NR-226 Chapter 50, 42, 47 Practice Questions, Exam 2

A nurse is monitoring patients for fluid and electrolyte and acid-base imbalances. Match the body's regulators to the function it provides. a. Increases excretion of sodium and water b. Reduces excretion of sodium and water c. Reduces excretion of water d. Major buffer in the extracellular fluid e. Vasoconstricts and stimulates aldosterone release 1.Antidiuretic hormone 2.Angiotensin II 3.Aldosterone 4.Atrial natriuretic peptide 5.Bicarbonate

1.ANS:C 2.ANS:E 3.ANS:B 4.ANS:A 5.ANS:D

24.A patient presents to the emergency department with reports of vomiting and diarrhea for the past 48 hours. The health care provider orders isotonic intravenous (IV) therapy. Which IV will the nurse prepare? a. 0.225% sodium chloride (1/4 NS) b. 0.45% sodium chloride (1/2 NS) c. 0.9% sodium chloride (NS) d. 3% sodium chloride (3% NaCl)

ANS: C Patients with prolonged vomiting and diarrhea become hypovolemic. A solution to replace extracellular volume is 0.9% sodium chloride, which is an isotonic solution. 0.225% and 0.45% sodium chloride are hypotonic. 3% sodium chloride is hypertonic. DIF:Apply (application)REF:956

2. The nurse is caring for patients with ostomies. In which ostomy location will the nurse expect very liquid stool to be present? a.Sigmoid b.Transverse c.Ascending d.Descending

ANS: C The path of digestion goes from the ascending, across the transverse, to the descending and finally passing into the sigmoid therefore, the least formed stool (very liquid) would be in the ascending. DIF:Apply (application)REF:1150

1.A patient has 250 mL of a jejunostomy feeding with 30 mL of water before and after feeding and 200 mL of urine. Thirty minutes later the patient has 100 mL of diarrhea. At 1300 the patient receives 150 mL of blood and voids another 200 mL. Calculate the patient's intake. Record your answer as a whole number. _____ mL

ANS: 460 The patient's fluid intake is 250 mL of feeding, 60 mL of water (30 mL before and after), and 150 blood: . Fluid intake includes all liquids that a person eats (e.g., gelatin, ice cream, soup), drinks (e.g., water, coffee, juice), or receives through nasogastric or jejunostomy feeding tubes. IV fluids (continuous infusions and intermittent IV piggybacks) and blood components also are sources of intake. Fluid output includes urine, diarrhea, vomitus, gastric suction, and drainage from postsurgical wounds or other tubes. DIF:Apply (application)REF:949 | 951 | 955

32. The nurse is caring for a patient in the operating suite who is experiencing hypercarbia, tachypnea, tachycardia, premature ventricular contractions, and muscle rigidity. Which condition does the nurse suspect the patient is experiencing? a. Malignant hyperthermia b. Fluid imbalance c. Hemorrhage d. Hypoxia

ANS: A A life-threatening, rare complication of anesthesia is malignant hyperthermia. Malignant hyperthermia causes hypercarbia, tachycardia, tachypnea, premature ventricular contractions, unstable blood pressure, cyanosis, skin mottling, and muscular rigidity. It often occurs during anesthesia induction. Hypoxia would manifest with decreased oxygen saturation as one of its signs and symptoms. Fluid imbalance would be assessed with intake and output and can manifest with tachycardia and blood pressure fluctuations but does not have muscle rigidity. Hemorrhage can manifest with tachycardia and decreased blood pressure, along with a thready pulse. Usually some sign or symptom of blood loss is noted (e.g., drains, incision, orifice, and abdomen).

29. The nurse is caring for a patient in the operating suite. Which outcome will be most appropriate for this patient at the end of the intraoperative phase? a. The patient will be free of burns at the grounding pad. b. The patient will be free of nausea and vomiting. c. The patient will be free of infection. d. The patient will be free of pain.

ANS: A A primary focus of intraoperative care is to prevent injury and complications related to anesthesia, surgery, positioning, and equipment use, including use of the electrical cautery grounding pad for the prevention of burns. The perioperative nurse is an advocate for the patient during surgery and protects the patient's dignity and rights at all times. Signs and symptoms of infection do not have the time to present during the intraoperative phase. During the intraoperative phase, the patient is anesthetized and unconscious and typically has an endotracheal tube that prevents conversation. Nausea, vomiting, and pain typically begin in the postoperative phase of the experience.

35. The nurse is caring for a patient in the postanesthesia care unit. The patient asks for a bedpan and states to the nurse, "I feel like I need to go to the bathroom, but I can't." Which nursing intervention will be most appropriate initially? a. Assess the patient for bladder distention. b. Encourage the patient to wait a minute and try again. c. Inform the patient that everyone feels this way after surgery. d. Call the health care provider to obtain an order for catheterization.

ANS: A Depending on the surgery, some patients do not regain voluntary control over urinary function for 6 to 8 hours after anesthesia. Palpate the lower abdomen just above the symphysis pubis for bladder distention. Another option is to use a bladder scan or ultrasound to assess bladder volume. The nurse must assess before deciding if the patient can try again. Not everyone feels as if they need to go but can't after surgery. Calling the health care provider is not the initial best action. The nurse needs to have data before calling the provider.

38. The nurse is caring for a group of patients. Which patient will the nurse see first? a. A patient who had cataract surgery is coughing. b. A patient who had vascular repair of the right leg is not doing right leg exercises. c. A patient after knee surgery is wearing intermittent pneumatic compression devices and receiving heparin. d. A patient after surgery has vital signs taken every 15 minutes twice, every 30 minutes twice, hourly for 2 hours then every 4 hours.

ANS: A For patients who have had eye, intracranial, or spinal surgery, coughing may be contraindicated because of the potential increase in intraocular or intracranial pressure. The nurse will need to see this patient first to control the cough and intraocular pressure. All the rest are normal postoperative patients. Leg exercise should not be performed on the operative leg with vascular surgery. A patient after knee surgery should receive heparin and be wearing intermittent pneumatic compression devices; while the nurse will check on the patient, it does not have to be first. Monitoring vital signs after surgery is required and this is the standard schedule.

6. The nurse is caring for a patient in the postanesthesia care unit who has undergone a left total knee arthroplasty. The anesthesia provider has indicated that the patient received a left femoral peripheral nerve block. Which assessment will be an expected finding for this patient? a. Sensation decreased in the left leg b. Patient report of pain in the left foot c. Pulse decreased at the left posterior tibia d. Left toes cool to touch and slightly cyanotic

ANS: A Induction of regional anesthesia results in loss of sensation in an area of the body—in this case, the left leg. The peripheral nerve block influences the portions of sensory pathways that are anesthetized in the targeted area of the body. Decreased pulse, toes cool to touch, and cyanosis are indications of decreased blood flow and are not expected findings. Reports of pain in the left foot may indicate that the block is not working or is subsiding and is not an expected finding in the immediate postoperative period.

8. The nurse is completing a medication history for the surgical patient in preadmission testing. Which medication should the nurse instruct the patient to hold (discontinue) in preparation for surgery according to protocol? a. Warfarin b. Vitamin C c. Prednisone d. Acetaminophen

ANS: A Medications such as warfarin or aspirin alter normal clotting factors and thus increase the risk of hemorrhaging. Discontinue at least 48 hours before surgery. Acetaminophen is a pain reliever that has no special implications for surgery. Vitamin C actually assists in wound healing and has no special implications for surgery. Prednisone is a corticosteroid, and dosages are often temporarily increased rather than held.

31. The nurse is assessing a postoperative patient with a history of obstructive sleep apnea for airway obstruction. Which assessment finding will best alert the nurse to this complication? a. Drop in pulse oximetry readings b. Moaning with reports of pain c. Shallow respirations d. Disorientation

ANS: A One of the greatest concerns after general anesthesia is airway obstruction, especially in patients with obstructive sleep apnea. A drop in oxygen saturation by pulse oximetry is a sign of airway obstruction in patients with obstructive sleep apnea. Weak pharyngeal/laryngeal muscle tone from anesthetics; secretions in the pharynx, bronchial tree, or trachea; and laryngeal or subglottic edema also contribute to airway obstruction. In the postanesthetic patient, the tongue is a major cause of airway obstruction. Shallow respirations are indicative of respiratory depression. Moaning and reports of pain are common in all surgical patients and are an expected event. Disorientation is common when first awakening from anesthesia but can be a sign of hypoxia.

19. The nurse is providing preoperative teaching for the ambulatory surgery patient who will be having a cyst removed from the right arm. Which will be the best explanation for diet progression after surgery? a. "Start with clear liquids, soup, and crackers. Advance to a normal diet as tolerated." b. "Stay with ice chips for several hours. After that, you can have whatever you want." c. "Stay on clear liquids for 24 hours. Then you can progress to a normal diet." d. "Start with clear liquids for 2 hours and then full liquids for 2 hours. Then progress to a normal diet."

