NSG 245 Ch 25- Assessment of Cardiovascular Function

The nurse admits an adult female client with a medical diagnosis of "rule out MI." The client is very frightened and expresses surprise that a woman would have heart problems. What response by the nurse will be most appropriate?

"A woman's heart is smaller and has smaller arteries that become occluded more easily." Because the coronary arteries of a woman are smaller, they become occluded from atherosclerosis more easily. The resting rate, stroke volume, and ejection fraction of a woman's heart are higher than those of a man. The electrical impulses from the sinoatrial node to the atrioventricular node are not different in the genders.

The nurse observes that a patient has 2+ pitting edema in the lower extremities. What does the nurse know that the presence of pitting edema indicates regarding fluid retention?

A weight gain of 10 lbs Pitting edema, in which indentations in the skin remain after even slight compression with the fingertips (Fig. 29-2), is generally obvious after retention of at least 4.5 kg (10 lb) of fluid (4.5 L).

A lipid profile has been ordered for a patient who has been experiencing cardiac symptoms. When should a lipid profile be drawn in order to maximize the accuracy of results?

After a 12-hour fast Although cholesterol levels remain relatively constant over 24 hours, the blood specimen for the lipid profile should be obtained after a 12-hour fast

What is the formula for pulse deficit?

Apical pulse rate - radial pulse rate = pulse deficit Pulse deficit is the difference between apical heart rate and peripheral pulse rates. Usually done with 2 nurses at the same time. Differences can indicate cardiac function problems, or coarctation of the aorta (narrowing of the aorta after it emerges from the heart)

The client states, "My doctor says that because I am now taking this water pill, I need to eat more foods that contain potassium. Can you give me some ideas about what foods would be good for this?" What is the appropriate response by the nurse?

Apricots, dried peas and beans, dates Explanation: Apricots, dried peas and beans, dates, and kiwi contain high amounts of potassium. The other foods listed contain minimal amounts.

The nurse working on a cardiac care unit is caring for a patient whose stroke volume has increased. The nurse is aware that afterload influences a patients stroke volume. The nurse recognizes that afterload is increased when there is what?

Arterial vasoconstriction Arterial vasoconstriction increases the systemic vascular resistance, which increases the afterload. Venous vasoconstriction decreases preload thereby decreasing stroke volume. Venous vasodilation increases preload.

The nurse is caring for a client on a monitored telemetry unit. During morning assessment, the nurse notes abnormal ECG waves on the telemetry monitor. Which action would the nurse do first?

Assess the client.

The nurse is caring for a patient who has central venous pressure (CVP) monitoring in place. The nurses most recent assessment reveals that CVP is 7 mm Hg. What is the nurses most appropriate action?

Assess the patient for fluid overload and inform the physician. The normal CVP is 2 to 6 mm Hg. Many problems can cause an elevated CVP, but the most common is due to hypervolemia. Assessing the patient and informing the physician are the most prudent actions. Repositioning the patient is ineffective and removing the device is inappropriate.

The nurse is caring for a client with an elevated blood pressure and no previous history of hypertension. At 0900, the blood pressure was 158/90 mm Hg. At 0930, the blood pressure is 142/82 mm Hg. The nurse is most correct when relating the fall in blood pressure to which structure?

Baroreceptors Baroreceptor sense pressure in nerve endings in the walls of the atria and major blood vessels. The baroreceptors respond accordingly to raise or lower the pressure. Chemoreceptors are sensitive to pH, CO2, and O2 in the blood. Sympathetic nerve fibers increase the heart rate. The vagus nerve slows the heart rate.

A nurse is describing the process by which blood is ejected into circulation as the chambers of the heart become smaller. The instructor categorizes this action of the heart as what?

Systole Systole is the action of the chambers of the heart becoming smaller and ejecting blood. This action of the heart is not diastole (relaxations), ejection fraction (the amount of blood expelled), or repolarization (electrical charging).

A patient recently diagnosed with pericarditis asks the nurse to explain what area of the heart is involved. How does the nurse best describe the pericardium to the client?

Thin fibrous sac that encases the heart.

The nurse is caring for a patient admitted with unstable angina. The laboratory result for the initial troponin I is elevated in this patient. The nurse should recognize what implication of this assessment finding?

This is an accurate indicator of myocardial injury. Troponin I, which is specific to cardiac muscle, is elevated within hours after myocardial injury. Even with a diagnosis of unstable angina, this is an accurate indicator of myocardial injury.

The nurse caring for a client who is suspected of having cardiovascular disease has a stress test ordered. The client has a co-morbidity of multiple sclerosis, so the nurse knows the stress test will be drug-induced. What drug will be used to dilate the coronary arteries?

Dobutamine Explanation: Drugs such as adenosine (Adenocard), dipyridamole (Persantine), or dobutamine (Dobutrex) may be administered singularly or in combination by the IV route. The drugs dilate the coronary arteries, similar to the vasodilation that occurs when a person exercises to increase the heart muscle's blood supply. The other options would not dilate the coronary arteries.

The nurse is assessing a patient's blood pressure. What does the nurse document as the difference between the systolic and the diastolic pressure?

Pulse pressure

The nurse is assessing a patient's blood pressure. What does the nurse document as the difference between the systolic and the diastolic pressure?

Pulse pressure Explanation: The difference between the systolic and the diastolic pressures is called the pulse pressure. (Systolic - diastolic = pulse pressure)

The clinic nurse is assessing a client's pulse before outpatient diagnostic testing. What should the nurse document when assessing the client's pulse?

Rate, quality, and rhythm

A patient is brought into the ED by family members who tell the nurse the patient grabbed his chest and complained of substernal chest pain. The care team recognizes the need to monitor the patients cardiac function closely while interventions are performed. What form of monitoring should the nurse anticipate?

Hardwire continuous ECG monitoring Two types of continuous ECG monitoring techniques are used in health care settings: hardwire cardiac monitoring, found in EDs, critical care units, and progressive care units; and telemetry, found in general nursing care units or outpatient cardiac rehabilitation programs. Cardiac catheterization and transesophageal echocardiography would not be used in emergent situations to monitor cardiac function.

