NSG 245 Ch 27- Management Coronary Vascular Disorders

A client is receiving intravenous heparin to prevent blood clots. The order is for heparin 1,200 units per hour. The pharmacy sends 25,000 units of heparin in 500 mL of D5W. At how many milliliters per hour will the nurse infuse this solution? Record your answer using a whole number.

24 ml/hr

A patient is recovering in the hospital from cardiac surgery. The nurse has identified the diagnosis of risk for ineffective airway clearance related to pulmonary secretions. What intervention best addresses this risk?

Patients consistent performance of deep breathing and coughing exercises Clearance of pulmonary secretions is accomplished by frequent repositioning of the patient, suctioning, and chest physical therapy, as well as educating and encouraging the patient to breathe deeply and cough. Medications are not normally used to achieve this goal. Rehabilitation is important, but will not necessarily aid the mobilization of respiratory secretions.

The client asks the nurse to explain the difference between arteriosclerosis and atherosclerosis. Which is the best explanation the nurse can give to the client?

"Arteriosclerosis is a loss of elasticity of the arteries that accompanies the aging process, whereas atherosclerosis is a condition in which the arteries fill with plaque." Explanation: Arteriosclerosis refers to the loss of elasticity or hardening of the arteries that accompanies the aging process, whereas atherosclerosis is a condition in which the lumen of arteries fills with fatty deposits called plaque. The two terms do not refer to the same disorder, nor can they be used interchangeably. The other responses provide the client with inaccurate information.

A client with angina pectoris must learn how to reduce risk factors that exacerbate this condition. When developing the client's care plan, which expected outcome should a nurse include?

"Client will verbalize the intention to stop smoking." Explanation: A client with angina pectoris should stop smoking at once because smoking increases the blood carboxyhemoglobin level; this increase, in turn, reduces the heart's oxygen supply and may induce angina. The client must seek immediate medical attention if chest pain doesn't subside after three nitroglycerin doses taken 5 minutes apart; serious myocardial damage or even sudden death may occur if chest pain persists for 2 hours. To improve coronary circulation and promote weight management, the client should get regular daily exercise. The client should eat plenty of fiber, which may decrease serum cholesterol and triglyceride levels and minimize hypertension, in turn reducing the risk for atherosclerosis (which plays a role in angina).

A client, who has undergone a percutaneous transluminal coronary angioplasty (PTCA), has received discharge instructions. Which statement by the client would indicate the need for further teaching by the nurse?

"I should expect a low-grade fever and swelling at the site for the next week." Explanation: Fever and swelling at the site are signs of infection and should be reported to the physician. Showers should be taken until the insertion site is healed. Prolonged sitting can result in thrombosis formation. Bruising at the insertion site is common and may take from 1 to 3 weeks to resolve.

When providing discharge instructions for a client who has been prescribed sublingual nitroglycerin for angina, the nurse should plan to include which instructions?

"See if rest relieves the chest pain before using the nitroglycerin." Explanation: Decreased activity may relieve chest pain; sitting will prevent injury should the nitroglycerin lower BP and cause fainting. The client should expect to feel dizzy or flushed or to develop a headache following sublingual nitroglycerin use. The client should place one nitroglycerin tablet under the tongue if 2-3 minutes of rest fails to relieve pain. Clients may take up to three nitroglycerin tablets within 5 minutes of each other to relieve angina. However, they should call 911 if the three tablets fail to resolve the chest pain.

When assessing a client who reports recent chest pain, the nurse obtains a thorough history. Which client statement most strongly suggests angina pectoris?

"The pain occurred while I was mowing the lawn." Decreased oxygen supply to the myocardium causes angina pectoris. Lawn mowing increases the cardiac workload, which increases the heart's need for oxygen and may precipitate this chest pain. Anginal pain typically is self-limiting, lasting 5 to 15 minutes. Food consumption doesn't reduce angina pain, although it may ease pain caused by a GI ulcer. Deep breathing has no effect on anginal pain.

A client is prescribed a nitroglycerin transdermal patch to treat angina. Which statement does the nurse include when reinforcing medication teaching to the client prior to discharge?

"The patch should be worn for 12 hours and then removed for 12 hours." Explanation: A transdermal nitroglycerin patch is prescribed for the prevention of angina pectoris. Nitroglycerin transdermal patches are typically applied for 12 to 14 hours, and then removed for the same amount of time. Though it is true that common adverse effects of nitroglycerin are headaches and contact dermatitis and that there is less demand on the heart when the client rests, these are not the reasons for applying and removing the patch for the same length of time in a 24-hour period.

The nurse is caring for a client experiencing an acute MI (STEMI). The nurse anticipates the physician will prescribe alteplase. Before administering this medication, which question is most important for the nurse to ask the client?

"What time did your chest pain start today?" Explanation: The client may be a candidate for thrombolytic (fibrolytic) therapy. These medications are administered if the client's chest pain lasts longer than 20 minutes and is unrelieved by nitroglycerin, if ST-segment elevation is found in at least two leads that face the same area of the heart, and if it has been less than 6 hours since the onset of pain. The most appropriate question for the nurse to ask is in relations to when the chest pain began. The other questions would not aid in determining whether the client is a candidate for thrombolytic therapy.

The nurse is providing discharge education for a client with angina pectoris. Which information will the nurse include when instructing the client on self-care at home? Select all that apply.

"You need to follow a low-fat, high-fiber diet." "You should keep nitroglycerin with you at all times." "Balance rest with your regular daily activities." "You need to avoid exercising in extreme temperatures." Angina pectoris is a clinical syndrome usually characterized by episodes or paroxysms of pain or pressure in the anterior chest. The cause is insufficient coronary blood flow, resulting in a decreased oxygen supply when there is increased myocardial demand for oxygen in response to physical exertion or emotional stress. The need for oxygen exceeds the supply. Teaching for the client with angina pectoris to provide self-care at home should include: following a low-fat, high-fiber diet to decrease risk of further development of atherosclerotic plaques due to high cholesterol. A high fiber diet will also aid in lowering cholesterol. The client should have access to nitroglycerin at all times, balance rest with regular daily activities, and avoid exercising in extreme temperatures since this may induce anginal pain. Normal activities at home may be too strenuous and should not be done.

A client is receiving morphine to relieve chest pain. The order is for 4 mg IV now. The pharmacy supplies morphine sulfate at 5 mg per mL. How many mL will the nurse give the client? Enter the correct number ONLY.

0.8 ml

The nurse is reviewing the results of a total cholesterol level for a client who has been taking simvastatin. What results display the effectiveness of the medication?

160-190 mg/dL Simvastatin is a statin frequently given as initial therapy for significantly elevated cholesterol and low-density lipoprotein levels. Normal total cholesterol is less than 200 mg/dL.

The nurse is teaching a client with suspected acute myocardial infarction about serial isoenzyme testing. When is it best to have isoenzyme creatinine kinase of myocardial muscle (CK-MB) tested?

4 to 6 hours after pain Explanation: Serum CK-MB levels can be detected 4 to 6 hours after the onset of chest pain. These levels peak within 12 to 18 hours and return to normal within 3 to 4 days.

A client asks the nurse how long to wait after taking nitroglycerin before experiencing pain relief. What is the best answer by the nurse?

5 minutes Explanation: Nitroglycerin may be given by several routes: sublingual tablet or spray, oral capsule, topical agent, and intravenous (IV) administration. Sublingual nitroglycerin is generally placed under the tongue or in the cheek (buccal pouch). The nurse should instruct the client to take a second dose five minutes after the first if pain persists. The nurse should instruct the client to take a third dose five minutes after the second if pain still persists. The nurse should advise the client to call 911 if pressure or pain is not releived in 15 minutes by taking 3 tablets at 5-minute intervals.