ANS: A Patients usually receive a normal diet the first evening after surgery unless they have undergone surgery on GI structures. Implement diet intake while judging the patient's response. For example, provide clear liquids such as water, apple juice, broth, or tea after nausea subsides. If the patient tolerates liquids without nausea, advance the diet as ordered. There is no need to stay on ice chips for several hours or clear liquids for 24 hours after this procedure. Putting a time frame on the progression is too prescriptive. Progression should be adjusted for the patient's needs.

17. The nurse is preparing to assist the patient in using the incentive spirometer. Which nursing intervention should the nurse provide first? a. Perform hand hygiene. b. Explain use of the mouthpiece. c. Instruct the patient to inhale slowly. d. Place in the reverse Trendelenburg position.

ANS: A Performing hand hygiene reduces microorganisms and should be performed first. Placing the patient in the correct position such as high Fowler's for the typical postoperative patient or reverse Trendelenburg for the bariatric patient would be the next step in the process. Demonstration of use of the mouthpiece followed by the instruction to inhale slowly would be the last step in this scenario.

13. Which nursing assessment will indicate the patient is performing diaphragmatic breathing correctly? a. Hands placed on the border of the rib cage with fingers extended will touch as the chest wall contracts. b. Hands placed on the chest wall with fingers extended will separate as the chest wall contracts. c. The patient will feel upward movement of the diaphragm during inspiration. d. The patient will feel downward movement of the diaphragm during expiration.

ANS: A Positioning the hands along the borders of the rib cage allows the patient to feel movement of the chest and abdomen as the diaphragm descends and the lungs expand. As the patient takes a deep breath and slowly exhales, the middle fingers will touch while the chest wall contracts. The fingers will separate as the chest wall expands. The patient will feel normal downward movement of the diaphragm during inspiration and normal upward movement during expiration.

22. The nurse is reviewing the surgical consent with the patient during preoperative education and finds the patient does not understand what procedure will be completed. What is the nurse's best next step? a. Notify the health care provider about the patient's question. b. Explain the procedure that will be completed. c. Continue with preoperative education. d. Ask the patient to sign the form.

ANS: A Surgery cannot be legally or ethically performed until the patient fully understands the need for a procedure and all the implications. It is the surgeon's responsibility to explain the procedure, associated risks, benefits, alternatives, and possible complications. It is important for the nurse to pause with preoperative education to notify the health care provider of the patient's questions. It is not within the nurse's scope to explain the procedure. The nurse can certainly reinforce what the health care provider has explained, but the information needs to come from the health care provider. It is not prudent to ask a patient to sign a form for a procedure that he/she does not understand.

25. The nurse has completed a preoperative assessment for a patient going to surgery and gathers assessment data. Which will be the most important next step for the nurse to take? a. Notify the operating suite that the patient has a latex allergy. b. Document that the patient had a bath at home this morning. c. Administer the ordered preoperativ intravenous antibiotic. d. Ask the nursing assistive personnel to obtain vital signs.

ANS: A The most important step is notifying the operating suite of the patient's latex allergy. Many products that contain latex are used in the operating suite and the postanesthesia care unit (PACU). When preparing for a patient with this allergy, special considerations are required from preparation of the room to the types of tubes, gloves, drapes, and instruments utilized. Obtaining vital signs, documenting, and administering medications are all part of the process and should be done—with the latex allergy in mind. However, making sure that the patient has a safe environment is the first step.

33. The nurse is caring for a postoperative patient who has had a minimally invasive carpel tunnel repair. The patient has a temperature of 97° F and is shivering. Which reason will the nurse most likely consider as the primary cause when planning care? a. Anesthesia lowers metabolism. b. Surgical suites have air currents. c. The patient is dressed only in a gown. d. The large open body cavity contributed to heat loss.

ANS: A The operating suite and recovery room environments are extremely cool. The patient's anesthetically depressed level of body function results in lowering of metabolism and a fall in body temperature. Although the patient is dressed in a gown and there are air currents in the operating room, these are not the primary reasons for the low temperature. Also, the patient in this type of case does not have a large open body cavity to contribute to heat loss.

23. During preoperative assessment for a 7:30 AM (0730) surgery, the nurse finds the patient drank a cup of coffee this morning. The nurse reports this information to the anesthesia provider. Which action does the nurse anticipate next? a. A delay in or cancellation of surgery b. Questions regarding components of the coffee c. Additional questions about why the patient had coffee d. Instructions to determine what education was provided in the preoperative visit

ANS: A The recommendations before nonemergent procedures requiring general and regional anesthesia or sedation/analgesia include fasting from intake of clear liquids for 2 or more hours. A delay in or cancellation of surgery will be in order for this case. Questions regarding components of the coffee, asking why, and evaluating the preoperative education may all be items to be addressed, especially from a performance improvement perspective, but at this time in caring for this patient, a delay or cancellation is in order to prevent aspiration.

39. The nurse demonstrates postoperative exercises for a patient. In which order will the nurse instruct the patient to perform the exercises? 1. Turning 2. Breathing 3. Coughing 4. Leg exercises a. 4, 1, 2, 3 b. 1, 2, 3, 4 c. 2, 3, 4, 1 d. 3, 1, 4, 2

ANS: A The sequence of exercises is leg exercises, turning, breathing, and coughing.

21.The health care provider has ordered a hypotonic intravenous (IV) solution to be administered. Which IV bag will the nurse prepare? a. 0.45% sodium chloride (1/2 NS) b. 0.9% sodium chloride (NS) c. Lactated Ringer's (LR) d. Dextrose 5% in Lactated Ringer's (D5LR)

ANS: A 0.45% sodium chloride is a hypotonic solution. NS and LR are isotonic. D5LR is hypertonic. DIF:Apply (application)REF:956

17.A nurse is caring for a patient with peripheral intravenous (IV) therapy. Which task will the nurse assign to the nursing assistive personnel? a. Recording intake and output b. Regulating intravenous flow rate c. Starting peripheral intravenous therapy d. Changing a peripheral intravenous dressing

ANS: A A nursing assistive personnel (NAP) can record intake and output. An RN cannot delegate regulating flow rate, starting an IV, or changing an IV dressing to an NAP. DIF:Understand (comprehension)REF:951

10.The patient has an intravenous (IV) line and the nurse needs to remove the gown. In which order will the nurse perform the steps, starting with the first one? 1. Remove the sleeve of the gown from the arm without the IV. 2. Remove the sleeve of the gown from the arm with the IV. 3. Remove the IV solution container from its stand. 4. Pass the IV bag and tubing through the sleeve. a. 1, 2, 3, 4 b. 2, 3, 4, 1 c. 3, 4, 1, 2 d. 4, 1, 2, 3

ANS: A Change regular gowns by following these steps for maximum speed and arm mobility: (1) To remove a gown, remove the sleeve of the gown from the arm without the IV line, maintaining the patient's privacy. (2) Remove the sleeve of the gown from the arm with the IV line. (3) Remove the IV solution container from its stand, and pass it and the tubing through the sleeve. (If this involves removing the tubing from an EID, use the roller clamp to slow the infusion to prevent the accidental infusion of a large volume of solution or medication.) DIF:Understand (comprehension)REF:959-960

4.The nurse administers an intravenous (IV) hypertonic solution to a patient. In which direction will the fluid shift? a. From intracellular to extracellular b. From extracellular to intracellular c. From intravascular to intracellular d. From intravascular to interstitial

ANS: A Hypertonic solutions will move fluid from the intracellular to the extracellular (intravascular). A hypertonic solution has a concentration greater than normal body fluids, so water will shift out of cells because of the osmotic pull of the extra particles. Movement of water from the extracellular (intravascular) into cells (intracellular) occurs when hypotonic fluids are administered. Distribution of fluid between intravascular and interstitial spaces occurs by filtration, the net sum of hydrostatic and osmotic pressures. DIF:Understand (comprehension)REF:936 | 956

27.The nurse is calculating intake and output on a patient. The patient drinks 150 mL of orange juice at breakfast, voids 125 mL after breakfast, vomits 250 mL of greenish fluid, sucks on 60 mL of ice chips, and for lunch consumes 75 mL of chicken broth. Which totals for intake and output will the nurse document in the patient's medical record? a. Intake 255; output 375 b. Intake 285; output 375 c. Intake 505; output 125 d. Intake 535; output 125

ANS: A Intake = 150 mL of orange juice, 60 mL of ice chips (but only counts as 30 since ice chips are half of the amount), and 75 mL of chicken broth; 150 + 30 + 75 = 255. Output = 125 mL of urine (void) and 250 mL of vomitus; 125 + 250 = 375. DIF:Apply (application)REF:949 | 951 | 955

1.A patient has dehydration. While planning care, the nurse considers that the majority of the patient's total water volume exists in with compartment? a. Intracellular b. Extracellular c. Intravascular d. Transcellular

ANS: A Intracellular (inside the cells) fluid accounts for approximately two thirds of total body water. Extracellular (outside the cells) is approximately one third of the total body water. Intravascular fluid (liquid portion of the blood) and transcellular fluid are two major divisions of the extracellular compartment.

