flow or excessive production of CSF. The condition can be a medical emergency and is extremely common in patients with spina bifida.

Which neurodegenerative disease presents with weakness primarily due to the destruction of acetylcholine receptors in muscle tissue? a. Guillain-Barre syndrome b. MS c. myasthenia gravis d. spinal muscular atrophy

C Myasthenia gravis is an autoimmune disease that results in progressive weakness from destruction of acetylcholine receptors located in skeletal muscle.

What condition results from the failure of the neural tube to close during embryonic development? a. MS b. transverse myelitis c. myelomeningocele d. spastic CP

C Myelomeningocele is a severe form of spina bifida cystica characterized by herniation of meninges, cerebrospinal fluid, and the spinal cord extending through the defect in the vertebrae. The cyst may or may not be covered by skin.

In the early stages of recovery from a traumatic brain injury, what positioning of the head and neck is considered optimal? a. slight flexion b. slight extension c. neutral d. slight rotation

C Positioning of the head and neck in neutral during the early stages of recovery from a traumatic brain injury helps to prevent contracture and lessen the effects of tonic neck reflexes. The posterior occiput is susceptible to pressure ulcers, however, and skin checks should be performed regularly.

Which factor is most commonly related to cerebral palsy? a. maternal smoking b. maternal alcohol intake c. premature birth d. inadequate folic acid intake by the mother

C Premature birth is the most common factor in occurrences of cerebral palsy. When an infant is born premature, the blood vessels in the brain are not fully developed and therefore are susceptible to damage from gravitational forces. This may lead to blood vessel rupture and resultant death of brain tissue.

Which neurologic disorder is not considered an autoimmune disorder? a. myasthenia gravis b. MS c. spinal muscular atrophy d. Guillain-Barre syndrome

C Spinal muscular atrophy is an autosomal recessive disorder resulting in the degeneration of cell bodies that innervate skeletal muscle.

The Dix-Hallpike maneuver is initiated with the patient in what position? a. supine b. prone c. long-sitting d. sidelying

C The Dix-Hallpike maneuver is initiated with the patient in a long-sitting position. The patient is later quickly assisted into a supine position with the head hanging off the edge of the supporting surface. A patient that presents with benign paroxysmal positional vertigo (BPPV) will exhibit torsional nystagmus when performing this maneuver.

Parkinson's disease primarily affects what structure? a. caudate nuclei b. lentiform nuclei c. substantia nigra d. red nucleus

C The etiology of Parkinson's disease is degeneration of the cells of the substantia nigra which release dopamine. Cells typically degenerate at a rate of 10% per year. The most common medication prescribed to patient's with Parkinson's disease is levodopa which becomes dopamine in the body.

Which 2 carpal bones do not contribute to forming the carpal tunnel? - scaphoid - capitate - trapezium - trapezoid - hamate - pisiform

Capitate Trapezoid

Match the primary symptom with its pathology: median nerve motor and sensory disturbances

Carpal Tunnel Syndrome

Match the likely presentation to the appropriate SCI: impairment greatest in UEs

Central cord syndrome

Which component would be the most critical to assess immediately following a concussion? a. alertness b. reflexes c. positioning d. breathing

D A concussion is a mild form of a traumatic brain injury. A direct blow to the head causes movement of the brain within the skull, resulting in damage. Evaluation immediately following a concussion should include an assessment of airway, breathing, and circulation (ABCs) in order to identify a potential life-threatening medical emergency.

Which of the following macronutrients would be most important to limit in a patient with Parkinson's disease? a. sugar b. fat c. carbohydrate d. protein

D A high protein diet can block the effectiveness of the medication Levodopa by competing with it for absorption in the body. Patients are generally advised to follow a high calorie, low protein diet with no more than 15% of calories coming from protein.

A selective dorsal rhizotomy is commonly performed to treat spasticity in which condition? a. MS b. transverse myelitis c. myelomeningocele d. spastic cerebral palsy

D A selective dorsal rhizotomy involves the selective severing of dorsal rootlets to alleviate lower extremity spasticity and improve function.