Following a percutaneous transluminal coronary angioplasty, a client is monitored in the postprocedure unit. The client's heparin infusion was stopped 2 hours earlier. There is no evidence of bleeding or hematoma at the insertion site, and the pressure device is removed. With regards to partial thromboplastin time (PTT), when should the nurse plan to remove the femoral sheath?

50 seconds or less. Explanation: Heparin causes an elevation of the PTT and, thereby, increases the risk for bleeding. With a large cannulation such as a sheath used for angioplasty, the PTT should be 50 seconds or less before the sheath is removed. Removing the sheath before the PTT drops below 50 seconds can cause bleeding at the insertion site. The other PTT results are incorrect for determining when to remove the sheath.

To be effective, percutaneous transluminal coronary angioplasty (PTCA) must be performed within what time frame, beginning with arrival at the emergency department after diagnosis of myocardial infarction (MI)?

60 min The 60-minute interval is known as "door-to-balloon time" in which a PTCA can be performed on a client with a diagnosed MI. The 30-minute interval is known as "door-to-needle time" for the administration of thrombolytics after MI. The time frame of 9 days refers to the time until the onset of vasculitis after administration of streptokinase for thrombolysis in a client with an acute MI. The 6- to 12-month time frame refers to the time period during which streptokinase will not be used again in the same client for acute MI.

Which of the following is inconsistent as a condition related to metabolic syndrome?

A diagnosis of metabolic syndrome includes three of the following conditions: insulin resistance, abdominal obesity, dyslipidemia, hypertension, proinflammatory state, and prothrombotic state.

A nurse is working with a patient who has been scheduled for a percutaneous coronary intervention (PCI) later in the week. What anticipatory guidance should the nurse provide to the patient?

A sheath will be placed over the insertion site after the procedure is finished. A sheath is placed over the PCI access site and kept in place until adequate coagulation is achieved. Patients resume activity a few hours after PCI and repeated treatments may or may not be necessary. Anticoagulants, not vitamin K, are administered during PCI.

The nurse providing care for a patient post PTCA knows to monitor the patient closely. For what complications should the nurse monitor the patient? Select all that apply.

Abrupt closure of the coronary artery Bleeding at the insertion site Retroperitoneal bleeding Arterial occlusion Complications after the procedure may include abrupt closure of the coronary artery and vascular complications, such as bleeding at the insertion site, retroperitoneal bleeding, hematoma, and arterial occlusion, as well as acute renal failure. Venous insufficiency is not a postprocedure complication of a PTCA.

The nurse provides care to a menopausal client, who states, "I read a news article that says I am at risk for coronary vascular disease due to inflammation." Which method should the nurse suggest to the client to aid in the prevention of inflammation that can lead to atherosclerosis?

Addressing obesity Explanation: The 2019 ACC/AHA Guideline on the Primary Prevention of Coronary Vascular Disease (CVD) indicates a relationship between body fat and the production of inflammatory and thrombotic (clot-facilitating) proteins. This information suggests that decreasing obesity and body fat stores via exercise, dietary modification, or developing drugs that target proinflammatory proteins may reduce risk factors for heart disease. The risk for CVD accelerates for clients after menopause due to withdrawal of endogenous estradiol levels, which can worsen many traditional CVD risk factors, including body fat distribution. Avoiding the use of caffeine, using a multivitamin, and drinking at least 2 liters of water a day are not actions that will address the prevention of inflammation that can lead to atherosclerosis.

The nurse is creating a plan of care for a patient with acute coronary syndrome. What nursing action should be included in the patients care plan?

Administer supplementary oxygen, as needed. Oxygen should be administered along with medication therapy to assist with symptom relief. Administration of oxygen raises the circulating level of oxygen to reduce pain associated with low levels of myocardial oxygen. Physical rest in bed with the head of the bed elevated or in a supportive chair helps decrease chest discomfort and dyspnea. ABGs are diagnostic, not therapeutic, and they are rarely needed on a daily basis. Chest physiotherapy is not used in the treatment of ACS.

A nurse is reevaluating a client receiving IV fibrinolytic therapy. Which finding requires immediate intervention by the nurse?

Altered level of consciousness Explanation: A client receiving fibrinolytic therapy is at risk for complications associated with bleeding. Altered level of consciousness may indicate hypoxia and intracranial bleeding, and the infusion should be discontinued immediately. Minimal bleeding requires manual pressure. Reperfusion dysrhythmias are an expected finding. A chest pain score of 2 is low and indicates the client's chest pain is subsiding, an expected outcome of this therapy.

You are writing a care plan for a patient who has been diagnosed with angina pectoris. The patient describes herself as being distressed and shocked by her new diagnosis. What nursing diagnosis is most clearly suggested by the womans statement?

Anxiety related to cardiac symptoms Although further assessment is warranted, it is not unlikely that the patient is experiencing anxiety. In patients with CAD, this often relates to the threat of sudden death. There is no evidence of confusion (i.e., delirium or dementia) and there may or may not be a spiritual element to her concerns. Similarly, it is not clear that a lack of knowledge or information is the root of her anxiety

An older adult is postoperative day one, following a coronary artery bypass graft (CABG). The client's family members express concern to the nurse that the client is uncharacteristically confused. After reporting this change in status to the health care provider, what additional action should the nurse take?

Assess for factors that may be causing the client's delirium. Explanation: Uncharacteristic changes in cognition following cardiac surgery are suggestive of delirium. Dementia has a gradual onset with organic brain changes and is not an acute response to surgery. Assessment is a higher priority than reorientation, which may or may not be beneficial. Even though delirium is not rare, it is not considered to be an expected part of recovery.

A nurse is caring for a client who is exhibiting signs and symptoms characteristic of a myocardial infarction (MI). Which statement describes priorities the nurse should establish while performing the physical assessment?

Assess the client's level of pain and administer prescribed analgesics. The cardinal symptom of MI is persistent, crushing substernal pain or pressure. The nurse should first assess the client's pain and prepare to administer nitroglycerin or morphine for pain control. The client must be medically stabilized before pulmonary artery catheterization can be used as a diagnostic procedure. Anxiety and a feeling of impending doom are characteristic of MI, but the priority is to stabilize the client medically. Although the client and family members should be kept informed at every step of the recovery process, this action isn't the priority when treating a client with a suspected MI.

A client has recently undergone a coronary artery bypass graft (CABG). The nurse should be alert to which respiratory complication?

Atelectasis Explanation: Respiratory complications that may occur include atelectasis. An incentive spirometer and the use of deep breathing exercises are necessary to prevent atelectasis and pneumonia. Elevated blood sugar levels, hyperkalemia, UTI, and are complications that can occur but are unrelated to the respiratory system.

The nurse is participating in the care conference for a patient with ACS. What goal should guide the care teams selection of assessments, interventions, and treatments?

Balancing myocardial oxygen supply with demand Balancing myocardial oxygen supply with demand (e.g., as evidenced by the relief of chest pain) is the top priority in the care of the patient with ACS. Treatment is not aimed directly at minimizing heart rate because some patients experience bradycardia. Increasing the size of the myocardium is never a goal. Reducing the myocardiums energy expenditure is often beneficial, but this must be balanced with productivity

A 48-year-old man presents to the ED complaining of severe substernal chest pain radiating down his left arm. He is admitted to the coronary care unit (CCU) with a diagnosis of myocardial infarction (MI). What nursing assessment activity is a priority on admission to the CCU?