The nurse is reviewing the results of the patient's echocardiogram and observes that the ejection fraction is 35%. The nurse anticipates that the patient will receive treatment for what condition?

Heart failure An ejection fraction of less than 40% indicates that the patient has decreased left ventricular function and likely requires treatment for heart failure.

A brain (B-type) natriuretic peptide (BNP) sample has been drawn from an older adult patient who has been experienced vital fatigue and shortness of breath. This test will allow the care team to investigate the possibility of what diagnosis?

Heart failure The level of BNP in the blood increases as the ventricular walls expand from increased pressure, making it a helpful diagnostic, monitoring, and prognostic tool in the setting of HF. It is not specific to cardiomyopathy, pleurisy, or valve dysfunction.

The critical care nurse is caring for a patient with a central venous pressure (CVP) monitoring system. The nurse notes that the patients CVP is increasing. Of what may this indicate?

Hypervolemia CVP is a useful hemodynamic parameter to observe when managing an unstable patients fluid volume status. An increasing pressure may be caused by hypervolemia or by a condition, such as heart failure, that results in decreased myocardial contractility. Stress, dislodgement of the catheter, and low magnesium levels would not typically result in increased CVP.

The nurse is reviewing the morning laboratory test results for a client with cardiac problems. Which finding is a priority to report to the healthcare provider?

K+ 3.1 mEq/L All laboratory levels are within normal limits except for the K+, which is low. A low K+ level can cause ventricular tachycardia or fibrillation.

The nurse is caring for a client who is scheduled for a transesophageal echocardiogram. What nursing intervention is a priority after the procedure?

Keep the head of the bed elevated 45 degrees and keep NPO until return of the gag reflex.

During a shift assessment, the nurse is identifying the clients point of maximum impulse (PMI). Where will the nurse best palpate the PMI?

Left midclavicular line of the chest at the fifth intercostal space The left ventricle is responsible for the apical beat or the point of maximum impulse, which is normally palpated in the left midclavicular line of the chest wall at the fifth intercostal space

A critical care nurse is caring for a patient with a pulmonary artery catheter in place. What does this catheter measure that is particularly important in critically ill patients?

Left ventricular preload Monitoring of the pulmonary artery diastolic and pulmonary artery wedge pressures is particularly important in critically ill patients because it is used to evaluate left ventricular filling pressures (i.e., left ventricular preload). This device does not directly measure the other listed aspects of cardiac function

After a physical examination, the provider diagnosed a patient with a grade 4 heart murmur. During assessment, the nurse expects to hear a murmur that is:

Loud and may be associated with a thrill sound similar to (a purring cat). Heart murmurs are characterized by location, timing, and intensity. A grading system is used to describe the intensity or loudness of a murmur. A grade 1 is very faint and difficult to describe, whereas a grade 6 is extremely loud. Refer to Box 12-3 in the text for a description of grades 1 to 6.

While the nurse is preparing a client for a cardiac catheterization, the client states that they have allergies to seafood. Which of the following medications may the nurse give prior to the procedure?

Methylprednisolone Prior to cardiac catheterization, the patient is assessed for previous reactions to contrast agents or allergies to iodine-containing substances, as some contrast agents contain iodine. If allergic reactions are of concern, antihistamines or methylprednisolone (Solu-Medrol) may be administered to the patient before angiography is performed.

The physical therapist notifies the nurse that a patient with coronary artery disease (CAD) experiences a much greater-than-average increase in heart rate during physical therapy. The nurse recognizes that an increase in heart rate in a patient with CAD may result in what?

Myocardial ischemia Unlike other arteries, the coronary arteries are perfused during diastole. An increase in heart rate shortens diastole and can decrease myocardial perfusion. Patients, particularly those with CAD, can develop myocardial ischemia. An increase in heart rate will not usually result in a pulmonary embolism or create electrolyte imbalances. Atrial-septal defects are congenital.

The client's heart rate is observed to be 140 bpm on the monitor. The nurse knows to monitor the client for what condition?

Myocardial ischemia Explanation: As heart rate increases, diastolic time is shortened, which may not allow adequate time for myocardial perfusion. As a result, clients are at risk for myocardial ischemia (inadequate oxygen supply) during tachycardias (heart rate greater than 100 bpm), especially clients with coronary artery disease.

A patient has had a myocardial infarction and has been diagnosed as having damage to the layer of the heart responsible for the pumping action. You are aware that the damage occurred where?

Myocardium The myocardium is the layer of the heart responsible for the pumping action.

The student nurse is preparing a teaching plan for a patient being discharged status post MI. What should the student include in the teaching plan? (Mark all that apply.)

Need for careful monitoring for cardiac symptoms Need for carefully regulated exercise Need for dietary modifications Dietary modifications, exercise, weight loss, and careful monitoring are important strategies for managing three major cardiovascular risk factors: hyperlipidemia, hypertension, and diabetes. There is no need to increase fluid intake and activity should be slowly and deliberately increased.

The nurse cares for a client with clubbing of the fingers and toes. The nurse should complete which action given these findings?

Obtain an oxygen saturation level. Clubbing of the fingers and toes indicates chronic hemoglobin desaturation (decreased oxygen supply) and is associated with congenital heart disease. The nurse should assess the client's O2 saturation level and intervene as directed

The critical care nurse is caring for a patient who has been experiencing bradycardia after cardiovascular surgery. The nurse knows that the heart rate is determined by myocardial cells with the fastest inherent firing rate. Under normal circumstances where are these cells located?

SA node The heart rate is determined by the myocardial cells with the fastest inherent firing rate. Under normal circumstances, the SA node has the highest inherent rate (60 to 100 impulses per minute).

The cardiac care nurse is reviewing the conduction system of the heart. The nurse is aware that electrical conduction of the heart usually originates in the SA node and then proceeds in what sequence?

SA node to AV node to bundle of His to Purkinje fibers The normal electrophysiological conduction route is SA node to AV node to bundle of HIS to Purkinje fibers.

The nurse observes a client during an exercise stress test (bicycle). Which finding indicates a positive test and the need for further diagnostic testing?