Which disease is characterized by degeneration of upper and lower motor neurons? a. Guillain-Barre syndrome b. MS c. PD d. ALS

D Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis is a rapidly progressive, fatal neurological disease characterized by the gradual degeneration and death of the upper and lower motor neurons responsible for controlling voluntary muscles.

Which canal is most commonly affected in benign paroxysmal positional vertigo? a. anterior semicircular canal b. horizontal canal c. vertical canal d. posterior semicircular canal

D Benign paroxysmal positional vertigo occurs when otoconia are detached from the macula and float freely in a semicircular canal. The posterior semicircular canal is most commonly the location of the displaced otoconia due to its anatomical position.

Chorea and dementia are typical clinical signs of which neurologic disorder? a. MS b. Guillain-Barre syndrome c. PD d. HD

D Huntington's disease is an autosomal dominant condition resulting in the degeneration of many areas of the brain, most notably of the cerebral cortex and striatum. Signs and symptoms of the disease include cognitive impairments and involuntary choreic movements.

Reduced expressiveness of the face is defined as: a. paresthesia b. hypokinesia c. trigeminal neuralgia d. hypomimia

D Hypomimia is defined as a reduced expressiveness of the face. Hypomimia typically presents with a mask-like facial expression with diminished blinking, animation, and expression. This condition is commonly associated with Parkinson's disease.

Which of the following hereditary neurologic conditions is characterized by random degeneration of muscle fibers resulting in a progressive decrease in muscle force production? a. CP b. PD c. DS d. muscular dystrophy

D In muscular dystrophy, activation of a muscle that lacks a significant number of fibers results in severe strength deficits and eventually an inability to contract the muscle.

What is the most common type of shoulder subluxation in patients with hemiplegia? a. posterior subluxation b. anterior subluxation c. superior subluxation d. inferior subluxation

D Injury or paralysis of muscles around the shoulder complex may lead to subluxation of the glenohumeral joint following stroke. Inferior subluxation caused by the lack of muscular support results in downward rotation of the scapula

Which of the following conditions is an autoimmune disease that destroys the acetylcholine receptors of muscle cells? a. HD b. PD c. ALS d. myasthenia gravis

D Myasthenia gravis is an autoimmune disease which is characterized by extreme fatigue and skeletal muscle weakness due to a deficit in the transmission of nerve impulses to the muscles at the neuromuscular junction. Antibodies block or destroy the receptors that are needed for acetylcholine uptake and this prevents muscle contraction.

A stroke affecting the left hemisphere will typically be characterized by: a. impulsive behavior b. impaired abstract reasoning c. impaired perception of body image d. difficulty processive verbal commands

D Patients with damage to the left hemisphere typically have difficulties with communication and processing information in a sequential, linear manner. They are usually described as cautious, anxious, and disorganized.

Which of the following is not commonly associated with Down syndrome? a. intellectual disability b. increased susceptibility to infection c. vision or hearing impairments d. increased erythrocyte sedimentation rate

D Signs and symptoms of Down syndrome (i.e., trisomy 21) vary widely in severity, but typically include intellectual disability, abnormal facial features, cardiac defects, vision or hearing impairments, intestinal malformations, and increased susceptibility to infection. Erythrocyte sedimentation rate is a non-specific test for inflammatory disorders often associated with conditions such as cancer, autoimmune diseases, and infection.

Which test would be appropriate to use on a child with cerebral palsy? a. AIMS b. Romberg Test c. Berg Balance Test d. GMFM

D The Gross Motor Function Measure is a standardized observational instrument designed and validated to measure change in gross motor function over time in children with cerebral palsy.

Which brain structure is impacted in Parkinson's disease resulting in the depletion of dopamine? a. hypothalamus b. thalamus c. subthalamus d. substantia nigra

D The lack of dopamine, which originates from the substantia nigra, impacts the caudate nucleus and putamen and therefore negatively impacts the motor loop. This results in the inability to correctly and efficiently produce movement.