Begin ECG monitoring. The 12-lead ECG provides information that assists in ruling out or diagnosing an acute MI. It should be obtained within 10 minutes from the time a patient reports pain or arrives in the ED. By monitoring serial ECG changes over time, the location, evolution, and resolution of an MI can be identified and monitored; life-threatening arrhythmias are the leading cause of death in the first hours after an MI. Obtaining information about family history of heart disease and whether the patient smokes are not immediate priorities in the acute phase of MI. Data may be obtained from family members later. Lung fields are auscultated after oxygenation and pain control needs are met.

A patient with an occluded coronary artery is admitted and has an emergency percutaneous transluminal coronary angioplasty (PTCA). The patient is admitted to the cardiac critical care unit after the PTCA. For what complication should the nurse most closely monitor the patient?

Bleeding at insertion site Complications of PTCA may include bleeding at the insertion site, abrupt closure of the artery, arterial thrombosis, and perforation of the artery. Complications do not include hyperlipidemia, left ventricular hypertrophy, or congestive heart failure; each of these problems takes an extended time to develop and none is emergent.

A client is receiving nitroglycerin ointment to treat angina pectoris. The nurse evaluates the therapeutic effectiveness of this drug by assessing the client's response and checking for adverse effects. Which vital sign is most likely to reflect an adverse effect of nitroglycerin?

Blood pressure 84/52 mm Hg Explanation: Hypotension and headache are the most common adverse effects of nitroglycerin. Therefore, blood pressure is the vital sign most likely to reflect an adverse effect of this drug. The nurse should check the client's blood pressure 1 hour after administering nitroglycerin ointment. A blood pressure decrease of 10 mm Hg is within the therapeutic range. If blood pressure falls more than 20 mm Hg below baseline, the nurse should remove the ointment and report the finding to the physician immediately. An above-normal heart rate (tachycardia) is a less common adverse effect of nitroglycerin. Respiratory rate and temperature don't change significantly after nitroglycerin administration.

Which is a diagnostic marker for inflammation of vascular endothelium?

C-reactive protein (CRP) CRP is a marker for inflammation of the vascular endothelium. LDL, HDL, and triglycerides are not markers of vascular endothelial inflammation. They are elements of fat metabolism.

A patient in the cardiac step-down unit has begun bleeding from the percutaneous coronary intervention (PCI) access site in her femoral region. What is the nurses most appropriate action?

Call for help and apply pressure to the access site. The femoral sheath produces pressure on the access site. Pressure will temporarily reduce bleeding and allow for subsequent interventions. Removing the sheath would exacerbate bleeding and repositioning would not halt it. CPR is not indicated unless there is evidence of respiratory or cardiac arrest.

A patient has had cardiac surgery and is being monitored in the intensive care unit (ICU). What complication should the nurse monitor for that is associated with an alteration in preload?

Cardiac tamponade Preload alterations occur when too little blood volume returns to the heart as a result of persistent bleeding and hypovolemia. Excessive postoperative bleeding can lead to decreased intravascular volume, hypotension, and low cardiac output. Bleeding problems are common after cardiac surgery because of the effects of cardiopulmonary bypass, trauma from the surgery, and anticoagulation. Preload can also decrease if there is a collection of fluid and blood in the pericardium (cardiac tamponade), which impedes cardiac filling. Cardiac output is also altered if too much volume returns to the heart, causing fluid overload.

The OR nurse is explaining to a patient that cardiac surgery requires the absence of blood from the surgical field. At the same time, it is imperative to maintain perfusion of body organs and tissues. What technique for achieving these simultaneous goals should the nurse describe?

Cardiopulmonary bypass Cardiopulmonary bypass is often used to circulate and oxygenate blood mechanically while bypassing the heart and lungs. PTCA, atherectomy, and CABG are all surgical procedures, none of which achieves the two goals listed.

A nurse is caring for a client in the cardiovascular intensive care unit following a coronary artery bypass graft. Which clinical finding requires immediate intervention by the nurse?

Central venous pressure reading of 1 The central venous pressure (CVP) reading of 1 is low (2-6 mm Hg) and indicates reduced right ventricular preload, commonly caused by hypovolemia. Hypovolemia is the most common cause of decreased cardiac output after cardiac surgery. Replacement fluids such as colloids, packed red blood cells, or crystalloid solutions may be prescribed. The other findings require follow-up by the nurse; however, addressing the CVP reading is the nurse's priority.

The nurse is assisting with a bronchoscopy at the bedside in a critical care unit. The client experiences a vasovagal response. What should the nurse do next?

Check blood pressure. Explanation: During a bronchoscopy, a vasovagal response may be caused by stimulating the pharynx, and it in turn may cause stimulation of the vagus nerve. The client may, therefore, experience a sudden drop in heart rate, leading to syncope. The nurse will need to assess blood pressure to assure circulation. Stimulation of the vagus nerve doesn't lead to pupillary dilation or bronchodilation. Stimulation of the vagus nerve increases gastric secretions.

A nurse has taken on the care of a patient who had a coronary artery stent placed yesterday. When reviewing the patients daily medication administration record, the nurse should anticipate administering what drug?

Clopidogrel Because of the risk of thrombus formation within the stent, the patient receives antiplatelet medications, usually aspirin and clopidogrel. Ibuprofen and acetaminophen are not antiplatelet drugs. Dipyridamole is not the drug of choice following stent placement.

A client had a percutaneous transluminal coronary angioplasty (PTCA). What medication will the nurse administer to prevent thrombus formation in the stent?

Clopidogrel Explanation: Because of the risk of thrombus formation following a coronary stent placement, the patient receives antiplatelet medications, such as clopidogrel or aspirin. Isosorbide mononitrate is a nitrate used for vasodilation. Metoprolol is a beta blocker used for relaxing blood vessels and slowing heart rate. Diltiazem is a calcium channel blocker used to relax heart muscles and blood vessels.

Which medication is given to clients who are diagnosed with angina but are allergic to aspirin?

Clopidogrel (Plavix) Explanation: Clopidogrel is a platelet aggregation inhibitor/antiplatelet medication. Clopidogrel or ticlopidine is given to clients who are allergic to aspirin or are given in addition to aspirin to clients who are at high risk for MI. Amlodipine, diltiazem, and felodipine are calcium channel blockers.

A patient who is postoperative day 1 following a CABG has produced 20 mL of urine in the past 3 hours and the nurse has confirmed the patency of the urinary catheter. What is the nurses most appropriate action?

Contact the patients physician and suggest assessment of fluid balance and renal function. Nursing management includes accurate measurement of urine output. An output of less than 1 mL/kg/h may indicate hypovolemia or renal insufficiency. Prompt referral is necessary. IV fluid replacement may be indicated, but is beyond the independent scope of the dietitian or nurse.

A patient presents to the walk-in clinic complaining of intermittent chest pain on exertion, which is eventually attributed to angina. The nurse should inform the patient that angina is most often attributable to what cause?

Coronary arteriosclerosis In most cases, angina pectoris is due to arteriosclerosis. The disease is not a result of impaired cardiac output or contractility. Infarction may result from untreated angina, but it is not a cause of the disease.

A client comes to the emergency department (ED) reporting precordial chest pain. In describing the pain, the client describes it as pressure with a sudden onset. What disease process would the nurse suspect in this client?