ST-segment changes on the ECG Explanation: During the test, the following are monitored: two or more ECG leads for heart rate, rhythm, and ischemic changes; blood pressure; skin temperature; physical appearance; perceived exertion; and symptoms, including chest pain, dyspnea, dizziness, leg cramping, and fatigue. The test is terminated when the target heart rate is achieved or if the client experiences signs of myocardial ischemia. Further diagnostic testing, such as a cardiac catheterization, may be warranted if the client develops chest pain, extreme fatigue, a decrease in blood pressure or pulse rate, serious dysrhythmias or ST-segment changes on the ECG during the stress test. The other findings would not warrant stopping the test.

A client reports recent onset of chest pain that occurs sporadically with exertion. The client also has fatigue and mild ankle swelling, which is most pronounced at the end of the day. The nurse suspects a cardiovascular disorder. What other client report increases the likelihood of a cardiovascular disorder?

Shortness of breath Common signs and symptoms of cardiovascular dysfunction include shortness of breath, chest pain, palpitations, fainting, fatigue, and peripheral edema. Insomnia seldom indicates a cardiovascular problem. Although irritability may occur if cardiovascular dysfunction leads to cerebral oxygen deprivation, this symptom more commonly reflects a respiratory or neurologic dysfunction. Lower substernal abdominal pain occurs with some GI disorders.

A nurse is aware that the patient's heart rate is influenced by many factors. The nurse understands that the heart rate can be decreased by:

Stimulation of the vagus nerve. Explanation: Parasympathetic impulses, which travel to the heart through the vagus nerve, can slow the cardiac rate. The other choices cause an increase in heart rate.

The nurse is caring for a patient who is undergoing an exercise stress test. Prior to reaching the target heart rate, the patient develops chest pain. What is the nurses most appropriate response?

Stop the test and monitor the patient closely Signs of myocardial ischemia would necessitate stopping the test. CPR would only be necessary if signs of cardiac or respiratory arrest were evident.

What is the term for the ability of the cardiac muscle to shorten in response to an electrical impulse?

contractility Contractility is the ability of the cardiac muscle to shorten in response to an electrical impulse. Depolarization is the electrical activation of a cell caused by the influx of sodium into the cell while potassium exits the cell. Repolarization is the return of the cell to the resting state, caused by reentry of potassium into the cell while sodium exits the cell. Diastole is the period of ventricular relaxation resulting in ventricular filling.

The nurse is caring for an 82-year-old patient. The nurse knows that changes in cardiac structure and function occur in older adults. What is a normal change expected in the aging heart of an older adult?

Widening of the aorta Changes in cardiac structure and function are clearly observable in the aging heart. Aging results in decreased elasticity and widening of the aorta, thickening and rigidity of the cardiac valves, increased connective tissue in the SA and AV nodes and bundle branches, and an increased left ventricular ejection time (prolonged systole).

The cardiologist has scheduled a client for drug-induced stress testing. What instructions should the nurse provide to prepare the client for this test?

You will receive medication via IV administration. Explanation: Drugs such as adenosine (Adenocard), dipyridamole (Persantine), or dobutamine (Dobutrex) may be administered singularly or in combination by the IV route. Drugs may be used to stress the heart for clients with sedentary lifestyles or those with a physical disability, such as severe arthritis, that interferes with exercise testing. Drug-induced stress testing does not require the client to exercise. Instead, drugs are used to stress the heart. Clients performing exercise electrocardiography should report chest pain, dizziness, leg cramps, or weakness if they experience them during the test.

For both outpatients and inpatients scheduled for diagnostic procedures of the cardiovascular system, the nurse performs a thorough initial assessment to establish accurate baseline data. Which data is necessary to collect if the client is experiencing chest pain?

description of the pain

Within the heart, several structures and several layers all play a part in protecting the heart muscle and maintaining cardiac function. The inner layer of the heart is composed of a thin, smooth layer of cells, the folds of which form heart valves. What is the name of this layer of cardiac tissue?

endocardium The inner layer, the endocardium, is composed of a thin, smooth layer of endothelial cells. Folds of endocardium form the heart valves. The middle layer, the myocardium, consists of muscle tissue and is the force behind the heart's pumping action. The pericardium is a saclike structure that surrounds and supports the heart. The outer layer, the epicardium, is composed of fibrous and loose connective tissue.

The nurse auscultates the apex beat at which anatomical location?

fifth intercostal space, midclavicular line The left ventricle is responsible for the apex beat or the point of maximum impulse, which is normally palpable in the left midclavicular line of the chest wall at the fifth intercostal space. The right ventricle lies anteriorly, just beneath the sternum. Use of inches to identify the location of the apex beat is inappropriate based upon variations in human anatomy. Auscultation below and to the left of the xiphoid process will detect gastrointestinal sounds, but not the apex beat of the heart.

Age-related changes associated with the cardiac system include which conditions? Select all that apply.

increased size of the left atrium endocardial fibrosis myocardial thinning Explanation: Age-related changes associated with the cardiac system include endocardial fibrosis, increased size of the left atrium, decreased number of SA node cells, and myocardial thickening.

During auscultation of the lungs, what would a nurse note when assessing a client with left-sided heart failure?

wheezes with wet lung sounds If the left side of the heart fails to pump efficiently, blood backs up into the pulmonary veins and lung tissue. For abnormal and normal breath sounds, the nurse auscultates the lungs. With left-sided congestive heart failure, auscultation reveals a crackling sound, wheezes, and gurgles. Wet lung sounds are accompanied by dyspnea and an effort to sit up to breathe. With left-sided congestive heart failure, auscultation does not reveal a high pitched sound.

What does decreased (narrowed) pulse pressure reflect?

reduced stroke volume The most common cause of decreased pulse pressure is reduced stroke volume. It can also be caused by reduced ejection velocity, significant blood loss (reduced preload/low CO) or obstruction to blood flow during systole.

Before a transesophageal echocardiogram, a nurse gives a client an oral topical anesthetic spray. When the client returns from the procedure, the nurse observes no active gag reflex. What nursing action is a priority?

withhold food and fluids.