6.The nurse is reviewing laboratory results. Which cation will the nurse observe is the mostabundant in the blood? a. Sodium b. Chloride c. Potassium d. Magnesium

ANS: A Sodium is the most abundant cation in the blood. Potassium is the predominant intracellular cation. Chloride is an anion (negatively charged) rather than a cation (positively charged). Magnesium is found predominantly inside cells and in bone. DIF:Apply (application)REF:935-936

6. A patient is using laxatives three times daily to lose weight. After stopping laxative use, the patient has difficulty with constipation and wonders if laxatives should be taken again. Which information will the nurse share with the patient? a.Long-term laxative use causes the bowel to become less responsive to stimuli, and constipation may occur. b.Laxatives can cause trauma to the intestinal lining and scarring may result, leading to decreased peristalsis. c.Long-term use of emollient laxatives is effective for treatment of chronic constipation and may be useful in certain situations. d.Laxatives cause the body to become malnourished, so when the patient begins eating again, the body absorbs all of the food, and no waste products are produced.

ANS: A Teach patients about the potential harmful effects of overuse of laxatives, such as impaired bowel motility and decreased response to sensory stimulus. Make sure the patient understands that laxatives are not to be used long term for maintenance of bowel function. Increasing fluid and fiber intake can help with this problem. Laxatives do not cause scarring. Even if malnourished, the body will produce waste if any substance is consumed. DIF:Understand (comprehension)REF:1163

9.Four patients arrive at the emergency department at the same time. Which patient will the nurse see first? a. An infant with temperature of 102.2° F and diarrhea for 3 days b. A teenager with a sprained ankle and excessive edema c. A middle-aged adult with abdominal pain who is moaning and holding her stomach d. An older adult with nausea and vomiting for 3 days with blood pressure 112/60

ANS: A The infant should be seen first. An infant's proportion of total body water (70% to 80% total body weight) is greater than that of children or adults. Infants and young children have greater water needs and immature kidneys. They are at greater risk for extracellular volume deficit and hypernatremia because body water loss is proportionately greater per kilogram of weight. A teenager with excessive edema from a sprained ankle can wait. A middle-aged adult moaning in pain can wait as can an older adult with a blood pressure of 112/60. DIF:Analyze (analysis)REF:947

16.A patient is experiencing respiratory acidosis. Which organ system is responsible for compensation in this patient? a. Renal b. Endocrine c. Respiratory d. Gastrointestinal

ANS: A The kidneys (renal) are responsible for respiratory acidosis compensation. A problem with the respiratory system causes respiratory acidosis, so another organ system (renal) needs to compensate. Problems with the gastrointestinal and endocrine systems can cause acid-base imbalances, but these systems cannot compensate for an existing imbalance. DIF:Understand (comprehension)REF:943-944

18.The nurse is caring for a diabetic patient in renal failure who is in metabolic acidosis. Which laboratory findings are consistent with metabolic acidosis? a. pH 7.3, PaCO2 36 mm Hg, HCO3- 19 mEq/L b. pH 7.5, PaCO2 35 mm Hg, HCO3- 35 mEq/L c. pH 7.32, PaCO2 47 mm Hg, HCO3- 23 mEq/L d. pH 7.35, PaCO2 40 mm Hg, HCO3- 25 mEq/L

ANS: A The laboratory values that reflect metabolic acidosis are pH 7.3, PaCO2 36 mm Hg, HCO3- 19 mEq/L. A laboratory finding of pH 7.5, PaCO2 35 mm Hg, HCO3- 35 mEq/L is metabolic alkalosis. pH 7.32, PaCO2 47 mm Hg, HCO3- 23 mEq/L is respiratory acidosis. pH 7.35, PaCO2 40 mm Hg, HCO3- 25 mEq/L values are within normal range. DIF:Analyze (analysis)REF:944-945

3. A nurse is teaching a patient about the large intestine in elimination. In which order will the nurse list the structures, starting with the first portion? a.Cecum, ascending, transverse, descending, sigmoid, and rectum b.Ascending, transverse, descending, sigmoid, rectum, and cecum c.Cecum, sigmoid, ascending, transverse, descending, and rectum d.Ascending, transverse, descending, rectum, sigmoid, and cecum

ANS: A The large intestine is divided into the cecum, ascending colon, transverse colon, descending colon, sigmoid colon, and rectum. The large intestine is the primary organ of bowel elimination. DIF:Understand (comprehension)REF:1150

34.The nurse is caring for a group of patients. Which patient will the nurse see first? a. A patient with D5W hanging with the blood b. A patient with type A blood receiving type O blood c. A patient with intravenous potassium chloride that is diluted d. A patient with a right mastectomy and an intravenous site in the left arm

ANS: A The nurse will see the patient with D5W and blood to prevent a medication error. When preparing to administer blood, prime the tubing with 0.9% sodium chloride (normal saline) to prevent hemolysis or breakdown of RBCs. All the rest are normal. A patient with type A blood can receive type O. Type O is considered the universal donor. A patient with a mastectomy should have the IV in the other arm. Potassium chloride should be diluted, and it is never given IV push. DIF:Analyze (analysis)REF:962

2.The nurse is teaching about the process of passively moving water from an area of lower particle concentration to an area of higher particle concentration. Which process is the nurse describing? a. Osmosis b. Filtration c. Diffusion d. Active transport

ANS: A The process of moving water from an area of low particle concentration to an area of higher particle concentration is known as osmosis. Filtration is mediated by fluid pressure from an area of higher pressure to an area of lower pressure. Diffusion is passive movement of electrolytes or other particles down the concentration gradient (from areas of higher concentration to areas of lower concentration). Active transport requires energy in the form of adenosine triphosphate (ATP) to move electrolytes across cell membranes against the concentration gradient (from areas of lower concentration to areas of higher concentration).

38.A nurse is assessing a patient who is receiving a blood transfusion and finds that the patient is anxiously fidgeting in bed. The patient is afebrile and dyspneic. The nurse auscultates crackles in both lung bases and sees jugular vein distention. On which transfusion complication will the nurse focus interventions? a. Fluid volume overload b. Hemolytic reaction c. Anaphylactic shock d. Septicemia

ANS: A The signs and symptoms are concurrent with fluid volume overload. Anaphylactic shock would have presented with urticaria, dyspnea, and hypotension. Septicemia would include a fever. A hemolytic reaction would consist of flank pain, chills, and fever. DIF:Apply (application)REF:963-964

31.A nurse is caring for a diabetic patient with a bowel obstruction and has orders to ensure that the volume of intake matches the output. In the past 4 hours, the patient received dextrose 5% with 0.9% sodium chloride through a 22-gauge catheter infusing at 150 mL/hr and has eaten 200 mL of ice chips. The patient also has an NG suction tube set to low continuous suction that had 300-mL output. The patient has voided 400 mL of urine. After reporting these values to the health care provider, which order does the nurse anticipate? a. Add a potassium supplement to replace loss from output. b. Decrease the rate of intravenous fluids to 100 mL/hr. c. Administer a diuretic to prevent fluid volume excess. d. Discontinue the nasogastric suctioning.

ANS: A The total fluid intake and output equals 700 mL, which meets the provider goals. Patients with nasogastric suctioning are at risk for potassium deficit, so the nurse would anticipate a potassium supplement to correct this condition. Remember to record half the volume of ice chips when calculating intake. The other measures would be unnecessary because the net fluid volume is equal. DIF:Analyze (analysis)REF:949 | 951 | 955

1. The nurse is participating in a "time-out." In which activities will the nurse be involved? (Select all that apply.) a. Verify the correct site. b. Verify the correct patient. c. Verify the correct procedure. d. Perform "time-out" after surgery. e. Perform the actual marking of the operative site.

ANS: A, B, C A time-out is performed just before starting the procedure for final verification of the correct patient, procedure, site, and any implants. The marking and time-out most commonly occur in the holding area, just before the patient enters the OR. The individual performing surgery and who is accountable for it must personally mark the site, and the patient must be involved if possible.

6. The operating room nurse is providing a hand-off report to the postanesthesia care unit (PACU) nurse. Which components will the operating room nurse include? (Select all that apply.) a. IV fluids b. Vital signs c. Insurance data d. Family location e. Anesthesia provided f. Estimated blood loss

ANS: A, B, E, F The surgical teams report will include topics such as the type of anesthesia provided, vital sign trends, intraoperative medications, IV fluids, estimated blood and urine loss, and pertinent information about the surgical wound (e.g., dressings, tubes, drains). When the patient enters the PACU, the nurse and members of the surgical team discuss his or her status. A standardized approach or tool for hand-off communications assists in providing accurate information about a patient's care, treatment and services, current condition, and any recent or anticipated changes. The hand-off is interactive, multidisciplinary, and done at the patient's bedside, allowing for a communication exchange that gives caregivers the chance to dialogue and ask questions. Insurance data and family location are unnecessary.