Coronary artery disease Explanation: The classic symptom of CAD is chest pain (angina) or discomfort during activity or stress. Such pain or discomfort typically is manifested as sudden pain or pressure that may be centered over the heart (precordial) or under the sternum (substernal). Raynaud syndrome in the hands presents with symptoms of hands that are cold, blanched, and wet with perspiration. Cardiogenic shock is a complication of an MI. Venous occlusive disease occurs in the veins, not the arteries.

A client is admitted for treatment of Prinzmetal angina. When developing this client's care plan, the nurse should keep in mind that this type of angina is a result of what trigger?

Coronary artery spasm. Explanation: Prinzmetal angina results from coronary artery spasm. Activities that increase myocardial oxygen demand may trigger angina of effort. An unpredictable amount of activity may precipitate unstable angina. Worsening angina is brought on by the same type or level of activity that caused previous angina episodes; anginal pain becomes increasingly severe.

A nurse is caring for a client who experienced an MI. The client is ordered to received metoprolol. The nurse understands that this medication has which therapeutic effect?

Decreases resting heart rate Explanation: The therapeutic effects of beta-adrenergic blocking agents such as metoprolol are to reduce myocardial oxygen consumption by blocking beta-adrenergic sympathetic stimulation to the heart. The result is reduced heart rate, slowed conduction of impulses through the conduction system, decreased blood pressure, and reduced myocardial contractility to balance the myocardial oxygen needs and amount of oxygen available. This helps to control chest pain and delays the onset of ischemia during work or exercise. This classification of medication also reduces the incidence of recurrent angina, infarction, and cardiac mortality. In general, the dosage of medication is titrated to achieve a resting heart rate of 50-60 bpm. Metoprolol is not administered to decrease cholesterol levels, increase cardiac output, or decrease platelet aggregation.

The nurse is administering a calcium channel blocker to a patient who has symptomatic sinus tachycardia at a rate of 132 bpm. What is the anticipated action of the drug for this patient?

Decreases the sinoatrial node automaticity Calcium channel blockers have a variety of effects on the ischemic myocardium. These agents decrease sinoatrial node automaticity and atrioventricular node conduction, resulting in a slower heart rate and a decrease in the strength of myocardial contraction (negative inotropic effect).

The public health nurse is participating in a health fair and interviews a patient with a history of hypertension, who is currently smoking one pack of cigarettes per day. She denies any of the most common manifestations of CAD. Based on these data, the nurse would expect the focuses of CAD treatment most likely to be which of the following?

Diet therapy and smoking cessation Due to the absence of symptoms, dietary therapy would likely be selected as the first-line treatment for possible CAD. Drug therapy would be determined based on a number of considerations and diagnostics findings, but would not be directly indicated. Smoking cessation is always indicated, regardless of the presence or absence of symptoms

The nurse working on the coronary care unit is caring for a patient with ACS. How can the nurse best meet the patients psychosocial needs?

Directly address the patients anxieties and fears. Alleviating anxiety and decreasing fear are important nursing functions that reduce the sympathetic stress response. Referrals to spiritual care may or may not be appropriate, and this does not relieve the nurse of responsibility for addressing the patients psychosocial needs. Treatment is not always successful, and false hope should never be fostered. Participation in rehabilitation may alleviate anxiety for some patients, but it may exacerbate it for others.

The nurse is assessing a patient with acute coronary syndrome (ACS). The nurse includes a careful history in the assessment, especially with regard to signs and symptoms. What signs and symptoms are suggestive of ACS? Select all that apply.

Dyspnea Unusual fatigue Syncope Systematic assessment includes a careful history, particularly as it relates to symptoms: chest pain or discomfort, difficulty breathing (dyspnea), palpitations, unusual fatigue, faintness (syncope), or sweating (diaphoresis). Each symptom must be evaluated with regard to time, duration, and the factors that precipitate the symptom and relieve it, and in comparison with previous symptoms. Hypotension and peripheral cyanosis are not typically associated with ACS.

A client comes to the emergency department reporting chest pain. An electrocardiogram (ECG) reveals myocardial ischemia and an anterior-wall myocardial infarction (MI). Which ECG characteristic does the nurse expect to see?

Elevated ST segment Explanation: Ischemic myocardial tissue changes cause elevation of the ST segment, an inverted T wave, and a pathological Q wave. A prolonged PR interval occurs with first-degree heart block, the least dangerous atrioventricular heart block; this disorder may arise in healthy people but sometimes results from drug toxicity, electrolyte or metabolic disturbances, rheumatic fever, or chronic degenerative disease of the conduction system. An absent Q wave is normal; an MI may cause a significant Q wave. A widened QRS complex indicates a conduction delay in the His-Purkinje system.

The nurse is developing a teaching plan for the client to address modifiable risk factors for coronary artery disease (CAD), the nurse will include which factor(s)? Select all that apply.

Elevated blood pressure Alcohol use Obesity Physical inactivity Explanation: Hypertension, obesity, hyperlipidemia, tobacco use, diabetes mellitus, metabolic syndrome, and physical inactivity are modifiable risk factors for CAD. A family history of CAD, increasing age (more than 45 years for men and more than 55 years for women), sex (men develop CAD at an earlier age than women), and race are risk factors for CAD that are nonmodifiable.

When discussing angina pectoris secondary to atherosclerotic disease with a patient, the patient asks why he tends to experience chest pain when he exerts himself. The nurse should describe which of the following phenomena?

Exercise increases the hearts oxygen demands. Physical exertion increases the myocardial oxygen demand. If the patient has arteriosclerosis of the coronary arteries, then blood supply is diminished to the myocardium. Exercise does not cause vasoconstriction or interfere with drug metabolism. Exercise does not shunt blood flow away from the heart.

The nurse has just admitted a 66-year-old patient for cardiac surgery. The patient tearfully admits to the nurse that she is afraid of dying while undergoing the surgery. What is the nurses best response?

Explore the factors underlying the patients anxiety. An assessment of anxiety levels is required in the patient to assist the patient in identifying fears and developing coping mechanisms for those fears. The nurse must further assess and explore the patients anxiety before providing interventions such as education or medications.

An OR nurse is preparing to assist with a coronary artery bypass graft (CABG). The OR nurse knows that the vessel most commonly used as source for a CABG is what?

Greater saphenous vein The greater saphenous vein is the most commonly used graft site for CABG. The right and left internal mammary arteries, radial arteries, and gastroepiploic artery are other graft sites used, though not as frequently. The femoral artery, brachial artery, and brachial vein are never harvested.

The nurse is administering oral metoprolol. Where are the receptor sites mainly located?

Heart Explanation: Metoprolol works at beta 1 -receptor sites. Most beta1-receptor sites are located in the heart. Beta2-receptor sites are located in the uterus, blood vessels, and bronchi.

The nurse is discussing risk factors for developing CAD with a patient in the clinic. Which results would indicate that the patient is not at significant risk for the development of CAD?

High-density lipoprotein (HDL), 80 mg/dL Explanation: A fasting lipid profile should demonstrate the following values (Alberti et al., 2009): LDL cholesterol less than 100 mg/dL (less than 70 mg/dL for very high-risk patients); total cholesterol less than 200 mg/dL; HDL cholesterol greater than 40 mg/dL for males and greater than 50 mg/dL for females; and triglycerides less than 150 mg/dL.

A client admitted to the coronary care unit (CCU) diagnosed with a STEMI is anxious and fearful. Which medication will the nurse administer to relieve the client's anxiety and decrease cardiac workload?