The nurse is reviewing the laboratory results for a client with heart failure. Which laboratory value will the nurse report to the health care provider?

sodium 148 mEq/L Explanation: Normal sodium levels are between 135 and 145 mEq/L, so the sodium value is abnormal. The remaining values are normal. Normal potassium levels range from 3.5 to 5.0 mEq/L. The normal range for calcium level is 8.5 to 10.5 mg/dL. Normal magnesium levels range from 1.8 to 3.0 mg/dL.

The nurse cares for a client prescribed warfarin orally. The nurse reviews the client's prothrombin time (PT) level to evaluate the effectiveness of the medication. Which laboratory values should the nurse also evaluate?

international normalized ratio (INR) The INR, reported with the PT, provides a standard method for reporting PT levels and eliminates the variation of PT results from different laboratories. The INR, rather than the PT alone, is used to monitor the effectiveness of warfarin. The therapeutic range for INR is 2 to 3.5, although specific ranges vary based on diagnosis. The other laboratory values are not used to evaluate the effectiveness of warfarin.

Each chamber of the heart has a particular role in maintaining cellular oxygenation. Which chamber is responsible for receiving oxygenated blood from the lungs?

left atrium The left atrium receives oxygenated blood from the lungs. The left ventricle pumps that blood to all the cells and tissues of the body. The right atrium receives deoxygenated blood from the venous system. The right ventricle pumps that blood to the lungs to be oxygenated.

Each chamber of the heart has a particular role in maintaining cellular oxygenation. Which chamber is responsible for pumping blood to all the cells and tissues of the body?

left ventricle

The nurse is calculating a cardiac patients pulse pressure. If the patients blood pressure is 122/76 mm Hg, what is the patients pulse pressure?

46 mm Hg Pulse pressure is the difference between the systolic and diastolic pressure. In this case, this value is 46 mm Hg.

A nurse is preparing a patient for scheduled transesophageal echocardiography. What action should the nurse perform?

Inform the patient that she will remain on bed rest following the procedure. During the recovery period, the patient must maintain bed rest with the head of the bed elevated to 45 degrees. The patient must be NPO 6 hours preprocedure. The patient is sedated to make him or her comfortable, but will not be heavily sedated, and opioids are not necessary. Also, the patient will have a peripheral IV line initiated preprocedure.

During an initial assessment, the nurse measures the client's apical pulse and compares it to the peripheral pulse. The difference between the two is known as pulse:

deficit. To determine the pulse deficit, one nurse counts the heart rate through auscultation at the apex while a second nurse simultaneously palpates and counts the radial pulse for a full minute. The difference, if any, is the pulse deficit. Pulse rhythm is the pattern of the pulsations and the pauses between them. Pulse volume is described as feeling full, weak, or thready, meaning barely palpable. The pulse quality refers to its palpated volume.

The nurse reviews discharge instructions with a client who underwent a left groin cardiac catheterization 8 hours ago. Which instructions should the nurse include?

"Do not bend at the waist, strain, or lift heavy objects for the next 24 hours." The nurse should instruct the client to follow these guidelines: For the next 24 hours, do not bend at the waist, strain, or lift heavy objects if the artery of the groin was used; contact the primary provider if swelling, new bruising or pain from the procedure puncture site, or a temperature of 101°F or more occur. If bleeding occurs, lie down (groin approach) and apply firm pressure to the puncture site for 10 minutes. Notify the primary provider as soon as possible and follow instructions. If there is a large amount of bleeding, call 911. The client should not drive to the hospital.

While being prepared for echocardiography, the client asks nurse why this test is necessary. What would be the nurse's best response?

"Echocardiography is a way of determining the functioning of the left ventricle of your heart." Explanation: Echocardiography uses ultrasound waves to determine the functioning of the left ventricle and to detect cardiac tumors, congenital defects, and changes in the tissue layers of the heart. Explaining the procedure is the best answer because it addresses the client's question without making the client anxious or minimizing the question.

You are doing an admission assessment on a client who is having outpatient testing done for cardiac problems. What should you ask this client during your assessment?

"Have you had any episodes of dizziness or fainting?"

The nurse is assessing vital signs on a client who is 3 months status post myocardial infarction (MI). While the healthcare provider is examining the client, the client's spouse approaches the nurse and states "We are too afraid he will have another heart attack, so we just don't have sex anymore." What is the nurse's best response?

"The physiologic demands are greatest during orgasm and are equivalent to walking 3 to 4 miles per hour on a treadmill."

The patient has a homocysteine level ordered. What aspects of this test should inform the nurses care? Select all that apply

A 12-hour fast is necessary before drawing the blood sample. Genetic factors can elevate homocysteine levels A diet low in folic acid elevates homocysteine levels. Genetic factors and a diet low in folic acid, vitamin B6 , and vitamin B12 are associated with elevated homocysteine levels. A 12-hour fast is necessary before drawing a blood sample for an accurate serum measurement. An ECG is unnecessary and recent inactivity does not influence the results of the test.

While auscultating a patients heart sounds, the nurse hears an extra heart sound immediately after the second heart sound (S2 ). An audible S3 would be considered an expected finding in what patient?

A 20-year-old patient S3 represents a normal finding in children and adults up to 35 or 40 years of age. In these cases, it is called a physiologic S3 . It is an abnormal finding in a patient with an artificial valve, an older adult, or a patient who takes a beta blocker.

The following clients are in need of exercise electrocardiography. Which client would the nurse indicate as most appropriate for a drug-induced stress test?

A 55-year-old recovering from a fall and broken femur Explanation: An exercise electrocardiography or stress test monitors the electrical activity of the heart while the client walks on a treadmill. If a client has a sedentary lifestyle or physical disability, cardiac medications may be administered to stress the heart similar to activity. Even though the client is middle aged at 55 years old, the client is recovering from a broken femur thus would be unable to have vigorous exercise. None of the other clients have a history which precludes them from exercise electrocardiography.

The nurse is caring for a patient who has a history of heart disease. What factor should the nurse identify as possibly contributing to a decrease in cardiac output?

A heart rate of 54 bpm Cardiac output is computed by multiplying the stroke volume by the heart rate. Cardiac output can be affected by changes in either stroke volume or heart rate, such as a rate of 54 bpm. An increase in preload will lead to an increase in stroke volume. A pulse oximetry reading of 94% does not indicate hypoxemia, as hypoxia can decrease contractility. Transitioning from standing to sitting would more likely increase rather than decrease cardiac output.