4. The nurse is preparing for a patient who will be going to surgery. The nurse screens for risk factors that can increase a person's risks in surgery. What risk factors are included in the nurse's screening? (Select all that apply.) a. Age b. Race c. Obesity d. Nutrition e. Pregnancy f. Ambulatory surgery

ANS: A, C, D, E Very young and old patients are at risk during surgery because of immature or declining physiological status. Normal tissue repair and resistance to infection depend on adequate nutrients. Obesity increases surgical risk by reducing respiratory and cardiac function. During pregnancy, the concern is for the mother and the developing fetus. Because all major systems of the mother are affected during pregnancy, risks for operative complications are increased. Race and ambulatory surgery are not risks associated with a surgical procedure.

2.Which assessments will alert the nurse that a patient's IV has infiltrated? (Select all that apply.) a. Edema of the extremity near the insertion site b. Reddish streak proximal to the insertion site c. Skin discolored or pale in appearance d. Pain and warmth at the insertion site e. Palpable venous cord f. Skin cool to the touch

ANS: A, C, F Infiltration results in skin that is edematous near the IV insertion site. Skin is cool to the touch and may be pale or discolored. Pain, warmth, erythema, a reddish streak, and a palpable venous cord are all symptoms of phlebitis. DIF:Understand (comprehension)REF:960-961

.A nurse is selecting a site to insert an intravenous (IV) catheter on an adult. Which actions will the nurse take? (Select all that apply.) a. Check for contraindications to the extremity. b. Start proximally and move distally on the arm. c. Choose a vein with minimal curvature. d. Choose the patient's dominant arm. e. Select a vein that is rigid. f. Avoid areas of flexion.

ANS: A, C, F The vein should be relatively straight to avoid catheter occlusion. Contraindications to starting an IV catheter are conditions such as mastectomy, AV fistula, and central line in the extremity and should be checked before initiation of IV. Avoid areas of flexion if possible. The nurse should start distally and move proximally, choosing the nondominant arm if possible. The nurse should feel for the best location; a good vein should feel spongy, a rigid vein should be avoided because it might have had previous trauma or damage. DIF:Apply (application)REF:957 | 972

3. The nurse is caring for a postoperative patient with an incision. Which actions will the nurse take to decrease wound infections? (Select all that apply.) a. Maintain normoglycemia. b. Use a straight razor to remove hair. c. Provide bath and linen change daily. d. Perform first dressing change 2 days postoperatively. e. Perform hand hygiene before and after contact with the patient. f. Administer antibiotics within 60 minutes before surgical incision.

ANS: A, E Performing hand hygiene before and after contact with the patient helps to decrease the number of microorganisms and break the chain of infection. Maintaining blood glucose levels at less than 150 mg/dL has resulted in decreased wound infection. Removing unwanted hair by clipping instead of shaving decreases the numbers of nicks and cuts caused by a razor and the potential for the introduction of microbes. The patient is postoperative; administration of an antibiotic 60 minutes before the surgical incision supports the defense against infection preoperatively. Providing a bath and linen change daily is positive but is not necessarily important for infection control. Many surgeons prefer to change surgical dressings the first time so they can inspect the incisional area, but this is done before 2 days postoperatively.

10. The nurse is encouraging the postoperative patient to utilize diaphragmatic breathing. Which priority goal is the nurse trying to achieve? a. Manage pain b. Prevent atelectasis c. Reduce healing time d. Decrease thrombus formation

ANS: B After surgery, patients may have reduced lung volume and may require greater effort to cough and deep breathe; inadequate lung expansion can lead to atelectasis and pneumonia. Purposely utilizing diaphragmatic breathing can decrease this risk. During general anesthesia, the lungs are not fully inflated during surgery and the cough reflex is suppressed, so mucus collects within airway passages. Diaphragmatic breathing does not manage pain; in some cases, if splinting and pain medications are not given, it can cause pain. Diaphragmatic breathing does not reduce healing time or decrease thrombus formation. Better, more effective interventions are available for these situations.

30. The nurse is concerned about the skin integrity of the patient in the intraoperative phase of surgery. Which action will the nurse take to minimize skin breakdown? a. Encouraging the patient to bathe before surgery b. Securing attachments to the operating table with foam padding c. Periodically adjusting the patient during the surgical procedure d. Measuring the time a patient is in one position during surgery

ANS: B Although it may be necessary to place a patient in an unusual position, try to maintain correct alignment and protect the patient from pressure, abrasion, and other injuries. Special mattresses, use of foam padding, and attachments to the operating suite table provide protection for the extremities and bony prominences. Bathing before surgery helps to decrease the number of microbes on the skin. Periodically adjusting the patient during the surgical procedure is impractical and can present a safety issue with regard to maintaining sterility of the field and maintaining an airway. Measuring the time the patient is in one position may help with monitoring the situation but does not prevent skin breakdown.

20. The nurse explains the pain relief measures available after surgery during preoperative teaching for a surgical patient. Which comment from the patient indicates the need for additional education on this topic? a. "I will be asked to rate my pain on a pain scale." b. "I will have minimal pain because of the anesthesia." c. "I will take the pain medication as the provider prescribes it." d. "I will take my pain medications before doing postoperative exercises."

ANS: B Anesthesia will be provided during the procedure itself, and the patient should not experience pain during the procedure; however, this will not minimize the pain after surgery. Pain management is utilized after the postoperative phase. Inform the patient of interventions available for pain relief, including medication, relaxation, and distraction. The patient needs to know and understand how to take the medications that the health care provider will prescribe postoperatively. During the stay in the facility, the level of pain is frequently assessed by the nurses. Coordinating pain medication with postoperative exercises helps to minimize discomfort and allows the exercises to be more effective.

36. The postanesthesia care unit (PACU) nurse transports the inpatient surgical patient to the medical-surgical floor. Before leaving the floor, the medical-surgical nurse obtains a complete set of vital signs. What is the rationale for this nursing action? a. This is done to complete the first action in a head-to-toe assessment. b. This is done to compare and monitor for vital sign variation during transport. c. This is done to ensure that the medical-surgical nurse checks on the postoperative patient. d. This is done to follow hospital policy and procedure for care of the surgical patient.

ANS: B Before the PACU nurse leaves the acute care area, the staff nurse assuming care for the patient takes a complete set of vital signs to compare with PACU findings. Minor vital sign variations normally occur after transporting the patient. The PACU nurse reviews the patient's information with the medical-surgical nurse, including the surgical and PACU course, physician orders, and the patient's condition. While vital signs may or may not be the first action in a head-to-toe assessment, this is not the rationale for this situation. While following policy or ascertaining that the floor nurse checks on the patient are good reasons for safe care, they are not the best rationale for obtaining vital signs.

14. The nurse is caring for a postoperative patient with an abdominal incision. The nurse provides a pillow to use during coughing. Which activity is the nurse promoting? a. Pain relief b. Splinting c. Distraction d. Anxiety reduction

ANS: B Deep breathing and coughing exercises place additional stress on the suture line and cause discomfort. Splinting incisions with hands and a pillow provides firm support and reduces incisional pull. Providing a pillow during coughing does not provide distraction or reduce anxiety. Providing a pillow does not provide pain relief. Coughing can increase anxiety because it can cause pain. Analgesics provide pain relief.

9. The nurse is prescreening a surgical patient in the preadmission testing unit. The medication history indicates that the patient is currently taking an anticoagulant. Which action should the nurse take when consulting with the health care provider? a. Ask for a radiological examination of the chest. b. Ask for an international normalized ratio (INR). c. Ask for a blood urea nitrogen (BUN). d. Ask for a serum sodium (Na).

ANS: B INR, PT (prothrombin time), APTT (activated partial thromboplastin time), and platelet counts reveal the clotting ability of the blood. Anticoagulants can be utilized for different conditions, but its action is to increase the time it takes for the blood to clot. This action can put the surgical patient at risk for bleeding tendencies. Typically, if at all possible, this medication is held several days before a surgical procedure to decrease this risk. Chest x-ray, BUN, and Na are diagnostic screening tools for surgery but are not specific to anticoagulants.

12. The nurse is caring for a preoperative patient. The nurse teaches the principles and demonstrates leg exercises for the patient. The patient is unable to perform leg exercises correctly. What is the nurse's best next step? a. Encourage the patient to practice at a later date. b. Assess for the presence of anxiety, pain, or fatigue. c. Ask the patient why exercises are not being done. d. Evaluate the educational methods used to educate the patient.