IV morphine Explanation: IV morphine is the analgesic of choice for the treatment of an acute MI. It is given to reduce pain and treat anxiety. It also reduces preload and afterload, which decreases the workload of the heart. IV nitroglycerin is given to alleviate chest pain. Administration of atenolol and amlodipine are not indicated in this situation.

In preparation for cardiac surgery, a patient was taught about measures to prevent venous thromboembolism. What statement indicates that the patient clearly understood this education?

Ill make sure that I dont cross my legs when Im resting in bed. To prevent venous thromboembolism, patients should avoid crossing the legs. Activity is generally begun as soon as possible and pillows should not be placed under the popliteal space. Compression stockings are often used to prevent venous thromboembolism, but they would not be applied when symptoms emerge.

Which is the most important postoperative assessment parameter for a client recovering from cardiac surgery?

Inadequate tissue perfusion The nurse must assess the client for signs and symptoms of inadequate tissue perfusion, such as a weak or absent pulse, cold or cyanotic extremities, or mottling of the skin. Although the nurse does assess blood glucose and mental status, tissue perfusion is the higher priority. Assessing for activity intolerance, while important later in the recovery period, is not essential in the immediate postoperative period for clients undergoing cardiac surgery.

The nurse is caring for a patient who has undergone percutaneous transluminal coronary angioplasty (PTCA). What is the major indicator of success for this procedure?

Increase in the size of the arterys lumen PTCA is used to open blocked coronary vessels and resolve ischemia. The procedure may result in beneficial changes to the patients LOC or heart rate, but these are not the overarching goals of PTCA. Increased arterial flow is the focus of the procedures.

The nurse is caring for an adult patient who had symptoms of unstable angina upon admission to the hospital. What nursing diagnosis underlies the discomfort associated with angina?

Ineffective cardiopulmonary tissue perfusion related to coronary artery disease (CAD) Ineffective cardiopulmonary tissue perfusion directly results in the symptoms of discomfort associated with angina. Anxiety and ineffective breathing may result from angina chest pain, but they are not the causes. Skin integrity is not impaired by the effects of angina.

The nurse is assessing a patient who was admitted to the critical care unit 3 hours ago following cardiac surgery. The nurses most recent assessment reveals that the patients left pedal pulses are not palpable and that the right pedal pulses are rated at +2. What is the nurses best response?

Inform the patients physician of this assessment finding. If a pulse is absent in any extremity, the cause may be prior catheterization of that extremity, chronic peripheral vascular disease, or a thromboembolic obstruction. The nurse immediately reports newly identified absence of any pulse.

A client has been recently placed on nitroglycerin. Which instruction by the nurse should be included in the client's teaching plan?

Instruct the client on side effects of flushing, throbbing headache, and tachycardia. Explanation: The client should be instructed about side effects of the medication, which include flushing, throbbing headache, and tachycardia. The client should renew the nitroglycerin supply every 6 months. If the pain is severe, the client can crush the tablet between the teeth to hasten sublingual absorption. Tablets should never be removed and stored in metal or plastic pillboxes. Nitroglycerin is very unstable and should be carried in its original container.

Preoperative education is an important part of the nursing care of patients having coronary artery revascularization. When explaining the pre- and postoperative regimens, the nurse would be sure to include education about which subject?

Intubation and mechanical ventilation Most patients remain intubated and on mechanical ventilation for several hours after surgery. It is important that patients realize that this will prevent them from talking, and the nurse should reassure them that the staff will be able to assist them with other means of communication. Teaching would generally not include symptoms of low blood pressure or hypovolemia, as these are not applicable to most patients. Teaching would also generally not include rare complications that would require graft removal.

The nurse is educating a patient diagnosed with angina pectoris about the difference between the pain of angina and a myocardial infarction (MI). How should the nurse describe the pain experienced during an MI? (Select all that apply.)

It is substernal in location. It is sudden in onset and prolonged in duration. It is viselike and radiates to the shoulders and arms. Explanation: Chest pain that occurs suddenly, continues despite rest and medication, is substernal, and is sometimes viselike and radiating to the shoulders and arms is associated with an MI. Angina pectoris pain is generally relieved by rest and nitroglycerin.

The triage nurse in the ED assesses a 66-year-old male patient who presents to the ED with complaints of midsternal chest pain that has lasted for the last 5 hours. If the patients symptoms are due to an MI, what will have happened to the myocardium?

It may have developed an increased area of infarction during the time without treatment When the patient experiences lack of oxygen to myocardium cells during an MI, the sooner treatment is initiated, the more likely the treatment will prevent or minimize myocardial tissue necrosis. Delays in treatment equate with increased myocardial damage. Despite the length of time the symptoms have been present, treatment needs to be initiated immediately to minimize further damage. Dead cells cannot be restored by any means.

An electrocardiogram (ECG) taken during a routine checkup reveals that a client has had a silent myocardial infarction. Changes in which leads of a 12-lead ECG indicate damage to the left ventricular septal region?

Leads V3 and V4 Explanation: Leads V3 and V4 record electrical events in the septal region of the left ventricle. Leads I, aVL, V5, and V6 record electrical events on the lateral surface of the left ventricle. Leads II, III, and aVF record electrical events on the inferior surface of the left ventricle. Leads V1 and V2 record electrical events on the anterior surface of the right ventricle and the anterior surface of the left ventricle.

The nurse is caring for a patient who has been diagnosed with an elevated cholesterol level. The nurse is aware that plaque on the inner lumen of arteries is composed chiefly of what?

Lipids and fibrous tissue As T-lymphocytes and monocytes infiltrate to ingest lipids on the arterial wall and then die, a fibrous tissue develops. This causes plaques to form on the inner lumen of arterial walls. These plaques do not consist of white cells, lipoproteins, or high-density cholesterol.

The nurse is providing care for a patient with high cholesterol and triglyceride values. In teaching the patient about therapeutic lifestyle changes such as diet and exercise, the nurse realizes that the desired goal for cholesterol levels is which of the following?

Low LDL values and high HDL values The desired goal for cholesterol readings is for a patient to have low LDL and high HDL values. LDL exerts a harmful effect on the coronary vasculature because the small LDL particles can be easily transported into the vessel lining. In contrast, HDL promotes the use of total cholesterol by transporting LDL to the liver, where it is excreted. Elevated triglycerides are also a major risk factor for cardiovascular disease. A goal is also to keep triglyceride levels less than 150 mg/dL. All individuals possess detectable levels of total cholesterol.

Which technique is used to surgically revascularize the myocardium?

Minimally invasive direct coronary bypass Explanation: Several techniques are used to surgically revascularize the myocardium; one of them is minimally invasive direct coronary bypass. Balloon bypass is not used to revascularize the myocardium. If the client is experiencing acute pain in the leg, peripheral bypass is performed. Gastric bypass is a surgical procedure that alters the process of digestion.

Which discharge instruction for self-care should the nurse provide to a client who has undergone a percutaneous transluminal coronary angioplasty (PTCA) procedure?

Monitor the site for bleeding or hematoma. The nurse provides certain discharge instructions for self-care, such as monitoring the site for bleeding or the development of a hard mass indicative of hematoma. A nurse does not advise the client to clean the site with disinfectants or refrain from sexual activity for 1 month.

The ED nurse is caring for a patient with a suspected MI. What drug should the nurse anticipate administering to this patient?

Morphine The patient with suspected MI is given aspirin, nitroglycerin, morphine, an IV beta- blocker, and other medications, as indicated, while the diagnosis is being confirmed. Tylenol, warfarin, and oxycodone are not typically used.