The nurse is assessing a patient who reports feeling "light-headed." When obtaining orthostatic vital signs, what does the nurse determine is a significant finding?

A heart rate of more than 20 bpm above the resting rate Explanation: Normal postural responses that occur when a person moves from a lying to a standing position include (1) a heart rate increase of 5 to 20 bpm above the resting rate; (2) an unchanged systolic pressure, or a slight decrease of up to 10 mm Hg; and (3) a slight increase of 5 mm Hg in diastolic pressure. Postural (orthostatic) hypotension is a sustained decrease of at least 20 mm Hg in systolic BP or 10 mm Hg in diastolic BP within 3 minutes of moving from a lying or sitting to a standing position (Freeman et al., 2011). It is usually accompanied by dizziness, lightheadedness, or syncope.

When hemodynamic monitoring is ordered for a patient, a catheter is inserted into the appropriate blood vessel or heart chamber. When assessing a patient who has such a device in place, the nurse should check which of the following components? Select all that apply

A transducer A flush system A pressure bag To perform hemodynamic monitoring, a CVP, pulmonary artery, or arterial catheter is introduced into the appropriate blood vessel or heart chamber. It is connected to a pressure monitoring system that has several components. Included among these are a transducer, a flush system, and a pressure bag. A pressure monitoring system does not have a leveler or an oscillator.

The nurse is doing discharge teaching with a patient who has coronary artery disease. The patient asks why he has to take an aspirin every day if he doesnt have any pain. What would be the nurses best response?

An aspirin a day can help prevent some of the blockages that can cause chest pain or heart attacks. An aspirin a day is a common nonprescription medication that improves outcomes in patients with CAD due to its antiplatelet action. It does not affect oxygen carrying capacity or perfusion. Aspirin does not restore cardiac function.

The nurse is providing discharge education for a client going home after cardiac catheterization. What information is a priority to include when providing discharge education?

Avoid tub baths, but shower as desired. Explanation: Guidelines for self-care after hospital discharge following a cardiac catheterization include showering as desired (no tub baths) and avoiding bending at the waist and lifting heavy objects. The healthcare provider will indicate when it is okay to return to work. The client should notify the healthcare provider right away if bleeding, new bruising, swelling, or pain are noted at the puncture site. The client will be able to ambulate after the puncture site has clotted.

A nurse is checking laboratory values on a client who has crackles in the lower lobes, 2+ pitting edema, and dyspnea with minimal exertion. Which laboratory value does the nurse expect to be abnormal?

B-type natriuretic peptide (BNP) The client's symptoms suggest heart failure. BNP is a neurohormone that's released from the ventricles when the ventricles experience increased pressure and stretch, such as in heart failure. A BNP level greater than 51 pg/ml is commonly associated with mild heart failure. As the BNP level increases, the severity of heart failure increases. Potassium levels aren't affected by heart failure. CRP is an indicator of inflammation. It's used to help predict the risk of coronary artery disease. There is no indication that the client has an increased CRP. There is no indication that the client is experiencing bleeding abnormalities, such as those seen with an abnormal platelet count.

The nurse is assessing an older adult's cardiovascular system. Which assessment finding indicates to the nurse that the client is experiencing age-related changes to the conduction system? Select all that apply.

Bradycardia Exercise intolerance Explanation: An age-related change to the conduction system of the cardiovascular system includes bradycardia. This is caused by a slower sinoatrial node rate of impulse discharge that slows conduction across the atrioventricular node and ventricular conductive system. Bradycardia can contribute to exercise intolerance, so this is also a potential sign of age-related change to the conduction system. Changes to the cardiac valves causes abnormal blood flow across the valves which may lead to the development of murmurs. Age-related changes to the left ventricle, not the conduction system, can cause the development of an S4 and displacement of the point of maximum impulse to the left.

The nurse is caring for an acutely ill patient who has central venous pressure monitoring in place. What intervention should be included in the care plan of a patient with CVP in place?

Change the site dressing whenever it becomes visibly soiled. Gauze dressings should be changed every 2 days or transparent dressings at least every 7 days and whenever dressings become damp, loosened, or visibly soiled. Passive ROM exercise is not indicated and it is unnecessary and inappropriate to aspirate blood to test it for pH. Antibiotic ointments are contraindicated.

The nurse is caring for a patient admitted with angina who is scheduled for cardiac catheterization. The patient is anxious and asks the reason for this test. What is the best response?

Cardiac catheterization is usually done to assess how blocked or open a patients coronary arteries are. Cardiac catheterization is usually used to assess coronary artery patency to determine if revascularization procedures are necessary. A thallium stress test shows myocardial ischemia after stress. An ECG shows the electrical activity of the heart.

The nurse is caring for a client with a damaged tricuspid valve. The nurse knows that the tricuspid valve is held in place by which of the following?

Chordae tendineae Attached to the mitral and tricuspid valves are cordlike structures known as chordae tendineae, which in turn attach to papillary muscles, two major muscular projections from the ventricles.

The nurse prepares to apply ECG electrodes to a male client who requires continuous cardiac monitoring. Which action should the nurse complete to optimize skin adherence and conduction of the heart's electrical current?

Clip the client's chest hair prior to applying the electrodes. The nurse should complete the following actions when applying cardiac electrodes: (1) Clip (do not shave) hair from around the electrode site, if needed; (2) if the client is diaphoretic (sweaty), apply a small amount of benzoin to the skin, avoiding the area under the center of the electrode; (3) debride the skin surface of dead cells with soap and water and dry well (or as recommended by the manufacturer); (4) change the electrodes every 24 to 48 hours (or as recommended by the manufacturer); (5) examine the skin for irritation and apply the electrodes to different locations.

A nurse assessing a client who underwent cardiac catheterization finds the client lying flat on the bed. The client's temperature is 99.8° F (37.7° C). The client's blood pressure is 104/68 mm Hg. The client's pulse rate is 76 beats/minute. The nurse detects weak pulses in the leg distal to the puncture site. Skin on the leg is cool to the touch. The puncture site is dry, but swollen. What is the most appropriate action for the nurse to take?