Contralateral spastic hemiparesis and sensory loss of the face and upper extremities more than the lower extremities are the main characteristics of a stroke in which artery? a. ACA b. PCA c. cerebellar artery d. MCA

D The middle cerebral artery is the most common site of occlusion resulting in stroke. It is also often associated with speech deficits, apraxia, perceptual deficits, and contralateral homonymous hemianopsia.

Vestibular nystagmus is the abnormal rapid movement of the eyes in response to what movement of the head? a. flexion b. extension c. standing d. rotation

D Vestibular nystagmus can be elicited by rotation of the head or by positioning. The causative pathology results in overstimulation of the semicircular canals signaling the brain that the head is moving when it is stationary. Nystagmus is an active response to the incorrectly perceived movement of the head.

Match the etiology with the appropriate neurological dx: inheritance of an x-linked recessive gene

DMD

Arrange the neurological dxs. from the earliest average age of onset to the latest average age of onset: - MS - PD - DMD - Huntington's disease

DMD MS HD PD

Match the primary symptom with its pathology: distal and symmetric motor and sensory disturbances

Diabetic neuropathy

Match the etiology with the appropriate neurological dx: upper brachial plexus injury

Erb's palsy

T or F: the anterior cerebral artery is the most common form of CVA?

FALSE MCA

T or F: hypertonia is a common symptoms of DS?

FALSE hypotonia

T or F: accidents are the lading cause of death for pts. with Alzheimer's disease

FALSE infection and dehydration

T or F: right hemianopsia is characteristic following a CVA accident with right hemisphere involvement

FALSE left

T or F: a pt. experiencing a seizure is at risk for swallowing their tongue

FALSE no risk

T or F: decreased spatial orientation is characteristic following a CVA with left hemisphere involvement

FALSE right

T or F: food, water, and medication should be given immediately upon seizure onset

FALSE wait until pt. is fully alert

an autoimmune disease that initially presents with distal symmetrical motor weakness

Gillian barre syndrome

which two neurological disease involve pathology of the BG? - PD and Gillian-Barre Syndrome - HD and Post-Polio Syndrome - Wilson's disease and DMD - HD and PD

HD and PD

Match the etiology with the appropriate neurological dx: defect linked to chromosome 4

Huntington's disease

chronic autoimmune inflammatory disease of the CNS

MS

exercises often prescribed to patients with a herniated disk

McKenzie

Match the primary characteristic to the appropriate dx: vertigo, tinnitus, nausea

Meniere's disease

syndrome caused by a previous viral infection for which no effective pharm intervention exists

PPS

Match the etiology with the appropriate neurological dx: partial deletion of chromosome 15

Prader-Willi Syndrome

brother syndrome to Angelman syndrome affecting chromosome 15

Prader-Willi Syndrome

a pediatric disorder characterized by hypotonia, coordination impairments, and a constant dire for food

Prader-Willi syndrome

Match the primary characteristic to the appropriate dx: insufficient neural tube closure

Spina Bifida

Match the primary characteristic to the appropriate dx: progressive muscle weakness

Spinal Muscular atrophy

T or F: ALS causes upper and lower motor neuron symptoms

TRUE

T or F: Alzheimer's disease most commonly affects the elderly?