Severe chest pain is reported by a client during an acute myocardial infarction. Which of the following is the most appropriate drug for the nurse to administer?

Morphine sulfate (Morphine) Explanation: Morphine sulfate not only decreases pain perception and anxiety but also helps to decrease heart rate, blood pressure, and demand for oxygen. Nitrates are administered for vasodilation and pain control in clients with angina-type pain, but oral forms (such as isosorbide dinitrate) have a large first-pass effect, and transdermal patch is used for long-term management. Meperidine hydrochloride is a synthetic opioid usually reserved for treatment of postoperative or migraine pain.

An adult patient is admitted to the ED with chest pain. The patient states that he had developed unrelieved chest pain that was present for approximately 20 minutes before coming to the hospital. To minimize cardiac damage, the nurse should expect to administer which of the following interventions?

Morphine sulphate, oxygen, and bed rest The patient with suspected MI should immediately receive supplemental oxygen, aspirin, nitroglycerin, and morphine. Morphine sulphate reduces preload and decreases workload of the heart, along with increased oxygen from oxygen therapy and bed rest. With decreased cardiac demand, this provides the best chance of decreasing cardiac damage. NSAIDs and beta-blockers are not normally indicated. Albuterol, which is a medication used to manage asthma and respiratory conditions, will increase the heart rate

A female patient is being seen in the ER complaining of fatigue and shoulder blade discomfort. She is also short of breath. Based on these symptoms, what will the nurse suspect?

Myocardial infarction (MI) Explanation: Women often present with symptoms different from those seen in men, therefore a high level of suspicion is associated with vague complaints such as fatigue, shoulder blade discomfort, and/or shortness of breath. The clinical manifestations noted are not consistent with DVT, stroke, or intracerebral hemorrhage.

A nurse reviews a client's medication history before administering a cholinergic blocking agent. Adverse effects of a cholinergic blocking agent may delay absorption of what medication?

Nitroglycerin Explanation: A cholinergic blocking agent may cause dry mouth and delay the sublingual absorption of nitroglycerin. The nurse should offer the client sips of water before administering nitroglycerin. Amantadine, digoxin, and diphenhydramine can interact with a cholinergic blocking agent but not through delayed absorption. Amantadine and diphenhydramine enhance the effects of anticholinergic agents.

While receiving a heparin infusion to treat deep vein thrombosis, a client reports bleeding in the gums when brushing teeth. What should the nurse do first?

Notify the health care provider. Explanation: Because heparin can cause bleeding gums that may indicate excessive anticoagulation, the nurse should notify the health care provider, who will evaluate the client's condition. The health care provider should order laboratory tests such as partial thromboplastin time before concluding that the client's bleeding is significant. The ordered heparin dose may be therapeutic rather than excessive, so the nurse shouldn't discontinue the heparin infusion unless the health care provider orders this after evaluating the client. Protamine sulfate, not a coumarin derivative, is given to counteract heparin. Heparin doesn't normally cause bleeding gums.

An ED nurse is assessing an adult woman for a suspected MI. When planning the assessment, the nurse should be cognizant of what signs and symptoms of MI that are particularly common in female patients? Select all that apply.

Numbness Weakness Although these symptoms are not wholly absent in men, many women have been found to have atypical symptoms of MI, including indigestion, nausea, palpitations, and numbness. Shortness of breath, chest pain, and anxiety are common symptoms of MI among patients of all ages and genders.

The nurse is providing an educational workshop about coronary artery disease (CAD) and its risk factors. The nurse explains to participants that CAD has many risk factors, some that can be controlled and some that cannot. What risk factors would the nurse list that can be controlled or modified?

Obesity, inactivity, diet, and smoking The risk factors for CAD that can be controlled or modified include obesity, inactivity, diet, stress, and smoking. Gender and family history are risk factors that cannot be controlled.

The nurse is caring for patient who tells the nurse that he has an angina attack beginning. What is the nurses most appropriate initial action?

Place the patient on bed rest in a semi-Fowlers position When a patient experiences angina, the patient is directed to stop all activities and sit or rest in bed in a semi-Fowlers position to reduce the oxygen requirements of the ischemic myocardium. Pursed-lip breathing and standing will not reduce workload to the same extent. No need to have the patient put his head between his legs because cerebral perfusion is not lacking.

A patient presents to the ED in distress and complaining of crushing chest pain. What is the nurses priority for assessment?

Prompt initiation of an ECG The 12-lead ECG provides information that assists in ruling out or diagnosing an acute MI. It should be obtained within 10 minutes from the time a patient reports pain or arrives in the ED. Each of the other listed assessments is valid, but ECG monitoring is the most time dependent priority.

The nurse is caring for a client following a coronary artery bypass graft (CABG). The nurse notes persistent oozing of bloody drainage from various puncture sites. The nurse anticipates that the physician will order which medication to neutralize the unfractionated heparin the client received?

Protamine sulfate Explanation: Protamine sulfate is known as the antagonist for unfractionated heparin (it neutralizes heparin). Alteplase is a thrombolytic agent. Clopidogrel is an antiplatelet medication that is given to reduce the risk of thrombus formation after coronary stent placement. The antiplatelet effect of aspirin does not reverse the effects of heparin.

A nurse is educating a client with coronary artery disease about nitroglycerin administration. The nurse tells the client that nitroglycerin has what actions? Select all that apply.

Reduces myocardial oxygen consumption Dilates blood vessels Decreases ischemia Relieves pain Explanation: Nitroglycerin dilates blood vessels and reduces the amount of blood returning to the heart, which reduces the workload of the heart and myocardial oxygen consumption. As the dilated vessels allow more blood supply to the heart, ischemia and pain are reduced. Nitroglycerin does not affect the urge to use tobacco.

A patient with cardiovascular disease is being treated with amlodipine (Norvasc), a calcium channel blocking agent. The therapeutic effects of calcium channel blockers include which of the following?

Reducing the hearts workload by decreasing heart rate and myocardial contraction Calcium channel blocking agents decrease sinoatrial node automaticity and atrioventricular node conduction, resulting in a slower heart rate and a decrease in the strength of the heart muscle contraction. These effects decrease the workload of the heart. Antiplatelet and anticoagulation medications are administered to prevent platelet aggregation and subsequent thrombosis, which impedes blood flow. Beta-blockers reduce myocardial consumption by blocking beta-adrenergic sympathetic stimulation to the heart. The result is reduced myocardial contractility (force of contraction) to balance the myocardium oxygen needs and supply. Nitrates reduce myocardial oxygen consumption, which decreases ischemia and relieves pain by dilating the veins and, in higher doses, the arteries.

The nurse is caring for a client presenting to the emergency department (ED) reporting chest pain. Which electrocardiographic (ECG) finding would be most concerning to the nurse?

ST elevation Explanation: The first signs of an acute MI are usually seen in the T wave and the ST segment. The T wave becomes inverted; the ST segment elevates (it is usually flat). An elevated ST segment in two contiguous leads is a key diagnostic indicator for MI (i.e., ST-elevation MI). This client requires immediate invasive therapy or fibrinolytic medications. Although the other ECG findings require intervention, elevated ST elevations require immediate and definitive interventions.

A nurse is assigned to care for a recently admitted client who has been diagnosed with refractory angina. What symptom will the nurse expect the client to exhibit?

Severe, incapacitating chest pain Explanation: Intractable or refractory angina produces severe, incapacitating chest pain that does not respond to conventional treatment

A client reports chest pain that occurs when playing tennis but resolves when sitting down. The nurse knows these symptoms are common for which type of angina?