Contact the health care provider and report the findings. The client is probably developing a hematoma at the puncture site. The decreased pulses, swelling, and cool temperature in the leg are all classic signs that blood flow to that extremity is compromised. The nurse should notify the health care provider immediately to preserve the blood flow in the client's leg. Documenting findings and checking the client again in 1 hour, slowing the I.V. fluid, and encouraging the client to perform isometric leg exercises aren't appropriate actions for the nurse to take at this time.

A nurse is caring for a client with a central venous pressure (CVP) of 4 mm Hg. Which nursing intervention is appropriate?

Continue to monitor the client as ordered. Explanation: Normal CVP ranges from 2 to 6 mm Hg. The nurse doesn't need to take any action other than to monitor the client. It isn't necessary to re-zero the equipment. Calling a health care provider and obtaining an order for a fluid bolus would be an appropriate intervention if the client has a CVP less than 2 mm Hg. Administering a diuretic would be appropriate if the client had excess fluid, as demonstrated by a CVP greater than 6 mm Hg. (Note: normal values can vary by reference source.)

The clinic nurse caring for a client with a cardiovascular disorder is performing an assessment of the client's pulse. Which of the following steps is involved in determining the pulse deficit?

Count the heart rate at the apex. The nurse determines the pulse deficit by counting the heart rate through auscultation at the apex while a second nurse simultaneously palpates and counts the radial pulse for a full minute. The difference, if any, is the pulse deficit. The pulse quality refers to its palpated volume. Pulse rhythm is the pattern of the pulsations and the pauses between them.

The nurse is performing an assessment of a clients peripheral pulses and indicates that the pulse quality is +1 on a scale of 0-4. What does this documented finding indicate?

Difficult to palpate and is obliterated with pressure. The quality of pulses is reported using descriptors and a scale of 0 to 4. The lower the number, the weaker the pulse and the easier it is to obliterate it. A +1 pulse is weak and thready and easily obliterated with pressure.

A patient has been diagnosed with congestive heart failure (CHF). The health care provider has ordered a medication to enhance contractility. The nurse would expect which medication to be prescribed for the patient?

Digoxin Contractility is enhanced by circulating catecholamines, sympathetic neuronal activity, and certain medications, such as Lanoxin. Increased contractility results in increased stroke volume.

The nurse is caring for a geriatric client. The client is ordered Lanoxin (digoxin) tablets 0.125mg daily for a cardiac dysrhythmia. Which of the following assessment considerations is essential when caring for this client?

Digoxin level The action of Digoxin slows and strengthens the heart rate. Assessment of the pulse rate is essential prior to administration in all clients. Due to decreased perfusion common in geriatric clients, toxicity may occur more often. The nurse must monitor Digoxin levels in the body. Monitoring symptoms reflecting cardiac output, activity level, and dyspnea are also important assessment considerations for all clients.

When caring for a client with dysfunction in the conduction system, at which period would the nurse note that cells are resistant to stimulation?

During the refractory period Explanation: The refractory period is the time when cells are resistant to electrical stimulation. Repolarization is when the ions realign themselves to wait for an electrical signal. Depolarization occurs during muscle contraction when positive ions move inside the myocardial cell membrane and negative ions move outside. Before an impulse is generated, the cells are in a polarized state.

The client with a diagnosis of heart failure reports frequently awakening during the night with the need to urinate. What explanation will the nurse offer to explain the urination?

Edema is collected in dependent extremities during the day; at night when the client lays down, it is reabsorbed into the circulation and excreted by the kidneys. Nocturia is common in patients with heart failure. Fluid collected in dependent areas during the day is reabsorbed into the circulation at night when the client is recumbent. The kidneys excrete more urine with the increased circulating volume. The client's sleeping position does not cause bladder constriction and increased urination. The client's blood pressure is not causing more urination. The fluid in the client's lungs does not move to the kidneys at night.

Which area of the heart that is located at the third intercostal space to the left of the sternum?

Erb point Explanation: Erb point is located at the third intercostal space to the left of the sternum. The aortic area is located at the second intercostal space to the right of the sternum. The pulmonic area is at the second intercostal space to the left of the sternum. The epigastric area is located below the xiphoid process.

A patient has been scheduled for cardiovascular computed tomography (CT) with contrast. To prepare the patient for this test, what action should the nurse perform?

Establish peripheral IV access. An IV is necessary if contrast is to be used to enhance the images of the CT. The patient does not need to fast or limit his or her activity. Incentive spirometry is not relevant to this diagnostic test.

The nurse is relating the deficits in a patients synchronization of the atrial and ventricular events to his diagnosis. What are the physiologic characteristics of the nodal and Purkinje cells that provide this synchronization? Select all that apply.

Excitability Automaticity Conductivity Three physiologic characteristics of two types of specialized electrical cells, the nodal cells and the Purkinje cells, provide this synchronization: automaticity, or the ability to initiate an electrical impulse; excitability, or the ability to respond to an electrical impulse; and conductivity, the ability to transmit an electrical impulse from one cell to another. Loop connectivity is a distracter for this question. Independence of the cells has nothing to do with the synchronization described in the scenario.

A nurse is completing a head to toe assessment on a client diagnosed with right-sided heart failure. To assess peripheral edema, which of the following areas should be examined?

Feet and ankles When right-sided heart failure occurs, blood accumulates in the vessels and backs up in peripheral veins, and the extra fluid enters the tissues. Particular areas for examination are the dependent parts of the body, such as the feet and ankles. Other prominent areas prone to edema are the fingers, hands, and over the sacrum. Cyanosis can be detected by noting color changes in the lips and earlobes.

The nurse reviews a client's lab results and notes a serum calcium level of 7.9 mg/dL. It is most appropriate for the nurse to monitor the client for what condition?

Impaired myocardial contractility Normal serum calcium is 8.9 to 10.3 mg/dL. A reading of 7.9 is below normal. Hypocalcemia is associated with slow nodal functioning and impaired myocardial contractility, which can increase the risk of heart failure.

The nurse is conducting patient teaching about cholesterol levels. When discussing the patients elevated LDL and lowered HDL levels, the patient shows an understanding of the significance of these levels by stating what?