ANS: B If the patient is unable to perform leg exercises, the nurse should look for circumstances that may be impacting the patient's ability to learn. In this case, the patient can be anticipating the upcoming surgery and may be experiencing anxiety. The patient may also be in pain or may be fatigued; both of these can affect the ability to learn. Evaluation of educational methods may be needed, but in this case, principles and demonstrations are being utilized. Asking anyone "why" can cause defensiveness and may not help in attaining the answer. The nurse is aware that the patient is unable to do the exercises. Moving forward without ascertaining that learning has occurred will not help the patient in meeting goals.

5. The patient has presented to the ambulatory surgery center to have a colonoscopy. The patient is scheduled to receive moderate sedation (conscious sedation) during the procedure. How will the nurse interpret this information? a. The procedure results in loss of sensation in an area of the body. b. The procedure requires a depressed level of consciousness. c. The procedure will be performed on an outpatient basis. d. The procedure necessitates the patient to be immobile.

ANS: B Moderate sedation (conscious sedation) is used routinely for procedures that do not require complete anesthesia but rather a depressed level of consciousness. Not all patients who are treated on an outpatient basis receive moderate sedation. Regional anesthesia such as local anesthesia provides loss of sensation in an area of the body. General anesthesia is used for patients who need to be immobile and to not remember the surgical procedure.

24. The nurse has administered a preoperative medication to the patient going to surgery. Which action will the nurse take next? a. Notify the operating suite that the medication has been given. b. Instruct the patient to call for help to go to the restroom. c. Waste any unused medication according to policy. d. Ask the patient to sign the consent for surgery.

ANS: B Once a preoperative medication has been administered, instruct the patient to call for help when getting out of bed to prevent falls. For patient safety, explain the purpose of a preoperative medication and its effects. Notifying the operating suite that the medication has been given may be part of a facilities procedure but is not the best next step. It is important to have the patient sign consents before the patient has received medication that may make him/her drowsy. Wasting unused medication according to policy is important but is not the best next step.

37. The nurse is caring for a patient who will undergo a removal of a lung lobe. Which level of care will the patient require immediately post procedure? a. Acute care—medical-surgical unit b. Acute care—intensive care unit c. Ambulatory surgery d. Ambulatory surgery—extended stay

ANS: B Patients undergoing extensive surgery and requiring anesthesia of long duration recover slowly. If a patient is undergoing major surgery such as a procedure on the lung, a stay in the hospital and specifically in the intensive care unit is required to monitor for potential risks to well-being. This patient would require more care than can be provided on a medical-surgical unit. It is not appropriate for this type of patient to go home after the procedure or to stay in an extended stay area of an ambulatory surgery area because of the complexity and associated risks.

2. The nurse is caring for a patient who is scheduled to undergo a surgical procedure. The nurse is completing an assessment and reviews the patient's laboratory tests and allergies and prepares the patient for surgery. In which perioperative nursing phase is the nurse working? a. Perioperative b. Preoperative c. Intraoperative d. Postoperative

ANS: B Reviewing the patient's laboratory tests and allergies is done before surgery in the preoperative phase. Perioperative means before, during, and after surgery. Intraoperative means during the surgical procedure in the operating suite; postoperative means after the surgery and could occur in the postanesthesia care unit, in the ambulatory surgical area, or on the hospital unit.

27. The circulating nurse is caring for a patient intraoperatively. Which primary role of the circulating nurse will be implemented? a. Suturing the surgical incision in the OR suite b. Managing patient care activities in the OR suite c. Assisting with applying sterile drapes in the OR suite d. Handing sterile instruments and supplies to the surgeon in the OR suite

ANS: B The circulating nurse is an RN who remains unscrubbed and uses the nursing process in the management of patient care activities in the OR suite. The circulating nurse also manages patient positioning, antimicrobial skin preparation, medications, implants, placement and function of intermittent pneumatic compression (IPC) devices, specimens, warming devices and surgical counts of instruments, and dressings. The RN first assistant collaborates with the surgeon by handling and cutting tissue, using instruments and medical devices, providing exposure of the surgical area and hemostasis, and suturing. The scrub nurse, who can be a registered nurse, a licensed practical nurse, or a surgical technologist, maintains the sterile field, assists with applying the sterile drapes, and hands sterile instruments and supplies to the surgeon.

7. The nurse is preparing a patient for surgery. Which goal is a priority for assessing the patient before surgery? a. Plan for care after the procedure. b. Establish a patient's baseline of normal function. c. Educate the patient and family about the procedure. d. Gather appropriate equipment for the patient's needs.

ANS: B The goal of the preoperative assessment is to identify a patient's normal preoperative function and the presence of any risks to recognize, prevent, and minimize possible postoperative complications. Gathering appropriate equipment, planning care, and educating the patient and family are all important interventions that must be provided for the surgical patient; they are part of the nursing process but are not the priority reason/goal for completing an assessment of the surgical patient.

30.A nurse begins infusing a 250-mL bag of IV fluid at 1845 on Monday and programs the pump to infuse at 50 mL/hr. At what time should the infusion be completed? a. 2300 Monday b. 2345 Monday c. 0015 Tuesday d. 0045 Tuesday

ANS: B 250 mL ÷ 50 mL/hr = 5 hr 1845 + 5 hr = 2345, which would be 2345 on Monday. DIF:Apply (application)REF:978

35.A nurse is administering a blood transfusion. Which assessment finding will the nurse report immediately? a. Blood pressure 110/60 b. Temperature 101.3° F c. Poor skin turgor and pallor d. Heart rate of 100 beats/min

ANS: B A fever should be reported immediately and the blood transfusion stopped. All other assessment findings are expected. Blood is given to elevate blood pressure, improve pallor, and decrease tachycardia. DIF:Apply (application)REF:962 | 964

15.In which patient will the nurse expect to see a positive Chvostek sign? a. A 7-year-old child admitted for severe burns b. A 24-year-old adult admitted for chronic alcohol abuse c. A 50-year-old patient admitted for an acute exacerbation of hyperparathyroidism d. A 75-year-old patient admitted for a broken hip related to osteoporosis

ANS: B A positive Chvostek sign is representative of hypocalcemia or hypomagnesemia. Hypomagnesemia is common with alcohol abuse. Hypocalcemia can be brought on by alcohol abuse and pancreatitis (which also can be affected by alcohol consumption). Burn patients frequently experience extracellular fluid volume deficit. Hyperparathyroidism causes hypercalcemia. Immobility is associated with hypercalcemia. DIF:Apply (application)REF:942

7.The nurse receives the patient's most recent blood work results. Which laboratory value is of greatest concern? a. Sodium of 145 mEq/L b. Calcium of 15.5 mg/dL c. Potassium of 3.5 mEq/L d. Chloride of 100 mEq/L

ANS: B Normal calcium range is 8.4 to 10.5 mg/dL; therefore, a value of 15.5 mg/dL is abnormally high and of concern. The rest of the laboratory values are within their normal ranges: sodium 136 to 145 mEq/L; potassium 3.5 to 5.0 mEq/L; and chloride 98 to 106 mEq/L. DIF:Apply (application)REF:935

8.The nurse observes that the patient's calcium is elevated. When checking the phosphate level, what does the nurse expect to see? a. Increased b. Decreased c. Equal to calcium d. No change in phosphate

ANS: B Phosphate will decrease. Serum calcium and phosphate have an inverse relationship. When one is elevated, the other decreases, except in some patients with end-stage renal disease. DIF:Apply (application)REF:941

28.A nurse is assessing a patient. Which assessment finding should cause a nurse to further assess for extracellular fluid volume deficit? a. Moist mucous membranes b. Postural hypotension c. Supple skin turgor d. Pitting edema

ANS: B Physical examination findings of deficit include postural hypotension, tachycardia, thready pulse, dry mucous membranes, and poor skin turgor. Pitting edema indicates that the patient may be retaining excess extracellular fluid. DIF:Apply (application)REF:940

25.A nurse is administering a diuretic to a patient and teaching the patient about foods to increase. Which food choices by the patient will best indicate successful teaching? a. Milk and cheese b. Potatoes and fresh fruit c. Canned soups and vegetables d. Whole grains and dark green leafy vegetables

ANS: B Potatoes and fruits are high in potassium. Milk and cheese are high in calcium. Canned soups and vegetables are high in sodium. Whole grains and dark green leafy vegetables are high in magnesium. DIF:Apply (application)REF:941

13.Which blood gas result will the nurse expect to observe in a patient with respiratory alkalosis? a. pH 7.60, PaCO2 40 mm Hg, HCO3- 30 mEq/L b. pH 7.53, PaCO2 30 mm Hg, HCO3- 24 mEq/L c. pH 7.35, PaCO2 35 mm Hg, HCO3- 26 mEq/L d. pH 7.25, PaCO2 48 mm Hg, HCO3- 23 mEq/L