Stable Explanation: Angina is usually caused by atherosclerotic disease and most often is associated with a significant obstruction of at least one major coronary artery. Normally, the myocardium extracts a large amount of oxygen from the coronary circulation to meet its continuous demands. When demand increases, flow through the coronary arteries needs to be increased. When there is a blockage in a coronary artery, flow cannot be increased and ischemia results. There are different types of angina. Stable angina is predictable and consistent pain that occurs on exertion and is relieved by rest or nitroglycerin. This is the type of angina the client is describing. Variant angina is pain at rest with reversible ST-segment elevation and is thought to be caused by a spasm of a coronary artery. In unstable angina, the symptoms increase in frequency and severity and may not be relieved with rest or nitroglycerin. Intractable angina pectoris causes severe incapacitating chest pain.

The nurse is caring for a patient who is believed to have just experienced an MI. The nurse notes changes in the ECG of the patient. What change on an ECG most strongly suggests to the nurse that ischemia is occurring?

T wave inversion T-wave inversion is an indicator of ischemic damage to myocardium. Typically, few changes to P waves occur during or after an MI, whereas Q-wave changes with no change in the ST or T wave indicate an old MI.

The client is prescribed nadolol for hypertension. What is the reason the nurse will teach the client not to stop taking the medication abruptly?

The abrupt stop can cause a myocardial infarction. Patients taking beta blockers are cautioned not to stop taking them abruptly because angina may worsen and myocardial infarction may develop.

A nurse is evaluating a client who had a myocardial infarction (MI) 7 days earlier. Which outcome indicates that the client is responding favorably to therapy?

The client demonstrates ability to tolerate more activity without chest pain. The ability to tolerate more activity without chest pain indicates a favorable response to therapy in a client who is recovering from an MI or who has a history of coronary artery disease. The client should have a normal electrocardiogram with no arrhythmias and a regular heart rate of 60 to 100 beats/minute. Smoking is a cardiovascular risk factor that the client must be willing to eliminate. A client who responds favorably to therapy shouldn't have chest pain.

The nurse is working with a patient who had an MI and is now active in rehabilitation. The nurse should teach this patient to cease activity if which of the following occurs?

The patient experiences chest pain, palpitations, or dyspnea Any activity or exercise that causes dyspnea and chest pain should be stopped in the patient with CAD. Heart rate must not exceed the target rate, but an increase above resting rate is expected and is therapeutic. In most patients, a respiratory rate that exceeds 30 breaths/min is not problematic. Similarly, oxygen saturation slightly below 96% does not necessitate cessation of activity.

When assessing a patient diagnosed with angina pectoris it is most important for the nurse to gather what information?

The patients symptoms and the activities that precipitate attacks The nurse must gather information about the patients symptoms and activities, especially those that precede and precipitate attacks of angina pectoris. The patients coping, understanding of the disease, and status following attacks are all important to know, but causative factors are a primary focus of the assessment interview.

Family members bring a patient to the ED with pale cool skin, sudden midsternal chest pain unrelieved with rest, and a history of CAD. How should the nurse best interpret these initial data?

The symptoms indicate an acute coronary episode and should be treated as such. Angina and MI have similar symptoms and are considered the same process, but are on different points along a continuum. That the patients symptoms are unrelieved by rest suggests an acute coronary episode rather than angina. Pale cool skin and sudden onset are inconsistent with a pulmonary etiology. Treatment should be initiated immediately regardless of diagnosis.

A patient with angina has been prescribed nitroglycerin. Before administering the drug, the nurse should inform the patient about what potential adverse effects?

Throbbing headache or dizziness Headache and dizziness commonly occur when nitroglycerin is taken at the beginning of therapy. Nervousness, paresthesia, drowsiness, blurred vision, tinnitus, and diplopia do not typically occur as a result of nitroglycerin therapy.

In the treatment of coronary artery disease (CAD), medications are often ordered to control blood pressure in the client. Which of the following is a primary purpose of using beta-adrenergic blockers in the nursing management of CAD?

To decrease workload of the heart Beta-adrenergic blockers are used in the treatment of CAD to decrease the consumption of myocardial oxygen by reducing heart rate and workload of the heart. Nitrates are used for vasodilation. Anti-lipid drugs (such as statins and B vitamins) are used to decrease homocysteine levels. ACE inhibitors inhibit the conversion of angiotensin.

The client has had biomarkers tested after reporting chest pain. Which diagnostic marker of myocardial infarction remains elevated for as long as 2 weeks?

Troponin Explanation: Troponin remains elevated for a long period, often as long as 2 weeks, and it therefore can be used to detect recent myocardial damage. Myoglobin peaks within 12 hours after the onset of symptoms. Total creatine kinase (CK) returns to normal in 3 days. CK-MB returns to normal in 3 to 4 days.

When a client who has been diagnosed with angina pectoris reports experiencing chest pain more frequently, even at rest, that the period of pain is longer, and that it takes less stress for the pain to occur, the nurse recognizes that the client is describing which type of angina?

Unstable Explanation: Unstable angina is also called crescendo or preinfarction angina and indicates the need for a change in treatment. Intractable or refractory angina produces severe, incapacitating chest pain that does not respond to conventional treatment. Variant angina is described as pain at rest with reversible ST-segment elevation and is thought to be caused by coronary artery vasospasm. Intractable or refractory angina produces severe, incapacitating chest pain that does not respond to conventional treatment.

Which term refers to preinfarction angina?

Unstable angina Explanation: Preinfarction angina is also known as unstable angina. Stable angina has predictable and consistent pain that occurs upon exertion and is relieved by rest. Variant angina is exhibited by pain at rest and reversible ST-segment elevation. Silent angina manifests through evidence of ischemia, but the client reports no symptoms.

The nurse knows that women and older adult are at greater risk for a fatal myocardial event. Which factor is the primary contributor of this cause?

Vague symptoms Explanation: Often, women and elderly do not have the typical chest pain associated with a myocardial infarction. Some report vague symptoms (fatigue, abdominal pain), which can lead to misdiagnosis. Some older adults may experience little or no chest pain. Gender is not a contributing factor for fatal occurrence but rather a result of symptoms association.

The nurse is caring for a patient who is scheduled for cardiac surgery. What should the nurse include in preoperative care?

With the patient, clarify the surgical procedure that will be performed. Preoperatively, it is necessary to evaluate the patients understanding of the surgical procedure, informed consent, and adherence to treatment protocols. Teaching would begin on admission or even prior to admission. The physician would write orders to alter the patients medication regimen if necessary; this will vary from patient to patient. Fears should be addressed directly and empathically

Which nursing actions would be of greatest importance in the management of a client preparing for angioplasty?

Withhold anticoagulant therapy. Explanation: The nurse knows to withhold the anticoagulant therapy to decrease chance of hemorrhage during the procedure. The nurse does inform the client of diagnostic test, will assess pulses, and prep the skin prior to the angioplasty, but this is not the most important action to be taken.

A client is admitted to the emergency department with chest pain and doesn't respond to nitroglycerin. The health care team obtains an electrocardiogram and administers I.V. morphine. The health care provider also considers administering alteplase. This thrombolytic agent must be administered how soon after onset of myocardial infarction (MI) symptoms?

Within 6 hours Explanation: For the best chance of salvaging the client's myocardium, a thrombolytic agent must be administered within 6 hours after onset of chest pain or other signs or symptoms of MI. Sudden death is most likely to occur within the first 24 hours after an MI. Health care providers initiate I.V. heparin therapy after administration of a thrombolytic agent; it usually continues for 5 to 7 days.