Increased LDL and decreased HDL increase my risk of coronary artery disease. Elevated LDL levels and decreased HDL levels are associated with a greater incidence of coronary artery disease.

What does increased (widened) pulse pressure reflect?

Increased stroke volume Increased pulse pressure would indicate stiffness of the major arteries along with bradycardia, aortic regurgitation, or AV malformation. Widening pulse pressure causes: anemia, aortic dissection, atherosclerosis, AV fistula, aortic regurgitation, aortic aneurysm, beri beri, distributive shock, endocarditis, fever, heart block, increased ICP, PDA, pregnancy, hyperthyroidism, thyrotoxicosis Cushing's triad (for increased ICP) = high pulse pressure + bradycardia + irregular breathing pattern

The physician has ordered a high-sensitivity C-reactive protein (hs-CRP) drawn on a patient. The results of this test will allow the nurse to evaluate the role of what process that is implicated in the development of atherosclerosis?

Inflammation High-sensitivity CRP is a protein produced by the liver in response to systemic inflammation. Inflammation is thought to play a role in the development and progression of atherosclerosis.

Which assessments should a nurse perform when caring for a client following a cardiac catheterization? Select all that apply.

Monitor BP and pulse frequently. Inspect pressure dressing for signs of bleeding. Palpate the pulse in different locations. After a cardiac catheterization, the nurse monitors BP and pulse frequently to detect complications, checks the dressing over the insertion site frequently for signs of bleeding, palpates the pulse in various locations, and checks the color and temperature in the affected extremity to confirm that blood is circulating well.

You are working on a telemetry unit. Your client was admitted with a cardiac event and is now on a cardiac monitor. You know a cardiac monitor reveals the heart's electrical but not its mechanical activity. How would you assess the mechanical activity of the client's heart?

Palpate a peripheral pulse. Explanation: A cardiac monitor reveals the heart's electrical but not its mechanical activity. The healthcare provider must palpate a peripheral pulse or auscultate the apical heart rate to obtain this information. You cannot obtain information on the mechanical activity of the heart by taking the client's blood pressure, auscultating the carotid artery, or attempting to percuss the perimeter of the heart.

A critically ill patient is admitted to the ICU. The physician decides to use intra-arterial pressure monitoring. After this intervention is performed, what assessment should the nurse prioritize in the plan of care?

Perfusion distal to the insertion site The radial artery is the usual site selected. However, placement of a catheter into the radial artery can further impede perfusion to an area that has poor circulation. As a result, the tissue distal to the cannulated artery can become ischemic or necrotic. Vigilant assessment is thus necessary. Alterations in temperature and the development of esophageal varices or compartment syndrome are not high risks.

A critical care nurse is caring for a patient with a hemodynamic monitoring system in place. For what complications should the nurse assess? Select all that apply.

Pneumothorax Infection Air embolism Complications from use of hemodynamic monitoring systems are uncommon, but can include pneumothorax, infection, and air embolism. Complications of hemodynamic monitoring systems do not include atelectasis or bronchospasm

The physician has placed a central venous pressure (CVP) monitoring line in an acutely ill patient so right ventricular function and venous blood return can be closely monitored. The results show decreased CVP. What does this indicate?

Possible hypovolemia Hypovolemia may cause a decreased CVP. MI, valve regurgitation and heart failure are less likely causes of decreased CVP.

The critical care nurse is caring for a patient who has had an MI. The nurse should expect to assist with establishing what hemodynamic monitoring procedure to assess the patients left ventricular function?

Pulmonary artery pressure monitoring (PAPM) PAPM is used to assess left ventricular function. CVP is used to assess right ventricular function; SAPM is used for continual assessment of BP. ABG are used to assess for acidic and alkalotic levels in the blood.

The nurse is discharging a client after a cardiac catheterization. What would the nurse include in the discharge teaching?

Report any numbness, tingling, or sharp pain in the extremity. Explanation: Instructions for the client and family include: Keep the extremity straight for several hours and avoid movement; Report any warm, wet feeling that may indicate oozing blood, numbness, tingling, or sharp pain in the extremity; Drink a large volume of fluid to relieve thirst and promote the excretion of the dye. There is no need to eat only soft foods after a cardiac catheterization.

The nurse is caring for a client with nursing diagnosis of ineffective tissue perfusion. Which area of the heart would the nurse anticipate being compromised?

Right ventricle Explanation: There are four chambers to the heart. The right and left ventricles are the heart's major pumping chamber. The right ventricle pumps to the lungs to oxygenate the blood. The left ventricle pumps blood to the tissues and cells. The pulmonary artery and aorta are not of the heart.

It is important for a nurse to understand cardiac hemodynamics. For blood to flow from the right ventricle to the pulmonary artery, the following must occur:

Right ventricular pressure must be higher than pulmonary arterial pressure.

The nurses assessment of an older adult client reveals the following data: Lying BP 144/82 mm Hg; sitting BP 121/69 mm Hg; standing BP 98/56 mm Hg. The nurse should consequently identify what nursing diagnosis in the patients plan of care?

Risk for falls related to orthostatic hypotension Orthostatic hypotension creates a significant risk for falls due to the dizziness and lightheadedness that accompanies it. It does not normally affect breathing or fluid balance. The patients ability to perform normal roles may be affected, but the risk for falls is the most significant threat to safety.

The nurse is assessing heart sounds in a patient with heart failure. An abnormal heart sound is detected early in diastole. How would the nurse document this?

S3 Explanation: An S3 ("DUB") is heard early in diastole during the period of rapid ventricular filling as blood flows from the atrium into a noncompliant ventricle. It is heard immediately after S2. "Lub-dub-DUB" is used to imitate the abnormal sound of a beating heart when an S3 is present.

The nurse is discussing the cardiac system with a client admitted with heart failure. The client asks "What determines the heart rate?" What is the nurse's best response?

The autonomic nervous system controls the heart rate. The autonomic nervous system primarily controls the heart rate. When the sympathetic branch is stimulated, heart rate increases. When the parasympathetic branch is stimulated, heart rate decreases. Stroke volume is the amount of blood pumped out of the ventricle with each contraction and depends on three factors: preload, afterload, and contractility.