ANS: B Respiratory alkalosis should show an alkalotic pH and decreased CO2 (respiratory) values, with a normal HCO3-. In this case, pH 7.53 is alkaline (normal = 7.35 to 7.45), PaCO2 is 30 (normal 35 to 45 mm Hg), and HCO3- is 24 (normal = 22 to 26 mEq/L). A result of pH 7.60, PaCO2 40 mm Hg, HCO3- 30 mEq/L is metabolic alkalosis. pH 7.35, PaCO2 35 mm Hg, HCO3- 26 mEq/L is within normal limits. pH 7.25, PaCO2 48 mm Hg, HCO3- 23 mEq/L is respiratory acidosis. DIF:Analyze (analysis)REF:944-945

11.A 2-year-old child is brought into the emergency department after ingesting a medication that causes respiratory depression. For which acid-base imbalance will the nurse most closely monitor this child? a. Respiratory alkalosis b. Respiratory acidosis c. Metabolic acidosis d. Metabolic alkalosis

ANS: B Respiratory depression leads to hypoventilation. Hypoventilation results in retention of CO2 and respiratory acidosis. Respiratory alkalosis would result from hyperventilation, causing a decrease in CO2 levels. Metabolic acid-base imbalance would be a result of kidney dysfunction, vomiting, diarrhea, or other conditions that affect metabolic acids. DIF:Analyze (analysis)REF:944- 945

14.A nurse is caring for a patient whose ECG presents with changes characteristic of hypokalemia. Which assessment finding will the nurse expect? a. Dry mucous membranes b. Abdominal distention c. Distended neck veins d. Flushed skin

ANS: B Signs and symptoms of hypokalemia are muscle weakness, abdominal distention, decreased bowel sounds, and cardiac dysrhythmias. Distended neck veins occur in fluid overload. Thready peripheral pulses indicate hypovolemia. Dry mucous membranes and flushed skin are indicative of dehydration and hypernatremia. DIF:Apply (application)REF:942

12.A patient is admitted for a bowel obstruction and has had a nasogastric tube set to low intermittent suction for the past 3 days. Which arterial blood gas values will the nurse expect to observe? a. Respiratory alkalosis b. Metabolic alkalosis c. Metabolic acidosis d. Respiratory acidosis

ANS: B The patient is losing acid from the nasogastric tube so the patient will have metabolic alkalosis. Lung problems will produce respiratory alkalosis or acidosis. Metabolic acidosis will occur when too much acid is in the body like kidney failure. DIF:Apply (application)REF:948-949

2. The nurse is using a forced air warmer for a surgical patient preoperatively. Which goals is the nurse trying to achieve? (Select all that apply.) a. Induce shivering. b. Reduce blood loss. c. Induce pressure ulcers. d. Reduce cardiac arrests. e. Reduce surgical site infection.

ANS: B, D, E Evidence suggests that pre-warming for a minimum of 30 minutes may reduce the occurrence of hypothermia. Prevention of hypothermia (core temperature < 36° C) helps to reduce complications such as shivering, cardiac arrest, blood loss, SSI, pressure ulcers, and mortality.

5. The nurse is providing preoperative education and reviews with the patient what it will be like to be in the surgical environment. Which points should the nurse include in the teaching session? (Select all that apply.) a. The operative suite will be very dark. b. The family is not allowed in the operating suite. c. The operating table or bed will be comfortable and soft. d. The nurses will be there to assist you through this process. e. The surgical staff will be dressed in special clothing with hats and masks.

ANS: B, D, E The surgical staff is dressed in special clothing, hats, and masks—all for infection control. Families are not allowed in the operating suite for several reasons, which include infection control and sterility. The nurse is there as the coordinator and patient advocate during a surgical procedure. The rooms are very bright so everyone can see, and the operating table is very uncomfortable for the patient.

3.A nurse is discontinuing a patient's peripheral IV access. Which actions should the nurse take? (Select all that apply.) a. Wear sterile gloves and a mask. b. Stop the infusion before removing the IV catheter. c. Use scissors to remove the IV site dressing and tape. d. Apply firm pressure with sterile gauze during removal. e. Keep the catheter parallel to the skin while removing it. f. Apply pressure to the site for 2 to 3 minutes after removal.

ANS: B, E, F The nurse should stop the infusion before removing the IV catheter, so the fluid does not drip on the patient's skin; keep the catheter parallel to the skin while removing it to reduce trauma to the vein; and apply pressure to the site for 2 to 3 minutes after removal to decrease bleeding from the site. Scissors should not be used because they may accidentally cut the catheter or tubing or may injure the patient. During removal of the IV catheter, light pressure, not firm pressure, is indicated to prevent trauma. Clean gloves are used for discontinuing a peripheral IV access because gloved hands will handle the external dressing, tubing, and tape, which are not sterile. DIF:Understand (comprehension)REF:985-986

34. The nurse is monitoring a patient in the postanesthesia care unit (PACU) for postoperative fluid and electrolyte imbalance. Which action will be most appropriate for the nurse to take? a. Encourage copious amounts of water. b. Start an additional intravenous (IV) line. c. Measure and record all intake and output. d. Weigh the patient and compare with preoperative weight.

ANS: C Accurate recording of intake and output assesses renal and circulatory function. Measure and record all sources of intake and output. Encouraging copious amounts of water in a postoperative patient might encourage nausea and vomiting. In the PACU, it is impractical to weigh the patient while waking from surgery, but in the days afterward, it is a good assessment parameter for fluid imbalance. Starting an additional IV is not necessary and is not important at this juncture.

11. The nurse is caring for a postoperative patient on the medical-surgical floor. Which activity will the nurse encourage to prevent venous stasis and the formation of thrombus? a. Diaphragmatic breathing b. Incentive spirometry c. Leg exercises d. Coughing

ANS: C After general anesthesia, circulation slows, and when the rate of blood slows, a greater tendency for clot formation is noted. Immobilization results in decreased muscular contractions in the lower extremities; these promote venous stasis. Coughing, diaphragmatic breathing, and incentive spirometry are utilized to decrease atelectasis and pneumonia.

4. The nurse is caring for a patient in preadmission testing. The patient has been assigned a physical status classification by the American Society of Anesthesiologists of ASA III. Which assessment will support this classification? a. Normal, healthy patient b. Denial of any major illnesses or conditions c. Poorly controlled hypertension with implanted pacemaker d. Moribund patient not expected to survive without the operation

ANS: C An ASA III rating is a patient with a severe systemic disease, such as poorly controlled hypertension with an implanted pacemaker. ASA I is a normal healthy patient with no major illnesses or conditions. ASA II is a patient with mild systemic disease. ASA V is a moribund patient who is not expected to survive without the operation and includes patients with ruptured abdominal/thoracic aneurysm or massive trauma.

26. The nurse is preparing a patient for a surgical procedure on the right great toe. Which action will be most important to include in this patient's preparation? a. Place the patient in a clean surgical gown. b. Ask the patient to remove all hairpins and cosmetics. c. Ascertain that the surgical site has been correctly marked. d. Determine where the family will be located during the procedure.

ANS: C Because errors have occurred in the past with patients undergoing the wrong surgery on the wrong site, the universal protocol guidelines have been implemented and are used with all invasive procedures. Part of this protocol includes marking the operative site with indelible ink. Knowing where the family is during a procedure, placing the patient in a clean gown, and asking the patient to remove all hairpins and cosmetics are important but are not most important in this list of items.

21. The nurse is making a preoperative education appointment with a patient. The patient asks if a family member should come to the appointment. Which is the best response by the nurse? a. "There is no need for an additional person at the appointment." b. "Your family can come and wait with you in the waiting room." c. "We recommend including family members at this appointment." d. "It is required that you have a family member at this appointment."

ANS: C Including family members in perioperative education is advisable. Often a family member is a coach for postoperative exercises when the patient returns from surgery. If anxious relatives do not understand routine postoperative events, it is likely that their anxiety will heighten the patient's fears and concerns. Preoperative preparation of family members before surgery helps to minimize anxiety and misunderstanding. An additional person is needed at the appointment if at all possible, and he or she needs to be involved in the process, not just waiting in the waiting room; however, it is certainly not a requirement for actually completing the surgery that someone comes to this appointment.

1. The nurse is caring for a surgical patient, when the family member asks what perioperative nursing means. How should the nurse respond? a. Perioperative nursing occurs in preadmission testing. b. Perioperative nursing occurs primarily in the postanesthesia care unit. c. Perioperative nursing includes activities before, during, and after surgery. d. Perioperative nursing includes activities only during the surgical procedure.

ANS: C Perioperative nursing care occurs before, during, and after surgery. Preadmission testing occurs before surgery and is considered preoperative. Nursing care provided during the surgical procedure is considered intraoperative, and in the postanesthesia care unit, it is considered postoperative. All of these are parts of the perioperative phase, but each individual phase does not explain the term completely.