TRUE

T or F: Bell's palsy usually resolves within days to weeks

TRUE

T or F: a pt. experiencing a seizure should be kept isolated

TRUE

T or F: emotional lability is characteristic following a CVA with right hemisphere involvement

TRUE

T or F: epilepsy is response for the majority of seizures

TRUE

T or F: most pts. that sustain a CVA are able to return home

TRUE

T or F: respiratory failure is a typical cause of death for pts. with ALS

TRUE

T or f: 911 should be called if a pts. seizure lasts longer than 5 minuyes

TRUE

benign tumor on cranial nerve 8

acoustic neuroma

another name for guillian-barre syndrome

acute polyneuropathy

common cause of acquired ataxia

alcoholism

Match the likely presentation to the appropriate SCI: motor paralysis and absent pain and temperature sense below the lesion

anterior cord syndrome

disease presenting with temporary unilateral facial paralysis

bells palsy

this neurological condition is caused by damage to the ___

brachial plexus

a pt. with a SCI at the ______ level would be most reliant on tenodesis

c6-c7

unconscious and unresponsive to any stimuli

coma

distal end of the spinal cord

conus medullaris

brain lesion d/t rebound effect of impact

counter-coup

state of consciousness characterized by disorientation, agitation, and loudness

delirium

characterized by a hypersynchronous electrical discharge of cortical neurons

epilepsy

condition characterized by abnormal discharge of cortical neurons resulting in seizures

epilepsy

the position of the Childs right arm is characteristic of ____

erb's palsy

LMN sign associated with ALS

fasciculations

autosomal recessive inherited condition that does not affect cognitive functioning

friedreich's ataxia

syndrome characterized by weakness developing in a distal to proximal fashion

guillian barre

primary goal of vestibular rehab

habituation

which 2 pathologies are least likely to contribute to sciatica? hamstring strain spondylolisthesis herniated disc piriformis syndrome fractured coccyx spinal stenosis

hamstring strain fracture coccyx

type of brain injury caused by near drowning incident

hypoxia

Brown-Sequard's syndrome is considered an _____ SCI

incomplete

inflammation of CN 8

labyrinthitis

least severe form of spinal bifida

meningocele

type of genetic defect in which some cells have Trisomy 21 and others do not

mosaic

autoimmune disease resulting in damage to the neuromuscular junction

myasthenia gravis

surgical severing of certain tracts within the spinal cord

myelotomy

most common type o cell division error associated with DS

nondisjunction

state of consciousness characterized by delayed response and drowsiness

obtunded

ear poisoning

ototoxicity

LMN disease affecting anterior horn cells

post-polio syndrome

Match the likely presentation to the appropriate SCI: absent proprioception below the lesion with preserved motor function

posterior cord syndrome

common educational focus when treating TOS

posture

a surgical resection of the sensory component of a spinal nerve

rhizotomy

resection of the sensory component of a spinal nerve

rhizotomy

distribution of cauda equina syndrome symptoms

saddle

brain injury caused by metabolic or physiological aftermath of initial trauma

secondary injury

cyst like protrusion through non-fused vertebrae

spina bifida cystica

which structure is not displaced in patients with meningocele? - spinal cord - skin - meninges - CSF

spinal cord

separation of pars interarticularis

spondylolisthesis

state of general unresponsiveness, arousal from repeated stimuli

stupor

hemorrhage between the dura and arachnoid mater

subdural hematoma

the image depicts a ___ grip

tenodesis

a surgical release of a tendon

tenotomy

paralysis that is associated with both UE and LE

tetraplegia

which 2 structures are least likely to be involved in TOS? - thoracic vertebrae - 1st rib - brachial plexus - axillary nerve supply - levator scap - subclavian artery

thoracic vertebrae levator scap

enlarged organ often associated with myasthenia gravis

thymus

Match the primary characteristic to the appropriate dx: pain in face and mouth areas

trigeminal neuralgia

condition resulting from pressure on a cranial nerve

trigeminal neuralgia

paralysis of three limbs

triplegia

Which two structures do not pass through the carpal tunnel: - extensor pollicis longus tendon - median nerve - radial verve - flexor digitorum profundus tendons - flexor digitorum superficialis tendons

- extensor - radial nerve

Assuming typical progression of ALS, arrange the symptoms from earliest to latest onset: - dysarthria - loss of dexterity - fasciculations - respiratory failure

- fasciculations - loss of dexterity - dysarthria - respiratory failure