A patients declining cardiac status has been attributed to decreased cardiac action potential. Interventions will be aimed at restoring what aspect of cardiac physiology?

The cycle of depolarization and repolarization This exchange of ions creates a positively charged intracellular space and a negatively charged extracellular space that characterizes the period known as depolarization. Once depolarization is complete, the exchange of ions reverts to its resting state; this period is known as repolarization. The repeated cycle of depolarization and repolarization is called the cardiac action potential.

A resident of a long-term care facility has complained to the nurse of chest pain. What aspect of the residents pain would be most suggestive of angina as the cause?

The pain occurs immediately following physical exertion Chest pain associated with angina is often precipitated by physical exertion. The other listed aspects of chest pain are more closely associated with noncardiac etiologies.

A patient with a complex cardiac history is scheduled for transthoracic echocardiography. What should the nurse teach the patient in anticipation of this diagnostic procedure?

The test is noninvasive, and nothing will be inserted into the patients body. Before transthoracic echocardiography, the nurse informs the patient about the test, explaining that it is painless. The test does not evaluate electrophysiology and bed rest is unnecessary after the procedure

The patient has a heart rate of 72 bpm with a regular rhythm. Where does the nurse determine the impulse arises from?

The sinoatrial node The sinoatrial node, the primary pacemaker of the heart, in a normal resting adult heart has an inherent firing rate of 60 to 100 impulses per minute; however, the rate changes in response to the metabolic demands of the body (Weber & Kelley, 2010).

The critical care nurse is caring for a patient with a pulmonary artery pressure monitoring system. The nurse is aware that pulmonary artery pressure monitoring is used to assess left ventricular function. What is an additional function of pulmonary artery pressure monitoring systems?

To assess the patients response to fluid and drug administration Pulmonary artery pressure monitoring is an important tool used in critical care for assessing left ventricular function (cardiac output), diagnosing the etiology of shock, and evaluating the patients response to medical interventions, such as fluid administration and vasoactive medications. Pulmonary artery monitoring is preferred for the patient with heart failure over central venous pressure monitoring. Arterial catheters are useful when arterial blood gas measurements and blood samples need to be obtained frequently. Neither intervention is used to clear pulmonary emboli.

The nurse is performing an intake assessment on a patient with a new diagnosis of coronary artery disease. What would be the most important determination to make during this intake assessment?

Whether the patient and involved family members are able to recognize symptoms of an acute cardiac problem and respond appropriately During the health history, the nurse needs to determine if the patient and involved family members are able to recognize symptoms of an acute cardiac problem, such as acute coronary syndrome (ACS) or HF, and seek timely treatment for these symptoms. Each of the other listed topics is valid, but the timely and appropriate response to a cardiac emergency is paramount.

The nurse cares for a client with an intra-arterial blood pressure monitoring device. The nurse recognizes the most preventable complication associated with hemodynamic monitoring includes which condition?

catheter-related bloodstream infections Explanation: Catheter-related bloodstream infections (CRBSIs) are the most common preventable complication associated with hemodynamic monitoring systems. Comprehensive guidelines for the prevention of these infections have been published by Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC). Complications from use of hemodynamic monitoring systems are uncommon and can include pneumothorax, infection, and air embolism. A pneumothorax may occur during the insertion of catheters using a central venous approach (CVP and pulmonary artery catheters). Air emboli can be introduced into the vascular system if the stopcocks attached to the pressure transducers are mishandled during blood drawing, administration of medications, or other procedures that require opening the system to air.

Which area of the heart is located at the third intercostal (IC) space to the left of the sternum?

erb point Erb point is located at the third IC space to the left of the sternum. The aortic area is located at the second IC space to the right of the sternum. The pulmonic area is at the second IC space to the left of the sternum. The epigastric area is located below the xiphoid process.

The nurse cares for a client in the emergency department who has a B-type natriuretic peptide (BNP) level of 115 pg/mL. The nurse recognizes that this finding is most indicative of which condition?

heart failure Explanation: A BNP level greater than 100 pg/mL is suggestive of heart failure. Because this serum laboratory test can be quickly obtained, BNP levels are useful for prompt diagnosis of heart failure in settings such as the emergency department. Elevations in BNP can occur from a number of other conditions such as pulmonary embolus, myocardial infarction (MI), and ventricular hypertrophy. Therefore, the healthcare provider correlates BNP levels with abnormal physical assessment findings and other diagnostic tests before making a definitive diagnosis of heart failure.

A client describes chest pain as sharp, substernal, of intermittent duration, and radiating to the arms and back. The client says the pain increases with inspiration and swallowing and is alleviated when sitting upright. What does the nurse suspect the client may be experiencing?

pericarditis Chest pain described as a sharp, substernal, of intermittent duration, and radiating to the arms and back that increases with inspiration and swallowing and is alleviated when sitting upright is pericarditis. Angina pectoris pain is often described as a squeezing, pressure, heaviness, tightness, or pain in the chest. Panic attack pain is not always relieved with sitting upright. A client with dissecting aorta experiences back and abdominal pain not relieved with sitting upright.

The nurse correctly identifies which data as an example of blood pressure and heart rate measurements in a client with postural hypotension?

supine: BP 120/70 mm Hg, HR 70 bpm; sitting: BP 100/55 mm Hg, HR 90 bpm; standing: BP 98/52 mm Hg, HR 94 bpm Postural (orthostatic) hypotension is a sustained decrease of at least 20 mm Hg in systolic BP or 10 mm Hg in diastolic BP within 3 minutes of moving from a lying or sitting position to a standing position. The following is an example of BP and HR measurements in a client with postural hypotension: supine: BP 120/70 mm Hg, HR 70 bpm; sitting: BP 100/55 mm Hg, HR 90 bpm; standing: BP 98/52 mm Hg, HR 94 bpm. Normal postural responses that occur when a person moves from a lying to a standing position include (1) a HR increase of 5 to 20 bpm above the resting rate; (2) an unchanged systolic pressure, or a slight decrease of up to 10 mm Hg; and (3) a slight increase of 5 mm Hg in diastolic pressure.