22.The health care provider asks the nurse to monitor the fluid volume status of a heart failure patient and a patient at risk for clinical dehydration. Which is the most effective nursing intervention for monitoring both of these patients? a. Assess the patients for edema in extremities. b. Ask the patients to record their intake and output. c. Weigh the patients every morning before breakfast. d. Measure the patients' blood pressures every 4 hours.

ANS: C An effective measure of fluid retention or loss is daily weights; each kilogram (2.2 pounds) change is equivalent to 1 liter of fluid gained or lost. This measurement should be performed at the same time every day using the same scale and the same amount of clothing. Although intake and output records are important assessment measures, some patients are not able to keep their own records themselves. Blood pressure can decrease with extracellular volume (ECV) deficit but will not necessarily increase with recent ECV excess (heart failure patient). Edema occurs with ECV excess but not with clinical dehydration. DIF:Apply (application)REF:949 | 968

5. A nurse is assisting a patient in making dietary choices that promote healthy bowel elimination. Which menu option should the nurse recommend? a.Broccoli and cheese soup with potato bread b.Turkey and mashed potatoes with brown gravy c.Grape and walnut chicken salad sandwich on whole wheat bread d.Dinner salad topped with hard-boiled eggs, cheese, and fat-free dressing

ANS: C Grapes and whole wheat bread are high fiber and should be chosen. Cheese, eggs, potato bread, and mashed potatoes do not contain as much fiber as whole wheat bread. A healthy diet for the bowel should include foods high in bulk-forming fiber. Whole grains, fresh fruit, and fresh vegetables are excellent sources. Foods without much fiber and with high levels of fat can slow down peristalsis, causing constipation. DIF:Apply (application)REF:1151 | 1168

26.The nurse is evaluating the effectiveness of the intravenous fluid therapy in a patient with hypernatremia. Which finding indicates goal achievement? a. Urine output increases to 150 mL/hr. b. Systolic and diastolic blood pressure decreases. c. Serum sodium concentration returns to normal. d. Large amounts of emesis and diarrhea decrease.

ANS: C Hypernatremia is diagnosed by elevated serum sodium concentration. Blood pressure is not an accurate indicator of hypernatremia. Emesis and diarrhea will not stop because of intravenous therapy. Urine output is influenced by many factors, including extracellular fluid volume. A large dilute urine output can cause further hypernatremia. DIF:Apply (application)REF:940 | 966

36.A nurse has just received a bag of packed red blood cells (RBCs) for a patient. What is the longest time the nurse can let the blood infuse? a. 30 minutes b. 2 hours c. 4 hours d. 6 hours

ANS: C Ideally a unit of whole blood or packed RBCs is transfused in 2 hours. This time can be lengthened to 4 hours if the patient is at risk for extracellular volume excess. Beyond 4 hours there is a risk for bacterial contamination of the blood. DIF:Understand (comprehension)REF:962-963

29.A patient is to receive 1000 mL of 0.9% sodium chloride intravenously at a rate of 125 mL/hr. The nurse is using microdrip gravity drip tubing. Which rate will the nurse calculate for the minute flow rate (drops/min)? a. 12 drops/min b. 24 drops/min c. 125 drops/min d. 150 drops/min

ANS: C Microdrip tubing delivers 60 drops/mL. Calculation for a rate of 125 mL/hr using microdrip tubing: (125 mL/1 hr)(60 drops/1 mL)(1 hr/60 min) = 125 drop/min.

42.While the nurse is taking a patient history, the nurse discovers the patient has a type of diabetes that results from a head injury and does not require insulin. Which dietary change should the nurse share with the patient? a. Reduce the quantity of carbohydrates ingested to lower blood sugar. b. Include a serving of dairy in each meal to elevate calcium levels. c. Drink plenty of fluids throughout the day to stay hydrated. d. Avoid food high in acid to avoid metabolic acidosis.

ANS: C The patient has diabetes insipidus, which places the patient at risk for dehydration and hypernatremia. Dehydration should be prevented by drinking plenty of fluids to replace the extra water excreted in the urine. Foods high in acid are not what causes metabolic acidosis. A reduction in carbohydrates to lower blood sugar will not help a patient with diabetes insipidus but it may help a patient with diabetes mellitus. Calcium-rich dairy products would be recommended for a hypocalcemic patient. DIF:Apply (application)REF:949

19.The nurse is assessing a patient and finds crackles in the lung bases and neck vein distention. Which action will the nurse take first? a. Offer calcium-rich foods. b. Administer diuretic. c. Raise head of bed. d. Increase fluids.

ANS: C The patient is in fluid overload. Raising the head of the bed to ease breathing is the first action. Offering calcium-rich foods is for hypocalcemia, not fluid overload. Administering a diuretic is the second action. Increasing fluids is contraindicated and would make the situation worse. DIF:Apply (application)REF:940 | 950 | 960

4. The nurse is planning care for a group of patients. Which task will the nurse assign to the nursing assistive personnel (NAP)? a.Performing the first postoperative pouch change b.Maintaining a nasogastric tube c.Administering an enema d.Digitally removing stool

ANS: C The skill of administering an enema can be delegated to an NAP. The skill of inserting and maintaining a nasogastric (NG) tube cannot be delegated to an NAP. The nurse should do the first postoperative pouch change. Digitally removing stool cannot be delegated to nursing assistive personnel. DIF:Apply (application)REF:1170

23.A nurse is caring for a cancer patient who presents with anorexia, blood pressure 100/60, and elevated white blood cell count. Which primary purpose for starting total parenteral nutrition (TPN) will the nurse add to the care plan? a. Stimulate the patient's appetite to eat. b. Deliver antibiotics to fight off infection. c. Replace fluid, electrolytes, and nutrients. d. Provide medication to raise blood pressure.

ANS: C Total parenteral nutrition is an intravenous solution composed of nutrients and electrolytes to replace the ones the patient is not eating or losing. TPN does not stimulate the appetite. TPN does not contain blood pressure medication or antibiotics. DIF:Apply (application)REF:955

3.The nurse observes edema in a patient who has venous congestion from right heart failure. Which type of pressure facilitated the formation of the patient's edema? a. Osmotic b. Oncotic c. Hydrostatic d. Concentration

ANS: C Venous congestion increases capillary hydrostatic pressure. Increased hydrostatic pressure causes edema by causing increased movement of fluid into the interstitial area. Osmotic and oncotic pressures involve the concentrations of solutes and can contribute to edema in other situations, such as inflammation or malnutrition. Concentration pressure is not a nursing term.

39.A nurse is preparing to start a blood transfusion. Which type of tubing will the nurse obtain? a. Two-way valves to allow the patient's blood to mix and warm the blood transfusing b. An injection port to mix additional electrolytes into the blood c. A filter to ensure that clots do not enter the patient d. An air vent to let bubbles into the blood

ANS: C When administering a transfusion you need an appropriate-size IV catheter and blood administration tubing that has a special in-line filter. The patient's blood should not be mixed with the infusion blood. Air bubbles should not be allowed to enter the blood. The only substance compatible with blood is normal saline; no additives should be mixed with the infusing blood. DIF:Apply (application)REF:962

3. The nurse is caring for a patient in the postanesthesia care unit. The patient has developed profuse bleeding from the surgical site, and the surgeon has determined the need to return to the operative area. How will the nurse classify this procedure? a. Major b. Urgent c. Elective d. Emergency

ANS: D An emergency procedure must be done immediately to save a life or preserve the function of a body part. An example would be repair of a perforated appendix, repair of a traumatic amputation, or control of internal hemorrhaging. An urgent procedure is necessary for a patient's health and often prevents additional problems from developing. An example would be excision of a cancerous tumor, removal of a gallbladder for stones, or vascular repair for an obstructed artery. An elective procedure is performed on the basis of the patient's choice; it is not essential and is not always necessary for health. An example would be a bunionectomy, plastic surgery, or hernia reconstruction. A major procedure involves extensive reconstruction or alteration in body parts; it poses great risks to well-being. An example would be a coronary artery bypass or colon resection.

15. The nurse is encouraging a reluctant postoperative patient to deep breathe and cough. Which explanation can the nurse provide that may encourage the patient to comply? a. "If you don't deep breathe and cough, you will get pneumonia." b. "You will need to cough only a few times during this shift." c. "Let's try clearing the throat because that will work just as well." d. "Deep breathing and coughing will clear out the anesthesia."

ANS: D Deep breathing and coughing expel retained anesthetic gases and facilitate a patient's return to consciousness. Although it is correct that a patient may experience atelectasis and pneumonia if deep breathing and coughing are not performed, the way this is worded sounds threatening and could be communicated in a more therapeutic manner. Deep breathing and coughing are encouraged every 2 hours while the patient is awake. Just clearing the throat does not remove mucus from deeper airways.

16. The nurse and the nursing assistive personnel are assisting a postoperative patient to turn in bed. To assist in minimizing discomfort, which instruction should the nurse provide to the patient? a. "Close your eyes and think about something pleasant." b. "Hold your breath and count to three." c. "Grab my shoulders with your hands." d. "Place your hand over your incision."