The nurse is explaining the cause of angina pain to a client. What will the nurse say most directly caused the pain?

a lack of oxygen in the heart muscle cells Angina pectoris refers to chest pain that is brought about by myocardial ischemia. It is the result of cardiac muscle cells being deprived of oxygen due to the progressive symptoms of coronary artery disease. Artery blockage or closure leads to myocardial death. The destroyed part of the heart (death of heart tissue) is a myocardial infarction.

The nurse is caring for a client after cardiac surgery. What laboratory result will lead the nurse to suspect possible renal failure?

a serum BUN of 70 mg/dL These four laboratory results should always be assessed after cardiac surgery. Serum osmolality (N = >800 mOsm/kg) should also be included. A BUN reading of greater than 21 mg/dL is abnormal; a reading of greater than 60 mg/dL is indicative of renal failure. Urine output needs to be greater than 30 mL/hr. Normal urine specific gravity is 1.005-1.030. Normal serum creatinine values are between 0.5-1.2 mg/dL.

The laboratory values for a client diagnosed with coronary artery disease (CAD) have just come back from the lab. The client's low-density lipoprotein (LDL) level is 112 mg/dL. The nurse recognizes that this value is

above the optimal range. Explanation: If the fasting LDL level ranges from 100 mg/dL to 130 mg/dL, it is considered above the optimal range. The ideal is to decrease the LDL level below 100 mg/dL (< 70 mg/dL for very high-risk patients).

The nurse is caring for a ventilated client after coronary artery bypass graft surgery. What are the criterions for extubation for the client? Select all that apply.

adequate cough and gag reflexes acceptable arterial blood gas values breathing without assistance of the ventilator Explanation: Before being extubated, the client should have cough and gag reflexes and stable vital signs; be able to lift the head off the bed or give firm hand grasps; have adequate vital capacity, negative inspiratory force, and minute volume appropriate for body size; and have acceptable arterial blood gas levels while breathing without the assistance of the ventilator. Inability to talk is expected when intubated with an endotracheal tube.

The nurse is beginning discharge teaching with a client diagnosed with a myocardial infarction (MI). The nurse will include teaching on what medications? Select all that apply.

atorvastatin enalapril aspirin Explanation: Upon client discharge, there needs to be documentation that the client was discharged on a statin (atorvastatin), an ACE or angiotensin receptor blocking agent (enalapril), and aspirin. Morphine is used to reduce the client's pain and anxiety. Sildenafil is a medication used for pulmonary hypertension.

A client who has been diagnosed with Prinzmetal's angina will present with which symptom?

chest pain that occurs at rest and usually in the middle of the night Explanation: A client with Prinzmetal's angina will complain of chest pain that occurs at rest, usually between 12 and 8:00 AM, is sporadic over 3-6 months, and diminishes over time. Clients with stable angina generally experience chest pain that lasts 15 minutes or less and may radiate. Clients with Cardiac Syndrome X experience prolonged chest pain that accompanies exercise and is not always relieved by medication. Clients with unstable angina experience chest pain of increased frequency, severity, and duration that is poorly relieved by rest or oral nitrates.

The nurse is caring for a client with coronary artery disease. What is the nurse's priority goal for the client?

enhance myocardial oxygenation Explanation: Enhancing myocardial oxygenation is always the first priority when a client exhibits signs or symptoms of cardiac compromise. Without adequate oxygen, the myocardium suffers damage. A nurse administers sublingual nitroglycerin to treat acute angina pectoris, but its administration isn't the first priority. Although educating the client and decreasing anxiety are important in care, neither is a priority when a client is compromised.

A client's lipid profile reveals an LDL level of 122 mg/dL. This is considered a:

high LDL level. LDL levels above 100 mg/dL are considered high. The goal is to decrease the LDL level below 100 mg/dL. Normal values: Total cholesterol < 200 LDL <70 HDL > 60 optimal Triglycerides <150

The nurse is reviewing the laboratory results for a client diagnosed with coronary artery disease (CAD). The client's low-density lipoprotein (LDL) level is 115 mg/dL. The nurse interprets this value as

high. Explanation: Treatment of blood cholesterol to reduce cardiovascular risk in adults calls for a fasting lipid profile to demonstrate an LDL value below 100 mg/dL (or less than 70 mg/dL for very high-risk clients). An LDL level of 115 mg/dL is higher than the target for treatment.

The nurse is caring for a client who is having chest pain associated with a myocardial infarction (MI). What medication will the nurse administer intravenously to reduce pain and anxiety?

morphine sulfate Explanation: The patient with suspected MI should immediately receive supplemental oxygen, aspirin, nitroglycerin, and morphine. Morphine is the drug of choice to reduce pain and anxiety. It also reduces preload and afterload, decreasing the work of the heart. Fentanyl, hydromorphone, and codeine sulfate are opioids but do not reduce preload and afterload.

The nurse is admitting a client with an elevated creatine kinase-MB isoenzyme (CK-MB). What is the cause for the elevated isoenzyme?

myocardial necrosis An increase in CK-MB is related to myocardial necrosis. An increase in total CK might occur for several reasons, including brain injuries such as cerebral bleeding; skeletal muscle damage, which can result from I.M. injections or falls; muscular or neuromuscular disease; vigorous exercise; trauma; or surgery.

The nurse is assessing a client with suspected post-pericardiotomy syndrome after cardiac surgery. What manifestation will alert the nurse to this syndrome?

pericardial friction rub Explanation: Post-pericardiotomy syndrome is characterized by fever, pericardial pain, pleural pain, dyspnea, pericardial effusion, pericardial friction rub, and arthralgia. Leukocytosis (elevated WBCs) occurs, along with elevation of the ESR. Hypothermia is not a symptom of post-pericardiotomy syndrome.

The nurse is caring for a client after cardiac surgery. What is the most immediate concern for the nurse?

potassium level of 6 mEq/L Explanation: Changes in serum electrolytes should be immediately reported, especially a potassium level of 6 mEq/L. An elevated blood sugar is common postoperatively, and the weight gain is not significant. The abnormal breath sounds are of concern, but the electrolyte imbalance is the most immediate condition that needs to be addressed.

A client presents to the ED with a myocardial infarction. Prior to administering a prescribed thrombolytic agent, the nurse must determine whether the client has which absolute contraindication to thrombolytic therapy?

prior intracranial hemorrhage Explanation: History of a prior intracranial hemorrhage is an absolute contraindication for thrombolytic therapy. An allergy to iodine, shellfish, radiographic dye, and latex are of primary concern before a cardiac catheterization but not a known contraindication for thrombolytic therapy. Administration of a thrombolytic agent with heparin increases risk of bleeding; the primary healthcare provider usually discontinues the heparin until thrombolytic treatment is completed.

A client was chopping firewood and experienced a heaviness in the chest and dyspnea. The client arrives in the emergency department four hours after the heaviness and the health care provider diagnoses an anterior myocardial infarction (MI). What orders will the nurse anticipate?

sublingual nitroglycerin, tissue plasminogen activator (tPA), and telemetry Explanation: The nurse should anticipate an order for sublingual nitroglycerin, tPA, and telemetry, as the client's chest pain began 4 hours before diagnosis. The preferred choice is tPA, which is more specific for cardiac tissue than streptokinase. Stress testing shouldn't be performed during an MI. The client doesn't exhibit symptoms that indicate the use of lidocaine.