ANS: D Instruct the patient to place the right hand over the incisional area to splint it, providing support and minimizing pulling during turning. Closing one's eyes, holding one's breath, and holding the nurse's shoulders do not help support the incision during a turn.

18. The nurse and the nursing assistive personnel (NAP) are caring for a group of postoperative patients who need turning, coughing, deep breathing, incentive spirometer, and leg exercises. Which task will the nurse assign to the NAP? a. Teach postoperative exercises. b. Do nothing associated with postoperative exercises. c. Document in the medical record when exercises are completed. d. Inform the nurse if the patient is unwilling to perform exercises.

ANS: D The nurse can delegate to the NAP to encourage patients to practice postoperative exercises regularly after instruction and to inform the nurse if the patient is unwilling to perform these exercises. The skills of demonstrating and teaching postoperative exercises and documenting are not within the scope of practice for the nursing assistant. Doing nothing is not appropriate.

28. The nurse is caring for a patient in the preoperative holding area of an ambulatory surgery center. Which nursing action will be most appropriate for this area? a. Count the sterile surgical instruments. b. Empty the urinary drainage bag. c. Check the surgical dressing. d. Apply a warm blanket.

ANS: D The temperature in the preoperative holding area and in adjacent operating suites is usually cold. Offer the patient an extra warm blanket. Counts are taken by the circulating and scrub nurses in the operating room. Emptying a urinary drainage bag and checking the surgical dressing occur in the postanesthesia care unit, not in the holding area.

20.A chemotherapy patient has gained 5 pounds in 2 days. Which assessment question by the nurse is most appropriate? a. "Are you following any weight loss program?" b. "How many calories a day do you consume?" c. "Do you have dry mouth or feel thirsty?" d. "How many times a day do you urinate?"

ANS: D A rapid gain in weight usually indicates extracellular volume (ECV) excess if the person began with normal ECV. Asking the patient about urination habits will help determine whether the body is trying to excrete the excess fluid or if renal dysfunction is contributing to ECV excess. This is too rapid a weight gain to be dietary; it is fluid retention. Asking about following a weight loss program will not help determine the cause of the problem. Caloric intake does not account for rapid weight changes. Dry mouth and thirst accompany ECV deficit, which would be associated with rapid weight loss. DIF:Apply (application)REF:940 | 948-949

33.A nurse is assisting the health care provider in inserting a central line. Which action indicates the nurse is following the recommended bundle protocol to reduce central line-associated bloodstream infections (CLABSI)? a. Preps skin with povidone-iodine solution. b. Suggests the femoral vein for insertion site. c. Applies double gloving without hand hygiene. d. Uses chlorhexidine skin antisepsis prior to insertion.

ANS: D A recommended bundle at insertion of a central line is hand hygiene prior to catheter insertion; use of maximum sterile barrier precautions upon insertion; chlorhexidine skin antisepsis prior to insertion and during dressing changes; avoidance of the femoral vein for central venous access for adults; and daily evaluation of line necessity, with prompt removal of non-essential lines. Povidone-iodine is not recommended. DIF:Apply (application)REF:957

40.The nurse is caring for a patient with hyperkalemia. Which body system assessment is the priority? a. Gastrointestinal b. Neurological c. Respiratory d. Cardiac

ANS: D Cardiac is the priority. Hyperkalemia places the patient at risk for potentially serious dysrhythmias and cardiac arrest. Potassium balance is necessary for cardiac function. Respiratory is the priority with hypokalemia. Monitoring of gastrointestinal and neurological systems would be indicated for other electrolyte imbalances. DIF:Apply (application)REF:941-942 | 956

7. A patient with a hip fracture is having difficulty defecating into a bedpan while lying in bed. Which action by the nurse will assist the patient in having a successful bowel movement? a.Preparing to administer a barium enema b.Withholding narcotic pain medication c.Administering laxatives to the patient d.Raising the head of the bed

ANS: D Lying in bed is an unnatural position raising the head of the bed assists the patient into a more normal position that allows proper contraction of muscles for elimination. Laxatives would not give the patient control over bowel movements. A barium enema is a diagnostic test, not an intervention to promote defecation. Pain relief measures should be given however, preventative action should be taken to prevent constipation. DIF:Apply (application)REF:1151

32.A nurse is caring for a patient who is receiving peripheral intravenous (IV) therapy. When the nurse is flushing the patient's peripheral IV, the patient reports pain. Upon assessment, the nurse notices a red streak that is warm to the touch. What is the nurse's initial action? a. Record a phlebitis grade of 4. b. Assign an infiltration grade. c. Apply moist compress. d. Discontinue the IV.

ANS: D The IV site has phlebitis. The nurse should discontinue the IV. The phlebitis score is 3. The site has phlebitis, not infiltration. A moist compress may be needed after the IV is discontinued. DIF:Apply (application)REF:960 | 982

1. The nurse is teaching a health class about the gastrointestinal tract. The nurse will explain that which portion of the digestive tract absorbs most of the nutrients? a. Ileum b. Cecum c. Stomach d. Duodenum

ANS: D The duodenum and jejunum absorb most nutrients and electrolytes in the small intestine. The ileum absorbs certain vitamins, iron, and bile salts. Food is broken down in the stomach. The cecum is the beginning of the large intestine. DIF:Understand (comprehension)REF:1150

37.A patient has an acute intravascular hemolytic reaction to a blood transfusion. After discontinuing the blood transfusion, which is the nurse's next action? a. Discontinue the IV catheter. b. Return the blood to the blood bank. c. Run normal saline through the existing tubing. d. Start normal saline at TKO rate using new tubing.

ANS: D The nurse should first attach new tubing and begin running in normal saline at a rate to keep the vein open, in case any medications need to be delivered through an IV site. The existing tubing should not be used because that would infuse the blood in the tubing into the patient. It is necessary to preserve the IV catheter in place for IV access to treat the patient. After the patient has been assessed and stabilized, the blood can be returned to the blood bank. DIF:Apply (application)REF:963-964

5.A nurse is preparing to start peripheral intravenous (IV) therapy. In which order will the nurse perform the steps starting with the first one? 1. Clean site. 2. Select vein. 3. Apply tourniquet. 4. Release tourniquet. 5. Reapply tourniquet. 6. Advance and secure. 7. Insert vascular access device. a. 1, 3, 2, 7, 5, 4, 6 b. 1, 3, 2, 5, 7, 6, 4 c. 3, 2, 1, 5, 7, 6, 4 d. 3, 2, 4, 1, 5, 7, 6

ANS: D The steps for inserting an intravenous catheter are as follows: Apply tourniquet; select vein; release tourniquet; clean site; reapply tourniquet; insert vascular access device; and advance and secure. DIF:Apply (application)REF:971-974

41.Which assessment finding will the nurse expect for a patient with the following laboratory values: sodium 145 mEq/L, potassium 4.5 mEq/L, calcium 4.5 mg/dL? a. Weak quadriceps muscles b. Decreased deep tendon reflexes c. Light-headedness when standing up d. Tingling of extremities with possible tetany

ANS: D This patient has hypocalcemia because the normal calcium range is 8.4 to 10.5 mg/dL. Hypocalcemia causes muscle tetany, positive Chvostek's sign, and tingling of the extremities. Sodium and potassium values are within their normal ranges: sodium 135 to 145 mEq/L; potassium 3.5 to 5.0 mEq/L. Light-headedness when standing up is a manifestation of ECV deficit or sometimes hypokalemia. Weak quadriceps muscles are associated with potassium imbalances. Decreased deep tendon reflexes are related to hypercalcemia or hypermagnesemia. DIF:Analyze (analysis)REF:935 | 942 | 950

7. The nurse is caring for a group of postoperative patients on the surgical unit. Which patient assessments indicate the nurse needs to follow up? (Select all that apply.) a. Patient with abdominal surgery has patent airway. b. Patient with knee surgery has approximated incision. c. Patient with femoral artery surgery has strong pedal pulse. d. Patient with lung surgery has 20 mL/hr of urine output via catheter. e. Patient with bladder surgery has bloody urine within the first 12 hours. f. Patient with appendix surgery has thready pulse and blood pressure is 90/60.

ANS: D, F Thready pulse, low blood pressure, and urine output of 20 mL/hr need to have follow-up by the nurse. Hemorrhage results in a fall in blood pressure; elevated heart and respiratory rates; thready pulse; cool, clammy, pale skin; and restlessness. Notify the surgeon if these changes occur. If the patient has a urinary catheter, there should be a continuous flow of urine of approximately 30 to 50 mL/hr in adults; this patient requires follow-up since the output is 20 mL/hr. All the rest are normal findings. A patent airway, a strong distal pulse, and approximated incision are all normal findings. Surgery involving portions of the urinary tract normally causes bloody urine for at least 12 to 24 hours, depending on the type of surgery.